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Module-II
Module-II
Module-II
Module - II
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
CONTENTS
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY
2. Evolution -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 66
MATHEMATICS
9. Probability---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 163
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
PHYSICS
CHAPTER - 01
SOURCES OF ENERGY
Energy
Energy is the ability to do work. Energy comes in different forms and one form can be converted into
another form. Total energy during a physical or chemical process is conserved
Sources of Energy
A source of energy is one which provide adequate amount of energy in a convenient form over a long
period of time
A good source of energy should be
be easy accessible
be economical
The conventional sources of energy are non-renewable by any natural process. These resources are
available in limited quantity
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This is a turbine for generating electricity. It have one moving part a rotor-black assembly. The
moving fluid acts on the blade to spin them and impart energy to the rotor. Due to the rotation of rotor
blade, the shaft of dynamo would turn and convert the mechanical energy into electrical energy
2. Thermal power plant
The steam produced by burning fossil fuels runs the turbine to produce electricity. Here electricity
transmission is very efficient. The term thermal power plant is used since fuel is burnt to produce heat
energy which is conveted into electrical energy
3. Hydro power plants
Hydro power plants convert the potential energy of falling water into electricity. It uses the kinetic
energy of flowing water or the potential energy of water at a height. Hydro power plants are associated
with dams. Quarter of energy requirement in India is met by hydro power plants
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
In hydroelectric power plant, water is stored at a height in reservoirs provided with gates. These gates
are opened and water is allowed to flow where its potential energy gets converted into kinetic energy.
This energy rotates the blade of turbines which is further coupled to a generator. When the coil of the
armature of the generator rotates, electric energy is produced.
The advantages of hydel energy are
1) Pollution free
2) Dams help to control floods
Disadvantages are
i) Construction of dams much a lot of investment
ii) Conventional source of energy
iii) Dams can placed in limited number of places
iv) Large eco-system will destroyed
v) The vegetation under water produce methane gas which is a green house gas
4. i) Biomass
It is the waste material produced by living beings and the dead. These fuels do not produce much heat
on burning and a lot of smoke is given out when they are burnt
ii) Biogas
It is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and fraces of hydrogen sulphide. It is produced
due to anerobic fermentation of biomass
In the plant, cow dung and slurry is mixed in equal proportion and is fed into the digester tank where it
is left for a few days. In the digester, fermentation takesplace that is bacteria or microorganisms produce
enzymes, that in anerobic condition start converting it into simple substance. Along with the simple
substance, biogas is produced which starts collecting in the dome. As the volume of gas collected
increases, at pushes the usual slurry into overflow tank and with time, it is again filled with slurry and
process goes on occuring. We can take the gas out from the pipe and use it for various purposes
Biogas contain 75% methane. It burns without smoke, hearer no residue like ash in wood, charcol and
coal burning. The heating capacity is very high. The slurry left behind is a good manure
5. Wind energy
Moving air is called wind. It is produced due to uneven heating of earth’s surface by the sun. The
energy can also be used to generate electricity
Kinetic energy of wind is used in running of windmills. The output of a single wind mill is quite small so
a number of windmills are erected overa large area called wind energy farm. The minimum speed for
wind mill to serve as a source of enrgy is 15-20 kmph
Advantages
i. Eco-friendly
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Dis advantages
i) Wind farm need large area of land
ii) Difficult in getting wind speed of 15-20 kmph
iii) Initial cost is very high
iv) High level maintenence is needed for the blades
Non -Conventional sources of energy
Due to demand of energy increases, we need another sources of energies than conventional energy
sources. The main non-conventional energy sources are
Solar energy
The energy obtained from sun is called solar energy. Only a small part of solar energy reaches the
outer layed of the earth’s atmosphere
During a year India receives the solar energy equivalent to more than 5000 trillion kwh. Under clear sky
condition the daily average varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
Solar constant
The solar energy reaching unit area at outer edge of the earth’s atmosphere exposed perpendicularly
to the rays of the sun at an average distance between the sun and the earth is known as solar
constant
Its value is approximately 1.4 KJ/sec-m2 or 1.4 kw/m2
Activity 14.5
Take two conical flasks and paint one white and the other black, fill both with water. Place the flasks in
direct sun light. After some time while touching the conical flask, we feel that the black painted flask is
hotter because under identical conditions black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or
reflecting surface. Solar cookers and solar heaters uses this property in their working
Activity 14.6
Study the structure and working of a solar cooker or a solar water heater
Black surfaces absorb more sun light hence solar cookers are coating with black colour
They use reflecting surfaces like mirrors to focus the sun’s rays
The device is covered with a glass plate thereby establishing the green house effect by trapping heat
inside the cooker
Advantages
i) Eco friendly
ii) Renewable
Dis advantages
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Solar cell
The limitations of solar cooker and solar water heater is overcome by using solar cells
A solar cell is a device that convert solar energy into electrical energy. A typical solar cell produces a
voltage of 0.51V and 0.7W of power. A large number of such cells can combine to form a solar panel
wich can generate large power
Advantages
i) Require little maintanence
ii) Can be set up in remote areas without the hassle and expenses at transmission lines
Disadvantages
i) It requires a special grade silicon which not easily available
ii) Usage of silver for interconnection make it expensive
Solar cells are used in traffic signals, calculation, artificial satellites space probes, TV relay station or
Radio station in remote areas
2. Energy from Sea
i) Tidal energy
The tidal energy possessed by water during tides. The tides are caused due to gravitational force of
attraction exerted by the moon on water of the ocean. This form of energy is harnessed by constructing
a dam across a narrow opening to the sea. A turbine fixed at the opening of the dam converts tidal
energy into electricity
ii) Wave energy
The waves are generated by the strong winds that blows across the sea. The kinetic energy of this
moving water rotates the turbine of a generator. The main limitation is that when strong winds stop
blowing, the generator stops producing electricity
iii) Ocean thermal energy
The water at the surface of the sea or ocean is heated by the sun while the water in deeper sections
is relatively cold. The difference in temperature is exploited to obtain energy is ocean-thermal-energy-
conversion plants. These plants works only when the temperature difference between water surface
and water at a depth of 2km should be 20°C or more. The warm surface water is used to boil liquid
ammonia. The vapours of the liquid are used to run the turbine of genertor. The cold water is pumped
up to condense the vapour into liquid
3. Geothermal energy
Energy harnessed from the heat of earth is called geothermal energy. Molten rocks and hot gases are
called magma which is formed when heat melts the rocks
The magma gets collected at some depths below the earth’s surfaces, those places are called hot
spots
When underground water comes in contact these hot spots, it changes into steam, which can used to
generate electricity
Some times hot water from hot spots finds outlets at the surface, such outlets are known as hot
springs
Advantages
i) Renewable
ii) Eco friendly
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Disadvantages
i) Expensive
ii) Only few sites available for harnessing energy
4. Nuclear energy
The energy released when some changes takesplace in the nucleus of an atom of a substance is
called nuclear energy nuclear energy is of two types
1) Nuclear fission
The reaction in which energy is released when a bigger nucleus splits into two or more lighter nuclei
ie the energy released per fission is 200 MeV. But generatly, the fission reaction is uncontrolled due to
which its energy cannot be used for constructive purpose. Controlled nuclear fission generate useful
energy, which is used in nuclear power station. The released energy can be used to produce steam
and further generate electricity
In nuclear fission, the difference in mass in between orginal nucleus and the product nuclei gets
converted into energy E by mass energy relation of Einstein
ie E mc 2
where c is the speed of light
The major hazard of nuclear power generation is the storage and disposal of spent or used fuels.
Improper nuclear waste storage and disposal result in environmental contamination
2) Nuclear fusion
Fusion means joining of lighter nuclei to make a heavier nucleius, usually hydrogen or hydrogen
isotopes to create helium. It releases a huge amount of energy
2
1 H 12 H 32 He 10 n Heat
Fusion needs very very high temperature and pressure. Hydrogen bomb is based on this penomenon.
Nuclear fusion is the source of energy in the sun and other stars
Main advantages of nuclear fusion are the production of large amount of useful energy from a very
small amount of nuclear fuel and it does not produce green house gases.
The major limitations are environmental contamination due to improper nuclear wastage and its disposal,
high cost of installation
Environmental consequences
Expoliting any source of energy is disturbs the environment in some way or the other. In any situation,
the source we could choose depend an factors such as the case of extracting energy from that source
the efficiency of the technology available, the economics of extracting energy from the source and the
environmental damage caused by the source.
Some sources are very harmful to the nature, they causes very serious environmental damages so
clean fuels like CNG and pollution free sources like solar energy will use more in coming decades that
will cause for damage through out this life.
Also we cannot depend on the fossil fuels for much longer. Such sources will get depleted some day
are said to be exhaustible source or non-renewable sources of energy.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following is not a bio-mass energy source ?
A) gobar gas B) coal C) wood D) nuclear energy
2. India exploded her first underground nucleas device at
A) Ranchi B) Kota C) Jaipur D) Pokhran
3. The solar water heater cannot be used to ger hot water on
A) Sunny day B) cloudy day C) got day D) windy day
4. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy ?
A) wood B) sun C) Fossil fuels D) wind
5. Fuel used in thermal power plant is
A) water B) biomass C) Solar energy D) fossil fuels
6. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy ?
A) water B) sun C) uranium D) Fossil fuels
7. Ocean thermal energy is due to
A) energy stored by waves of ocean
B) pressure difference at different levels in ocean
C) temperature difference in different levels in ocean
D) tides arising out in the ocean
8. The main constituent of biogas is
A) methane B) CO2 C) hydrogen D) hydrogen sulphate
9. Which of the given is the odd one out
a) Petrileum B) Hydro electricity
C) Coal D) CNG
10. The rise of sea water during high tide is caused by the gravitational pull of the
A) sun B) Earth C) Moon D) Mars
11. What is the energy equivalant of 1 atomic mass unit ?
A) 93.1 Mev B) 9.31 Mev C) 1 Mev D) 931 Mev
12. The process by which energy is produced in the sun is
A) nuclear fussion B) nuclear fusion
C) both fission and fusion D) Combustion of hydrogen
13. Biogas is formed in the
A) presence of air only B) presence of water only
C) absence of air only D) presence of water and absence of air
14. Which element is used in solar cells ?
A) Carbon B) Silicon C) Phosphorous D) Sulphur
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER - 01
METALS AND NON METALS
Elements can be classified as metals or non-metals on the basis oftheir properties. Both metals and
non-metals have so many uses in our daily life.
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF METALS AND NON-METALS
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2Cu O 2 2CuO
4Al 3O 2 2Al 2 O 3
Different metals react with oxygen at different rates. Metals like sodium, potassium, etc react vigorously
with oxygen.
Nature of metal oxides:
Almost all metal oxides are basic in nature. But some other metal oxides like Aluminium oxide, zinc
oxide, etc show acidic as well as basic nature. Such metal oxides are termed as amphoteric oxides.
Na 2 O s H 2 O 2NaOH aq
Anodising:
It is an electrolytic process for producing thick oxide coatings. It is usually done on aluminium and its
alloys. The oxide layer is typically 5 to 30µm in thickness. This process can be used to give improved
surface resistance to wear and corrosion, or as a decorative layer. During this process, a clean
aluminium article is made the anode and is electrolysed with dilute H2SO4
2. Reaction with water
Some metals react with water and produce metal oxide and hydrogen gas. The metal oxides that are
soluble in water dissolve in it to further form metal hydroxide.
Metal + water ' Metal oxide
Metal Oxide + water ' Metal Hydroxide
Some metals react violently even with cold water. For example, sodium and potassium react vigorously
with water and large amount of heat energy is evolved.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Ca s 2H 2 O Ca OH 2 aq H 2 g
Magnesium metal does not react with cold water. Instead react with hot water to produce Mg (OH)2
and Hydrogen gas.
Even though both metals Calcium and Magnesium are heavier than water, they may float on the surface
of water. Because the hydrogen bubbles formed will get attached on the surface of these metal pieces.
Metals like aluminium, iron and zinc do not react either with cold or hot water. But they react with steam
to form the metal oxide and hydrogen.
( 2AIs 3H 2 O g AI 2 O3 g 3H 2 g
3Fe s 4H 2 O g Fe3 O 4 s 4H 2 g
Zn s H 2 O g ZnOs H 2 g
Metals such as lead, copper, silver and gold do not react with water at all.
Thus, the order of reactivity of different metals towards water may be written as:
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > Cu > Ag > Au
3. Reaction with dilute acids
Metals react with dilute acids to give a salt and hydrogen gas.
Metal Dilute acid Salt Hydrogen
Mg 2HCl MgCl 2 H 2
Zn H 2SO 4 ZnSO 4 H 2
Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. This is because of the strong oxidising
nature of HNO3. It oxidises the H2 produced in towater and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen
oxides (N2O, NO,NO2). But magnesium (Mg) and manganese (Mn) react with very diluteHNO3 to
evolve H2 gas.
Some metals like copper, gold, silver, etc are known as noble metals. Because these do not react with
water or dilute acids.
The reactivity of metals towards dilute hydrochloric acid or sulphuric acid is in the order;
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu > Hg > Ag
In the case of copper, when it is reacted with dilute HCl, no bubbles were seen and the temperature
also remained unchanged. This shows that copper does not react with dilute HCl.
Aqua regia:
In Latin language, it means 'Royal water'. It is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric
acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1.
It can dissolve gold in it, even though neither of these acids can do so alone. It is a highly corrosive,
fuming liquid. It is one of the few reagents that is able to dissolve gold and platinum.
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It is observed that some reactive metals can displace less reactive metals from their compounds in
solution or molten form.
It is a list of metals arranged in the order of their decreasing reactivities. Reactivity of elements decreases
on moving from top to bottom in the given reactivity series.
It is clear from the reactivity series, copper, gold, and silver are at the bottom and hence, these are
least reactive. These metals are known as Noble metals. Potassium is at the top of the series and
hence, most reactive. Reactivity of some metals are given in descending order:
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Na Na 1e
Mg Mg 2 2e
Anions:
These are negative ions. Anions are formed by gaining of electrons. Usually, non-metals form negative
ions.
Cl 1e Cl
O 2e O 2
Formation of an ionic bond
Ionic bonds are formed due to the transfer of electrons from metal to non-metal. During this, metals
get positive charge because of release of electrons and non-metal gets negative charge because of
acceptance of electrons. In other words, bond formed between positive and negative ion is called Ionic
Bond.
Formation of Sodium Chloride
If sodium and chlorine were to react, the electron lost by sodium could be taken up by chlorine.After
gaining an electron, the chlorine atom gets a unit negative charge (Cl-),because its nucleus has 17
protons and there are 18 electrons in its K, Land M shells. So, both these elementscan have a give-
and-take relation between them.
Na Na 1e
2,8,1 2,8
(Sodium Cation)
Cl + le Cl
2,8,7 2,8,8
Chloride ion
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Sodium and chloride ions attract each other and are held by strong electrostatic forces of attraction to
exist as sodium chloride (NaCl). Sodium chloride does not exist as molecules but aggregates of
oppositely charged ions.
Formation of Magnesium Chloride
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1. Enrichment of ore
Involves the removal of impurities, such as soil, sand, stone, silicates, etc. from mined ore. Such
impurities are called gangue. Process of concentration depends upon physical and chemical properties
of ores. Gravity separation, electromagnetic separation, froth flotation process, etc. are the processes
used for concentration of ores.
2. Conversion of Concentrated Ore in to Crude Metal
First, convert metal ores into corresponding metal oxides. Because it is easy to obtain metals from
their oxides. Ores found in the form of sulphide and carbonates are first converted to their oxides by
the process of calcination and roasting. Oxides of metals so obtained are converted into metals by the
process of reduction.
i) Calcination
It involves heating of carbonate ores in the limited supply of air to convert them into oxides.
ii. Roasting
Sulphide ores are heated in the presence of excess air to convert them into oxides.
Metals ate the bottom of the reactivity series are very less reactive. Such metal oxides can be reduced
in to metals by heating alone.
Examples:
1. Mercury
The ore of mercury is cinnabar (HgS). When it is heated in air, Mercuric oxide (HgO) is formed. On
further heating, HgO is reduced in to Hg.
2HgSs 3O 2 g 2HgO s SO 2 g
2. Copper
Copper is found as Cu2S in nature. It can be obtained from its ore by just heating in air.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
ZnCO 3 ZnO CO 2
ZnO C Zn CO (ZnO is reduced using Carbon to get Zn metal)
Extraction of Iron
Ores:
Haematite (Fe2O3)
Haematite ore is heated with carbon to get reduced to iron metal.
Fe 2 O3 3C 4Fe 3CO 2
Extraction of lead
Ore :
Lead Oxide (PbO)
Lead oxide ore is heated with carbon to get reduced to lead.
2PbO C 2Pb CO 2
Besides using carbon (coke) to reduce metal oxides to metals,sometimes displacement reactions
can also be used. Some metals can displace metals of lower reactivity from theircompounds ( for
example Na, Ca, Al, etc)
Reduction of Metal oxide by Heating with Aluminium:
Manganese dioxide and copper oxide are reduced to respective metals when heated with aluminium.
3MnO 2 4Al 3Mn 2Al2 O 3
Fe 2 O 3 s 2Al s Al 2 O 3 s Heat
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Electrolytic Reduction
In this method, electric current is passed through the molten state of metal ores. Metal being positively
charged is deposited over the cathode.
Example:
When an electric current is passed through molten state or solution of sodium chloride, sodium metal
gets deposited over the cathode.
At cathode: Na e Na
At Anode: 2Cl 2Cl 2e
Aluminium is also obtained by the electrolytic reduction ofaluminium oxide.
3. Refining or purification of metals
Metals extracted from various methods contains some impurities. So, they are required to be refined.
Electrolytic refining is most commonly used.
In this process, a lump of impure metal and a thin strip of pure metal are dipped in the salt solution of
metal to be refined. An electric current is passed through the solution. Then pure metal is deposited
over a thin strip of pure metal from a lump of impure metal. Here, impure metal is used as anode and
pure metal is used as a cathode.The soluble impurities go into the solution, whereas, the insoluble
impurities settle down at the bottom of the anode and are known as anode mud.
Example:
Electrolytic Refining of Copper
A lump of impure copper metal and a thin strip of pure copper are dipped in the solution of copper
sulphate. Impure lump of metal is connected with the positive pole and thin strip of pure metal is
connected with negative pole. When electric current is passed through the solution, pure metal from
anode moves towards cathode and is deposited over it. Impurities present in metal are settled near the
bottom of anode in the solution.
Cu 2e Cu 2
Cu 2 2e Cu
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Corrosion
The reaction of metals with atmospheric air leads to the formation of a layer over the metal. As time
passes, the underlying layer of metal keeps on getting lost due to conversion into oxides or sulphides
or carbonate, etc. As a result, the metal gets eaten up. This process is called Corrosion.
Rusting of Iron:
Oxygen and water play a major role in rusting of iron. It can be prevented by preventing the interaction
between atmospheric moisture and the iron article. This can be done by painting, greasing, galvanization,
electroplating, alloying, etc
Alloys:
An alloy is ahomogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a nonmetal.It is prepared by
first melting the primary metal, and then,dissolving the other elements in it in definite proportions. It is
then cooledto room temperature. Several types of alloys are present.
Ferrous alloys: These alloys contain iron (Fe) as a major component.
For example: manganese steel (Fe = 86%; Mn = 13%; C = 1%) and Nickle steel (Fe = 98%; Ni = 2%)
Non-ferrous alloys: Here, iron may not be present.
For example: Brass (Cu = 80%; Zn = 20%), and Bronze (Cu = 90%; Sn = 10%)
Amalgams: These are alloys in which mercury (Hg) is present. For example, Sodium amalgams [Na (Hg)]
and Zinc amalgams [Zn (Hg)]
Advantages of Alloying:
1. Alloys are stronger and harder than the metal from which they are obtained.
2. The melting point of alloys is lower than the constituent metals.
Example: Solder [Sn (80%) + Pb (50%)] has lower m. p. than ordinary Pb and Sn.
3. Alloys van show more resistance to corrosion
4. Alloys show poor electrical conductivity than constituent metals
Examples of Alloys:
1. Alloys of Gold: Pure gold is said to be of 24 carats. Gold is alloyed with a small amount of silver or
copper to make it hard. Generally, in India, 22 carat gold is used for making ornaments. It means that
22 parts of pure gold is alloyed with 2 parts of either copper or silver.
2. Brass: [80% Cu + 20% Zn]
3. Bronze: [90% Cu + 20% Sn]
4. Solder: [50% Pb + 50% Sn]
5. Duralumin: [95% Al + 4% Cu + 0.5% Mg + 0.5 Mn]
6. German Silver: [60% Cu + 20% Zn + 20% Ni]
7. Steel: [99.95% Fe + 0.05% C]
8. Stainless steel: [74% Fe + 18% Cr + 8% Ni]
9. Magnalium: [95% Al + 5% Mg]
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QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following metals will melt at body temperature: gallium, magnesium, caesium,
aluminium?
Ans: Gallium (29.770C and Caesium (28.50C) will be melt at human body temperature (370C). But
Magnesium (6490C) and Aluminium(6600C) will not melt at body temperature.
2. Name any two metals which react violently with cold water. Write any three observations you would
make when such a metal is dropped into water. How would you identify the gas evolved, if any?
Ans: Na and K react violently with cold water.
Observations when these metals dipped in to cold water:
(i) Emission of bubbles
(ii) Combustion of emitted gas
(iii) Increase in temperature of the reaction mixture
Evolved gas is hydrogen. We can identify this by showing a burning candle near the mouth of the test
tube. Then it will burn with a "pop" sound. This is an identification test for Hydrogen gas.
3. Give reasons for the following
(a) Sodium metal is kept immersed in kerosene
(b) Blue colour of copper sulphate solution disappears when some aluminium powder is added in it.
(c) Reverse of the reaction is not possible. Justify
Answer:
(a) Sodium metal is so reactive that it reacts vigorously with the oxygen (of air). It catches fire and
starts burning when kept open in the air. Sodium metal is stored under kerosene oil to prevent its
reaction with oxygen, moisture and carbon dioxide of air.
(b) When aluminium powder is put in copper sulphate solution, then the blue colour of copper sulphate
solution
Since Al is more reactive than Cu, it displaces Cu from CuSO4 solution and forms colourless Al2(SO4)3.
C) Cu is less reactive than Al in the activity series. Therefore, less reactive metal (Cu) does not
displace more reactive metal (Al) from its salt solution. Thus, reverse of this reaction is not possible.
4. What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric oxides from- Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, NO2
Ans: Amphoteric oxides are those which can react with acid and base and produce salt and water.
Here, ZnO and Al2O3 are amphoteric oxides. Because both can react with acids and bases.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Ans :
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11. From amongst the metal sodium, calcium, aluminium, copper and magnesium name the metal
(i)Which reacts with water only on boiling
(ii) Which does not react even with steam
Ans: (i) Magnesium is the metal which reacts with water only on boiling.
Mg s H 2 O hot MgO s H 2 g
Zn 2NaOH Na 2 ZnO 2 H 2
Zn 2HCl ZnCl 2 H 2
The produced gas is hydrogen. It can be identified by showing a burning candle near the mouth of the
test tube. If hydrogen gas is emitting, it will burn with a "pop" sound
13. During the extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used to get pure metals.
(a) Which materials are used as anode and cathode for refining of Copper metal by this process?
(b) Suggest a suitable electrolyte also
(c) In this electrolytic cell, where do we get pure copper after passing electric current?
Ans : (a) Impurecopper metal is used as anode and pure copper metal is used as a cathode
(b) Copper sulphate solution
(c) Pure copper metal is deposited over the thin strip of pure copper from a lump of impure copper.
14. Why is it important, converting metal sulphides and carbonates into oxides during the process of
extraction of metal from them?
Ans : It is easier to obtain metals from their oxides (by reduction) than from carbonate or sulphide
ores. So, before reduction the ore must be converted into metal oxide.
Calcination: method by which a carbonate ore is converted into oxide
Roasting: method by which a sulphide ore is converted into oxide
Calcination or roasting is done depending on the nature of ore
Example for calcination:
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
16. A metal 'M' is found in nature as its carbonate. It is used in the galvanization of iron. (a) Identify 'M' and
name its ore.
(b) How will you convert this ore into free metal?
Ans:
(a) 'M' = Zinc metal
Zinc occurs as Zinc Carbonate in calamine ore, ZnCO3.
(b) Zinc can be extracted from the ore by:
(i) Zinc Carbonate is first converted into Zinc Oxide by calcination. When calamine ore (zinc carbonate)
is heated strongly in the absence of air, it decomposes to form zinc oxide and carbon dioxide.
(ii) Zinc metal is then extracted from zinc oxide by reduction with carbon (coke).
17. Heera took reddish-brown coloured metal, used in electrical wires. She powdered this metal and
heated strongly in an open china dish. She observed that its colour turns black. When hydrogen gas
is passed over this black substance, it regains its original colour. Based on the above information
answer the following questions:
(i) Name the metal and the black coloured substance formed.
(ii) Write balanced chemical equations for both the reactions.
Ans:
When copper is heated strongly in air, it combines with oxygen to form Copper (II) oxide, a black
oxide.
CuO H 2 H 2 O Cu
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18. Even though, Ca is denser than water, it starts floating when dropped in water. Give reason for this
Ans :
Calcium reacts with water less violently than other reactive metals. When it reacts with water, hydrogen
gas is evolved. Even though it is an exothermic reaction, the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen
to catch fire. The reaction occurring is:
Ca s 2H 2 O I Ca OH 2 aq H 2 g
The bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of the metal. As hydrogen is very lighter
than water, it will try to move upward along with the metal piece.
19. Define the term "Metallurgy". What are the major processes in volved in metallurgy?
Ans:
The term "Metallurgy" corresponds to the various processes involved in the extraction of metals from
their ores and their refining.
The major processes involved in the process of metallurgy are:
(i) Concentration of ore
(ii) Conversion of ore into its metal oxide
(iii) Reduction of oxides of ores into metal.
(iv) Refining of impure metal
20. Differentiate between the following with suitable examples
(i) Malleability and ductility
(ii) Mineral and ore
(iii) Corrosion and rancidity
Ans:
(i) The property which allows the metals to be made into thin sheets is called malleability. But the
property which allows the metals to be drawn into thin wires is called ductility.
Gold and silver are the best malleable metals. Also, gold is the most ductile metal.
(ii) The naturally occurring substances in which the metals or their compounds are called minerals.
But those minerals from which the metals can be extracted conveniently and profitably are called
ores.
(iii) The tarnishing of the metals by the attack of moisture, oxygen and other acidic oxides in the air is
called corrosion. But rancidity is the oxidation of fats and oils present in the food on exposure to
atmosphere. As a result of rancidity, the smell and taste of the food changes.
21. Some metals can be used for making cooking utensils. For example, Aluminium. Which among the
following properties make Aluminium to make it useful for making cooking utensils?
(i) Ductility (ii) High melting point
(iii) Good electrical conductivity (iv) Good thermal conductivity
A) i and ii B) ii, iii and iv C) ii and iv D) Only iv
Ans: C
Hint: The metal which we use for making cooking utensils should have high melting point and good
thermal conductivity.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
(iv) Cu Zn SO 4 CuSO 4 Zn
The possible reactions are
A) i, ii and iv B) i and iii C) ii and iv D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: B
Hint: Only a reactive metal can displace less reactive metal from its compounds
25. Iron frying pans may undergo rusting. Which of the following can prevent iron frying pans from rusting?
A) Applying Grease B) Applying Paint
C) Applying coating of Zinc D) Kept immersed in water
Ans: C
Hint: Application of Grease and paint on iron articles may prevent rusting. But here, in the case of
frying pan, we cannot use those methods. Water is a promoter of rusting.
26. An element X reacted with oxygen to form a compound. When this compound is dissolved in water,
the resultant solution changed red litmus to blue. The element is likely to be
A) Sodium B) Carbon C) Hydrogen D) Nitrogen
Ans: A
Hint: When sodium is reacted with oxygen, sodium oxide is formed. When this metal oxide is dissolved
in water, corresponding alkaline solution, sodium hydroxide solution is obtained. This made the red
litmus blue.
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27. In India, gold used for making ornaments is 22 carat. Now, 22 carat gold means
A. 22 parts of pure gold is alloyed with 2 parts of either copper or silver
B. 20 parts of pure gold is alloyed with 2 parts of either copper or silver
C. 18 parts of pure gold is alloyed with 4 parts of either copper or silver
D. 21 parts of pure gold is alloyed with 1 parts of either copper or silver
Ans: A
28. An alloy is ahomogeneous mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a nonmetal. Which of the
following is not an alloy?
A) Steel B) Duralumin C) Magnalium D) Milk of Magnesia
Ans: D
Hint: Aqueous solution of Mg(OH)2 is termed as milk of magnesia
29. Platinum, Gold and Silver are used to make Jewelry. This is because
A) These metals are less reactive B) They are not affected by most of the chemicals
C) These have lot of lusture D) These have all the above properties
Ans: D
Hint: The metals which are used for making jewelry should be least reactive, having shining surfaces,
and easily moldable.
30. Aqua regia is also called Royal water. Its composition is
A) Hydrochloric acid and nitric acid in 3:1 ratio
B) Nitric acid and Hydro chloric acid in 3:1 ratio
C) Nitric acid and Sulphuric acid in 3:1 ratio
D) Nitric acid and sulphuric acid in 3:1 ratio
Ans: A
Hint:Aqua regia, (Latin for 'royal water') is a freshly prepared mixture of concentratedhydrochloric
acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1.Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
CHAPTER - 02
PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
All the substances in the universe are formed by the classification of elements. Till now, about 118
elements are known to us. All these have different properties. Out of these 118, only 94 are naturally
occurring
The periodic table
“The periodic table is a tabular method of displaying the elements in such a way, that the elements
having similar properties occur in the same vertical column or group”.
1. Lavoisier
Lavoisier made the first attempt to classify elements. There were only about 30 elements in his time.
He classified them into metals and non-metals
2. Dobereiner’s Triads
In the year 1817, Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner a German chemist, tried to arrange the elements with
similar properties into groups. He arranged the known elements in the increasing order of their atomic
masses, the atomic mass of the middle element is approxiately the arithmetic mean of the other two.
Such a group of three elements is called “TRIAD”
Examples of Triads
7 39
1. 7
Li 23 Na 39 K 23
2
3.
35.5
35.5 126.9
79.9 126.9
Cl Br I 81.2
2
Limitation
This law is applicable to only few elements
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7 9 11 12 14 16 19
Li Be B C N O F
23 24 27 29 31 32 35.5
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl
39 40
K Ca
Limitations
1. It was applicable to only lighter elements having atomic weight upto 40U
2. Newlands placed two elements in the same slot to fit elements in the table. He also placed unlike
elements under the same slot
4. Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev (1869) Russian chemist
Mendeleev’s periodic law
The physical and chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic weight
Mendeleev published a table of 63 elements in 8 vertical columns called (groups) and 7 horizontal
rows called (series)
Merits of Mendeleev’s periodic table
1. The first comprehensive and exclusive classification
2. It helped correction of atomic masses of a few elements
9
eg: 4 Be
3. It helped prediction of properties of undiscovered elements.
4. Stimulated research and discovery of new elements
eg: Ga Eka Aluminium
Ge Eka Silicon
Sc Eka Boron
Tc Eka Manganese
Demerits of Mendeleev’s periodic table
1. Position of hydrogen in the periodic table is uncertain
2. No clear distinction between metals, metalloids and non-metals
3. Dissimilar elements grouped together
4. No room for isotopes
5. Anomalous pairs of elements, violating the increasing order of atomic masses
eg: Ar and K (39.95–39.09)
Co and Ni (58.93–58.69)
Te and I (127.64–126.9)
Th and Pa (232.03–231)
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Example: 11 Na
Electronic configuration : 2,8,1
Number of shells : 3
Period number : 3
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Example : 3 Li 2,1
Number of valence electrons = 1
Group number = 1
4 Be 2,2
Number of valence electrons = 2
Group number = 2
2. For p-block elements
Number of valence electrons +10
Example : 5 B 2,3
Number of valence electrons = 3
Group number = 3 + 10 = 13
7 N 2,5
Number of valence electrons = 5
Group number = 5 + 10 = 15
Position of Hydrogen in the periodic table
Position of hydrogen in the periodic table is still under debate. It shows similarities with alkali metals
and halogens. But in most of the periodic tables, it is placed just above the first group. Hydrogen is
given as the first element because of its atomic number as 1
Various families of elements
Based on the common characteristics of elements in each group, they can be grouped in to different
families. They are
Group number Family
1 Alkali metals
2 Alkaline earth metals
3 to 12 Transition elements
13 Boron Family
14 Carbon family
15 Nitrogen family
16 Oxygen family
17 Halogens
18 Noble gases
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Representative elements
Include elements of group 1,2 and also elements from group 13 to 18
These elements show periodicity in filling of electrons in their atoms
They contain 1 to 8 electrons in their outermost shell
Noble Gases:
Elements of 18th group have 8 electrons in their valence shell
These elements do not undergo any chemical reactions
They are called inert elements
All are gases and that is why the name noble gases
Eg: He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn, etc
Transition elements
Include elements from group 3 to 12
These are metals
They form coloured compounds
The properties of these elements are similar along group as well as period
Inner Transition elements
Include elements from atomic number 57 to 71 in 6th period and from 89 to 103 in 7th period
These elements are given a separate position
These two sets are given as two rows of 14 elements each
Lanthanoids and actionoids
Inner transition elements from atomic number 57 to 71 are collectively called lanthanoids
These include elements from Cerium (Ce58) to Lutetium (Lu71)
Inner transition elements from atomic number 89 to 103 are collectively called lanthanoids
These include elements from Thorium (Th90) to Lawrencium (Lr103)
Lanthanoids are also called rare earths
Actinoids coming after Uranium are also called transuranic elements and these are artificial
Types of elements in modern periofic table
The modern periodic table is a collection of various types of elements. These include
A) Metals
These are electropositive elements
They release electrons and form bonds
Generally, oxides of metals are basic
B) Non-Metals
These are electronegative elements
They accept or share their valence electrons to form bonds
Generally, oxides of non-metals are acidic
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C) Metalloids
These elements show properties of both metals and non-metals
For example -Boron, silicon, germanium, arsenic, antimony, tellurium and polonium
Periodic trends in properties of elements
1. Valency
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost
shell of its atom
eg : peroid 2 : 3 Li 4 Be 5 B 6 C 7 N 8 O 9 F 10 Ne
E.C. : 2,1 2, 2 2,3 2, 4 2,5 2,6 2,7 2,8
Valency :1 2 3 4 5or 3 2 1 0
In a group
On going down in a group valency of an element remains same
Eg: Alkali metals (group I) elements have valency = 1 because their outermost shell contains 1 electron
2. Atomic size
The term atomic size refers to the radius of an atom. The atomic size may be visualised as the
distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an isolated atom. The atomic
radius of hydrogen atom is 37pm (picometer, 1pm 10 12 m )
Variation of atomic radii in a period
There is an increase in nuclear charge of elements from left to right in a period
This may lead to an increase in force of attraction of nucleus towards the valence electrons
Atomic size decreases from left to right along a period
eg: Period 2 Li Be B C N O F
Atomic radius(pm) 152 111 88 77 74 66 64
Variation of atomic radii in a group
Gp 1 Li Na K Rb Cs
Atomic radius(pm) 152 186 231 244 262
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
From left to right in a period metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases
eg:period 2: Li Be B C N O F
Most non-metallic
Most metallic
From top to bottom in a group metallic character increases because size of an atom increases
eg: group 1 : Li
Na
K
Rb
Cs
most metallic
4. Ionization energy:
It is the minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an
isolated gaseous atom
Usually, metals have lower ionizaiton energies and non-metals have higher ionization energies
5. Electronegativity
Electronegativity increases from left to right in a period, as the tendency to gain electrons in the valence
shell increases due to increasing nuclear charge
Electronegativity decreases from top to bottom in a group, as the distance between the nucleus and
valence shell increases
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QUESTIONS
A) C B) Li C) Be D) Mg
3. According to Dobereiner’s triads, the atomic weight of the middle element was the
6. According to Mendeleev’s periodic law, the physical and chemical properties of elements are the
periodic functions of their
7. Total number of periods and groups in modern periodic table are respectively
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
15. Upto which element, the law of octaves was found to be applicable
16. Cl, Br, I, if this is Dobereiner’s triad and the atomic masses of Cl and I are 35.5 and 127 respectively
the atomic mass of Br is
17. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, gaps were left for many elements. Pick any one out of them
A) Li B) Na C) Mg D) K
20. The elements A,B,C,D,E have atomic numbers 9,11,17,12 and 13. Which elements belong to the
same group?
21. Which of the given elements A,B,C,D and E with atomic numbers 2,3,7,10 and 30 belong to the
same period ?
22. Where would you locate the element with electronic configuration 2,8 in modern periodic table?
23. An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belongs to...
24. Which one will have the maximum number of valence electrons?
A) Na B) Al C) Si D) P
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A) Metals B) Non-metals
27. Arrange the following elements in order of their increasing non metallic character Li, O, C, Be, F?
A) F O C Be Li B) Li Be C O F
C) F O C Be Li D) F O Be C Li
28. Arrange the following elements in order of their icreasing metallic character Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al?
A) Cl Si Al Mg Na B) Na Mg Al Si Cl
C) Na Al Mg Cl Si D) Al Na Si Ca Mg
A) Na B) F C) Mg D)Al
A) Increases B) Decreases
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
BIOLOGY
CHAPTER - 01
Nutrition, Respiration, Reproduction, Excretion etc. are the life process of an organism
Reproduction is a process by which a living organism produces a new individuals of their own kind and
maintain their existence generation to generation.
The beneficial characteristic from parent to their offsprings are transferred by the process of reproduction
and helps in the course of evolution.
The genetic material DNA (Genes are made of DNA) found in the chromosomes, present in the nucleus,
responsible for all characters of an individual including physiological process.
A child (offspring) looks similar to their parents at least in some characters because
the child inherits two copies of DNA (One from mother & the other from father).
DNA is the source of information for making proteins. Any change in the information leads to production
of different proteins, which ultimately lead to altered body designs.
Basic event in reproduction is DNA replication (production of DNA copies in a reproducing cell).
When the cell divides into two, each cell gets a copy of each DNA of the chromosome along with the
whole cellular apparatus
Complete accuracy in DNA copying leads to exactly identical cells but any error (mutation) can lead to
dissimilar cells or variations. Variations may be beneficial/harmful, such as some diseases.
DNA copying in sexually reproducing organisms produces variations, which give better survival
advantages to the species. It is the basis of evolution.
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Variations:-
Variation is the change in the characters of an individuals which has not existed in their parents
Organisms occupy well defined places, or niches, in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce.
The consistency of DNA copying during reproduction is important for the maintenance of body design
features. It allows the organism to use that particular niche.
Variations helps in the adaptation to particular environment and give them a chance of survival.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
2. Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual?-Page # 128
Species occupy well-defined spaces in the ecosystem, called niches (immediate environment) by
increasing their population through reproduction.
Sometimes the environmental conditions change drastically, such as an increase in temperature, may
cause a threat to the survival of the species in that niche (environment)
If the species have variations within the population, some of the variants might be able to adapt with the
change, and these variants will survive, and the other individuals with no desirable variations will die.
Thus, these variants help in the survival of species. But, not all variations are beneficial for individual
organisms
Example (Thermophilic bacteria):-If the temperature of water increases suddenly, most of the bacteria
living in that water would die. Only few variants that are resistant to heat would be able to survive. Such
bacteria are called thermophilic bacteria. If these variants were not there, then the entire population of
bacteria would have been destroyed. Thus variants help in the survival of the species. However, all
variations are not necessarily beneficial for the individual organisms.
Because DNA (Gene) passes genetic information from parents to their offspings, and determines the
body design of an individual.
The reproducing cell produce a copy of DNA by DNA replication and forms two copies of DNA.
The copying of DNA takes place along with the creation of additional cellular structures. It is followed
by division of a cell to form two cells.
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1. Fission:-
It is the simplest form of reproduction, in which unicellular organisms either divides into two or many
organisms
A. Binary fission:-
It is a type of fission in which nucleus divides first (Karyokinesis) followed by cytoplasmic division
(Cytokinesis), to form two daughter cells (Individuals)
(i) Irregular binary fission:-Eg:-Amoeba
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Euglena & Leishmania possess a whip like locomotory structure called Flagellum
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Nucleus divides several times to form many nuclei, and little cytoplasm around each daughter nuclei.
Then the multinucleated body divides into many daughter cell (Merozoites).
When the condition become favorable the daughter cells come out by breaking the protective cyst.
2. Budding:- Eg:-Yeast (Unicellular) & Hydra (Multicellular)
Daughter individual is formed from a small projection of parent body (Bud), is called budding.
In yeast chain of buds are formed, then separates from the parental body.
In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site. These
buds develop into tiny individuals and obtain nourishment from the parental body. When it fully mature,
tiny individual detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals
3. Regeneration:-Eg:-Planarian, Hydra
The process of getting back a full organism from the body parts of the present individual is called
regeneration. Regeneration is carried out by specialised cell
Planaria (Flat worm)
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Hydra
Regeneration is not same as reproduction, because in certain organism only the part of the organism
is regenerated.
Eg:-Tail of lizard is regenerated (But the cut off tail is not regenerated to form new individual)
Starfish have the ability to regenerate an arm when they lose one.
4. Fragmentation:-Sponges, spirogyra
If the individual is cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals,
is called fragmentation.
5. Sporulation (Spore formation):- Eg:- Fungi - Rhizopus (Bread mould)
During this process a tiny bulb - on - a - stick structures formed are called Sporangium. Nucleus
divides several times and each nucleus with a little cytoplasm forms Spores.The spores are covered
by thick walls (Cyst) and liberated out and develop into new hyphae. When contact with another moist
surface and can begin to grow.
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Vegetative propagation:-
This is an asexual method of reproduction in plants, where vegetative parts namely root, stem and
leaves give rise to new plant
(A) Natural vegetative propagation:-
Plants reproduce without the help of human beings
By leaves:-Adventitious buds produced in the notches along the margin of leaves. Then the buds fall
on the soil and develops into new plant. Eg:-Bryophyllum
By Stem:- In many plants, underground stems produce aerial shoots annually under favorable conditions.
Eg:- Potato, Ginger, Onion, Elephant yam, Colacasia
Potato Ginger
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
First we have to scrap/remove cells/tissue from the growing tip of the plant.
The cells are then placed in an artificial medium where they divide rapidly to form a small group of cells
called callus
The callus is transferred to another medium containing hormones for growth and differentiation.
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The plantlets are then placed in the soil so that they can grow into mature plants.
It is a rapid, cheap and easy method of reproduction for the multiplication of plants.
Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits more than those produced from
seeds.
The propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that have lost the capacity to
produce seeds
4. Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some types of plants?---Page # 133
It helps to introduce plants in new areas where seed germination fails to produce mature plants due to
changes in environmental factors and the soil. It is a more rapid, easier, and cheaper method.
Vegetative propagation is practiced for growing plants which usually do not produce seeds or produce
non-viable seeds. (Eg:-Banana, orange, rose and jasmine)
Moreover, all plants produced through vegetative propagation are genetically similar to the parent plant.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
An organism is benefited by reproducing through the spores because spores are surrounded by a
thick layer (Cyst) which protects them in adverse conditions. When the favourable conditions occur,
these spores start to grow again. In this way they are successfully live in unfavourable conditions.
Spores are very light weight and they easily get dispersed through winds which give them more variations
and thus better chances of survival.
7. Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through
regeneration?---Page # 133
In complex multicellular organisms, specialised cells make up tissues, tissue make up organs, organs
make up organ systems and finally organ systems make up organisms. Since complex multicellular
organisms have a very high degree of organisation in their body, they cannot be reproduced from their
cut body parts by the process of regeneration.
Eg:-A dog is a complex multicellular organism which cannot be regenerated from its cut body part say,
a cut tail. This is because the cells present in the cut tail of a dog cannot produce dog's organs like
heart, brain, lungs, stomach, intestines and limbs, etc, needed for the making of a complete dog.
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Unisexual flower:-
If a flower contains either stamens (Male) or carpel (Female) is known as unisexual flower.
Eg:-Papaya, Watermelon
Bisexual flower:-
If stamen and carpel are seen in same flower is called Bisexual flower.
Eg:-Hibiscus, Mustard
Non-essential parts of flower:-
Calyx-Green in colour, protects the flower bud. Individual units are called Sepals
Corolla-Individual units are called Petals. Corolla attracts insects for pollination
Essential Parts (Reproductive part):-
Androecium/Stamens (Male part)-It consists of anther & filament. Stamens produces pollen grains
and placed in anther.
Each pollen grains produces two male gametes / male germ cells
Gynoecium/Carpel/Pistil (Female part) - Stigma, Style and Ovary together constitute carpel
1. Ovary:-Is a swollen basal part of the carpel, in which ovules are located and each ovule contains an
embryo sac that bears a haploid egg cell (Female gamete)
2. Style:- Is the middle part of carpel through which pollen tube travels.
3. Stigma:- Is the apical part of carpel and it receives pollen grains.
Pollination:-
Process in which pollen grains are transferred from ripe anther to stigma of the same flower / to
different flower of the same plant / or to another plant of same species is called pollination.
1. Self-pollination:-It is the transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma of the same flower.
Eg:-Pea
2. Cross-pollination:-It is the transfer of pollen grains from one flower to another flower.
Eg:-Mango
Agencies of pollination
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Fertilization:-
It is the process of fusion of male and female gamete, which takes place in the embryosac present in
the ovule.
After pollination, pollen grains germinate on the stigma to form a pollen tube
The nucleus in the pollen tube divides to form two male gametes.
Pollen tube penetrates the stigma and passes through the style and enters the ovule through micropyle
The second male gamete fuse with two polar nuclei to form endosperm, which nourishes the zygote.
Then the zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule
The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.
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Then the petals, sepals, stamens and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
In tomato, brinjal, strawberry, the sepals (calyx) of flower persists in the fruit.
Germination:-
The seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions.
This process is known as germination.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Pollination Fertilisation
Fertilisation occurs when the male
The fransfer of pollen grains from the anther
gamete present in pollen grain joins
1 of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called 1
with the female gamete (or egg)
pollination
present in ovule
It takes place by natural or artificial
2 It takes place by various pollinating agents 2
means
Human beings are bisexual with two separate sexes - Male & Female
The male & female show distinctive features called secondary sexual characteristics.
The age at which the gametes and sex hormones to be produced and the boy & girl become sexually
mature is called puberty.
Reproductive organs grow and start functioning. (Testes & Penis - occasionally erect in day dreams /
at night)
Widening of shoulder
Secondary sexual characters develop in Girls - by the influence of sex hormone (Estrogen)
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The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum
The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5° C lower than the normal
internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.
Each lobule contains 1 to 3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules (Structural and functional unit of
testis) in which sperms are produced.
2. Acessory ducts:-
The sperms formed in testis (seminiferoustubule) are delivered through the vas deferens which unites
with a tube coming from the urinary bladder (urethra). So the urethra is a common passage for both
the sperms and urine. Hence it is called Urinogenital duct
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
The secretions of these glands provides easy transport & nutrition to sperm
Structure of sperm (Spermatozoa):-
Sperm consists of Head, Neck, Middle piece and Tail. Head consists of haploid nucleus and has
genetic material (DNA)
It has long tail which helps them to move towards the egg, through female genital tract
Middle piece has spirally arranged mitochondria, which provides energy for the movement of sperm
10. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland?----Page # 140
(i) Both seminal vesicle and prostate gland secretes fluids which forms a part of the semen. The fluid
secreted from seminal vesicle forms 60% of semen while the fluid secreted from the prostate gland
forms 30% of the semen. It makes the path smooth through which the sperms travel.
(ii) This fluid protects the sperms from the acids present in the urethra.
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(iii) This fluid provides nutrition to sperms in the form of fructose, calcium and some enzymes.
(iv) Secretion of Bulbo urethral glands lubricates the penis during copulation/coitus
1. Primary Sex organ (Pair of Ovaries):- Produce Ovum and Oestrogen& Progesterone
(i).Pair of Oviducts (Fallopian tube) (ii) Uterus (iii) Vagina (Copulation canal)
The two oviducts unite to form an elastic bag-like structure known as the uterus.
Fertilization:-
The sperms enter through the vaginal passage during sexual intercourse. They travel and reach the
oviduct where the sperm fuse with egg to form zygote (Fertilized egg)
Then the zygote begins to divide and move towards the uterus &gets implanted in the endometrial
lining of the uterus. Thus the lady is pregnant.
The endometrial lining thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo.
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Placenta:-
After implantation, finger-like projections (Villi) appear on the embryonic side which are surrounded by
the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
The villi and uterine tissue become inter-digitated to form a disc like structure called placenta. Placenta
is the structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal body.
Function of placenta:-
11. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother's body?----Page # 140
The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo and also removal of carbon
dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the embryo through an umbilical cord.
Parturition/Child birth/Delivery:-
The process of delivery or the expulsion of fully formed young one from the mother's uterus through
birth canal is called parturition.
The child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the uterus.
If the released ovum is not fertilised, endometrial lining of the uterus and its blood vessels breaks
results discharge of blood and mucus comes out through vagina along with unfertilized / dead ovum is
called menstruation
This cycle takes place roughly every month and usually lasts for about two to eight days.
Menstruation occurs after the interval of every 28 days and the ovulation takes place at the14th day of
menstruation
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being in all
aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social.
Introduction of sex education in schools should be encouraged to give right information and to avoid
myths and misconcepts about sex-related aspects, proper information about reproductive organs,
adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases
STD/STI), AIDS, etc., would help the adolescent age group to lead a reproductively healthy life.
The STIs include bacterial infections (gonorrhoea and syphilis), viral infections such as warts, HIV-
AIDS.
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Prevention:-
1. Barrier method:-
Principle:- Prevents physical meeting of sperm and ovum with the help of barriers.
Condoms:- Are made of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or
vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the
female reproductive tract.
These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina.
IUDs are ideal contraceptives only for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
children.Eg:-Lippes loop, Cu T.
Cu -T released copper ions suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms
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12. If a woman is using a copper-T, will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases?-
Page 140
It cannot prevent a women from sexually transmitted diseases, as it does not provide any barrier
against mixing of body fluids from two individuals
Principle
Vasectomy:-
In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the
scrotum
Tubectomy:-
In tubectomy a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in the
abdomen or through vagina.
It prevents pregnancy by blocking meeting between egg & sperm, and the egg will not be able to reach
the uterus.
Surgery itself can cause infections and other problems if not performed properly.
Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called MTP / induced abortion.
Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse such as to
check indiscriminate and illegal female foeticides and thus to maintain proper Female-Male sex ratio
MTP is used to get rid of unwanted pregnancies either due to casual unprotected intercourse or failure
of the contraceptive used during coitus or rapes.
prenatal sex determination (Amniocentesis) has been prohibited by law, in order to avoid the female
foeticide
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QUESTIONS
1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
2. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?
4. The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is called
5. Which among the following statements are true for unisexual flowers?
6. Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
10. Two flowers are identified by a botanist with the following features that flower A is having only stamen
and flower B is having both stamen and pistil. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Flower A will bear seeds and flower B cannot bear seeds after fertilisation.
B) Flower A will produce pollen grains and flower B cannot produce pollen grains.
Since, flower A bears only stamen, i.e. male reproductive part, so it cannot get fertilised. And flower B
bears both male and female reproductive parts, therefore it can get fertilised by pollination and can
change into fruit.
11. Offsprings formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves
because
Because Offsprings have greater similarity as only one parent is involved in asexual reproduction
thus, no gametes are formed.
12. What in your opinion could be the best reason to explain why menstruation is not taking place in a
healthy woman?
B) Psychological reason
C) Fertilisation of ovum
If a woman is not having her menstruation on time the probable reason from the given option is that
fertilisation of ovum has taken place. Because, during gestation period of pregnancy, menstruation
does not take place.
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13. Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
In sexual reproduction, the offsprings are not exactly identical to the parents or to one another, because
the offsprings receive some genes from mother and some from father. Because of mixing of genes
on re-establishment of the exact number of chromosomes as in the parents, the offsprings show
both similarities and variations with their parents.
14. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Sexual reproduction leads to new combination of genes as it involves two parents and meiosis. This
produces variation in offspring. Variations are the basis for evolution.
A species (animal or plant) can adapt quickly to changes in its surroundings. This is because there
are always likely to be some individuals which are more suited to the changes than others, and these
individuals will survive and reproduce themselves.
15. What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?(Refer Note)
16. Why does menstruation occur?(Refer Note)
17. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.(Refer Note)
18. What are the different methods of contraception? (Refer Note)
19. How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms?
Only one organism is required A male and a female both are required
ii ii
in this method(Uniparental) in this method (Biparental)
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CHAPTER - 02
EVOLUTION
Evolution: Evolution the process by which different kinds of living organism are believed to have
developed from earlier forms during the history of the earth (or the various types of plants, animals,
and other living things on earth have their origin in other pre-existing types and that the distinguishable
differences are due to modification in successive generations)
An illustration:
Consider a group of twelve red beetles. They live, let us assume, in some bushes with green leaves.
Their population will grow by sexual reproduction, and therefore, can generate variations.
There are three situation we will discuss (with respect to the diagram)
Situation first: Let us imagine that crows eat these beetles. The more beetles the crows eat, the fewer
beetles are available to reproduce. In this situation, a colour variation arises during reproduction, so
that there is one beetle that is green in colour instead of red. This beetle, moreover, can pass the
colour on to its progeny, so that all its progeny beetles are green. Crows cannot see green-coloured
beetles on the green leaves of the bushes, and therefore cannot eat them. Thus, the progeny of green
beetles is not eaten, while the progeny of red beetles continues to be eaten. As a result, there are more
and more green beetles than red ones in the beetle population.
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Note: In this situation, the variation became common because it gave a survival advantage. In other
words, it was naturally selected. We can see that the natural selection is exerted by the crows. The
more crows there are, the more red beetles would be eaten, and the more the proportion of green
beetles in the population would be. Thus, natural selection is directing evolution in the beetle population.
It results in adaptations in the beetle population to fit their environment better.
Situation second: In a second situation, again, a colour variation arises during reproduction, but now it
results in a beetle that is blue in colour instead of red. This beetle can also pass the colour on to its
progeny, so that all its progeny beetles are blue. Crows can see blue-coloured beetles in the green
leaves of the bushes as well as they can red ones, and therefore can eat them. In the population, as
it expands, there are a few blue beetles, but mot are red. But at this point, an elephant comes by, and
stamps on the bushes where the beetles live. This kills most of the beetles. By chance, the few
beetles that have survived are mostly blue. The beetle population slowly expands again, but now, the
beetles in the population are mostly blue.
Note: In this situation, the colour change gave no survival advantage. Instead, it was simply a matter of
accidental survival of beetles of one colour that changed the common characteristic of the resultant
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population. The elephant would not have caused such major havoc in the beetle population if the
beetle population had been very large. So, accidents in small populations can change the frequency of
some genes in a population, even if they give no survival advantage. This is the notion of genetic drift,
which provides diversity without any adaptations.
For reference:
Genetic drift is a change in the frequency of an allele within a population over time. E.g., a population of
rabbits can have brown fur and white fur with brown fur being the dominant allele. By random chance,
the offspring may all be brown and this could reduce or eliminate the allele for white fur
Gene flow, also called gene migration, the introduction of genetic material (by interbreeding) from one
population of a species to another, thereby changing the composition of the gene pool of the receiving
population
Gene flow is the alteration in the Genetic drift is alteration in the gene
1 1
gene frequency due to migrations frequency by pure chance
Gene flow occurs due to exchange Genetic drift occurs due to accidental
2 of genes in the adjacent 2 and sudden elimination of a particular
populations through interbreeding gene
Larger populations tend to show
Smaller populations have greater
3 more migrations and hence more 3
chances of genetic drift
gene flow
Situation three: In this, as the beetle population begins to expand, the bushes start suffering from a
plant disease. The amount of leaf material for the beetles is reduced. The beetles are poorly nourished
as a result. The average weight of adult beetles decreases from what it used to be when leaves were
plentiful, but there is no genetic change occurring. After a few years and a few beetle generations of
such serosity, the plant disease is eliminated. There is a lot of leaf food.
Note: Acquired characters are not inherited (acquired characters are modification in structure or function
acquired by an organism during its life, caused by environmental factors e.g., larger muscle size,
skills like painting, singing, swimming, dancing etc.,)
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Acquired trait develops throught the Inherited traits are transferred by the parents
lifetime of an individual and dies with the to the offspring. These don't die but ate
death of that individual passed on to the next generation
Acquired traits are somatic variation Inherited traits are genetic variations
Acquired traits are not present in genetic Inherited traits are present in genetic
makeup makeup
Acquired traits are cannot direct evolution Inherited traits can direct evolution
Example : Larger muscle size, skills, etc Example: Hair, eye color, etc
Note: If the weight of the beetle is reduced because of starvation (acquired character), that will not change
the DNA of the germ cells. Therefore, low weight is not a trait that can be inherited by the progeny of a
starving beetle. Change in non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells.
Therefore, the experiences of an individual during its lifetime cannot be passed on to its progeny, and
cannot direct evolution.
Note: If we breed a group of mice, all their progeny will have tails, as expected. Now, if the tails of these mice
are removed by surgery in each generation, because removal of the tail cannot change the genes of
the germ cells of the mice i.e., only change in the genes of the germ cells will be inherited
Darwin’s theory of evolution tells us how life evolved from simple to more complex forms and Mendel’s
experiments give us the mechanism for the inheritance of traits from one generation to the next. But
neither tells us anything about how life began on earth in the first place.
Oparin and Haldane gave the theory of chemical evolution of life. J.B.S. Haldane, a British scientist
(who became a citizen of India later), suggested in 1929 that life must have developed from the simple
inorganic molecules which were present on earth soon after it was formed. He speculated that the
conditions on earth at that time, which were far from the conditions we see today, could have given
rise to more complex organic molecules that were necessary for life. Primitive atmosphere was reducing
type and over a period of time cell like structures were formed (protocells) and later cells
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Stanley L.Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953 (experimental proof of theory of chemical evolution of life).
They assembled an atmosphere similar to that thought to exist on early earth (this had molecules like
ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide, but no oxygen) over water. This was maintained at a
temperature just below 100°C and sparks were passed through the mixture of gases to simulate
lightning. At the end of a week, 15% of the carbon (from methane) had been converted to simple
compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules.
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level of classification would be shared by most, but not all organisms. A basic characteristic of cell
design that differs among different organisms is whether the cell has a nucleus. Bacterial cells do not,
while the cells of most other organisms do. Among multi-cellular organisms, whether they can undertake
photosynthesis or not will provide the next level of classification. Among the multi-cellular organisms
that cannot do photosynthesis, whether the skeleton is inside the body or around the body will mark
another fundamental design difference.
Tracing Evolutionary Relationships
Homologous organs: parts with similar basic structure (derived from same structures in embryo-
same common descent), but may vary in function or these are organs having a similar structural plan,
but different functions (showing common ancestry and thus divergent evolution). For example, the
wing of a bat, the flipper of a seal, the front leg of a horse and the arm of a man perform different
functions, but have the same structural plan. (other examples include vertebrate hearts or brains. In
plants also, the thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita)
Analogous organs: structures that have the same function (may look somewhat alike), but have different
structures and DO NOT have a common descent (showing no common ancestry and thus convergent
evolution) or Analogous Organs are those organs of different animals that although look different in
structure but perform a common function. E.g., wings have developed independently in insects, reptiles,
birds, and bats (other examples include eye of the octopus and of mammals or the flippers of Penguins
and Dolphins, in plants, sweet potato (root modification) and potato (stem modification)
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Note: The wings of birds and bats more closely. When we do that, we find that the wings of bats are
skin folds stretched mainly between elongated fingers. But the wings of birds are a feathery covering
all along the arm. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components, are thus very different.
They look similar because they have a common use for flying, but their origins are not common. This
makes them analogous characteristics, rather than homologous characteristics.
Note (for reference)
1. Vestigial organs - reduced body parts (in comparison to the same complex structure in other organisms)
that have no function in current forms; remnant of an ancestor. E.g., human external ear muscle,
human tailbone (coccyx), human wisdom teeth, some of the bird wings-penguins, ostrich etc.,
2. Connecting links
Molecular phylogeny
Changes in the DNA during cell division would lead to changes in the proteins that are made from this
new DNA. These changes would accumulate from one generation to the next and this feature is used
to trace the changes in DNA backwards in time and find out where each change diverged from the
other. This is based on the idea that organisms which are more distantly related will accumulate a
greater number of differences in their DNA
Fossils
Fossils are the mostly dead preserved remains of plants and animals whose bodies were buried in
sediments, such as sand and mud, under ancient seas, lakes and rivers. Fossils also include any
preserved trace of life that is typically more than 10000 years old. Such studies of organ structure can
be done not only on current species, but also on species that are no longer alive.
Usually, when organisms die, their bodies will decompose and be lost. But every once in a while, the
body or at least some parts may be in an environment that does not let it decompose completely.
If a dead insect gets caught....in...hot...mud, for example, it will not decompose quickly, and the mud
will eventually hardenand retain the impression of the body parts of the insect.
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If we dig into the earth and start finding fossils, it is reasonable to suppose that the fossils we find
closer to the surface are more recent than the fossils we find in deeper layers.
The second way of dating fossils is by detecting the ratios of different isotopes of the same element in
the fossil material e.g., Radio carbon 14 dating method (Radiocarbon (carbon 14) is an isotope of the
element carbon that is unstable and weakly radioactive)
Evolution by Stages
Even an intermediate stage, such as a rudimentary eye, can be useful to some extent. This might be
enough to give a fitness advantages. In fact, the eye-like the wing-seems to be a very popular adaptation.
Insects have them, so does an octopus, and so do vertebrates. And the structure of the eye in each of
these organisms is different - enough for them to have separate evolutionary origins.
Feathers, for example, can start out as providing insulation in cold weather. But later, they might become
useful for flight.
In fact, some dinosaurs had feathers, although they could not fly using the feathers
Birds seem to have later adapted the feathers to flight
This, of course, means that birds are very closely related to reptiles, since dinosaurs were reptiles
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Artificial selection: The wild cabbage plant is a good example. Humans have, over more than two
thousand years, cultivated wild cabbage as a food plant, and generated different vegetables from it by
selection. This is, of course, artificial selection rather than natural selection
So some farmers have wanted to select for very short distances between leaves, and have bred the
cabbage we eat
Some have wanted to select for arrested flower development, and have bred broccoli
Some have selected for swollen parts, and come up with kohlrabi
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Some have simply looked for slightly larger leaves, and come up with a leafy vegetable called kale
To summarize
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Darwin’s postulates:
(i) Enormous power of fertility. Every living organism has the power to reproduce rapidly
(ii) The competition and struggle for existence: Overpopulation resulted in the competition and struggle
which Darwin called the struggle for existence
(iii) Variations and Heredity: During the competition, every individual tries to become better and shows
variation. But all the variations are not significant from the evolutionary point of view, some may be
useful and some harmful. The useful variations are inherited in the progeny of those organisms in
which they arose and therefore, the progeny have better chances of survival.
(iv) Survival of the fitest or natural selection: During he struggle for existence only those individuals
which are better adapted to the environment and show favourable variations are selected. The less fit
and unit individuals are rejected by nature. Darwin stated that the variations are sorted out naturally.
Therefore, the organisms which sort out such variations are said to be fittest
(v) Origin of species: According to Darwin, new variations appear in every generation and get inherited
to the new generation. As a result, the offspring’s are distinct from their ancestors. This results in the
formation of new species.
Mutation theory: Mutations or discontinuous variations are the raw material of evolution. Mutations
appear all of a sudden. They become operational immediately. Unlike Darwin’s continuous variations
or fluctuations, mutations can appear in a number of individuals of a species. Accumulation of variations
produces new species. Sometimes a new species is produced from a single mutation. Useful mutations
are slected by nature. All mutations are inheritance. Evolution is a directionless and discontinuous
process
A new species has emerged. But that does not necessarily mean, like the beetle example we have
been thinking about, that the old species will disappear. It will all depend on the environment. Also, it is
as if the newly generated species are in any way ‘better’ than the older one. It is just that natural
selection and genetic drift have together led to the formation of a population that cannot reproduce
with the original one. It is not true that human beings have evolved from chimpanzees. Rather, both
human beings and chimpanzees have a common ancestor a long time ago. That common ancestor
is likely to have been neither human or chimpanzee. Also, the first step of separation from that
ancestor is unlikely to have resulted in modern chimpanzees and human beings. Instead, the two
resultant species have probably evolved in their own separate ways to give rise to the current forms.
Evolution is simply the generation of diversity and the shaping of the diversity by environmental selection.
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The only progressive trend in evolution seems to be that more and more complex body designs have
emerged over time. However, again, it is not as if the older designs are inefficient! So many of the older
and simpler designs still survive.
Human Evolution
The same tools for tracing evolutionary relationships-excavating, time-dating and studying fossils, as
well as determining DNA sequences-have been used for studying human evolution.
There is a great diversity of human forms and features across the planet. Skin colour used to be the
commonest way of identifying the so called races. All humans are a single species. The earliest
members of the human species, Homoi sapiens, can be traced there. Our genetic footprints can be
traced back to our African roots. We all come from Africa. A couple of hundred thousand years aft.
some of our ancestors left Africa while others stayed on. While the residents spread across Africa, the
migrants slowly spread across the planet - from Africa to West Asia, then to Central Asia, Eurasia,
South Asia, East Asia. They travelled down the islands of Indonesia and the Philippines to Australia,
and they crossed the Bering land bridge to the Americas. They did not go in a single line, so they were
not travelling for the sake of travelling.
They went forwards and backwards, with groups sometimes separating from each other, sometimes
coming back to mix with each other, even moving in an out of Africa.
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QUESTIONS
1. A) Germ cell characters B) Gametic characters
C) Acquired characters D) None of these
2. Theory of chemical evolution of life was proposed by
A) Oparin and Haldane B) Urey and Miller
C) Charles Darwin D) Lamarck
3. Select the incorrect statement:
A) Frequency of certain genes in a population change over several generations resulting in evolution
B) Reduction in weight of organism due to starvation is genetically controlled
C) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny
D) Traits which are not inherited over generation do not cause evolution
4. Miller synthesized simple amino-acid from:
A) Methane, ammonia, oxygen, nitrogen B) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, water
C) Ammonia, methane, water, carbon-di-oxide D) Hydrogen, oxygen, water, nitrogen
5. The two phenomenon's that direct speciation include
A) Gene flow and vestigial organs B) Genetic drift and natural selection
C) Natural selection and connecting links D) Gene flow and somatic variations
6. What is the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
A) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
B) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
C) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
D) There is no difference.
7. New species may be formed if
(i) DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells
(ii) chromosome number changes in the gamete
(iii) there is no change in the genetic material
(iv) mating does not take place
A) (i) and (ii) B) (i) and (iii) C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
8. The more characteristics two species have in common :
A) More closely they are related and more recently they had a common ancestors.
B) More distantly they are related and more recently they have common ancestors.
C) More closely they are related and more distantly they have common ancestors.
D) More distantly they are related and more distantly they have common ancestors.
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9. The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheeah and man are similar in structure, because
A) One organism has given rise to another B) They share a common ancestor
C) They perform the same function. D) the have biochemical similarities.
10. Wing of a bird and wing of an insect are
A) Homologous organs B) analogous organs
C) vestigial organ D) show common ancestry
11. If the fossil of an organism is found in the deeper layers of Earth, then we can predict that
A) The extinction of organism has occurred recently
B) The extinction of organism has occurred thousands of years ago
C) The fossil position in the layers of Earth is not related to its time of extinction
D) Time of extinction cannot be determined
12. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the
context of evolution this means that
A) Reptiles have evolved from birds
B) There is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
C) Feathers are homologous organs in both structures
D) Birds have evolved from reptiles
13. Identify the two organisms which are now extinct and are studied from their fossils.
A) white tiger and sparrow B) dinosaur and fish (Knightia)
C) ammonite and white tiger D) trilobite and white tiger
14. The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
A) reptiles and mammals B) reptiles and bird
C) fish and amphibian D) amphibian and reptile
15. Wild cabbage has evolved into new varieties like cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower by
A) genetic drift B) natural selection
C) reproductive isolation D) artificial selection
16. According to evolutionary theory, formation of a new species is generally due to
A) Sudden creation of nature
B) Accumulation of variations over several generations
C) Clones formed during sexual reproduction
D) Movement of individuals from one habitat to another
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CHAPTER - 03
OUR ENVIRONMENT
Environment:
Environment means anything that surrounds us. Living things live in their environment. They constantly
interact and adapt themselves in their environment. In which different types of interaction take part
between living and non-living things.
Role of environment
Important role in healthy living and the existence of life on earth.Different living species are dependent
on the environment for food, air, water, and other needs.
15.1 ECO-SYSTEM -ITS COMPONENTS?
Living and non- living things are the main components.
In a garden plants (grasses, trees; flower bearing plants like rose, jasmine, sunflower) and animals
(like frogs, insects and birds) interact for their growth and reproduction, it also affect the abiotic
components.
Natural ecosystems:
It is an ecosystem found in nature where organisms freely interact with other components of that
environment.
eg: Pond, forest, lake, grass land, desert, coral reef, mangrove swamp etc.
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Decomposers: - They break-down the dead remains and waste products of organisms.ie; they break-
down the complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances into the soil.
eg: bacteria and fungi.
What will happen to the garbage, and dead animals and plants in their absence?
The natural replenishment of the soil takes place.
Activity 15.2
While creating an aquarium did you take care not to put an aquatic animal which would eat others?
What would have happenedotherwise?
The sustenance between organisms will breakdown.
Write the aquatic organisms in order of who eats whom and form a chain of at least steps.
In this chain phytoplanktons are producers, zooplanktons are primary consumers (herbivores), small
fishes are secondary consumers and big fishes are tertiary consumers. In this chain the secondary
and tertiary consumers are omnivores, they eat and both plants and animals.
Would you consider any one group of organisms to be of primary importance? Why or why not?
Primary important for plants because they are produces food, they uptake all living organisms directly/
indirectly. If the absence of produces no other organisms can exist in environment in natural manner.
15.1.1 Food Chains and Webs.
Food Chain: - In ecology, the sequence of energy/ matter transfers in the form of food from organism
to organism.
In environment a series of organisms feeding on one another, in which each organisms take part at
various biotic levels form a food chain.
Food chain in nature.
a. In forest:
eg: Decomposers (detritivores) convert the organic matter present in the dead decays of plants and
animals (detritus) into simple inorganic matter, and it enter into the soil.
Trophic level: -
In each food chain, the biotic levels/ steps called trophic level.
Food web:
Interconnected/ overlapping food chains in an ecosystem called food web.
Standing crop:
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.
It is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area.
Biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight.
ENERGY FLOW
Organisms eat food act as fuel to provide energy to do work.
ie, Interaction between various components in environment involves flow of energy from one to another.
Autotrophs capture the energy from sunlight (1%) and convert it into chemical energy.
Autotrophs
energy
Heterotrophs & Decomposers
Plants are eaten by primary consumers, energy is lost as heat to the environment.
An average of 10% of the food eaten is turned into its own body (10 % law ).
ie, only 10% of the energy is transferred into higher trophic level from the lower trophic level.
The flow of energy is unidirectional.
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1. O2
UV
OO
2. O O2 O3 Ozone
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Ozone gas is continuously formed by the action of UV rays on molecular oxygen, and also degraded
into molecular oxygen in the stratosphere. There should be a balance between production and
degradation of ozone in the stratosphere.
The thickness of the ozone measured in terms of Dobsonunits(DU).
The depletion of the ozone layer.
The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to drop sharply in the 1980s.
This decrease based on synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as
refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
In 1987, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded to freeze CFC production at
1986 levels.
It is now mandatory for all the manufacturing companies to make CFC-free refrigerators throughout
the world.
Activity 15.4
Whichchemicals are responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?
Synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire
extinguishers.
CFCs discharged in the atmosphere move and reach stratosphere.
In stratosphere, UV rays act on CFCs& releasesCl atoms. This Cl degrades ozone & releasesmolecular
oxygen and it stop the production of ozone formation.
CFCs are added to the stratosphere, they are permanent and continuously effects on Ozone
Find out if the regulations put in place to control the emission ofthese chemicals have succeeded in
reducing the damage to theozone layer.
The deleterious affects of ozone depletion, an international treaty, known as the Montreal Protocol,
was signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987 (effective in 1989) to control the emission of ozone depleting
substances.
In 1987, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded to freeze CFC production at
1986 levels.
It is now mandatory for all the manufacturing companies to make CFC-free refrigerators throughout
the world.
Many more efforts have been made for reducing the emission of CFCs and other ozone depleting
chemicals.
Has the size of the hole in the ozone layer changed in recent years?
2018 assessment by the world meteorological organization found that the southern ozone hole has
been shrinking by about 1% to 3% per decade since the year 2000, with the 2019 hole measuring
smaller than it ever has since 1982.
The wide spread use of certain chemicals changed our atmosphere chemical composition and created
a hole in the UV- deflecting ozone layer above us. Researches continue to keep track of the hole and
their observations show that it has grown in size since last year.
On September 20, 2020 the annual ozone hole reached its peak area at 24.8 million square kilometers,
roughly three times the size of the continental united states
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What are the waste materials that are thrown awayin our daily activities?
Plastic bottles, glass bottles, tins, aluminum foil, plastic straws, paper waste,cardboard
Most waste goes into the bin; later returning to our homes as recycled products. Wastes from the
roadsides and other area are collected by teams of local refuse collectors and taken to recycling
plants across the country.
It home we sort our waste into separate categories, these are generally plastics, metals and glass in
one bin; paper and cardboard in another and garden waste also has its own separate bin. By sorting all
these at home we should be left with a household waste that contains mostly food and non-recyclables,
thus minimizing the amount that ends up at landfill.
Activity 15.5
Collect waste material from your homes. This could include all the waste generated during a day, like
kitchen waste (spoilt food, vegetable peels, used tea leaves, milk packets and empty cartons),waste
paper, empty medicine bottles/strips/bubble packs, old and torn clothes and broken footwear.
Bury this material in a pit in the school garden or if there is no space available, you can collect the
material in an old bucket/ flower pot and cover with at least 15 cm of soil.
What are the materials that remain unchanged over long periods of time?
Non- degradable substance like milk packets, empty medicine bottles/strips/bubble packs and broken
footwear remain unchanged.
What are the materials which change their form and structure over time?
Spoilt food, vegetable peels, used tea leaves, waste paper,old and torn clothes.
Of these materials that are changed, which ones change the fastest?
Enzymes are specific in their action; specific enzymes are needed for breakdown of a particular
substance.
Eg: pepsin is needed to breakdown proteins while lipase is needed to digest fats.
Why many human-made materials like plastics will not be broken down by the action of bacteria or
other saprophytes?
These materials will be acted upon by physical processes like heat and pressure, but under the ambient
conditions found in our environment;these persist for a long time.
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Activity 15.6
Substances which can be decomposed and broken down to simpler substances by micro-organisms
acting on it is called bio-degradable
Eg: Food waste, paper waste, human waste, manure, sewage sludge.
Substances which cannot be acted upon by microorganisms and are not broken down into simpler
substances are called non-biodegradable substances.
Eg: Plastic bags, shopping bags, plastic containers and plastic water bottles, metals, hazardous
substances, pesticides etc.
How long are various non-biodegradable substances expected tolast in our environment?
Cardboard milk cartons-5 years
Plastic bags: 10-20 years
Plastic containers- 50-80 years
Plastic soda -450 years
Leather shoes: 25-40 years
Nylon fabric: 30 to 40 years
Glass bottle -500 years
Aluminum soda can - 350 years
These days, new types of plastics which are said to be biodegradable are available. Find out more
about such materials and whether they do or do not harm the environment.
Bio-plastics are plastic materials produced from renewable biomass sources, such as vegetable fats
and oils, corn starch, straw, woodchips, sawdust, recycled food waste, etc. from the biomass is
environmentally friendly.
There are a few new fossil fuel plastics that can also be biodegradable.
Eg: Polybutylene succinate (PBS), Polycaprolactone (PCL), Polybutyrateadipate terephthalate (PBAT)
and Polyvinyl alcohol (PVOH/PVA).
1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some non-biodegradable?
The main reason of a substance being biodegradable is being organic that can be used up by scavengers
of environment.
Some substances are non- biodegradable because they are synthetic and cannot be decomposed by
the microorganism.
2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
Biodegradable substances are decomposed by the action of microorganisms. Decomposed materials
are recycled through a geo-chemical cycle. They may produce foul smell during the decomposition
process.
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They may produce some harmful gases such as ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide, etc., which can
further-cause global warming.
3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the environment.
a. The non-biodegradable substances get accumulated and don't decompose; it remains in the
ecosystem and causes pollution, chokes the system of many animals and kills them.
b. These substances due to accumulation cause water and soil pollution e.g., pesticides, detergents,
polythene.
Activity 15.7
Find out what happens to the waste generated at home. Is there asystem in place to collect this
waste?
The wastes generated at homes are decomposed by the microorganisms, they put into the land via
landfills method. We throw them into the dustbins, and they are brought together and separated and
then, the wastes are regenerated.
Waste disposal strategies mainly are incineration, composting, recycling, and landfilling
Find out how the local body (panchayat, municipal corporation,resident welfare association) deals with
the waste.
They try to first segregate the waste into different types - bio degradable, non-bio degradable and
medical waste. The waste which can be recycled is sent to the concerned places. Medical waste is
disposed carefully, to avoid contamination.
Are there mechanisms in place to treat the biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes separately?
Most communities have sewage treatment plants, which treat sewage waste.
4.9 pounds per person per day.The total generation of municipal solid waste (MSW) in 2018 was 292.4
million tons, approximately 69 million tons were recycled and 25 million tons were composted.
Calculate how much waste is generated in the classroom in a day.How much of this waste is
biodegradable?
Small chalks, used pens, wrappers, pencil shavings, polythene bags and aluminum foils/ papers are
common waste generated from class rooms.
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The waste generated at classroom is approx 1kg. In 1kg waste more than 600gm is non-biodegradable
waste and rest 400gm is biodegradable waste.
Reduce Food Wastage, about a quarter of the waste coming out of schools is food waste.Reduce
paper waste; kids are generally interested in arts and crafts at school. Useeco-friendly Stationery.
Activity 15.8
Find out how the sewage in your locality is treated. Are theremechanisms in place to ensure that local
water bodies are notpolluted by untreated sewage?
Sewage can be treated close to where the sewage is created, ie, decentralize system/ on-site system
(eg: septic tanks, bio-filters or aerobic treatment systems).
Alternatively, sewage can be collected and transported by a network of pipes and pump stations to a
municipal treatment plant.
Regularly check the water samples BOD level and also the different metallic presence which affect
negatively in environment/ ecosystem.
Find out how the local industries in your locality treat their wastes. Are there mechanisms in place to
ensure that the soil and water are not polluted by this waste?
Local industries are treat their waste by making it less toxic for animals and plants and secret less
amount of wastage and to make the water cool first which they throw.
By using different instruments measure the pollution in soil- gas chromatograph, atomic absorption
spectrometer, or mass spectrometer.
Bacteria Tests, Mineral Tests, pH Testing are used to check water pollution.
Activity 15.9
Find out what hazardous materials have to be dealt with while disposing of electronic items. How
would these materials affect the environment?
Electronic items contain some hazardous materials such as cadmium, lead, mercury, chromium,
some compressed gases, PVCs etc. Which can contaminate the environment by dumping, melting
and burning of electronic wastes. Mercury can cause damage to the nervous system, kidneys and
brain.
The main types of recycling: mechanical and chemical. In mechanical recycling, where plastic is
washed, ground and melted or chemical recycling, whereby plastic is broken down into monomers to
form new polymers to be reused.
Yes, the recycling process has an impact on the environment. Plastic materials don't decompose so
it is not an environment friendly.
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QUESTIONS
1. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
Ozone is a gas composed of three atoms of oxygen. Ozone is an important gas for all kinds of
ecosystems on earth as it protects the ecosystem from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiations
cause skin cancer, cataract and affect our immune system.
2. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any two methods.
By separating biodegradable substances from non-biodegradable substances. By reducing,
reusing and recycling non-biodegradable substances. By putting the organic waste into compost
pits dug in the ground and preparing compost.
1. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items?
A) Grass, flowers and leather
B) Grass, wood and plastic
C) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice
D) Cake, wood and grass
2. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
A) Grass, wheat and mango B) Grass, goat and human
C) Goat, cow and elephant D) Grass, fish and goat
3. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?
A) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while shopping
B) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans
C) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter
D) All of the above
4. Generally, in an ecosystem greater number of individuals are present
A) 1st trophic level B) 2nd trophic level C) 3rd trophic level D) 4th trophic level
5. The flow of energy through trophic levels is
A) Unidirectional B) Bidirectional C) Multidirectional D) None of these
6. The energy available at each trophic level gets diminished progressively due to
A) Movement is multi directional
B) Loss of energy at each level
C) No loss of energy
D) Both a & c
7. The maximum concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals get accumulated in
A) Producers
B) 1st trophic level
C) 2nd trophic level
D) Higher trophic levels
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8. Why our food grains such as wheatand rice, vegetables and fruits, and even meat, contain varying
amounts of pesticide residues?
A) Algal bloom B) Eutrophication
C) Bio-magnification D) Both a & b
9. Which of the following chemicals are non- biodegradable
A) BHC (Benzene hexachloride)
B) DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)
C) Parathion
D) All the above
10. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state thedifferent trophic levels in it.
Each step/ level of the food chain forms a trophic level.
The autotrophs/ producers are at the first trophic level. They fix up the solar energy, it available for
heterotrophs/ consumers. The herbivores/ primary consumers come at the second, small carnivores/
secondary consumers at the third and larger carnivores/ tertiary consumers form the fourth trophic
level
11. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?
Decomposers (detritivores) convert the organic matter present in the dead decays of plants and
animals (detritus) into simple inorganic matter and it enter into the soil.
They act as a cleansing agent. They help in recycling the nutrients. They provide space for new being
in the biosphere by decomposing the dead.
12. How unknowingly some harmful chemicals enter our bodies through the food chain?
The use of several pesticides and other chemicals to protect crops from diseases and pests attack.
These chemicals are washed down into the soil or into the water bodies through rain. From the soil/
water bodies these chemicals are absorbed by the producers along with water and minerals, and
these chemicals move on to the next trophic level respectively. This way chemical enters the food
chain.
13. If the use of pesticides and other chemicals are non -biodegradable to protect crops from diseases
and pests attack, what will happen?
They get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. If human beings occupy the top level in any
food chain, the maximum concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies. This
phenomenon is known as biological magnification.
14. The presence of a detectible pesticide residue does not mean an unsafe level, why?
Evaluates new and existing pesticides to ensure that no harm to infants and children as well as adults.
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Very small amount of pesticide decrease considerably as crops are harvested, transported, exposed
to light, washed, prepared and cooked, so the presence of a detectible pesticide residue does not
mean an unsafe level.
Pollution
Global warming
Overpopulation
Waste disposal
Loss of biodiversity
Deforestation
16. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the lower trophic level will grow more in number and the
higher trophic level will not survive. The flow of energy from one trophic level to other will not take
place. Its results, disruption in the food web & the ecosystem.
17. A. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level be different for different trophic
levels?
Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a trophic level will be different for different trophic
levels.
Eg: consumers such as deer are removed from their trophic level, consumers such as lions, which
eat deer, will die because of the unavailability of food; the population of lions will be reduced.
B.Can the organisms of any trophic level be removed without causing any damage to the ecosystem?
No, the organisms of no trophic level can be removed without causing damage the ecosystem, as
removing them can disturb the food chain.
18. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different at different levels of
the ecosystem?
Accumulation of non- biodegradable wastes in higher trophic level through food chain known as bio-
magnification.
The accumulation level of chemicals in different trophic level is different, accumulation happens gradually
from lower to higher and its concentration is high in top trophic level.
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19. What are the problems caused by the non-biodegradable wastes that we generate?
A) The non-biodegradable substances get accumulated and don't decompose; it remains in the
ecosystem and causes pollution, chokes the system of many animals and kills them.
B) These substances due to accumulation cause water and soil pollution e.g., pesticides,
detergents, polythene.
C) Soil destruction, bio-magnification of mercury, DDT.
D) Ecological imbalance.
20. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will this have no impact on theenvironment?
They generate a large amount of microbial flora around the wastes. Production of harmful gases
causing pollution. These microbes can cause many communicable diseases in humans, plants and
animals. These generate bad odour on burning due to the release of certain gases.
21. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are being takento limit this
damage?
It shields the earth from ultraviolet. Ozone is an important gas for all kinds of ecosystems on earth as
it protects the ecosystem from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiations cause skin cancer, cataract
and affect our immune system.
Reduce the emission of maximum synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are
used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
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MATHEMATICS
CHAPTER -01
ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION
A series is the sum of the elements in the corresponding sequence. For example, 1 2 3 4 5... is
the series of natural numbers. Another example, 5 10 15 20 ..... is the series of multiples of 5.
Each number in a sequence or a series is called a term.
A progression is a sequence in which the general term can be expressed using a mathematical
expression.
Arithmetic Progression (AP)
An arithmetic progression (AP) is a list of numbers in which each term is obtained by adding a fixed
number to the preceding term except the first term. This fixed number is called the common difference
of the AP.
Examples: 1,3,5,7,9.....
2,5,8,11,14....
100,200,300,400.......
Common Difference
The difference between two consecutive terms in an AP, is the common difference (d) of an AP. Thus
if the AP is a1,a2, a3,....an. So a 2 a1 a 3 a 2 a 4 a 3 .... an an 1 d . In the progression:
2,5,8,11,14....the common difference is 3. As it is the difference between any two consecutive terms,
for any AP, if the common difference is
Positive, the AP is increasing means each term is greater than its preceding term, zero, the AP is
constant means each and every term in the AP is same, negative, the AP is decreasing means each
term is smaller than its preceding term
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A finite AP will have the last term, whereas an infinite AP has no last term.
The general form of an AP is a,a+d,a+3d.....where a is the first term and d is a common difference
The nth term of an AP is given by an = a n 1 d , where a is the first term, d is a common difference
and n is the number of terms. If there are m terms in the AP, then am represents the last term which is
sometimes also denoted by I
Sum of terms in an
Sum to n terms of an AP is given by Sn n / 2 2a n 1 d
where a is the first term, d is the common difference and n is the number of terms
Sn n / 2(a 1)
where a is the first term, I is the last term of the AP and n is the number of terms
Sn n / 2 a1 an
Sn n n 1 / 2
Examples:
S 10 10 1 / 2 55
QUESTIONS
1. If p-1, p+3, 3p-1 are in AP, then p is equal to
A) 4 B) –4 C) 2 D) –2
2. The sum of all terms of the arithmetic progression having ten terms except for the first term is 99 and
except for the sixth term 89. Find the third term of the progression if the sum of the first term and the
fifth term is equal to 10
A) 15 B) 5 C) 8 D) 10
3. If the third term of an AP is 12 and the seventh term is 24, then the 10 term isth
A) 33 B) 34 C) 35 D) 36
4. The first term of an arithmetic progression is unity and the common difference is 4. Which of the
following will be a term of this AP?
A) 4551 B) 10091 C) 7881 D) 13531
5. If a, b, c, d,e and f are in AP, then e-c is equal to
6. How many terms of an AP must be taken for their sum to be equal to 120 if its third term is 9 and the
difference between the seventh and second term is 20?
A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 D) 6
7. 9th term of an AP is 499 and 499th term is 9. The term which is equal to zero is
A) 507th B) 508th C) 509th D) 510th
8. Find the sum of first n terms of odd natural number
A) n2 B) n2–1 C) n2+1 D) 2n–1
9. Common difference of an A.P is –2 and first term is 80. Find the sum if last term is 10
A) 1600 B) 1620 C) 1650 D) 1700
10. Find the sum of first 30 terms of an A.P whose nth term is 2+1/2n
A) 292.5 B) 290.5 C) 192.5 D) none of these
11. Find 15 term of –10,–5,0,5,.......
th
A) 55 B) 60 C) 65 D) none of these
12. If the numbers a,b,c,d,e form an AP, then the value of a 4b 6c 4d e is
A) 1 B) 2 C) 0 D) 530
13. 7th term of an AP is 40. The sum of its first 13th terms is
A) 500 B 510 C) 520 D) 530
14. The sum of the first four terms of an AP is 28 and sum of the first eight terms of the same AP is 88.
Sum of first 16 terms of the AP is
A) 346 B) 340 C) 304 D) 268
15. Which term of the AP 4,9,14,19,.....is 109?
A) 14th B) 18th C) 22nd D) 16th
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16. How many terms are there in the arithmetic series 1 3 5 ..... 73 75 ?
A) 28 B) 30 C) 36 D) 38
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CHAPTER -02
TRIANGLES
DE || BC
AD AE AD AE BD CE DB EC
(1) (2) (3) (4)
DB EC AB AC BA CA AD AE
AB AC BA CA
(5) (6)
AD AE BD CE
AD AE
If then DE || BC
DB EC
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Note
1.
AB AC
In a ABC if DE || BC then (1)
BD CE
AD AE
(2)
AB AC
2.
AE BF
In a trapezium ABCD AB||DC, if EP||AB then
ED EC
A D, B E, C F
AB BC AC
DE EF DF
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Theorm
If in two triangles corresponding angles are equal then their corresponding sides are in the same ratio
and hence the triangles are similar
If A P, B Q, C R
AB BC AC
then
PQ QR PR
Theorm
If in two triangles sides of one triangle are propotional to the sides of the other triangle then their
corresponding angles are equal and they are similar
AB BC AC
If then A P, B Q, C R
PQ QR PR
Theorm
If two angles of one trianlge are respectively equal to two angles of another triangle then the two
triangles are similar
If A P and B Q then C R
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Theorm
If one angle of a triangle is equal to one angle of the other triangle and the sides including these angles
are proportional then the two triangles are similar
AB AC
If A D and then ABC DEF
DE DF
Note
OA OD
OC OB
Note
If CM and RN are respectively the medians of a ABC and PQR and ABC PQR then
1) AMC PNR
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2) CMB RNQ
CM AB
3)
RN PQ
Theorm
The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their corresponding
sides
2 2 2
ar ABC AB BC AC
ar PQR PQ QR P R
Pythagoras theorm
In a right triangle the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides
AB BC AC
2 2 2
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QUESTIONS
1. In a ABC if DE is parallel to BC then which of the following is false
AD AE AD AE BD CE AD EC
A) B) C) D)
DB EC AB AC BA CA DE AE
2. ABCD is a trapezium with AB ||DC, E and F are the points on nonparallel sides AD and BC respectively
such that EF is parallel to AB where AE = 5, ED = 7 BF=10 then FC=
A) 6 B) 14 C) 8 D) 9
3. In ABC,DE is parallel to BC where BD = 7.2, AE = 1.8 and CE = 5.4 then AD =
A) 4.2 B) 4.3 C) 2.4 D) 2.3
4. In the following figure OA.OB = OC.OD then which of the following is true
A) A C B) D C C) A B D) A D
5. If CM and RN are respectively the medians of a ABC and PQR if ABC PQR and CM=7, RN =
12, PQ = 36 then AB =
A) 63 B) 21 C) 14 D) 24
6. In the following figure ODC OBA BOC 140 and CDO 60 then find DCO
8. The altitudes AD and CE of a ABC intersect each other at the point P then which of the following is
false
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
9. If D is a point on the side BC of a triangle ABC such that ADC BAC then CA2 =
A) AB.BC B) AB.AC C) CB.CA D) CB.CD
10. The sides AB and AC and median AD of a ABC are respectively proportional to sides PQ and PR
and median PM of another PQR If B 70 then Q =
A) 110° B) 60° C) 70° D) 80°
11. The line segment XY is parallel to side AC of ABC and it divides the triangle into two parts of equal
AX 2 2
area. If the ratio then K =
AB K
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
12. The ratio of an equilateral triangle described on one side of a square and the area of the equilateral
triangle described on one of its diagonals is
A) 1:2 B) 2:1 C) 1:3 D) 3:1
13. If D,E,F are respectively the midpoints of sides AB, BC, and CA of ABC then the ratio of the area of
ABC and DEF
A) 1:4 B) 4:1 C) 2:1 D) 1:2
14. In a ABC if AD BC and AB = 3, CD = 7, BD = 4 then find AC
A) 42 B) 24 C) 42 D) 4 6
A) 3a B) 2a C) a D) 5a
1
18. In an equilateral ABC if D is a point on side BC such that BD BC then 9AD2 =
3
19. The perpendicular from A on side BC of a ABC intersects BC at D such that DB = 3CD then
2 AB2 AC2
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21. The triangle ABC has sides a = 13, b = 14 and c = 15 as shown in the figure. Line N bisects angle B
and crosses side b at P. The distance from A to P, is
A) 3 7 B) 7 C) 7 2 D) 8
22. The corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio 2 to 3. If the area of the smaller
triangle is 12, the area of the larger is
A) 24 B) 27 C) 18 D) 8
23. In the diagram ABC is right angled at C. Also M, N and P are the mid points of sides BC, AC and AB,
respectively. If the area of APN is 2 sq. cm, then the area of ABC , in sq. cm is
A) 8 B) 12 C) 16 D) 4
24. In the figure show, given PQ||BC. The length of AC is
A) 24 B) 27 C) 31 D)9
25. In the figure C is a right angle, DE AB,AE 6, EB 7 and BC = 5. The area of the quadrilateral
EBCD is
A) 27.5 B) 25 C) 22.5 D) 20
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26. In ABC, PQ || BC , area of quadrilateral PBCQ = 42sq. cm. If AP:PB=2:3, then find the area of APQ
56
A) 28 sq.cm. B) sq.cm C) 8 sq.cm D) 33.6 sq.cm
3
27. The median AD of ABC meets BC at D. The internal bisectors of ADB and ADC meet AB and
AC at E and F respectively. Then EF
A) is perpendicular to AD B) is parallel to BC
C) divides AD in the ratio of AB:AC D) none of these
28. Three squares have the dimensions indicated in the diagram. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD is
21 15 42
A) B) C) D) data not sufficient
4 4 4
A) 32 B) 18 C) 7 D) 24
a 2 a 3 a 3 a 3
A) B) C) D)
2 2 4 2
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CHAPTER -03
CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
In class IX we have studied that to locate the position of a point on the plane, we need a pair of
coordinate axes
Cartesian co ordinates
Let X’OX and Y’OY be cartesian axes and p(x,y) be any point in the plane. Draw PL OX and
PM OY . Then OL = PM is called x-coordinate (abscissa) and OM = PL is called y-coordinate
(ordinate) of P. Both the numbers x and y are called the cartesian rectangular co-ordinate of P, denoted
by P(x,y)
Quadrants
The rectangular axes X’OX and Y’OY divide the plane in to 4 regions called quadrants .The following
table shows the sign of points different quadrant
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First + + (+,+)
Second – + (–,+)
Third – – (–,–)
Fourth + – (+,–)
Point on Axes
If a point ‘P’ lies on X axis then clearly its distance from X axis will be zero. Therefore we can say that
its Y coordinate will be zero. Similarly if any point Q lies on Y axis then its distance from y axis will be
zero. Therefore we can say it x coordinate will be zero.
x 2 x1 y 2 y1
2 2
The distance between points A(x1,y1) and B(x2,y2) is From points A and
B draw AM and BN perpendicular to X-axis
OM x 1 , ON x 2
MN ON OM x 2 x 1
AC MN x 2 x 1
AM y1 CN, BN y 2
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In ABC we have
AB 2 AC 2 BC 2 x 2 x 1 y 2 y1
2 2
x 2 x1 y 2 y1
2 2
AB
x 0 y 0 x 2 y2
2 2
Note : If 0 is the origin and A(x,y) is any point in a plane OA
x 2 x1 y 2 y1 2 1 3 4 12 1 2
2 2 2 2 2
AB
A B C
Three or more points on a line are called collinear points if 3
points are collinear then sum of the distances between any 2 pair of points is equal to the distances
between third pair of points. ie sum of two distances = Third distance
Non collinear points
If sum of any two distances is greater than third distance, then they are non collinear points, non
collinear points in a plane form a triangle
Different type of Triangle
(1) Equilateral triangle: All the sides / distances will be equal
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(4) Right Angled triangle : Sum of square of 2 smaller sides will be equal to the square of largest side.
Note: When four vertices of a quadrilateral are given then distance formula helps to find the type of
quadrilateral
Rectangle : Opposite sides will be equal and both diagonals wil be equal
Section Formula
Let A and B two points in a plane and P be any point divides the line segment AB in the ratio m:n
internally A m p n B ie AP:PB = m:n
AP m
Or
PB n
If A is the point (x1,y1),B(x2,y2) P(x,y) is a point which divides AB internally in the ratio m:n then
mx 2 nx 1 my 2 ny1
x ,y
mn mn
If P is mide point of AB then ‘P’ divide AB in the ratio 1:1 and co ordinate of P is given by
x 2 x1 y y1
x y 2
2 2
QI Find the co ordinate of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (–2,3) and (4,7)
internally in the ratio 3:5
mx 2 nx1 3 4 5 2 12 10
x
mn 35 8
2 1
x
8 4
my 2 ny1 3 7 5 3 21 15 36
y
mn 3 5 8 8
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Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
9 1 9
y then P is ,
2 4 2
Q:2 Find the mid point of the line segment joining (4,–2) and (–5,8)
x 2 x 1 5 4 1
x
2 2 2
y 2 y1 8 2 6
y 3
2 2 2
1
mid point = ,3
2
Note: The co ordinate of the centroid of the triangle whose vertices are (x1,y1) (x2,y2) and (x3,y3) are
x1 x 2 x 3 y1 y 2 y3
,
3 3
Four Constants in a triangle
Centroid: It is the point of intersection of all the medians in a triangle.
Ortho centre: It is the point of intersection of 3 altitudes of a triangle
Circum centre: It is the point of intersection of perpendicular bisectors of sides of a triangle
In centre: It is the point of intersection of all the angle bisectors of a triangle
Area of A triangle
Area of a triangle by is using the coordinate of 3 vertices of a triangle
Let A (x1,y1) B(x2,y2) C(x3,y3) be vertices of ABC
1 1 1
AL BM LM BM CN MN AL CN NL
2 2 2
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
1
y1 y 2 x 2 x1 y 2 y3 x 3 x 2 y1 y3 x 3 x1
2
1
y1x 2 y1x1 y 2 x 2 x1y 2 y2 x 3 y2 x 2 y3 x 3 y3 x 2 y1x 3 y1x1 y3 x 3 y3 x1
2
1
y1 x 2 x 3 y 2 x 3 x1 y3 x1 x 2
2
Note: If area of a triangle is zero. Then the three vertices are collinear
EXERCISE 7.1
1. Find the distance between the following pair of points
A) (2,3) and (4,1) B) (a,b) and (–a,–b)
2. Determine of the points (1,5) (2,3) and (–2,-11) are collinear
3. Check whether (5,–2) (6,–4) and (7,–2) are the vertices of an isosceles triangle
4. Name the type of quadrilateral formed if any by the following points
A) (–1,–2) (1,0) (–1,2) (–3,0) B) (–3,5) (3,1) (0,3) (–1,-4)
5. Find the point on x axis which is equidistant from (2,–5) and (–2,9)
6. Find the value of y for which the distance between the points P(2,–3) and Q (10,y) is 10 units
7. If Q (0,1) is equidistant from P(5,–3) and R (x,6) find x
8. Find a relation between x and y such that the point (x,y) is equidistant from point (3,6) and (–3,4)
EXERCISE 7.2
1. Find the co ordiante of the point which divides the join of (–1,2) and (4,–3) in the ratio 2:3
2. Find the co ordinate of the points of intersection of the line segment joining (4,–1) and (–2,–3)
3. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (–3,10) and (6,8) is divided by (–1,6)
4. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining A (1,–5) and B (–4,5) is divided by x - axis also find the
point of division
5. If (1,2) (4,y) (x,6) and (3,5) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find x and y
6. Find the coordinate of a point A where AB is diameter of a circle whose centre is (2,–3) and B (1,4)
3
7. If A and B are (–2,–2) and B (2,–4) respectively find the coordinate of P such that AP AB and P lies
7
on the line segment AB
8. Find the area of rhombus if its vertices are (3,0) (4,5) (–1,4) and (–2,–1) taken in order
EXERCISE 7.3
1. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (2,3) (–1,0) and (2,–4)
2. In each of the following find the value of k for which the points are collinear
A) (7,–2) (5,1) (3,k) B) (8,1) (k,-4) (2,–5)
3. Find the area of triangle formed by joining the mid points of the sides of the triangle whose vertices are
(0,–1) (2,1) and (0,3). Find the ratio of their area tot he area of the given triangle
4. Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are (–4,Þ) (–3,á) (3,Þ) and (2,3) taken in order
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QUESTIONS
1. The distance between the following pair of points 3sin , 4cos , 2sin cos is
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 7
2. The distance between the points (3,x) and (4,1) is 10 , then the value of x is
A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 5
3. The point (x,y) equidistant from (2,5) and (–3,7), then the relation between x and y is
A) 2x 3y 7 B) 10x 4y 20 0
C) 10x 4y 29 0 D) 10x 4y 30 0
4. The vertices of a triangle are (2,3) (6,–1), (–4,–3) then the triangle is
A) Equilateral B) Isosceles C) Right angled D) Scalene triangle
5. The four vertices of a quadrilateral are A(0,–1) B (–2,3) C (6,7) D(8,3) then the quadrilateral is
A) parallelogram B) Trapezium C) Rectangle D) Rhombus
6. The coordinate of the point which divides the line segment joining (–5,7) and (3,–5) in the ratio 5:4
internally is
2 1 5 1 1 5 1
A) , B) ,0 C) , D) ,
3 3 9 3 3 9 3
7. The mid point of the line segment joining 3, 7 and 6, 2 is
9 9 5 7
A) , B) 4, 4 C) 3, 4 D) ,
2 2 2 2
8. The coordinate of points of trisection of the line segment joining the point A(2,–2) and B (–7,4)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
A) , B) , C) , D) ,
4 2 4 2 2 4 2 3
9. If AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O, the coordinate of B if A and O are (4,–1) and (1,–3)
respectively
A) (2,5) B) (1,5) C) (5,2) D) (–2,–5)
10. In what ratio does the point (6,–6) divide the join of (1,4) and (9,–12)?
A) 1:2 B) 3:2 C) 5:3 D) 2:3
11. In what ratio does the x-axis divide the join of (2,–4) and (–3,6)
A) 2:3 B) 1:3 C) 3:4 D) 1:5
12. The 3 vertices of a parallelogram, taken in order are (1,–2) (3,6) and (5,10) then the fourth vertex
A) (3,2) B) (2,3) C) (4,3) D) (3,3)
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
13. If the points (x,5) (–2,–2) (5,y) and (7,7) are the vertices of a rhombus taken in order then x and y are
A) (1,2) B) (0,0) C) (1,1) D) (1,3)
14. The centroid of the triangle with the following vertices (2,–2), (–4,6) and (2,5) is
A) (3,3) B) (0,3) C) (3,–3) D) (0,0)
15. The centroid of a triangle in (1,3) and 2 of its vertices are (6,–7) and (–3,8) then the third vertex is
A) (4,8) B) (8,0) C) (0,8) D) (6,4)
16. The point of concurrence of medians of ABC having sides 2x 3y 12, x y 1 and y 0 is
3 3 10 2
A) , B) 6,7 C) 2,3 D) ,
2 10 3 3
19. Length of the median from B on AC where A 1,3 B 1, 1 C 5,1 is
A) 18 B) 10 C) 2 3 D) 4
20. The area of a triangle whose vertices are a,c a a,c and a,c a are
A) a2 B) b2 C) c2 D) a2 + c2
21. The area of the quadrilaterals the coordinates of whose vertices are (1,2) (6,2) (5,3) and (3,4) are
9 11
A) B) 5 C) D) 11
2 2
22. If the point P 2,1 lies on the line segment joining points A(4,2) and B (8,4) then
1 1 1
A) AP AB B) AP AB C) PB AB D) AP AB
3 3 2
23. If the points k, 2k 3k,3k and 3,1 are collinear then the value of k is
7 2 2 1
A) B) C) D)
9 3 3 3
24. If the centroid of a triangle formed by the points (a,b) (b,c) and (c,a) is at origin then a 3 b3 c3 is
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25. If the area of a triangle formed by the points k, 2k 2,6 and 3,1 is 20 square units then k =
3 2
A) 5 B) 4 C) D)
5 3
26. The line segment joining the points 3, 4 and 1, 2 is divided by the y-ais in the ratio
28. The area of the ABC with vertices A 5, 7 B 4, 5 and C 4,5 is
A) 35 B) 25 C) 53 D) 20
29. The points (a,0) (0,b) and (1,1) are collinear then
1 1 1 1 2 2
A) 1 B) 1 C) 1 D) a b 1
a b a b a b
30. The ratio in which the line 3x y 9 0 divide the segment joining the points (1,3) and (2,7) is
A) 3:4 B) –2:1 C) 1:3 D) 2:3
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
CHAPTER -04
INTRODUCTION TO TRIGONOMETRY
Position of a point P in the Cartesian plane with respect to co-ordinate axes is represented by the
ordered pair (x,y)
Trigonometry is the science of relationships between the sides and angles of a right-angled triangle
Trigonometric Ratios: Ratios of sides of right triangle are called trigonometric ratios. Consider triangle
ABC right-angled at B. These ratios are always defined with respect to acute angle ‘A’ or angle ‘C’.
If one of the trigonometric ratios of an acute angle is known, the remaining trigonometric ratios of an
angle can be easily determined.
How to identify sides: Identify the angle with respect to which the t-ratios have to be calculated. Sides
are always labelled with respect to the ' ' being considered
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In a right triangle ABC, right-angled at B. Once we have identified the sides, we can define six t-Ratios
with respect to the sides
(i) sine A =
perpendicular BC
hypotenuse AC
(ii) cosine A=
base AB
hypotenuse AC
(iii) tangent A =
perpendicular BC
base AB
(iv) cosecant A =
hypotenuse AC
perpendicular BC
(v) secant A=
hypotenuse AC
base AB
(vi) cotangent A =
base AB
perpendicular BC
1 1 1
cos ecant A ,secant A ,cot angent A
sin A cosine A tan A
However, it is very tedious to write full forms of t-ratios, therefore the abbreviated notations are
sine A is sin A
cosine A is cos A
tangent A is cosec A
secant A is sec A
cotangent A is cot A
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
TRIGONOMETRIC IDENTITIES
An equation involving trigonometric ratio of angle(s) is called a trigonometric identity, if it is true for all
values of the angles involved. These are
sin
tan
cos
cos
cot
sin
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The value of sin and cos can never exceed 1 (one) as opposite side is 1. Adjacent side can never
be greater than hypotenuse since hypotenuse is the longest side in a right-angled
or C 90 A
Thus, A and C are known as complementary angles and are related by the following relationships
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
QUESTIONS
1. The value of cos 0°.cos 1°.cos 2°. cos 3°....cos 89° cos 90° is
1
A) 1 B) –1 C) 0 D)
2
2. If x tan 45° sin 30° = cos 30° tan 30°, then x is equal to
1 1
A) 3 B) C) D) 1
2 2
3. If x and y are complementary angles, then
A) sin x = sin y B) tan x = tan y C) cos x = cos y D) sec x = cosec y
4. sin 2B = 2 sin B is true when B is equal to
A) 90° B) 60° C) 30° D) 0°
BC
5. If A,B and C are interior angles of a ABC the cos is equal to
2
A A A A
A) sin B) sin C) cos D) cos
2 2 2 2
6. If A and 2A 45 are acute angles such that sin A cos 2A 45 , then tan A is equal to
1
A) 0 B) C) 1 D) 3
3
x2 1 x2 1 x2 1 x2 1
A) B) C) D)
x 2x x 2x
10. If sec A tan A x, then tan A =
x2 1 x2 1 x2 1 x2 1
A) B) C) D)
x 2x x 2x
1 cos A
11. is equal to
sin A
1
A) –7 B) 0 C) 1 D)
2
1
A) –1 B) 0 C) 1 D)
2
a
14. Given that sin , then tan
b
b b2 a 2 a b2 a 2
A) B) C) D)
b2 a 2 b b2 a 2 a
1
A) 0 B) 1 C) D) 3
3
1
A) 0 B) 1 / 2 C) D) 1
2
3 1
A) 2 B) 1 C) D)
4 2
A) 1 / 2 B) 1/ 3 C) 3 D) 1
22. In OPQ , right-angled at P, OP=7cm and OQ-PQ=1cm, then the values of sin Q
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
A) 5 3 B) 2 3 C) 10 D) none of these
25. In ABC , right-angled at B, AB=5cm and ACB 30 then the length of the side AC is
A) 5 3 B) 2 3 C) 10 cm D) none of these
2 tan 30
26. The value of is
1 tan 2 30
1 tan 2 45
27. The value of is
1 tan 2 45
A) a B) a 2 C) 1 D) 1/a
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CHAPTER -05
SOME APPLICATIONS OF TRIGONOMETRY
ANGLE OF ELEVATION
In order to see an object which is at a higher level compared to the ground level we are to look up. The
line joining the object and the eye of the observer is known as the line of sight and the angle which this
line of sight makes with the horizontal drawn through the eye of the observer is known as the angle of
elevation. Therefore, the angle of elevation of an object helps in finding out its height (Figure).
ANGLE OF DEPRESSION
When the object is at a lower level than the observer’s eyes, he has to look downwards to have a view
of the object. In that case, the angle which the line of sight makes with the horizontal through the
observer’s eye is known as the angle of depression (Figure)
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
QUESTIONS
1. A pole 6 m high casts a shadow 2 3 m long on the ground, then the Sun’s elevation is :
A) 600 B) 450 C) 300” D) 900
2. If the height of a vertical pole is 3 times the length of its shadow on the ground, then the angle of
elevation of the sun at that time is:
A) 300 B) 600 C) 450 D) 750
3. The length of a string between a kite and a point on the ground is 85 m. If the string makes an angle
15
with the ground level such that tan , then the kite is at what height from the ground?
8
A) 75 m B) 79.41 m C) 80 m D) 72.5 m
4. The angle of depression of a car parked on the road from the top of 150m high tower is 300. The
distance of the car from the tower (in metres) is:
A) 50 3 B) 150 3 C) 150 2 D) 75
5. A ladder makes an angle of 600 with the ground placed against a wall. If the foot of the ladder is 2 m
away from the wall, the length of the ladder is:
4
A) 4 3m B) m C) 4m D) 2 2m
3
6. The shadow of a 5m long pole is 2m long. At the same time, the length of the shadow of a 12.5 m
height tree is:
A) 3m B) 3.5 m C) 5 m D) 4.5 m
7. A pole caste a shadow of length 2 3 m on the ground when the Sun’e elevation is 600. The height of
the pole is:
A) 3m B) 12m C) 4 3 m D) 6m
8. The length of vertical rod and its shadow are in the ratio 1: 3 . The angle of elevation of the sun is:
A) 300 B) 450 C) 600 D) 900
Assertion and Reason Based MCQs
Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) A is false but R is true
9. Assertion : The angle of elevation of the top of the tower from a point on the ground, which is 30m
away from the foot of the tower, is 300. The height of the tower is 10m.
Reason : The angle of depression from B to A and angle of elevation from A to B are equal.
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10. Assertion : The angle of elevation of a tower from two points which are at distances 12m and 64 m
from the foot of the tower on the opposite sides are complementary. The height of the
tower is 24m
Reason : The angle of elevation of a tower from two points which are at distances a and b from the
foot of the tower are complementary. Then the height of the tower is ab .
11. Assertion : If length of shadow of a vertical pole is equal to its height, then the angle of elevation of
sun is 450
Reason : According to the pythagoras theorem (Hypotenuse)2 = (Base)2 + (Perpendicular)2
12. Assertion : In the figure, if BC = 20 m, then height AB is 11.56 m
AB Perpendicular
Reason : tan , where is the angle ACB
BC Base
Attempt any 4 sub-parts from each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark
Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same.
A straight high way leads to the foot of tower. A man standing at the top of the tower observes a car at
an angle of depression of 300, which is approaching the foot of the tower with a uniform speed. Six
seconds later, the angle of depression of the car is found to be 600.
13. Find the time taken by the car to reach the foot of the tower from point D to B
A) 2 sec B) 3 sec C) 6 sec D) 4 sec
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
2 3 1
A) B) C) D) 3
3 2 3
2 3 1
A) 3 B) C) D)
3 2 3
16. The line drawn from the eye of an observer to teh point in the object viewed by the observer.
A) horizontal line B) Vertical line C) Line of sight D) Parallel lines
17. If the two lines are parallel; then the alternate opposite angles are ..............
A) different B) equal C) opposite D) None of these
Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same
Form a point P on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of a 10 m tall building is 300. A flag is
hoisted at the top of the building and angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from P is 450.
3 1
A) 1 B) C) 3 D)
2 3
3
A) 2 B) 0 C) 1 D)
2
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Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
A) BP 2 AB2 AP 2 B) AB2 AP 2 BP 2
III Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of same.
From a point on the bridge across a river the angle of depression of the banks on opposite sides of the
river 300 and 450 respectively
23. If the bridge is at a height of 3m from the banks, find the width of the river
A) 1
3 1 m B)
3 1 m C)
32 m D) 3
3 1 m
AD AP PD AD
A) B) C) D)
DP AD AD AP
1
A) 0 B) 2 C) 1 D)
3
Perpendicular Base
A) B)
Base Perpendicular
Hypotenuse Perpendicular
C) D)
Base Hypotenuse
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
CHAPTER -06
CONSTRUCTIONS
3) Along AX, mark off 5 points A1, A2, A3 and A4 such that AA1 A1A 2 A 2 A 3 A 3 A 4 A 4 A 5
4) Join BA5
5) Through A3 draw a line A3P parallel to A5B by making an angle equal to AA 5 B at A3 intersecting
AB at a point P
The point P so obstained is the required point, which divides AB internally in the ratio 3:2
II. Construction of a triangle similar to a given triangle
Example (2) : Construct a triangle ABC in which AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 7 cm. Now construct
a triangle similar to ABC such that each of its sides is two-third of the corresponding sides of
ABC
Steps of construction:-
1) Construct ABC with the given measures
2) Below AB, make an acute angle BAX
3) Along AX, mark off three points A1, A2, A3 such that AA1 A1A 2 A 2 A 3
4) Join A3B
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5) Draw A 2 B || A3 B , meeting AB at B
6) From B, draw BC || BC , meeting AC at C . ABC is the required triangle, each of th e sides is
two-third of the corresponding sides of ABC
III. Construction of tangent to a circle
a) To draw the tangent to a circle at a given point on it, when the centre of the circle is known
Steps of construction
i) Join OP
ii) Draw a line segment AB perpendicular to OP at the point P. APB is the required tangent at P
b) To draw the tangent to a circle at a given point P on its, when the centre is not given
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Steps of construction
i) Draw any chord PQ and join P and Q to a point R in the major arc
c) To draw the tangent to a circle from a point P outside it, when the centre is known
steps of construction
ii) Taking M as cente and MQ as radius, draw a circle to intersect O (o,r) in two points, say A and B
iii) Join PA and PB. These are the required tangents from P to the circle
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QUESTIONS
1. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 3:4, first, a ray is drawn so that BAX is an acute angle and
then at equal distances points are marked on the ray AX such that the minimum number of these
points is
A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 11
2. To divide a line segment AB of length 7.6 cm in the ratio 5:8, a ray AX is drawn first such that BAX
forms an acute angle and then points A1, A2, A3, .....are located at equal distances on the ray AX and
the point B is joined to
A) A5 B) A6 C) A10 D) A13
9
3. To construct a triangle similar to a given PQR with sides of the corresponding sides of PQR ,
5
draw a ray QX such that QRX is an acute angle and X is on the opposite side of P with respect to
QR. The minimum number of points to be located at equal distances on ray QX is
A) 5 B) 9 C) 10 D) 14
4. To construct a pair of tangents to a circle at an angle of 60° to each other, it is need to draw tangents
at end points of those two radii of the circle, the angle between them should be
A) 100° B) 90° C) 180° D) 120°
5
5. To construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides of the similar type of PQR ,
8
draw a ray QX such that QRX is an acute angle and X lies on the opposite side of P with respect to
QR. Then locate the points Q1, Q2,Q3.....on QX at equal distances, and the next step is to join
A) Q10 to C B) Q3 to C C) Q8 to C D) Q4 to C
6. To divide a line segment PQ in the ratio m:n, where m and n are two positive integers, draw a ray PX
so that PQX is an acute angle and then mark points on ray PX at equal distances such that the
minimum number of these points is
A) m+n B) m–n C) m n 1 D) greater than m & n
7. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined each other at an angle of 45° it is required to
draw tangents at the end points of those two radii of the circle, the angle between which is
A) 135° B) 155° C) 160° D) 120°
8. A pair of tangents can be constructed from a point P to a circle of radius 3.5cm situated at a distance
of ...........from the centre
A) 3.5cm B) 2.5cm C) 5 cm D) 2 cm
2
9. To construct a ABC and then a triangle similar to it whose sides are of the corresponding sides
3
of the first triangle. A ray AX is drawn where multiple points at equal distances are located. The last
point to which point B will meet the ray AX will be
A) A1 B) A2 C) A3 D) A4
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
3
10. To construct a triangle similar to a given PQR with its sides of the similar sides of PQR , draw
7
a ray QX such that QRX is an acute angle and X lies on the opposite side of P with respect to QR.
Then locate points Q1, Q2, Q3,.....on QX at equal distances, and the next step is to join
A) Q10 to R B) Q3 to R C) Q7 to R D) Q4 to R
3
11. If the scale factor is , then the new triangle constructed is .......... the given triangle
5
A) smaller than B) greater than C) over laps D) congruent to \
12. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 5:6 draw a ray AX such that BAX is an acute angle, then
draw a ray BY parallel to AX and the points, A1, A2, A3,.....and B1, B2, B3.....are located at equal distances
on ray AX and BY, respectively. Then the points joined are
A) A5 and B6 B) A6 and B5 C) A4 and B5 D) A5 and B4
13. By geometrical construction, which one of the following ratios is not possible to divide a line segment?
A) 1:10 B) 9: 4 C) 10 :1 D) 4 3 : 4 3
1
14. Bg geometrical construciton, is it possible to divide a line segment in the ratio : 3
3
A) Yes B) No
C) cannot be determined D) none of these
15. In constructions, the scale factor is used to construct....triangles
A) right B) equilateral C) Similar D) Congruent
16. In the division of a line segment AB, any ray AX making angle with AB is
A) an acute angle B) a right angle C) an obtuse angle D) reflex angle
17. A point P is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. How many tangents can
be drawn from point P to the circle
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) infinite
18. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio p:q, first a ray AX is drawn so that BAX is an acute angle
and then at equal distances points are marked on the ray AX such that the minimum number of these
points is 9. Here, the possible ratio of p:q is
A) 3:15 B) 4:7 C) 2:9 D) 5:4
19. A line segment drawn perpendicular from the vertex of a triangle to the opposite side is knwon as
A) altitude B) median
C) bisector of side D) radius of incircle of trianlge
20. If the line segment is divided in the ratio 3:7 then how many parts does it contain while constructing
the point of division?
A) 3 B) 7 C) 4 D) 10
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21. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of 35°, it is required
to draw tangents at the end points of those two radii of the circle, the angle between which is
A) 105° B) 70° C) 140° D) 145°
22. When a line segment is divided in the ratio 2:3, how many parts is it divided in to?
2
A) B) 2 C) 3 D) 5
3
23. PT and PS are tangents drawn to a circle with centre C from a point P. If TPS 50 , then TCS is
A) 150° B) 130° C) 120° D) 100°
24. A point O is at a distance of 10cm from the centre of a circle of radius 6 cm. How many tangents can
be drawn from point O to the circle?
A) 2 B) 1 C) infinite D) 0
25. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at angle x°, it is required to draw
tangents at the end points of those two radii of the cirlce, the angle between which is
A) 180 x B) 90 x C) 90-x D) 180+x
26. Length of the tangents to a circle from a point 26 cm away from the centre is 24cm, what is the radius
of the circle?
A) 11cm B) 13 cm C) 10 cm D) 12 cm
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CHAPTER -07
AREA RELATED TO CIRCLES
QUESTIONS
1. The radii of two circles are 19 cm and 9cm respectively. Find the radius of the circle which has
circumference equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two circles
2. In Fig. AB is a diameter of the circle, AC = 6 cm and BC=8cm. Find the area of the shaded region (Use
3.14 )
4. A chord of a circle of radius 12 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. Find the area of the
corresponding segment of the circle
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7. The length of the minute had of a clock is 5 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand during the
time period 6:05 am and 6:40 am
8. In fig. ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC, AB 18cm, DC 32cm and distance between AB and
DC = 14cm. If arcs of equal radii 7 cm with centres A,B,C and D have been drawn, then find the area
of the shaded region of the figure.
9. A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15m by means of a 5m
long rope (see fig) Find
(i) the area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze
(ii) the increase in the grazing area if the rope were 10 m long instead of 5m. (Use 3.14 )
10. A car has two wipers which donot overlap. Each wiper has a blade of length 25cm sweeping through
an angle of 115°. Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the blades.
11. A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in fig. If the radius of the cover is 28 cm, find the
cost of making the designs at the rate of Rs. 0.35 per cm2. (Use 3 1.7 )
12. Find the area of the flower bed (with semi-circular ends) shown in fig
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
13. Find the area of the shaded region in figure where a circular are of radius 6 cm has been drawn with
vertex O of an equilateral triangle OAB of side 12 cm as centre
14. Figure depicts a racing track whose left and right ends are semicircular. The distance between the
two inner parallel line segments is 60m and they are each 106m long. If the track is 10 m wide, find
(i) the distance around the track along its inner edge
(ii) the area of the track
15. The area of an equilateral triangle ABC is 17320.5cm2. With each vertex of the triangle as centre, a
circle is drawn with radius equal to half the length of the side of the triangle. Find the area of the
shaded region. (Use 3.14 and 3 1.73205 )
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16. In figure, OACB is a quadrant of a circle with centre O and radius 3.5 cm. If OD=2 cm, find the area of
the
(i) quadrant OACB, (ii) shaded region
17. In figure, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14cm and a semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter.
Find the area of the shaded region.
18. If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the area of a circle of radius R,
then
A) R 1 R 2 R B) R 12 R 22 R 2 C) R 1 R 2 R D) R 12 R 22 R 2
19. If the sum of the circumference of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the circumference of a
circle of radius R, then
A) R 1 R 2 R B) R 1 R 2 R
C) R 1 R 2 R D) Nothing definite can be said about the relation among R1, R2 and R
20. If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are equal, then
A) Area of the circle = Area of the square
B) Area of the circle > Area of the square
C) Area of the circle < Area of the square
D) Nothing definite can be said about the relation between the areas of the circle and square
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
21. Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units is
1 2
A) r2sq.units B) r sq.units C) 2r 2sq.units D) 2r 2 sq.units
2
22. If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is
23. It is proposed to build a single circular park equal in area to the sum of areas of two circular parks of
diameters 16m and 12m in a locality. The radius of the new park would be
24. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm is
25. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is
26. The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two
circles of diameters 36cm and 20 cm is
27. The diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles of radii 24cm
and 7 cm is
28. In the following figure, if O is the centre of the circle and radius OA = 14cm, then the area of the shaded
portion is
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29. As shown in the figure diameter of outer circle is 12cm. Ratio of shaded area of upper semi circle to
that of the shaded area in the lower semicircle
A) 13 5 B) 17 5 C) 7 10 D) 7 5
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
CHAPTER -08
STATISTICS
Statistics :
Statistics is the branch of Mathematics where we extract meaningful information and conclusions
from data.
Origin of statistics
The word statistics was derived from the latin word ‘STATUS’ which means a political state. The origin
of statistics was due to the administrative requirements of a state. So in its origin statistics was collection
of data or collected data only. But its meaning has changed over the period of time. Now STATISTICS
not only means collection and presentation of data, but also means analysis, interpretation and drawing
meaningful conclusions from data. Thus in statistics
1) We collect data
2) We present data
3) Analaize data
4) Interpret data
5) Draw meaningful conslusions from data
Definition of statistics as a plural noun
As a plural noun statistics is defined the data collected. For example the data regarding educational
institutions in india the, data regarding the literacy rate of various states in India etc are the statistics
regarding that variables.
As a singular noun statistics is defined as the science or subject which deals with the collection,
presentation, analysis, interpretation and drawing of meaningful conclusions from data.
A measure of central Tendency or an average is defined as a representative value. The average stands
for the whole data. Some of the important averages are Arithmetic Mean or simply mean, median and
mode.
The mean of a set of items is defined as the sum of the items (observations) divided by the number of
items. Let x1 , x 2 , x 3 .....x n be n items. The mean is given by
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x1 x 2 x 3 ..... x n
x
n
xi
In symbols x i 1
n
Mean in a Grouped data (Frequency Distribution :-
1) Discrete frequency Distribution
Consider the Discrete f.d
xi x1 x2 x3 .... xn
fi f1 f2 f3 .... xn
fi xi f1x1 f 2 x 2 f3 x 3 .... f n x n
f x i i
x i 1
n
fi
i 1
f i is also denoted by N.
f x i i
x i 1
N
Continuous frequency Distribution
Consider the following continuous f.d
n n
fi x i f x i i
x i 1
n
i 1
N
f
i 1
i
where N f
i 1
i
fi = frequency of a class
xi = Mid point ( Class marks of that class)
Assumed Mean Method
In this method we have the following procedure
1) Write the class mark of every class
2) The middle point of class marks is called the ‘Assumed Mean’ (A) ( if there are two middle values any
of them can be taken as assumed mean). Assumed mean is denoted by A.
3) Now we find d i x i A
This is calculated for every xi
f d N fi
4) Find fidi, f d i i and the mean of di is given by d i
N
i i
5) di
f d i i
fi x i A
N N
di
f x i i
A fi
N N
di x A
x A di
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Example
Class fi xi di x i A fi di
0 10 5 5 20 100 130
10 20 3 15 10 30
20 30 7 25 0 0
30 40 5 35 10 50 250
10 200
40 50 45 20
30 120
di
f d i i
120
4
N 30
x A di 25 4 29
Step Deviation Method
If all classes are of the same width, the step deviation method can be used for finding mean, the
procedure of which is given below. If classes are of unequal width and if there is a common divisor for
all the di then also this method can be used.
1) Find the class mark of every class
2) Let xi be the class mark. The middle value of class mark is denoted by A and is called the assumed
Mean. If there are two middle values any one of them can be taken as assumed mean.
xi A
3) Corresponding to each class find u i where h is the width of the class
h
5) find u
f u i i
, N fi
N
n
xi _ A
fi u i f i
h
6) u i 1
N N
u
1 f x i i A fi
h N
1 f i x i A fi
u
h N N
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
1
u x A
h
x A hu
Example
di
Class fi xi di ui fi u i
20
20 60 7 40 160 8 56
60 100 5 80 120 6 30
100 150 16 125 75 3.75 60
150 250 12 200 0 0 0
250 350 2 300 100 5 10
3 30
350 450 400 200 10
45 106
106
u 2.36
45
MODE
Mode is the most frequently appearing item in a set. Or in other words, mode is the items having the
maximum frequency consider the observations 2,3,8,6,4,6,9,6,4,6,9. and 6. We form a frequency
distribution as follows.
Items :
Items: 2 3 4 6 8 9
Frequency 1 1 2 5 1 2
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In certain data there may be more than one mode. If there are two modes for a data, it is called Bimodal
data. If there is only one mode the data is called unimodal. In general if there is more than one mode the
data is called multi modal h.
Modal Class : In a grouped f.d. the class having the highest frequency is called model class. Mode is a
value which belongs to the modal class.
f1 f 0
Mode h where
2f1 f 0 f 2
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
Find Mode
Class f
10 25 2
25 40 3
40 55 7
55 70 6 Modal class 40-55; h=15,f1 = 7; f0 = 3 f2 = 6 ; 40
70 85 6
85 100 6
f1 f 0
Mode = h
2f1 f 0 f 2
73
40 15
14 3 6
60
40 52
5
Symmetric f.d. skewness
Mean Median Mode ve skewness
Mode Median Mean ve skewness
Median :-
Median of a set of items is the middle most item when the set is in ascending order. The median of n
items in the ascending order:-
Case 1 : when n is odd
th
n 1
Median = item
2
When ‘n’ is even there are two middle values. The Median is
th th
n n
item 1 item
2 2
Median
2
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Ascending order:
2, 3, 4, 5, 7,8,9,10,11
n 1 9 1
n = 9 (odd) 5
2 2
7,8, 9,10,12,13,14, 20
n n
n 8 Even 4 1 5
2 2
Median = Average of 4th and 5th items
20 8
Median 14
2
Cumulative Frequency table
Consider the following f.d
xi fi
5 10
7 2
9 8
11 3
13 7
Number of items up to 5 = 10
no.of items up to 7 = 10 + 2 = 12
no.of items up to 9 = 12 + 8 = 20
The value 10,12,23 and 30 are called cumulative frequencies. If the cumulative frequencies are also
included in a f.d. it is called the cumulative frequency table. For the above data the cumulative f.Table
is given below
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
xi fi cumulative frequency
5 10 10
7 2 12
9 8 20
11 3 23
7
13 30
30
n n
n 30 9 1 9
2 2
99
Median = 9
2
N
Note : Thus Median in a discrete f.d is the item corresponding to which c.f just where N is the
2
Total frequency
xi fi cf
20 6 6
25 20 26
28 24 50
29 28 78
33 15 93
38 4 97
42 2 99
1
43 100
100
N
n 100 50
2
N
c.f just 78
2
item corresponding to 78 is 29
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Median 29
xi fi cf
5 3 3 N 45
15 7 10 N
22.5
20 10 20 2
N
25 5 25 c.f just is
2
30 12 37
25 item against
35 3 40
25 is 25
5
40 45 Median 25
45
25 25 25 25 30 30 .....30
3 12
35 35 35 40 40 40 40 40
3 5
n 1 45 1
23rd item 25
2 2
Note : Median = 25 means 50 % of the items are above 25 and 50 % of the items are below 25
Median in a grouped f.d
N
Median class: In a grouped f.d . The class corresponding to which cumulative frequency just where
2
N fi is called Median class
Example
Class fi cf
0 10 12 12
10 20 10 22
20 30 13 35
30 40 7 42
18
40 50 60
60
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
N
N 60 30
2
N
c.f just is 35 Median Class is 20-30
2
In a grouped f.d.
Median is given by
N
cf
2
Median h
f
N Total frequency
Class f cf
135 140 4 4
140 145 7 11
145 150 18 29
150 155 11 40
155 160 6 46
5
160 165 51
51
N N
N 51; 25.5 ; c.f just is 29; Median class 145-150; h = 5
2 2
Class f cf
0 10 7 7
16 20 x 7x
20 30 12 19 x
30 40 y 19 x y
11
40 50 30 x y
50
30 x y 50 x y 20
N
cf
2
Median h
f
26 20
25 7 x 10
12
6
18 x 10
12
72
18 x x 18 7.2
10
x 9.8 10 y 10
Class work :
Selected problems in Exercise 14.3
Cumulative frequencies in a Grouped f.d
1. Less than cumulative frequencies
In a f.d the frequencies less than the various upper limits are called less than cumulative frequencies
(LCF)
It means there are 5 items less than upper limit 10,12 items less than upper limit 20 and so on.
More than (Greater than) Cumulative Frequencies
In a grouped f.d, the frequencies greater than the various lower limits are called greater than cumulative
frequencies. For example
Gcf =50 means there are 50 items greater than lower limit 0. Gcf = 25 means there are 25 items
greater than lower limit 15 and so on.
Graphical Representation of Cumulative frequencies or
O
g
i
v
e
c
u
r
v
e
s
The graphical representation of cumulative frequencies are called cumulative frequency curve or the
ogive curves. There are two types of ogive curves viz the less than cumulative frequency curve or the
less than ogive curve and the greater than (more than) cumulative frequency curve or the greater than
(More than) ogive curve
1) Less than ogive curve
X axis Y axis
Upper lim its LCF
Take upper limits along X-axis and LCF along Y-axis. The ploted points are joined by a smooth curve
x axis y axis
Lower lim its Gcf
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Class fi cf xi fixi
0 10 2 2 5 10
10 20 5 7 15 75
20 30 10 17 25 250
30 40 5 22 35 175
2 90
40 50 24 45
24 600
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
10 12 7
median 20 25
10
f1 f0
10 5
Mode 20 10 25
20 5 5
2f1 f 0 f 2
Questions
Mean = 12 Median = 12.5 Find Mode
Mean = 33 Mode =29 Find Median
Median = 112.8 Mode =112 Find Mean
Merits and Demerits of A.M
Merits
1) A.M is the most popular Average
2) It is based on all observations
3) It lies b/w the largest and smallest item in the set
4) It helps to compare two or more distributions. For using A.M we can find the school with better
performance in an examination
Demerits
1) A.M is very much affected bt entreme values
2) In some cases A.M may be a value which seems to be absured
Merit of Median
If we are not interested in individual observations and if we are interested only in a typical observation,
the median is the most suitable average. For example in case of average productivity of workers,
Average wages of workers etc median is regarded as the ideal average
Merits of mode
If we are interested in the most frequent item or the most popular item, then mode is the ideal average
when we say the average size of shoe, average size of ready made garments etc, we mean mode as
the ideal average.
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QUESTIONS
1. Consider the following frequency distribution
xi : 1 2 4 6 8
fi : 2 3 3 2 -
If the A.M. of the f.d. is 5, then the frequency of 8 is
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
2. The mode of the following f.d.
Variable : 4 8 9 12 15 20
Frequency : 7 5 14 3 9 2
A) 9 B) 12 C) 10.5 D) 15
3. The A.M. of the series 1,3,9,27, 81....3n is
3n 1 3n 1 1 3n 1 3n 1
A) B) C) D)
2n 2 n 1 n n 1
4. The mean of x1, x2, x3 ....xn is x . If x2 is replaced by then the new mean is
x x2 n 1 x nx x 2
A) x x 2 B) C) D)
n n n
A) x n B) x n 1 C) x 2 D) x n
6. If mean and median are 21 and 22 then its mode is
A) 24 B) 25.5 C) 20.5 D) 22
7. The mean marks of 120 students is 20. It was later found that two marks were wrongly taken as 50
and 80 instead of 15 and 18. The correct mean of marks
A) 19.19 B) 19.17 C) 19.21 D) 19.14
8. The average salary of male workers is 5200 rupees and that of female workers is 4200 rupees. The
mean salary of all the employeec is 5000 rupees. Then the percentage of male employees is
A) 80 B) 60 C) 40 D) 20
9. The A.M. of a items is 15. If one more item is added the A.M. becomes 16. Then the value of the added
item
A) 30 B) 27 C) 25 D) 23
10. In a batch of 20 students, 8 students failed. The marks of 12 students who passed the test are
8,5,6,9,8,7,7,9,6,5,8,9. Then the median of all the students
A) 5 B) 6 C) 5.5 D) 7
11. Is the A.M in an ungrouped f.d. a weighted A.M. If so what is the weight of an item
A) Mid point B) Lower limit C) Upper limit D) Frequency of that item
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
n
A) a d B) a nd C) a n 2 d D) a 2nd
2
13. The y-coordinate corresponding tot he x-coordinate = median in a less than ogive curve is ......where
N fi
N N N
A) B) C) D) N
3 4 2
14. Which of the following is true for a positively skewed distribution
A) Mean = Median = Mode B) Mean > Median > Mode
C) Mean < Median < Mode D) Median > Mean > Mode
15. Which of the following is a strictly increasing curve
A) Frequency curve B) More than ogive curve
C) It is to gram D) Less than ogive curve
16. Consider the following less than ogive and more than ogive curves
15
A) 15 B) C) 30 D) 45
2
18. Which of the following is severly offected by extreme values
A) Median B) Arithmetic mean C) Geometric mean D) Mode
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N
20. The class corresponding to which the cumulative frequency just greater than where N f i is
2
called
A) Median class B) Modal class C) Mean class D) Median
21. When we say the average size of shoe, we refer to the average
A) Arithmetic mean B) Median C) Geometric mean D) Mode
22. In less than ogive curve, the x-axis is marked with.....
A) upper limits B) lower limits C) frequency D) cumulative frequency
23. In an examination there are 2 students with mark 13, three students with mark 14, then students with
marks 20, twenty students with marks 24, eight students with mark 25, four students with mark 30
and three studuents with mark 31. What is the Arithmetic mean of marks
A) 23.22 B) 22.23 C) 32.22 D) 46.44
24. Consider the following data
Food 50 3
Clothing 20 2
Rent 10 1
Fuel 10 1
Education 20 3
A) 27 B) 72 C) 54 D) 45
25. For a frequency distribution lower limit of model class = 40 size of modal class = 15 Frequency of
modal class = 7 Frequency of class preceeding and succeeding modal class are respectively 3 and
6. Then the mode is
A) 62 B) 52 C) 42 D) 25
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CHAPTER -09
PROBABILITY
Random Experiment : An experiment whose outcomes (Results) can not be predicated in advance
Tossing of a coin, throwing a die etc are examples of random experiment. Performing of a random
experiment is called a TRIAL of the experiment
Sample space : Set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment. It is denoted by S. Examples:
A coin is said to be fair or unbiased if it is symmetric so that there is no reason to believe that one side
of the coin will occur more often than the other side. OR in other words both sides have the same
chance to turn up.
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Randon Toss
By the phrase random toss we mean that the coin is allowed to fall freely without any bias, prejudice or
interference
Event : Any sub set of the sample spale. Let S = [H,T]
Elementary event :
An event contains only one outcome
Favourable outcomes and events
Then 2,3 and 5 are the outcomes favourable for event A = Prime faces
Event A is called the favourable event
Q. Two coins are tossed. Find the events and outcom favourable for exactly one Head.
Then A is the favourable event. The outcomes HT and TH are favourable outcomes
Q. Two dice are thrown, Find the favourable outcomes and events for i) sum 8 ii) same face
(11) (16)
S= Ref.sample space in Page 1
(61) (66)
ii) Same faces : 11 22 33 34 55 66 the outcomes in this event are the favourable outcomes.
Sure Event
The sample space ‘S’ is called the sure event. The example when a fair coin is tossed it is sure that
either Head or Tail will turn up S H,| T is sure to happen.
Impossible Event.
An event which is impossible to occur (happen) is called an impossible event. For example when a die
is thrown getting a face 7 is impossible
Equally likely Events: Events are equally likely if they have the same chance to occur. For example
when a fair coin is tossed Head and Tail have the same chance. Hence A = [H ] and B = [T] are equally
likely events
Mutually Exclusive Events : Events which can not occur at the same time
Complement of A A , A
1
A1 S A
S 1 2 3 4 5 6
A 1 3 5 A1 2, 4, 6 Also A A S
If the chances of happening and not happening are the same for an event, then that event is called an
event with even chance. For example when a coin is tossed the chance of getting a head and of not
getting a head are the same. Hence chance of a head is even. In the case of a new born baby to be a
boy has even chance
If an event is more likely to happen than not to happen, it is said to have good chance to happen. For
example when a fair die the thrown there is good chance of getting a face 5
If an event is less likely to happen than not to happen, it is said to have poor chance for example when
a natural no is taken from the first 100 natural nos, getting a number between 21 and 23 poor chance
Probability:
Probability is defined as a measure of chance of future events. Using this measure we can compare
the chance of happening of various events.
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Let a random experiment be repeated a total of ‘n’ times. Out of ‘n’ repetitions or trials of the experiment,
r
let an event ‘A’ occurs ‘r’ times. Then is called the frequency ratio or an estimate of the probability
n
of the event A. It is denoted by P(A). ie in empirical or experimental method probability of the event A is
r
But is not the actual probability, it is only an estimate to the probability. But when the number of trials
n
r
increases the value of will tend to the exact value of the probability. Consider the following table
n
where a coin is tossed repeatedly and we observe the number of heads
Number r
Number of Frequency Ratio
n
Trials(n) of Heads r
Estimate of Probability
4
10 4 0.4
10
45
100 45 0.43
100
458
1000 458 0.458
1000
2048
4040 2048 0.507
4040
5067
10000 5067 0.5067
10, 000
12012
24000 12012 0.5005
24000
It can be seen that as the number of trials ‘n’ increases probability of head is settling down to 0.5
Some important names that are to be remembered in developing empirical probability are
1) George Louis comte de Buffon (1701 -1788) who tossed a coin 4040 times. Buffon was a French
Mathematician, Naturalist and cosmologist.
2) John Edmund Kerrich (1903-1985) a British Biostatistician who tossed the coin 10,000 times
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
3) Prof. Karl Peasson, an English Mathematician and Biostatistician who tossed a coin 10,000 times.
Karl Peason established the department of statistics at the university college London.
The experiment al probability has some limitations as it is very expensive and / or it is infeasible in
certain situations. Hence we have another method of outculating the probability of an event A.
m
P A
n
m 3 1
P(A) = P (Even Face) =
n 6 2
m = no . of outcomes in A = 3
m 3 1
P (A) = P (odd face) =
n 6 2
m = no. of outcomes in A = 3
m 3
P A P Pr ime face
n 6
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v) P A P Not A 1
ie P A P A 1
A Not A S
P A PC Not A P S 1
P Not A 1 P A
P A 1 P A
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School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
1 1 5
P 5 P Not 5 1 P 5 1
6 6 6
Qn : A natural number is selected at random from 1 to 100. What is the prob. that it is not a multiple of 10
Qn: Two fair dice are thrown. What is the probability that the sum of faces is not 8.
Qn: When a die is thrown. What is the prob. of getting face 8?
6
P A P S 1
6
Playing Curds
2 2 2 2 4
3 3 3 3 4
4 4 4 4 4
. . . . .
. . . . .
. . . . .
10 10 10 10 4
Total 13 13 13 13 52
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Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
A card is taken from a packet of eards. What is the prob. that is a space or Ace.
16 4
p [Spade or Ace ] =
52 13
Area of square a a a 2
Area of circle = r 2
170
School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
A point is taken at random from the inside region of the square. What is the prob.that will be in the
interior of the circle
P Circle r 2
P
P Square a 2 .Such probabilies are called Geometrical probability..
1) A die is dropped on the rectangular region with side 5 cm. What is the prob. that it will land inside of a
circle with radius 2 cm
4 4
P
5 5 25
2) A point is takes at random from the interior of a circle with diameter 20 cm. What is the prob that it will
be inside of a right triangle with sides 3,4 and 5 a right triangle with sides 3, 4 and 5
1
3 4
6 3
P 2
10 100 50
2
171
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QUESTIONS
1. A Natural number is selected at random from the first 20 natural numbers. What is the probability that
it is a prime number
8 7 9 5
A) B) C) D)
20 20 20 20
1 2 1 6
A) B) C) D)
2 7 7 7
3. What is the probability that there are 53 sundays in a non leap year
1 2 1 6
A) B) C) D)
2 7 7 7
1 1
A) 0 B) C) D) 1
2 4
1 1
A) 0 B) C) D) 1
2 4
2 9 12 7
6. A number is selected at random from the numbers , , and what is the probability that it is a
3 11 15 9
fraciton
1 2 1 3
A) B) C) D)
2 3 4 4
7. Two fair dice are thrown. What is the probability that the sum of faces is not 8
5 8 31 30
A) B) C) D)
36 36 36 36
8. A card is taken from a packet of cards. What is the probability that it is a spade ace
3 5 1 1
A) B) C) D)
52 52 26 52
172
School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
9. A Bag contains 4 Red 3 Pink and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability
that it is not red
1 8 11 3
A) B) C) D)
5 11 15 11
10. A bag contains 80 red, 24 white and some blue marbles. The probability of selecting a blue marble is
1
. What is the number of blue marbles in the box.
5
A) 25 B) 26 C) 27 D) 28
Passage
Two fair dice are rolled siultaneously Based on this answer the following 3 questions (Q, nos 11,
12,13)
11. What is the probability that face shown by first dice is less than face shown by second die
15 21 17 1
A) B) C) D)
36 36 36 2
15 17 1 5
A) B) C) D)
36 36 2 36
13. What is the probability that the sum of faces is greater than 2
31 35 1
A) B) C) D) 0
36 36 36
14. In a 2 b 2 trials of a random experiment if an event A happens a+b times, then the probability of
happening of that event is given by
1 1
A) a-b B) C) a b D)
ab ab
15. A Jar contains 72 balls each of which is red, black and yellow. The probability of selecting a yellow ball
1 1
is and selecting a black ball is . What is the probability of selecting a red ball.
6 2
1 1 1
A) B) C) D) 0
2 4 3
173
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16. If you remove all the face cards from a packet of 52 cards, what is the probability of getting a red card.
1 1 1 1
A) B) C) D)
2 4 3 5
17. A die is thrown twice. The probability that the sum of faces being odd
1 1 1 1
A) B) C) D)
3 4 2 6
18. A die has faces numbered with 0,1,7,3,5 and 9. If it is thrown, the probability of getting an odd face is
2 5 1
A) 1 B) C) D)
3 6 6
19. A circle is inscribed in a square of side 14cm. A point is taken at random from the square. What is the
probability that it is outside the circle and inside the square
3 3 5 13
A) B) C) D)
16 14 14 16
20. A number x is choosen at random from the numbers –3,–2,–1,0,1,2,3. The probability that x 2 is
5 3 5 4
A) B) C) D)
7 49 49 49
1
A) 1 B) 0 C) D) none
2
22.
P A
2
3
1
and P B Then P A P B
3
1 2
A) 1 B) 0 C) D)
3 3
174
School Plus E-Programme Class X (CBSE) Module-II
23. Two dice are rolled simultaneously. The probability that face 4 comes up at least once
11 1 10 2
A) B) C) D)
36 3 36 3
24. A card is drawn from a packet of cards. What is the probability that it is a king ace
1 1
A) 1 B) C) 0 D)
2 3
25. A card is drawn from a packet of cards. What is the probability that it is a spade or an Ace
4 17 16 7
A) B) C) D)
13 52 51 52
26. A variable can take only values 0,1,2 and 3 with respective probabilities 0.2, 0.3, x and 0.4. Then the
value of x is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 0.1 D) 0.3
27. A complete cycle of a traffic light is 60 seconds. During each cycle the light is green for 25 seconds,
yellow for 5 seconds and red for 30 seconds. At a randomly choosen time, the probability that the light
will not be green
1 5 2
A) B) C) D)
12 12 12 3
n 1
What is the probability that the roots of x nx 0 where n 1, 2,3, 4,5 is real and equal
2
28.
2 2
1 1 3
A) B) C) 0 D)
5 4 5
29. A urn contains 9 balls 2 of which are red, 3 blue and 4 black. A ball is taken at random. What is the
probability that it is not red
7 2 3 4
A) B) C) D)
9 9 9 9
1 2
30. P A P B Then P A P B where A and B are complements of A and B
3 5
10 17 19 1
A) B) C) D)
15 15 15 15
175
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
31. A card is taken from a packet of 52 cards. What is the probability that it is a ‘2’ of spade
1 3 1
A) B) C) D) none
52 52 26
32. An integer is choosen between 1 and 100 including one and hundred. What is the probability that it is
divisible by 7
7 14 1 3
A) B) C) D)
50 50 50 50
33. If the probability of winning a game is 0.93 what is the probability of losing the game.
1 1
A) 0 B) C) 1 D)
2 3
35. A bag contains 15 white and some black balls. Probability of drawing a black ball is thrice that of a
white ball. Then the number of black balls is
A) 25 B) 35 C) 40 D) 45
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