II.

ARSON INVESTIGATION
1. This type of fire has for its fuel normal combustible materials.
a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire

2. In fires wherein the fuel is flammable liquid such as gasoline, kerosene, alcohol and grease which among
the foregoing may be used to put out this fire.
a. Foam extinguisher c. Dry chemicals
b. Water d. Sand

3. The collection of debris at the origin of the fire should include all __________ materials.
a. Solid c. Porous
b. Liquid d. Non-porous

4. Blue flames usually indicate the presence of _______, in a fire.

a. Gasoline c. Alcohol
b. Kerosene d. Petroleum

5. This usually indicates the intensity of the fire.

a. Size of fire c. Size of flame
b. Color of smoke d. Color of flame

6. This would indicate the presence of petroleum in a fire.

a. Blue flame c. White smoke
b. Red flame d. Black smoke

7. Most common motive in arson cases.

a. Economic gain c. Intimidation
b. Concealment of crime d. Punitive measure

8. A rare fire usually occurring in manufacturing facilities wherein the combustible materials are metals such
as magnesium and potassium.
a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire

9. In handling class D fires, which among the following may not be used?
a. Dry powder, ABC chemical c. Water
b. Baking soda d. Sand

10. Commonly referred to as an electrical fire.

a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire

11. Which among the following is commonly used to put out Class C fires?
a. CO2 c. Water
b. Sand d. Baking soda

12. Class A fires may be extinguished by:

a. CO2 c. Water
c. Sand d. Baking soda
13. A fire which uses flammable liquid as fuel is classified as:
a. Class A fire c. Class C fire
b. Class B fire d. Class D fire

14. Excess heat energy liberated by an oxidation reaction is called____.

a. Latent heat c. Specific heat
b. Heat of combustion d. Thermal heat

15. The minimum temperature at which a fuel will burn is:

a. Ignition temperature c. Heat of combustion
b. Thermal heat d. Specific heat

16. Instrument used to open/close fire hydrants.

a. Sprinkler c. Fire hose
b. Fire pump d. Hydrant key

17. Descriptive of any material when by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements promotes
a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surrounding.
a. Dust c. Pyrolisys
b. Oxidizing material d. Cryogenic

18. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
continuous combustion.
a. Ignition temperature c. Fire point
b. Kindling temperature d. Flash point

19. The temperature at which a flammable liquid form a vapor air mixture that ignites.
a. Ignition temperature c Fire point
b. Kindling temperature d. Flash point

20. Minimum temperature in which the substance in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a
self-contained combustion without the addition of heat from outside sources.
a. Boiling point c. Fire point
b. Ignition temperature d. Flash point

21. An exothermic chemical change in which a combustible material react with an oxidizing agent.
a. Thermal balance c. Combustion
b. Thermal imbalance d. Oxidation

22. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and light.

a. Pyrolysis c. Detonation
b. Combustion d. All of these

23. A chemical decomposition of matter through the action of heat.

a. Pyrolysis c. Detonation
b. Combustion d. Oxidation

24. Measure of the rate of flow of heat, through unit area of the material with unit temperature gradient.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Thermal conductivity d. Oxidation

25. A means of heat transfer when energy travels trough space or materials as waves.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Convection d. Fission
26. It is legally classified as arson and set on purpose with a motive.
a. Providential fire c. Intentional fire
b. Accidental fire d. None of the foregoing

27. Malicious and willful burning of a building, defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay 60 P 788.
a. Arson c. Accidental fire
b. Providential fire d. None of the foregoing

28. First element known to man by experience, a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas which supports life and
fire.
a. Nitrogen c. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen d. Neon

29. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any contrivance to start a fire.

a. Fuel c. Heat
b. Oxygen d. None of the foregoing

30. Refers to gases liberated by heat.

a. Free radicals c. Thermal balance
b. Flash point d. Thermal imbalance

31. Refers to the normal pattern or movement of fire, smoke and fire gases within a building or structure
under natural conditions.
a. Free radicals c. Thermal balance
b. Pyrolysis d. Thermal imbalance

32. In this phase of the fire the maximum heat and its destructive capabilities are developed.
a. Initial phase c. Free burning phase
b. Incipient phase d. Smoldering phase

33. A burnt pattern of inverted cone indicates.

a. The fire triangle c. Flashover
b. The fingerprint of the fire d. Incipient phase of the fire

34. An occurrence when the heat has brought the combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or shooting forth light and flames.
a. Flashover c. Thermal balance
b. Backdraft d. Thermal imbalance

35. An explosive condition in the smoldering phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of oxygen.
a. Flashover c. Thermal balance
b. Backdraft d. Thermal imbalance

36. Which among the following is the primary objective in investigating fires?
a. To determine its cause c. To determine liable persons
b. To prevent recurrences d. All of these

37. Reason why fire investigation is unique.

a. It does not conform with regular investigative procedure
b. Unavailability of witnesses
c. Fires destroys evidence
d. All of the foregoing

38. They are fires caused by unforeseen acts of God.

a. Providential c. Intentional
b. Accidental d. Incendiarism

39. A combination of three elements namely: fuel, heat and oxygen.

a. Fire c. Fire triangle
b. Origin of fire d. All of the foregoing

40. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
a. Fuel c. Oxygen
b. Heat d. Gas

41. A means by which heat is transformed by a circulating medium either gas or a liquid.
a. Conduction c. Radiation
b. Convection d. Fission

42. It is the amount of heat necessary to convert solid to liquid.

a. Specific heat c. Heat of combustion
b. Latent heat d. Heat of fusion

43. Formed by the incomplete combustion of acetylene or natural cracking of hydrogen in the absence of air.
a. Carbon black c. Soot
b. Lamp black d. Black bone

44. Matter made up of very fine particles and condensed vapor as a result of combustion.
a. Fire c. Heat
b. Flame d. Smoke

45. Incandescent gases accompanied by oxidation.

a. Fire c. Heat
b. Flame d. Smoke

46. The threat to arson investigators after fire has been contained.
a. Backdraft c. Carbon monoxide poisoning
b. Flashover d. Falling debris

47. Color of smoke produced accompanied by red flames indicates the burning of what material?
a. Rubber c. Asphalt singles
b. Nitrogen products d. Chlorine

48. Which among the following is commonly used in fire resistant materials?
a. Asbestos c. Asphalt
b. Diamond d. Cotton

49. A form of static electricity or an electrical current of great magnitude producing tremendous amperage
and voltage, it is the most common cause of providential fires.
a. Rays of the sun c. Arcing
b. Spontaneous heating d. Lightning

50. Most common cause of accidental fires is related to:

a. Smoking c. Sparking
b. Arcing d. Overloading

51. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.
a. Accelerant c. Trailer
b. Plants d. Wick

52. Usually comes in the form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
a. Accelerant c. Trailer
b. Plants d. Wick

53. Most common reason of arson cases.

a. Revenge c. Competition
b. Profit d. Anger

54. It is the result of slow oxidation of a combustible material

a. Spontaneous heating c. Combustible dust
b. Combustible gases d. None of these

55. Refers to the preparation and gathering of materials to start a fire.

a. Plants c. Trailers
b. Accelerants d. Wick

56. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.

a. Abatement c. Allotment
b. Combustion d. Distillation

57. The burning of low grade heavy oils or resinous tarry materials with sufficient air forms lamp black
commonly known as:
a. Black bone c. Soot
b. Used petroleum d. Black iron

58. The use of more electrical devices which draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity
of the existing electrical system.
a. Overloading c. Wire tapping
b. Jumper d. Arcing

59. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01 % of the assessed value of the building:
a. Schools c. Hospitals
b. Department stores d. Single family dwellings

60. An enclosed vertical passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base to the top of the
building.
a. Standpipe system c. Vertical shaft
b. Sprinkler system d. Flash point

61. Designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours with
structural stability to remain standing even if the adjacent construction collapses under fire conditions:
a. Post wall c. Fire wall
b. Fire trap d. Firewood

62. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for any particular establishment.
a. Fire service c. Fire drill
b. Fire safety inspection d. Fire protection assembly

63. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.

a. Radiation c. Conduction
b. Convection d. Fission

64. The active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.
a. Oxidation c. Smoldering
b. Flash point d. Fire

65. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with all in the proper proportion and ignited will cause
an explosion.
a. Dust c. Fire trap
b. Fire lane d. Fire hazard

66. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the reaction takes place.
a. Endothermic reactions c. Oxidation
b. Exothermic reactions d. Combustion

67. Product of an incomplete combustion.

a. Soot c. Ashes
b. Charring d. All of these

68. Color of a luminous flame.

a. Orange-red c. Yellow
b. Blue d. Red

69. Refers to the amount of heat released during complete oxidation whereby the organic fuel is converted to
water and carbon dioxide.
a. Heat of combustion c. Fuel value
b. Calorific value d. All of these

70. Refers to the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes state from solid to liquid or liquid
to gas.
a. Calorie c. Thermal heat
b. Latent heat d. Specific heat

71. Refers to gases that remain when the products of combustion are cooled to normal temperature.
a. Fire gases c. Oxidation gases
b. Combustion gases d. Flame
72. Fires caused by human error and negligence.
a. Providential fires c. Accidental fires
b. Intentional fires d. Incendiarism

73. Primary component of wood.

a. Fiber c. Carbon
b. Cellulose d. Pulp

74. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted cone pattern or fingerprint of fire is developed.
a. Incipient phase c. Free burning phase
b. Initial phase d. Smoldering phase

75. Phase whereby the fire can no longer support the flame and carbon monoxide builds up in volume.
a. Incipient phase c. Free burning phase
b. Initial phase d. Smoldering phase

76. Color of smoke produced when nitrogen products is the combustible material being burned while bright
red flame are visible.
a. Black smoke c. White smoke
b. Heavy brown smoke d. Greenish smoke

77. When greenish yellow flames are seen in the fire, what material is being burned?
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Chorine of manganese d. Potassium

78. When this constitutes most of the combustible material in the fire it produces bright reddish yellow
flames.
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Calcium d. Potassium

79. When black smoke with red and blue-green flames is visible in the fire, it indicates that this material is
burning.
a. Petroleum products c. Asphalt shingles
b. Chorine of manganese d. Potassium

80. When potassium is used as a combustible material what would be the visible color of the flame?
a. Purple c. Lavender
b. Violet d. Any of the three

III. VICE CONTROL

1. Prosecuting vice operators poses a severe problem in the enforcement of vice laws primarily because
of:
a. People enjoy engaging in vices
b. Public apathy and indifference
c. It is very hard to get witnesses due to people’s fear of becoming involved in the litigation and trial.
d. Unwilling government officials to work against vice operations

2. A treatment for alcoholics which calls for hospitalization and is costly due to the administration of
nauseating drugs.
a. Program for alcoholic’s anonymous c. Psychotherapy method
b. Therapeutic method d. Aversion treatment

3. A degree of intoxication wherein the subject is in a state of unconsciousness or in stupor condition.

a. Coma c. Drunk
b. Very drunk d. Moderate inebriation

4. A method of treatment for alcoholics which aims at eliminating emotional tensions of the patient
which led to their alcoholism.
a. Aversion method c. Psychotherapy method
b. Therapeutic method d. Program for alcoholic anonymous

5. A person who acts as agents of prostitution.

a. Prostitute c. Pimp
b. Whore d. Madam
6. The increase of prostitution is directly proportional with this problem.
a. Rising number of broken homes
b. Increased white slave trade
c. Rising number of organized crimes
d. Spread of sexually transmitted/venereal diseases

7. Persons who engage in discriminate sexual intercourse with others for hire or compensation.
a. Call girls c. Factory girls
b. Prostitutes d. Pimps

8. This method calls for public licensing of houses of prostitution, the registration of its workers and
segregation of brothels in restricted districts.
a. Aversion method c. School of total repression
b. School of regulatory control d. Sanitation method

9. This method believes that prostitution is a crime and is to be prohibited, thus it calls for making it
unlawful for both the prostitute and customer to engage in such acts.
a. Aversion method c. School of total repression
b. School of regulatory control d. All of these

10. A French inspired method wherein it is aimed at preventing prostitution to be engaged in clandestine
manner and accepting its existence and the improbability of eradicating prostitution.
a. Aversion method c. School of total repression
b. School of regulatory control d. Napoleon method

11. Agency which controls and regulates gambling games.

a. PCSO c. DTI
b. PAGCOR d. Gambling lords

12. Refers to a scheme wherein persons have paid valuable consideration for a chance to obtain a prize.
a. Jueteng c. Topada
b. Lottery d. Bingo

13. A consideration placed on gambling games.

a. Bet c. Reward
b. Price d. All of these

14. Another name for cocaine.

a. Coke c. Crack
b. Horse d. Dolly

15. A medical service rendered to a patient which deals with the physical and physiological
complications arising from drug abuse.
a. Rehabilitation c. Therapy
b. Treatment d. All of these

16. A dynamic process aimed at changing a patient’s health and giving his fullest potential without the
use of drugs or medicine.
a. Rehabilitation c. Therapy
b. Treatment d. All of the foregoing

17. The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point of habituation until such time he is no
longer hooked on the substance.
a. Rehabilitation c. Therapy
b. Treatment d. Withdrawal method

18. An adaptive condition which results from repeated drug use.

a. Drug dependence c. Withdrawal period
b. Physical dependence d. Poly drug abuse

19. An alkaloid of opium after morphine which has limited use as a pain killer and more popularly used
as a cough syrup and is quite addictive.
a. Heroine c. Codeine
b. Cocaine d. Shabu

20. The psychoactive ingredient in Marijuana which causes the high or trip of its users.
a. Papaver somniferum c. Opium poppy
b. Hashish d. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

21. Obtained from Indian hemp known as “Cannabis Sativa”, which is a shrub which grows on tropic
and temperate regions.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Opium d. Shabu

22. Obtained from a female poppy plant known as “Papaver Somniferum” derived from a Greek word
which means juice.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Opium d. Shabu

23. Named after the Greek God of dreams, it is obtained from opium.
a. Heroin c. Hasish
b. Morphine d. Cocaine

24. The most powerful derivative from the Papaver Somniferum, it has no medicinal value.
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Heroin d. Cocaine

25. Also known as pot, grass, weed, dope, Thai stick or Acapulco gold it resembles dried parsley mixed
with stems and seeds, and is either eaten or smoked.
a. Marijuana c. Shabu
b. Hasish d. THC

26. It causes nausea, sneezing, nosebleed, loss of appetite, fatigue and lack of coordination.
a. Inhalants c. Stimulants
b. Depressants d. Barbiturates

27. It resembles a coagulated soap, light brown in color which is smoked and often packaged in small
vials.
a. Hasish c. Shabu
b. Marijuana d. Crack or Freebase

28. A drug which takes the form of capsules, pills and tablets, taken orally and sometimes injected, its
common names are speed, Pep pills, Footballs, Shabu and Uppers.
a. Amphetamine c. Methamphetamine
b. Hallucinogens d. Stimulants

29. Known commonly as smack, horse, junk, brown sugar, black tar, it is a powdered substance which
may either be injected, smoked or taken orally.
a. Heroin c. Mescaline
b. Cocaine d. Opium

30. It produces altered perception, slurred-speech, staggering gait and can produce calmness and
relaxed muscles.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Sedatives

31. Most effective way of regulating vices.

a. Continued police action by relentless drives in vice control
b. Sincere and honest law enforcement
c. Both a and b
d. None of the foregoing

32. Refers to persons who after prolonged and excessive intake of alcoholic beverages develop physical
and psychological changes and dependence to alcohol.
a. Alcoholics c. Drunkard
b. Liquor addicts d. Chronic alcoholics

33. A fermented juice or product of fruit or plants which contains alcohol.

a. Liquor c. Booze
b. Wine d. Vodka

34. Refers to a person who manages or owns houses of ill refute whereby the business of prostitution is
conducted.
a. Operator c. Mama
b. Banker d. Pimp
35. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for hire.
a. Prostitute c. Knockers
b. Whores d. All of the foregoing

36. The procurement and transportation of women from far flung places for immoral purposes.
a. White slavery c. Organized crimes
b. Prostitution d. All of the foregoing

37. This place usually lodges several number of factory girls or professional prostitutes under the
control of an organized crime ring.
a. Disorderly houses c. Call houses
b. Furnished room houses d. Massage clinics

38. Refers to prostitutes who works in regular homes of prostitution or brothels, she accepts all
customers and has nothing to do with selecting or soliciting them.
a. Door knocker c. Hustler
b. Call girl d. Factory girls

39. Refers to a person who sets up and furnishes the means with which to carry on the gambling game.
a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Gullible person

40. Anti gambling law

a. PD 1869 c. PD 1602
b. PD 1612 d. PD 1866

41. Social causes of prostitution are the following, except:

a. Broken families c. Anonimity of city life
b. Poverty d. All of the foregoing

42. Refers to persons having no apparent means of subsistence.

a. Gambler c. Vagrants
b. Prostitute d. None of these

43. Penalty provided for by law which punishes white slave trade.
a. Prision correccional c. Reclusion temporal
b. Prison mayor d. Reclusion perpetua

44. A person who manages or carries a gambling game.

a. Maintainer c. Banker
b. Conductor d. Operator

45. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs to maintain the same effect.
a. Tolerance c. Poly drug abuse
b. Physical dependence d. Drug experimenter

46. A dark brown resin that is collected from the tops of potent Cannabis Sativa.
a. Marijuana c. Opium
b. Hashish d. Morphine

47. Derived from the Greek word “Narkotikos”, meaning sleep, what is the other term given to narcotics?
a. Opium c. Morphine
b. Opiates d. Heroin

48. It is the psychoactive agent of Marijuana.

a. Tetrahyrocannabinol c. Papaver somniferum
b. Cannabis sativa d. Methamphetamine

49. Codeine which is an alkaloid of opium is primarily used as :

a. Pain killer c. Stimulant
b. Cough reliever d. Depressant

50. Who among the following acts as the chairman of the DDB?
a. Secretary of Justice c. Secretary of Education
b. Secretary of National Defense d. Secretary of Health
51. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a
Japanese tourist.
a. Marijuana c. Shabu
b. Cocaine d. Opium

52. The most potent derivative from opium.

a. Codeine c. Morphine
b. Cocaine d. Heroin

53. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol c. Amphetamine
b. Papaver somniferum d. Erythroxylon coca

54. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “Methy Dioxy Methamphetamine”.
a. Chomper c. Shabu
b. Ecstacy d. Heroin

55. Illegal drugs modified molecularly by chemists to circumvent legal restrictions.

a. Designer drugs c. Amphetamines
b. Hallucinogens d. Methamphetamines

56. A law which prohibits government officials to enter and gamble in Philippine casinos.
a. PD 1602 c. PD 510
b. PD 1869 d. PD 483

57. Office that controls and regulates gambling.

a. PAGCOR c. PACC
b. PCGG d. Office of the first gentleman

58. A scheme or distribution of prizes by chance among persons who have paid or agreed to pay a
valuable consideration for the chance to obtain a prize.
a. Gambling c. Lottery
b. Sport d. All of these

59. A bet or consideration placed on gambling games.

a. Wage c. Prize
b. Wager d. Banker

60. Principal alkaloid of opium which constitute as much as 25% of the substance:
a. Hashish c. Morphine
b. Codeine d. Heroin

61. Amphetamine is a representative of good class of stimulants known as:

a. Crank c. Knock-out drops
b. Pep pills d. Stick

62. Agency which supervises the enforcement of law on prohibited and regulated drugs.
a. PDEA c. PACC
b. NBI d. PNP

63. Are drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of the mind with delusions.
a. Narcotics c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Hallucinogens

64. Chemical substance which affects a person in such a way as to bring out physiological, behavioral or
emotional change.
a. Alcohol c. Drug
b. Coca leaf d. Marijuana

65. Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional change, thought disruption and ego
distortion.
a. Depressants c. Hallucinogens
b. Tranquilizers d. Stimulants

66. An immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption
of the mind and body.
a. Abuse c. Addiction
b. Vice d. Gambling
67. A person who calls and takes bets from gamecock owners and other bettors.
a. Promoter c. Banker
b. “Cristo” d. Gambler

68. Most common problem encountered by the police in vice control measures:
a. Unwillingness of government officials to work against vices
b. Lack of cooperation from the victims of vices
c. Public apathy
d. Clandestine nature of the commission of the acts

69. The process of undergoing or producing gradual chemical change which later becomes sour or
alcoholic.
a. Distillation c. Ionization
b. Fermentation d. Purification

70. A degree of intoxication wherein the person becomes argumentative and over confident.
a. Slight inebriation c. Drunk
b. Moderate inebriation d. Coma

71. This degree of intoxication causes reddening of the face, but no sign of incoordination and difficulty
of speech.
a. Slight inebriation c. Drunk
b. Moderate inebriation d. Coma

72. This method of therapy for alcoholics is based on conversion and fellowship.
a. Aversion treatment c. Withdrawal method
b. Psychotherapy method d. Program for alcoholic anonymous

73. Oldest profession known to man which involves habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for
money or profit.
a. Gambling c. Addiction
b. Prostitution d. Stealing

74. Classy type of prostitute who engages in prostitution to supplement their income.
a. Call girls c. Hustler
b. Factory girls d. Door knocker

75. Usually operated by experienced madam, who rent legitimate roomers to maintain an appearance of
responsibility.
a. Disorderly houses c. Call houses
b. Furnished room houses d. Massage clinics

76. The Golden triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originated is located specifically in:
a. Thailand-Burma-China border
b. Laos-Thailand-China border
c. Thailand-Burma-Laos border
d. Burma-Vietnam-Thailand border

77. Grass or marijuana, is a crude drug made from Cannabis Sativa a plant that contains meal altering
ingredient. Which among the following is not an immediate effect of weed?
a. Moderate heart beat and pulse rate
b. Impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
c. Acute panic, anxiety reaction –external fear of losing control
d. Altered sense of time/disorientation

78. A drug obtained from the leaves of coca, a South American shrub. It is a central nervous system
stimulant.
a. Marijuana c. Cocaine
b. Shabu d. Opiates

79. A game or scheme the result of which depends wholly upon chance or hazard.
a. Gambling c. Tupada
b. Sports d. Bingo

80. Study reveal that the reason why “Marijuana” is difficult to control is that:
a. The big demand
b. The plant can be easily cultivated
c. Can easily be smuggled from outside the country
d. Can be easily smoked surreptitiously

81. Another term for Heroin:

a. PCP c. Blue heaven
b. Red Dragon d. Horse

82. Drugs that produce persistent memory loss, speech difficulties and self-inflicted injuries.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Narcotics

83. Most abused form of tranquilizers, taken orally and comes in tablets.
a. Valium c. Miltown
b. Serax d. Equanil

84. Its effects are similar to that of alcohol, can produce calmness and relaxed muscles.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Narcotics

85. Most common form of stimulant.

a. Cocaine c. Morphine
b. Heroin d. Codeine

86. One who originally use any narcotic substance for reason of curiosity, peer pressure or other similar
reasons.
a. Drug dependant c. Polydrug abuse
b. Drug addict d. Drug experimenter

87. A state of physical dependence on dangerous drug arising in a person following a periodic or
continuous use of that drug.
a. Drug addiction c. Drug abuse
b. Drug experimentation d. Drug dependence

88. A state of chronic or periodic intoxication detrimental to the individual and society at large produced
by repeated drug consumption.
a. Drug addiction c. Drug abuse
b. Drug experimentation d. Drug dependence

89. Opium which is derived from the Greek word meaning juice, is derived from what plant?
a. Papaver somniferum c. Erythroxylon coca
b. Cannabis sativa d. Indian hemp

90. Low grade methamphetamine.

a. Shabu c. Lahar
b. Bato d. Katorse

91. Cocaine, Amphetamine, Caffeine and nicotine are drugs that affect the central nervous system causing
alertness, cub hunger and make the user awake. They are classified as:
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates

92. They are drugs which cause distortion of perception of time and space its common forms are marijuana,
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), Ecstacy, PCP, Peyote and Psilocybin.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates

93. Are drugs that cause the body system of the user to relax, to which narcotics, barbiturates, tranquilizers,
inhalants, solvents and alcohol belong.
a. Hallucinogens c. Depressants
b. Stimulants d. Barbiturates

94. Which among the following is a factor that contributes to the effects of drugs in the body system of the
user?
a. Amount of drug taken c. Mood of the user
b. Environment where the drug is taken d. All of these

95. Which among the following is classified as psychoactive drugs?

a. Hallucinogens (all arounders) c. Depressants (downers)
b. Stimulants (uppers) d. All of these

96. Refers to the sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals, in diluted, mixtures or in concentrated form, to any
person or entity engaged in the manufacture of any dangerous drug, and shall include packaging,
repackaging, labeling, relabeling or concealment of such transaction through fraud, destruction of
documents, fraudulent use of permits, misdeclaration, use of front companies or mail fraud.
a. Clandestine laboratory c. Controlled delivery
b. Chemical diversion d. Cultivate

97. Refers to any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or permitting the planting, growing or raising of
any plant which is the source of a dangerous drug.
a. Clandestine laboratory c. Controlled delivery
b. Chemical diversion d. Cultivate or culture

98. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is administered,
delivered, stored for illegal purposes, distributed, sold or used in any form.
a. Dive c. Resort
b. Den d. All of these

99. A coddler or protector who knowingly and willfully consents to any violations of the Comprehensive
Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 (RA 9165) is punished with an imprisonment of 12 years and 1 day to twenty
years plus a fine ranging from 100,000 to ________.
a. 300,000 c. 1,000,000
b. 500,000 d. 2,000,000

100. For possession of dangerous drugs in the following quantity, regardless of the degree of purity thereof: (1)
10 grams or more of opium; (2) 10 grams or more of morphine; (3) 10 grams or more of heroin; (4) 10 grams or
more of cocaine or cocaine hydrochloride; (5) 50 grams or more of methamphetamine hydrochloride or
"shabu"; (6) 10 grams or more of marijuana resin or marijuana resin oil; (7) 500 grams or more of marijuana;
and (8) 10 grams or more of other dangerous drugs such as, but not limited to,
methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDA) or "ecstasy", paramethoxyamphetamine (PMA),
trimethoxyamphetamine (TMA), lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD), gamma hydroxyamphetamine (GHB) the law
imposes a penalty of life imprisonment to death and a fine ranging from 500,000 to _____________.
a. 1,000,000 c. 5,000,000
b. 2,000,000 d. 10,000,000

101. Under RA 9165, any person charged for any violation of the comprehensive dangerous drugs act
regardless of the imposable penalty shall not be allowed to avail of the provision on plea-bargaining. This
statement is;
a. Partly False c. False
b. Partly True d. True

102. The policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies and
programs on drug prevention and control. It shall develop and adopt a comprehensive, integrated, unified and
balanced national drug abuse prevention and control strategy. It shall be under the Office of the President.
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency c. Department of Health
b. Dangerous Drugs Board d. NAPOLCOM

103. Under the law, he serves as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drugs Board while serving their
tenure.
a. PNP Chief c. DILG Secretary
b. Director of the NBI d. Both A and BA

104. For the purpose of establishing adequate drug rehabilitation center in the country, the PAGCOR is
mandated by law to provide ______ million a month to the PDEA and the DDB.
a. One c. Four
b. Two d. Five

105. Preliminary investigations for cases involving violations to the comprehensive dangerous drugs board
shall be terminated within a period of ____ days from the date of their filing.
a. 5 c. 15
b. 10 d. 30

106. Any substance that directly alters the normal functioning of the central nervous system.
a. Dangerous drugs c. Regulated drugs
b. Prohibited Drugs d. Psychoactive drugs
107. Refer to the combined effects of the abused drugs taken by the user.
a. Tolerance c. Withdrawal sickness
b. Synergistic effects d. All of these

108. Also known as paregoric, dakers powder and parapectolin.

a. Codeine c. Heroin
b. Opium d. Methadone

109. Also known as horse, brown sugar, junk, mud, black tar, smoke.
a. Codeine c. Heroin
b. Opium d. Methadone

110. Pectoral syrup or sweet amorphous refers to;

a. Codeine c. Heroin
b. Opium d. Morphine