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Assessment Bundle

Topic 4

Marks 119

Time 147

Questions 15

Q1.
The diagram below shows part of a DNA molecule.

(a) Name the type of bond between:

complementary base pairs _______________________________________

adjacent nucleotides in a DNA strand _______________________________

(2)

(b) The length of a gene is described as the number of nucleotide base pairs it contains.

Use information in above diagram to calculate the length of a gene containing 4.38 ×
103 base pairs.

Answer _______________ nm
(2)

(c) Describe two differences between the structure of a tRNA molecule and the
structure of an mRNA molecule.

1 _________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) In a eukaryotic cell, the structure of the mRNA used in translation is different from
the structure of the pre-mRNA produced by transcription.

Describe and explain a difference in the structure of these mRNA molecules.

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q2.
The fruit fly is a species of small insect.

The fruit fly has a gene that codes for an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase (AD). AD
catalyses the breakdown of alcohol when alcohol is in the insects’ food.

The gene coding for AD has two alleles, ADF and ADS.

(a) The enzyme encoded by the ADF allele catalyses the breakdown of alcohol faster

than the enzyme encoded by the ADS allele. Suggest why.

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(3)

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A scientist took a random sample of adult fruit flies from a population. He measured the
frequency of the ADF allele in this sample (generation 0). He then:

• selected 100 of these insects at random and kept them in a container

• fed the insects food containing alcohol
• let the insects reproduce
• repeated these steps for 45 generations of fruit fly reproduction.

The scientist measured the frequency of the ADF allele in the 45th generation.

(b) Suggest why the scientist took his sample from the population at random.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

The table below shows the scientist’s results.

Generation of fruit
Frequency of ADF
fly reproduction

0 0.20

45 0.74

(c) Alcohol is toxic to fruit flies. Suggest and explain why the frequency of the ADF allele
changed during the 45 generations.

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(4)

(d) Identify the type of selection investigated in the 45 generations of fruit fly

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 reproduction.

Tick (✓) one box.

No selection

Directional selection

Random selection

Stabilising selection

(1)
(Total 9 marks)

Q3.
(a) The genetic diversity of species is measured by comparing differences in the base
sequence of DNA or differences in the base sequence of mRNA.

Give two other ways in which genetic diversity between species is measured.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

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(2)

Scientists investigated differences between 260 North American bird species by

comparing the base sequence of a gene in mitochondrial DNA. They compared the gene
base sequence of each bird with all of the other 259 species. For each comparison they
calculated the percentage difference in base sequence.

(b) Figure 1 shows the base sequence for part of the gene in two species.

Figure 1

Species 1 A G C T G C C T A G A

Species 2 A T G T G G C A A G A

Calculate the percentage difference in base sequence for these base sequences.

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 Answer = _________________________%
(1)

(c) The scientists compared base sequences in:

• birds of the same species

• birds of different species in the same genus
• birds of different species in the same family.

The scientists’ results are shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

(c) Complete the table by writing A, B or C in the box to correctly match the statement
to each histogram shown in Figure 2.

Statement Histogram

Base sequences of birds of the same

species.

Base sequences of birds of the same

genus.

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 Base sequences of birds of the same
family.
(1)

(d) To calculate the percentage difference in base sequences, the scientists first
counted the number of bases and the number of base differences.

What statistical test should the scientists use to test whether the number of base
differences between birds in histogram A and birds in histogram C is statistically
significant?

Place a tick (✓) in the box against the statistical test you would use.

Justify your answer.

Chi-squared

Correlation coefficient

Student’s t-test

Justification _________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q4.
A scientist identified and counted the invertebrate species present in samples taken at two
sites in a river. The scientist also measured the rate of water flow at each site.

His results are shown in Table 1 and Table 2.

Table 1

Invertebrate species Site 1 Site 2

Anglers' Curse mayfly 17 5

Flat-headed mayfly 6 8

Slate Drake mayfly 0 6

Water beetle 12 13

Midge fly 13 13

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 Total number caught 48 45

Table 2

Site 1 Site 2

Index of diversity 4.7

Rate of water flow / cm s–1 1-14 30-60

(a) Complete Table 2 by calculating the index of diversity (d) at Site 1.

Index of diversity (d) = _______________________

(1)

(b) Explain why it is more useful to calculate an index of diversity than to record species
richness.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)

(c) Suggest how the scientist measured the rate of water flow in the river.

___________________________________________________________________

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(1)

(d) Use information in Table 1 and Table 2 to suggest and explain a reason for the
difference in the numbers of Slate Drake mayfly at these sites in this river.

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)

(e) It was important that the sampling procedure was standardised when collecting the
Slate Drake mayflies from the two sites.

Give one way in which the sampling procedure could be standardised.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 7 marks)

Q5.
A group of students investigated biodiversity of different areas of farmland.

They collected data in each of these habitats:

• the centre of a field

• the edge of a field
• a hedge between fields.

Their results are shown in the graph.

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(a) What data would the students need to collect to calculate their index of diversity in
each habitat?

Do not include apparatus used for species sampling in your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Give two ways the students would have ensured their index of diversity was
representative of each habitat.

1 _________________________________________________________________

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2 _________________________________________________________________

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 (2)

(c) Modern farming techniques have led to larger fields and the removal of hedges
between fields.

Use the graph above to suggest why biodiversity decreases when farmers use
larger fields.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) Farmers are now being encouraged to replant hedges on their land.

Suggest and explain one advantage and one disadvantage to a farmer of replanting
hedges on her farmland.

Advantage __________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________

Disadvantage ______________________________________________________

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(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q6.
Scientists investigated changes in the mass of fish from three populations of the same
species. The fish they used had a life cycle of one year.

The scientists set up three fish tanks, each containing a separate population. Each year
the scientists removed all the fish from each tank and determined the mean mass of the
fish removed. They then put back 10% of each population in the following way.

Tank A – put back only the largest fish.

Tank B – put back fish at random.
Tank C – put back only the smallest fish.

During each year the fish were left to grow and reproduce.

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The scientists’ results are shown in the graph.

(a) What type of selection were the scientists modelling in this investigation by putting
back only the largest or only the smallest fish in Tank A and Tank C? Give a reason
why.

Type of selection _____________________________________________________

Reason ____________________________________________________________

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(2)

(b) Explain the purpose of Tank B.

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(2)

(c) Calculate the ratio of the mean mass of fish removed from Tank A to the mean mass
of fish removed from Tank C at 1 year and at 4 years.

How much greater is the ratio at 4 years compared with the ratio at 1 year?

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 Ratio at 1 year = _______________________

Ratio at 4 years = _______________________

How much greater at 4 years = _______________________

(2)

(d) Sea fishing is regulated in law. The size of the mesh used in some fishing nets is
controlled so that small fish can escape but large fish are captured. This regulation
is designed to protect populations of wild fish.

Using all the information in this question, evaluate whether the scientists’
investigation supports the use of these types of nets in sea fishing.

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(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Q7.
A scientist crossed a strain of the fungus Neurospora producing pink spores with a strain
of Neurospora producing white spores.

To cross these strains, he used aseptic techniques. He moved a small agar cube
containing one strain of the fungus onto a new agar plate. Then he placed a second agar
cube containing the other strain of fungus next to the first agar cube.

(a) Describe and explain three ways in which the scientist would ensure he used
aseptic techniques to move each cube of agar onto a new agar plate.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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3 _________________________________________________________________

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(3)

In the life cycle of Neurospora most stages are haploid. Fusion of two haploid strains of
this fungus produces diploid zygotes. Nuclear division in these zygotes occurs by meiosis.

(b) Give two differences between mitosis and meiosis.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)

At the end of meiosis, this fungus produces cells called spores.

The spores are produced in narrow tubes that restrict their movement. As a result, each
tube contains a single line of spores. The spores are coloured either pink or white.

The spore colour gene is located on a pair of homologous chromosomes. Each zygote
produced in this cross has one chromosome with a pink allele (p) and one chromosome
with a white allele (w).

This is shown in the diagram.

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(c) There are seven chromosomes in a spore nucleus.

Place a tick (✓) in the box next to the number that represents the number of
chromatids present in the zygote shown in the diagram above.

14

21

28

(1)

The scientist recorded the arrangement of coloured spores inside many narrow tubes. His
results are shown in the table.

Type of Arrangement of Number of

spore tube coloured spores narrow tubes

1 81

2 78

3 10

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 (d) Using all the information in this question, what can you conclude from the scientist’s
results about the movement of chromosomes in meiosis in this fungus?

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(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Q8.
This question is about mitosis in cells.

The image below shows the arrangement of the genetic material in a cell during prophase.

(a) Describe and explain the arrangement of the genetic material shown in the above
image.

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 ___________________________________________________________________

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(2)

(b) The diploid number of chromosomes in the body cell of an insect species is four.

Tick (✓) the box next to the diagram A, B, C or D that represents the appearance of
chromosomes in a cell during metaphase in this species.

(1)

(c) Name the fixed position occupied by a gene on a DNA molecule.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) Describe how a gene is a code for the production of a polypeptide. Do not include
information about transcription or translation in your answer.

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(3)
(Total 7 marks)

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Q9.
(a) Describe how mRNA is formed by transcription in eukaryotes.

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(5)

(b) Describe how a polypeptide is formed by translation of mRNA.

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(6)

(c) Define ‘gene mutation’ and explain how a gene mutation can have:

• no effect on an individual

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 • a positive effect on an individual.

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(4)
(Total 15 marks)

Q10.
(a) Complete Table 1 to show three differences between DNA in the nucleus of a plant
cell and DNA in a prokaryotic cell.

Table 1

DNA in the nucleus of DNA in a prokaryotic

a plant cell cell

3
(3)

(b) Scientists investigated the genetic diversity between several species of sweet
potato. They studied non-coding multiple repeats of base sequences.

Define ‘non-coding base sequences’ and describe where the non-coding multiple
repeats are positioned in the genome.

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)

The percentage similarities in the non-coding multiple repeats of base sequences of four
species of carrot are shown in Table 2.

Table 2

Percentage similarity between non-coding multiple

Species of repeat base sequences
carrot
C D I N

C 51.3 23.1 61.2

D 51.3 32.7 51.5

I 23.1 32.7 37.4

N 61.2 51.5 37.4

(c) Use the information in Table 2 to complete the phylogenetic tree shown in the
diagram below.

Write the letter that represents the correct species into each box.

(1)

(d) The scientists studied five individuals from each species. Within the five individuals
of species N they found a percentage similarity of 66%.

Use Table 2 to evaluate how this information affects the validity of the phylogenetic

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 tree.

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(2)
(Total 8 marks)

Q11.
(a) Littorina littorea is a species of snail found on rocky sea shores.

A student investigated variation in snail shell height in two populations of snails.

Give two ways in which the student could ensure his samples would provide a
reliable measure of the variation between individuals in each population.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) The student could determine the median, mode and range from his measurement of
shell heights in these populations.

Give two other statistical values the student could calculate from his measurement
of shell heights in these populations.

1 ___________________________________

2 ___________________________________
(1)

(c) Name the taxon in the hierarchy of classification represented by:

1 Littorina __________________________

2 Iittorea ___________________________
(1)

(d) The student noticed there was a difference in shell height between these

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 populations of snails. He wanted to investigate if the difference was significant.

Give a suitable null hypothesis to use in his investigation and name the statistical
test to use with these data.

Null hypothesis _____________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

Statistical test ______________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q12.
(a) Describe how mRNA is produced from an exposed template strand of DNA.

Do not include DNA helicase or splicing in your answer.

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(3)

(b) Define the term exon.

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(1)

The table below shows mRNA codons for some amino acids.

Serine Proline Glycine Threonine Alanine

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 UCU CCU GGA ACU GCA

UCC CCA GGG ACC GCG

(c) Figure 1 shows the DNA template nucleotide base sequence that determines the
sequence of four amino acids.

Figure 1

AGG CGT CCT GGA

Use information from the table and Figure 1 to give the amino acid sequence
determined by this sequence of nucleotides.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(d) A mutation in the nucleotide sequence shown in Figure 1 resulted in the following
amino acid sequence.

Figure 2

Serine Glycine Glycine Proline

A student concluded that the mutation involved the addition of one nucleotide within
the sequence shown Figure 1. Does information in this question support the
student’s conclusion? Give reasons for your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q13.
A meadow is an area of grassland with a wide range of plant and animal species.

A student investigated whether cutting some of the plants in a meadow had any effect on
the biodiversity of insects in that meadow.

The student created two sample areas, called plots, in the meadow. Each plot measured

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10 m × 5 m

The student:

• did not cut plants in plot 1

• cut the plants in plot 2 with a lawn mower once a week.

After 10 weeks, the student captured all of the organisms of four insect species found in
each of these plots.

The figure below shows the student’s results.

(a) Use the information in the figure above to calculate the index of diversity for the
insects captured in plot 1.

The formula to calculate the index of diversity (d) is

where N is the total number of insects of all species and n is the total number of
insects of each species.

Give the answer to 2 significant figures and show your working.

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 d = _______________
(2)

(b) The student concluded that cutting plants with a lawn mower increased the species
richness of insects in that meadow.

Use information in the diagram above to explain why the student’s conclusion is
incorrect.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) The student wanted to use the data from plot 1 to estimate the total number of the
beetle species in the meadow.

Suggest how the student should use the data from plot 1 and other information
provided to estimate the total number of the beetle species in the meadow.

___________________________________________________________________

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(4)
(Total 7 marks)

Q14.
(a) Describe how one amino acid is added to a polypeptide that is being formed at a
ribosome during translation.

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 ___________________________________________________________________

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(3)

Table 1 shows:

• mRNA codons and the amino acid coded for by each codon
• the type of bond formed by the R group of some of the amino acids.

(b) Crystallin is a structural protein found in the human eye. An inherited disease that
leads to blindness is caused by changes in properties of crystallin. The replacement
of the amino acid Arg with the amino acid Gly causes these changes.

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 Use information in Table 1 to suggest why this amino acid replacement changes the
properties of crystallin.

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(2)

(c) The amino acid replacement of Arg with Gly is caused by a single base substitution
mutation in the DNA. The non-mutant DNA triplet is TCC.

Complete Table 2.

Give:

• the mRNA codon complementary to the non-mutant DNA triplet

• the mutated mRNA codon that could cause the change from Arg to Gly in the
crystallin protein
• the DNA triplet complementary to this mutated mRNA codon.

Table 2

mRNA codon for the non-

mutant triplet

Mutated mRNA codon

Mutated DNA triplet

(2)
(Total 7 marks)

Q15.
(a) In taxonomy, an organism is identified by referring to the species name and the
genus name.

What term is used to describe this method of naming organisms?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(b) Define the term mutagenic agent.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 (1)

(c) Figure 1 shows how the species Spartina townsendii is produced.

The number of chromosomes in cells is shown in some of the boxes.

Figure 1

Complete Figure 1 by giving the correct number of chromosomes in each of the

boxes.
(1)

A mutation in the number of chromosomes in a S. townsendii cell produced a new

species, Spartina anglica.

Figure 2 shows the number of chromosomes in leaf cells of these species.

Figure 2

(d) Name the type of mutation that changed the number of chromosomes in S.
townsendii to produce S. anglica. Explain your answer.

Name of mutation ___________________________________________________

Explanation ________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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 ___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(3)

(e) Genetic variation within a species is increased during meiosis by crossing over and
the independent segregation of homologous chromosomes.

Apart from mutation, explain one other way genetic variation within a species is
increased.

___________________________________________________________________

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___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

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(2)
(Total 8 marks)

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Mark schemes

Q1.
(a) 1. Hydrogen (bonds);

2. Phosphodiester (bonds);
Accept ester/covalent bond
2

(b) Correct answer for 2 marks = 1489/1489.2;;

Incorrect answer but for 1 mark accept:

876

OR

1861 - 1862
2

(c) 1. tRNA is 'clover leaf shape', mRNA is linear;

Must be a comparison
Reject tRNA is double stranded
Accept tRNA is folded for tRNA is ‘clover leaf shaped’

2. tRNA has hydrogen bonds, mRNA does not;

3. tRNA has an amino acid binding site, mRNA does not;

Accept ‘CCA end' for amino acid binding site

4. tRNA has anticodon, mRNA has codon;

2

(d) 1. mRNA fewer nucleotides

OR

Pre-mRNA more nucleotides

OR

mRNA has no introns/has (only) exons

OR

Pre-mRNA has (exons and) introns;

Accept mRNA is shorter OR pre-mRNA is longer

2. (Because of) splicing;

2
[8]

Q2.
(a) 1. Different primary structure/amino acid sequence;

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 2. Different tertiary structure/shape of active site;

3. Enzyme-substrate complexes more likely (with enzyme from ADF allele);

Accept converse for ADS
Accept is more complementary
3

(b) Avoids bias

OR

Results (likely to be) reliable/repeatable;

1

(c) 1. Flies with ADF/allele have selective advantage (in presence of alcohol);
Accept converse for ADS
Accept description of selective advantage

2. So insects (with ADF more likely to) reproduce;

3. Pass on ADF (allele/gene);

4. (So) allele frequency increases;

4

(d) Answer = Directional selection

1
[9]

Q3.
(a) 1. Comparing (measurable/observable) features/characteristics;

2. Comparing amino acid sequences/primary structures (of a/named/the

same protein);
Must have idea of comparison/ differences/similarities
Ignore courtship/ behaviour/mutations/ number of
chromosomes/allele frequency/species
richness/index of diversity
Accept comparing amount of antibody bound to
antigen/protein (in different species)
2 max

(b) 36 to 36.4;
1

(c) B, A, C;
1

(d) 1. Student’s t-test;

2. Comparing mean of data sets/histograms

OR
Comparing (2) means
OR
Data are normally distributed;
Accept average for ‘mean’

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 Ignore difference between means
2
[6]

Q4.
(a) 3.8;
Accept figures that round down to 3.8 ie (3.81 to 3.84)
Ignore: number of decimal places.
1

(b) 1. (Index of diversity also) measures abundance / number / population

(size) of each species;
Ignore "total number of species" unqualified
Accept: every species for each species.

2. (So useful because) may be many of some species

OR
(So useful because) may be few of other species;
2

(c) 1. Movement of (floating) object over known distance and over given time
OR
Time to fill container of known volume
OR
Use of data logging device;
Accept: digital device eg (digital) flow meter
1

(d)
Mark in paired statements.
Accept converse statements in context of site 2.

1. Less food/prey at site 1;

More food/prey in site 2.

2. (So more) mayfly starve;

(So) mayfly grow/ survive/reproduce.
OR
3. Less oxygen at site 1;

4. (So) less respiration/ATP/energy (for mayflies);

OR
5. More predators/Anglers’ Curse at site 1;

6. (So more) mayfly killed/eaten/removed;

OR
7. More competition at site 1;

8. (So more) mayfly starve;

2

(e) Same size of area (sampled)

OR
Same size net/mesh
OR

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 Same sampling time
OR
Samples taken at same time of day/on same day;
Accept use of quadrat
Accept any other valid reason
1
[7]

Q5.
(a) (Number of species and) number of individuals in each species (in each
habitat)
OR
(Number of species and) population of each species (in each habitat);
Accept organisms for individuals
Ignore frequency.
Accept abundance of each species.
1

(b) 1. Random samples;

2. Large number (of samples)

OR
(Continue sampling) until stable running mean;
Both marks can be awarded on one line.
Ignore other answers unless they contradict mark points.
Accept many/multiple. Ignore several.
If a specified number is given, it must be 10 or more.
Accept ‘large sample (size)’.
Accept organisms for individuals
2

(c) (Larger fields have relatively)

More centre
OR
Less edge
OR
Less hedge
OR
Fewer species;
Ignore removal of hedge (as given in stem).
1

(d) Advantage -

1. Greater (bio)diversity so increase in predators of pests

OR
Increase in predators of pests so more yield/income/less pesticides/less
damage to crops
OR
Increase in pollinators so more yield/income
OR
May attract more tourists/subsidies to their farm so more income (from
diversification);

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 Disadvantage -

2. Reduced land area for crop growth/income

OR
Greater (bio)diversity so increase pest population
OR
Increase pest population so less yield/less income/(more) need for
pesticides/(more) damage to crops
OR
Increased (interspecific) competition so less yield/income
OR
More difficult to farm so less income;
Accept description of yield eg crop growth.
For ‘crop’ accept ‘plant’.
Accept other valid suggestions with explanation that will affect the
farm as a whole.
Examples of ‘more difficult to farm’ – can’t use large machinery,
more difficult to plough/seed/harvest.
2
[6]

Q6.
(a) Type of selection
1. Directional;

Reason:
2. One extreme selected/removed/favoured/chosen
OR
One extreme allowed to breed;
Ignore references to adaptations/natural selection
Accept large fish/small fish for ‘extreme’
2

(b) 1. As a baseline/control;

2. To show effect of no selection

OR
To show what happens in a normal population/naturally
OR
To show effect of/compare with tank A/tank C;
Ignore reference to type of selection
Accept not removing/not catching/not fishing for ‘selection’
Accept genetic drift for ‘no selection’
Accept no fishing/no selection/no caught fish for ‘normal
population’
Accept to compare with other results
2

(c) Correct answer for 2 marks

(How much greater) 1.6 to 1.7;;

Accept for 1 mark,

1.2 : 1 and 2 : 1

Page 34 of 44
 Accept for 1 mark,
4.1 : 3.4 and 4.8 : 2.4

Accept for 2 marks

2

(d) Not supported because

1. (Sea) fishing reduces (mean) mass of fish;

2. Because large fish removed

OR
Because small fish escape/put back
OR
Because fishing (model) like Tank C;

But

3. Information from (only) one species

OR
Sea fishing catches other/different (types of) species;

4. No statistical test;

5. Size of tank may affect fish growth;

6. Fish in tanks are all same age/sea fish not all the same age;

7. No measure of number of fish (removed)/ only measured mean mass

OR
No measure of (total) yield of fish
OR
No measure of reproductive success of fish;

8. Removal of 90% of population is unlikely to be replicated in the sea

fishing;

9. Sea fish do not have life cycle of one year

OR
Sea fish do not reproduce all at the same time;
2 max for "But"
3 max
[9]

Q7.
(a)
Each must include an explanation

1. Wash hands to remove/kill microbes

OR
Wear gloves/apron to prevent contamination;

2. Burning Bunsen close by to create upward current of air;

3. Disinfect bench/work on disinfected cloth to kill microbes/prevent

contamination;

Page 35 of 44
 Accept use sterile/ antiseptic/bleach for ‘disinfect’

4. Flame instrument/equipment to sterilise/kill

microbes/prevent contamination;
Accept autoclave/ use alcohol/steam/boil for flame
Accept scalpel/ inoculating loop/wire loop/loop/forceps/ spreader
for instrument

5. Lift lid slightly to prevent entry of microbes;

1. 3. 4. & 5. Accept microorganisms/
spores/bacteria/fungi/contaminants for ‘microbes’
3 max

(b) Mitosis given first

Differences must be given as comparisons
Ignore references to asexual / sexual
reproduction, growth, repair & replacement

1. One division, two divisions in meiosis;

2. (Daughter) cells genetically identical, daughter cells

genetically different in meiosis;
Reference to ‘genetically’ needed once

3. Two cells produced, (usually) four cells produced in meiosis;

4. Diploid to diploid/haploid to haploid, diploid to haploid in meiosis;

Accept same number chromosomes in mitosis,
but half the number in meiosis

5. Separation of homologous chromosomes only in meiosis;

6. Crossing over only in meiosis;

7. Independent segregation only in meiosis;

2 max

(c) 28;
Automarking
1

(d) 1. Separation of homologous chromosomes (occurred)

OR
(Independent) segregation (occurred);
Accept description of homologous chromosome movement for
‘separation’
Accept alleles for ‘chromosomes’
Accept as a labelled diagram of chromosomes, eg

2. (Arrangement/separation/segregation of chromosomes is) random/

(almost) equally frequent (in tubes 1 and 2);

3. Crossing over occurred in tube 3/10 tubes;

Page 36 of 44
 Accept as labelled diagram of crossing over

4. (Crossing over) is rare/infrequent/in only 10 tubes;

3. and 4. "Crossing over occurred in only 10 tubes" = 2 marks
3 max
[9]

Q8.
(a) 1. Chromosomes (are) becoming visible/distinct;

2. Because (still) condensing;

OR
Accept ‘chromosomes are condensed’ for 2 marks.
Accept shorten or thicken for ‘condensed’

3. Chromosomes (arranged) at random/not lined up;

4. Because no spindle (activity);

OR

Because not attached to spindle fibres;

Link marking points-
1 and 2
3 and 4
2

(b) A;

(c) Locus/loci;
1

(d) 1. (Because) base/nucleotide sequence;

2. (In) triplet(s);

3. (Determines) order/sequence of amino acid sequence/primary structure (in

polypeptide);
3
[7]

Page 37 of 44
Q9.
(a) 1. Hydrogen bonds (between DNA bases) break;
Ignore DNA helicase.
Reject hydrolysing hydrogen bonds.

2. (Only) one DNA strand acts as a template;

3. (Free) RNA nucleotides align by complementary base pairing;

For ‘align by complementary base pairing’, accept ‘align to
complementary bases’ or ‘align by base pairing’.

4. (In RNA) Uracil base pairs with adenine (on DNA)

OR

(In RNA) Uracil is used in place of thymine;

Do not credit use of letters alone for bases.

5. RNA polymerase joins (adjacent RNA) nucleotides;

Reject suggestions that RNA polymerase forms hydrogen
bonds or joins complementary bases.

6. (By) phosphodiester bonds (between adjacent nucleotides);

7. Pre-mRNA is spliced (to form mRNA)

OR

Introns are removed (to form mRNA);

5 max

(b) 1. (mRNA attaches) to ribosomes

OR

(mRNA attaches) to rough endoplasmic reticulum;

2. (tRNA) anticodons (bind to) complementary (mRNA) codons;

3. tRNA brings a specific amino acid;

4. Amino acids join by peptide bonds;

5. (Amino acids join together) with the use of ATP;

6. tRNA released (after amino acid joined to polypeptide);

7. The ribosome moves along the mRNA to form the polypeptide;

6 max

(c) (Definition of gene mutation)

1. Change in the base/nucleotide (sequence of chromosomes/DNA);

For 4 marks at least one mark must be scored in each
section of the answer.
Accept named mutation for ‘change’.

Page 38 of 44
 2. Results in the formation of new allele;

(Has no effect because)

3. Genetic code is degenerate (so amino acid sequence may not change);

OR

Mutation is in an intron (so amino acid sequence may not change);

Accept description of ‘degenerate’, eg some amino acids
have more than one triplet/codon.

4. Does change amino acid but no effect on tertiary structure;

5. (New allele) is recessive so does not influence phenotype;

(Has positive effect because)

6. Results in change in polypeptide that positively changes the properties (of the
protein)

OR

Results in change in polypeptide that positively changes a named protein;

For ‘polypeptide’ accept ‘amino acid sequence’ or ‘protein’.

7. May result in increased reproductive success

OR

May result in increased survival (chances);

4 max
[15]

Q10.
(a) Plant v prokaryote

1. (Associated with) histones/proteins v no histones/proteins;

2. Linear v circular;

3. No plasmids v plasmids;
Do not credit if suggestion that prokaryotic DNA only exists
as plasmids.

4. Introns v no introns;

5. Long(er) v short(er);
Alternatives must be written directly opposite one another.
Do not award if only half of a mark point is written.
Reference to prokaryotic DNA being single stranded = max
2.
Reference to prokaryotic DNA not being helical = max 2.
3 max

Page 39 of 44
 (b) 1. DNA that does not code for protein/polypeptides

OR

DNA that does not code for (sequences of) amino acids

OR

DNA that does not code for tRNA/rRNA;

Accept the idea of not transcribed for ‘does not code for’.
Do not credit ‘DNA that does not code for an amino acid’.
Ignore reference to introns.

2. (Positioned) between genes;

Reject (positioned) ‘in introns’ or ‘between exons’.
Accept ‘(Positioned) at the end of chromosomes’ or
‘(Positioned) in the telomeres’.
2

(c) Top to bottom C N D I;

OR

Top to bottom N C D I;
1

(d) 1. (Supported) more similar than with any other species;

2. (Not supported) high (intraspecific) variation in species N (compared with

variation between N and C);
Accept idea that species N has nearly as much variation as
between N and C.
Accept ‘Low/close similarity in species N (in relation to
similarity between N and C)’

3. Small sample

OR

Only five (individuals);

2 max
[8]

Q11.
(a) 1. Select at random;
Accept description of random technique

2. Large sample/number (of snails)/>10;

Ignore ‘many’
2

(b) Mean and standard deviation;

Accept 2 correct statistical values for 1 mark
Accept any order

Page 40 of 44
 Accept average for mean
Accept standard error for standard deviation
Accept interquartile range
1

(c) (Littorina -) genus and

(littorea -) species;
Accept phonetic spelling
Accept genera
1

(d) 1. No (significant) difference between (mean) height (in these populations);

2. (Students) t-test;
Accept suitable null hypothesis
2
[6]

Q12.
(a) 1. (Free RNA) nucleotides form complementary base pairs;
Accept A-U, G-C OR combination of those pairs

2. Phosphodiester bonds form;

Accept linkages for ‘bonds’

3. By (action of) RNA polymerase;

3

(b) Base/nucleotide/triplet sequence coding for polypeptide/sequence of amino

acids/primary structure;
1

(c) Serine Alanine Glycine Proline;

Must be in this order Accept Ser Ala Gly Pro / S A G P
1

(d) Mark as pairs. 1 and 2 or 3 and 4.

(No)

1. G to C (in the second codon/for Glycine)

OR

CGT to CCT (in second codon/for Glycine);

2. (So), substitution (not addition mutation);

Reject if substitution of Glycine (for Alanine)

OR

3. (If addition) frameshift / all triplets moved;

4. (So), affects more than one amino acid;
2

Page 41 of 44
 [7]

Q13.
(a) Correct answer for 2 marks = 2.7;;
Accept for 1 mark,

79 × 78/6162 in numerator (value of N(N ‒ 1))

OR

2286 in denominator (value of Σn(n ‒ 1) )

OR

22, 41, 14, 2 (correct readings of bar chart for all species)

OR

0.37 – 0.38 (correct calculation using correct numerator and incorrect

figures from bar chart: 22, 63, 77, 79)
2

(b) 1. Same number of (different) species (in both plots)

OR

(Both plots) have 4 species;

1

(c) 1. Determine the area of plot 1.

2. Calculate (total) area of meadow;

3. Divide area of meadow by area of plot;

4. Multiply by number of beetles (per plot)/41;

Accept multiply by incorrect figure taken from figure (eg 43)
4
[7]

Q14.
(a) 1. tRNA brings specific amino acid (to ribosome);

2. Anticodon (on tRNA) binds to codon (on mRNA);

3. Amino acids join by condensation reaction (using ATP)

OR

Amino acids join to form a peptide bond (using ATP);

3

(b) 1. Hydrogen bonds form instead of ionic bonds;

2. Changes the tertiary structure (of the crystallin);

Ignore reference to active site

Page 42 of 44
 2

(c) 3 correct = 2 marks;;

2 correct = 1 mark;

0 or 1 correct = 0 marks

mRNA codon for the non-

AGG
mutant triplet

Mutated mRNA codon GGG

Mutated DNA triplet CCC

2
[7]

Q15.
(a) Binomial;
1

(b) (A factor that) increases (the rate of) mutations;

1

(c) Correct answer - 60, 31 and 30;

(d) Name of mutation

1. Non-disjunction;

Explanation
Ignore homologous

2. (In) meiosis;
Accept reference to first division or second division as
indicating meiosis
Ignore mitosis

3. Chromosomes not separated

OR

Page 43 of 44
 All chromosomes stay in one cell

OR

Chromosomes do not form (homologous) pairs;

Accept 'move to one side' OR 'move to one pole'
3

(e) 1. Random fusion of gametes

OR

Random fertilisation;
Accept for ‘gametes’,

2. (Produces) new allele combinations

OR

(Produces) new maternal and paternal chromosome combinations;

Reproductive cells
Ignore genes
2
[8]

Page 44 of 44