English (1001CMD303029240003) *1001CMD303029240003* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 05-05-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE : MEA-I (A)

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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025

 2 English

Topic : CURRENT ELECTRICITY (TILL DATE), WAVE OPTICS [BACK UNIT] : ELECTROSTATICS

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 4. The value of current I in the following circuit is :-

1. The effective resistance between points A and B is:

(1) 3 A (2) 13 A
(3) 23 A (4) – 3 A
(1) 4R
5. I-t curve is shown in figure. Find total charge
(2) 2R
from t = 2 to t = 8 sec.
(3) 6R
(4) 3R
2. For the circuit shown in figure, which one of the
following equation is correct :-

(1) 35 μ C
(2) 40 μ C
(3) 45 μ C
(4) None of these
(1) E1 – i2x + E2 + i1y = 0 6. The potential difference between A and B in the
(2) E1 – i2x – i1z = 0 following figure is
(3) E2 + i2y – i2z = 0
(4) – E2 + (i1 + i2)z + i1y = 0
(1) 32 V
3. Six resistors each of 10 ohm are connected as
shown. The equivalent resistance between points (2) 48 V
X and Y is: (3) 24 V
(4) 14 V
7. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1 % longer, its
resistance will :-
(1) 20 ohm (1) Increase by 0.05%

(2) 5 ohm (2) increase by 0.2 %

(3) 25/3 ohm (3) decrease by 0.2%

(4) 10 ohm (4) decrease by 0.05%

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8. 12. In the circuit shown , the point B is earthed. The
potential at the point A is :-

Find current in 3 Ω resistance :-

(1) 2.2 A
(2) 1.5 A (1) 14 V
(3) 2A (2) 24 V
(4) 1.7 A (3) 26 V
9. An electron charge (e) is revolving in a circular (4) 50V
orbit of radius (r) round a nucleus of charge (Ze)
with speed (v). The equivalent current is : 13. In the circuit shown below, the reading of the

(1) zero voltmeter V is :-

ev
(2) 2πr
Zev
(3)
2πr
2πr
(4)
ev (1) 12 V
10. The current drawn from battery of emf 5 V is (2) 8 V
(3) 20 V
(4) 16 V
14. What is the potential difference between point A
and D of circuit shown in Fig. :-
(1) 0.33 A
(2) 0.5 A
(3) 0.67 A
(4) 0.17 A
11. At what temperature will the resistance of a
copper wire become three times its value at
(1) 5 V
0°C (Temperature coefficient of resistance for
copper = 4 × 10 – 3 per°C) :- (2) 9 V
(1) 400°C (2) 450°C (3) 10.4 V
(3) 500°C (4) 550°C (4) 11.4 V
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15. Electric potential in a particular region of space 19. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region
is V =12x – 3x2y + 2yz2. The electric field at
point P (1m, 0, – 2m) is : of uniform electric field E→ . The line AB is
(1) 12 unit (2) 13 unit perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field
(3) 5 unit (4) zero lines. Then which of the following holds good ?
16. In the following graph, the magnitude of maximum
electric field is :-

(1) 5 V/m
(2) 2.5 V/m (1) VA = VB = VC
(3) 1.25 V/m (2) VA = VB > VC
(4) 10 V/m (3) VA = VB < VC
17. Two small spheres each having a charge +Q are (4) VA > VB = VC
suspended by insulating threads of length L from a 20. A charged particle of charge q and mass m is
hook. This arrangement is taken to a space where
there is no gravitational effect, then the angle between released from rest in an uniform electric field E.
the two threads and the tension in each will be :- Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic
o 1 Q2 energy of the charged particle after time ‘t’
(1) 180 ,
4 π ε 0 (2L)2
seconds is
1 Q2
(2) 90o , Eqm
4 π ε 0 L2 (1)
Q2 t
1
(3) 180o , 2 2 2
E q t
4 π ε 0 2L2 (2)
2m
1 Q2
(4) 180o , 2E 2 t2
4 π ε 0 L2 (3)
mq
18. An electric dipole consisting of two opposite
Eq 2 m
charges of 2 × 10 – 6C separated by a distance of (4)
2t2
3 cm placed in an electric field of 2 × 105 N/C
21. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be :
then the maximum torque acting on dipole is
(1) 5
(1) 12 × 10 – 1 N-m
(2) 0.5
(2) 24 × 10 – 3 N-m
(3) – 1
(3) 12 × 10 – 3 N-m
(4) Zero
(4) 24 × 10 – 1 N-m
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22. Which of the following is true for the figure 25. In YDSE if distance between slits & screen is
showing electric line of force ? increased then
(1) Fringe width increase & angular fringe
width decreases
(2) Fringe width decreases & angular fringe
width increase
(3) Fringe width increase & angular fringe
width remain same
(A) EA > EB
(B) EB > EA (4) Fringe width remain same & angular fringe
(C) VA > VB width increase
(D) VB > VA 26. In Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are
(1) A, C observed by light of λ = 600 nm in a certain
segment of the screen. If wavelength is changed
(2) B, D
to 400 nm then number of fringes in the same
(3) only A segment will be -
(4) A, D (1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 24 (4) 30
23. When a plane wave front incident on a concave 27. Two Nicols are oriented with their principal planes
mirror as shown in figure then shape of reflected making an angle of 60o. The percentage of
wave front just after reflection:- incident unpolarised light which passes through
the system is :-
(1) 50 % (2) 100 %
(3) 12.5 % (4) 37.5 %
28. Young's double slit experiment is performed
with light of wavelength 550 nm. The separation
(1) (2) between the slits is 1.10 mm and screen is placed
at distance of 1m. What is the distance between
the consecutive bright or dark fringes.
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 1.0 mm
(3) (4) (3) 0.5 mm (4) None of these
29. In Young's experiment, light of wavelength 6000Å
24. I1 9 Imax is used to produce fringes of width 0.8 mm at a
If = then = ?
l2 1 Imin distance of 2.5 m. If the whole experiment is deep
(1) 100 : 64 in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, then fringe
(2) 64 : 100 width will be :
(3) 4 : 1 (1) 0.5 mm (2) 0.6 mm
(4) 1 : 4 (3) 0.4 mm (4) 0.2 mm
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30. A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a
distant source falls on a single slit 1.00 mm wide
and resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a
screen 2m away. The distance between the first dark
fringes on either side of central bright fringe is :-
(1) 1.2 cm (2) 1.2 mm
35. Assertion :- To observe diffraction of light, the
size of obstacle/aperture should be of the order
of 10 – 7 m.
Reason :- 10 – 7 m is the order of wavelength of
visible light.

(3) 2.4 cm (4) 2.4 mm (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
31. At what angle should an unpolarised beam be
incident on a crystal of μ = 3 , so that reflected
√
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
beam is polarised :- (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(1) 45o (2) 60o (3) 90o (4) 0o (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
32. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their correct explanation of (A)
axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
light I0 is incident on P1 . A third polaroid P3 is
kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis 36. A solid metallic cuboid of homogeneous material
makes an angle 37° with that of P1. The intensity having geometrical dimension as shown in the
of transmitted light through P2 is :- figure will have a ratio of resistances for the
I0 I0 sense of current along x, y and z directions
(1) (2) respectively, equal to
4 2
8I0 72I0
(3) (4)
625 625
33. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are
2 mm apart and are illuminated with a mixture of
two wavelength λ 0 = 750 nm and λ = 900 nm.
The minimum distance from the common central
bright fringe on a screen 2 m from the slits (1) a: b: c
where a bright fringe from one interference (2) a: c: b
pattern coincides with a bright fringe from the
(3) a2: b2: c2
other is :-
(4) a2: c2: b2
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 3 mm
37. Find equivalent resistance between A and B
(3) 4.5 mm (4) 6 mm
34. In Huygens's wave theory, the locus of all points
in the same state of vibration is called :-
(1) A half period zone
(2) Oscillator
(3) A wave-front (1) 13 Ω (2) 5 Ω

(4) A ray (3) 8 Ω (4) 9 Ω

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38. In the network of resistances as shown in figure. 41. Eight point charges having magnitude q are fixed
the effective resistance between points A and B at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through
is :- square surface ABCD of the cube is

(1) 8 R
(2) 5R
q
(3) (5/3) R (1) 24 ∈ 0
q
(4) (8/3) R (2) 12 ∈ 0
39. Equivalent resistance between A and B will be :- q
(3) 6∈0
q
(4) 3∈0
42. Two small identical spheres, each of mass 1 g
5r
(1) and carrying same charge 10 – 9 C are suspended
3
by threads of equal lengths. If the distance
(2) 2r
between the centres of the spheres is 0.3 cm in
3 + √17
(3)
4 equilibrium then the inclination of the thread
3 + √17 with the vertical will be : –
(4) r
2
40. In the circuit shown if point O is earthed, then (1) tan – 1 (0.1)

the potential of point X is equal to : (2) tan – 1 (2)

(3) tan – 1 (1.5)
(4) tan – 1 (0.6)
43. Two point charges + 8 q and – 2q are located at
x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a
point on the x axis at which the net electric field
due to these two point charges is zero is:
(1) 10V (1) 8L
(2) 15V (2) 4L
(3) 25V (3) 2L
(4) 12.5V (4) L/4
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44. Assertion(A) :- The flux crossing through a 46. In Young’s double slit experiment how many
closed surface is independent of the location of maximas can be obtained on a screen (including
charge within the surface. the central maximum) on both sides of the
Reason(R) :- On displacement of charges within central fringe if λ = 2000 Å and d = 7000 Å :-
a closed surface, electric field at any point on the (1) 12 (2) 7
surface does not change.
(3) 18 (4) 4
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) 47. In a YDSE with d = 1mm and D = 1m, slabs of
(t = 1 μ m, μ = 3) and (t = 0.5 μ m, μ = 2) are
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) introduced in front of upper and lower slit
respectively. Find the shift in the fringe pattern.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) 1.2mm (2) 1.5 mm
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) 1.8 mm (4) 1mm
45. Variation of electric field along the line joining
48. In YDSE distance between slits is 0.2 mm,
two charges is given in list-I. Relation between
charges is given in list-II. Match the proper distance between slit & screen is 2m and
wavelength of monochromatic light incident on
variation. Take electric field along right as positive
slit is 600 nm. Find the phase difference between
List-I List-II
the waves at a point 2 cm from mid point?
(1) 20 π (2) 2 π /3
|q1| > |q2|
(P) (1) (3) 15 π (4) 20 π /3
q1 < 0; q2 > 0
49. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of
width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an
|q1| = |q2| angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is
(Q) (2) incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum
q1 > 0; q2 > 0
is observed at an angle of :
1
(1) sin−1 ( )
4
|q1| = |q2|
(R) (3) 2
q1 < 0; q2 > 0 (2) sin−1 ( )
3
1
(3) sin−1 ( )
2
|q2| > |q1|
(S) (4) 3
q1 > 0; q2 > 0 (4) sin−1 ( )
4
50. For what distance is ray optics a good approximation
(1) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 4 when the aperture is 4 mm wide and the wavelength
(2) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3 is 500 nm :-
(3) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1 (1) 32 m (2) 64 m
(4) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1 (3) 16 m (4) 8 m
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Topic : ELECTROCHEMISTRY (TILL TAUGHT), STEREO ISOMER, GOC-I [BACK UNIT] : CHEMICAL
KINETICS

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 55. An endothermic reaction A → B have an activation

energy of 15 kCal/mol and the heat of the reaction
51. The reaction A(g)+2B(g) → C(g) is an elementary is 5 kCal/mol. The activation energy of the reaction
reaction. In an experiment involving this reaction, the B → A is :
initial partial pressures of A and B are PA = 0.40 atm (1) 20 kCal/mol (2) 15 kCal/mol
and PB = 1.0 atm respectively. When pressure of C (3) 10 kCal/mol (4) 5 kCal/mol
becomes 0.3 atm in the reaction the rate of the reaction
relative to the intial rate is : 56. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
1 1 1 (1) A second order reaction must be a bimolecular
(1) (2) (3) (4) 25
12 50 25 elementary reaction
52. For the reaction CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl (2) A bimolecular elementary reaction must be
rate law is : Rate = k[CHCl3][Cl2]1/2. Order of a second order reaction
the reaction is :
(3) Zero order reaction must be a complex reaction
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) 1.5 (4) 2
(4) First order reaction may be complex or
53. Which of the following curves represents a Ist elementary reaction
order reaction
57. For the reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g); the
expression of rate constant will be
(1) (2) (Where Po = initial pressure of reactant,
Pt = Total pressure of mixture after time t)
1 2P0
(1) K= ln[ ]
t 3P0 − Pt
(3) (4) 1 & 3 both 1 P0
(2) K= ln[ ]
t 3P0 − Pt
1 2P0
(3) K= ln[ ]
54. The mechanism of the reaction : t P0 − P t
A + 2B → D + E ; Δ H = – ve is :- 1 P0
(4) K= ln[ ]
Step I : A + 2B → C (slow) t 2P0 − Pt
Step II : C → D + E (fast) 58. The conductivity of 0.01 mol/L aqueous acetic
The energy profile of the reaction should be : acid at 300 K is 19.5 × 10 – 5 ohm – 1 cm – 1 and
limiting molar conductivity of acetic acid at the
same temperature is 390 ohm – 1 cm2 mol – 1. The
(1) (2) degree of dissociation of acetic acid is :-
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.05
(3) 5 × 10 – 5 (4) 5 × 10 – 7
59. The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode at
(3) (4) pH = 10 and PH2 = 1 atm is :-
(1) 0.51 V (2) 0 V (3) 0.59 V (4) – 0.59 V
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60. The resistance of a decinormal solution of salt 66. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
occupying a volume between two platinum Assertion-A and the other is labelled as Reason-R.
electrodes 1.8 cm apart and 5.4 cm2 area was found Assertion (A) : For measuring the resistance of an
to be 30 ohm. Calculate conductivity of solution ? ionic solution, alternating current (AC) source of
power is used.
(1) 0.011 Sm – 1 (2) 0.11 Sm – 1 Reason (R) : Passing direct current (DC) through
(3) 1.11 Sm – 1 (4) None ionic solution changes its composition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
61. For the reaction A + 2B+ → A2+ + 2B ; KC is correct answer from the options given below :
found to be 1012, then Ecell
o
is :-
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) 0.708 V (2) 0.177 V explanation of A.
(3) 0.088 V (4) 0.354 V (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
62. In a cell that utilizes the reaction correct explanation of A.
Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + H2(g) (3) A is true but R is false.
Addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment will :-
(4) A is false but R is true.
(1) Lower the Ecell and shift equilibrium to left.
67. For reaction 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) at
(2) Lower the Ecell and shift equilibrium to the right. time t, rate of reaction is 1.02 × 10 – 4 M sec – 1
(3) Increase the Ecell and shift equilibrium to and rate constant is 3.4 × 10 – 5 sec – 1, then
the right. concentration of reactant at time t is-
(4) Increase the Ecell and the equilibrium to the left. (1) 1.732 M (2) 3M
63. Calculate the value of emf of cell (3) 1.02 × 10 – 4 M (4) 3.5 × 105 M
Ag(s) | AgNO3(10 – 3 M) || AgNO3(10 – 2 M) | Ag(s) 68. 0
EM values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are – 0.41,
+3 |M +2

(1) 0.0345 V +1.57, 0.77 and 1.97 V respectively, then for

(2) 0.0591 V which metal change from +2 to +3 is easiest-

(3) – 0.0591 V (1) Co (2) Mn (3) Fe (4) Cr

69. Assertion (A) : Rate of a zero order reaction is
(4) – 0.0345 V independent of temperature.
64. E° for F2 + 2e – → 2F – is 2.8 V, Reason (R) : Half life of a zero order reaction is
1 directly proportional to initial concentration of
then E° for F2 + e – → F – is reactant.
2
(1) 2.8 V (2) 1.4 V In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(3) – 2.8 V (4) – 1.4 V
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
65. Pre-exponential factors of two reactions R1 and correct explanation of A.
R2 are same , Ea of R1 is 10 kJ/mol more than Ea
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
of R2, if rate constants of R1 and R2 at 300 K are
correct explanation of A.
k2
k1 and k2 respectively, then ln will be- (3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
k1
(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 6 (4) 4 (4) A is incorrect but R is correct.
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70. Ecell for 76. Which of the following compounds is chiral ?
Cr(s)|Cr+3(aq. 0.1M)||Fe+2(aq. 0.01M)|Fe(s)
at 298 K is :-
(Given ECr0
= −0.74V , EF0 e+2 |F e = – 0.44 V)
(1) (2)
+3
|Cr

(1) – 0.34 V (2) – 0.26 V

(3) 0.26 V (4) 0.34 V
71. For cell (3) (4)
Pt(s)|H2(5 atm)|H+(0.1 M)|H2(2 atm)|Pt(s)
Ecell is :-
77. Which of the following is syn configuration
(1) – 0.06 V (2) 0.06 V
(3) – 0.012 V (4) 0.012 V (1)
72. For cell reaction
I2(aq.) + 2Fe+2(aq.) → 2Fe+3(aq.) + 2I – (aq.)
0
Ecell = – 0.24 V at 298 K, then standard Gibbs (2)
free energy ( Δ rG0) of the cell reaction is :-
(1) – 46.32 kJ/mol
(2) – 23.16 kJ/mol (3)
(3) 46.32 kJ/mol
(4) 23.16 kJ/mol
73. How many stereoisomers are possible for (4)
following compound :-
78. The correct order of basic strength of the
following compounds :-
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 2
(I) NH2
74. Which conformation of butane will have the
minimum energy?
(1) Gauche (2) Anti (II) CH3O NH2
(3) Eclipsed (4) Skew
Consider (III) NO2 NH2
75.
(P) Cl – CH2 – COOH,
(Q) HCOOH,
(R) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – COOH (IV)
order of Ka will be :
(1) R > Q > P (2) P > R > Q (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > I > IV > III

(3) P > Q > R (4) Q > P > R (3) III > IV > II > I (4) II > I > III > IV

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79. Which of the following compound will show 83. Assertion : Acidic strength order
tautomerism :-

(1) (2) Reason : More number of alkyl group increase

electron density on oxygen atom hence O – H
bond will be less polar so acidic strength
(3) (4) decreases.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
80. Find order of % Enol content : Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(a)
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(c)
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(1) a > b > c (2) b > a > c
84. Which is insoluble in sodium bi carbonate (NaHCO3)
(3) b > c > a (4) c > a > b
(1) Picric acid
81.
(2) Carbolic acid
(3)
(4) Acetic acid
Order of C – O bond length (BL) ;
85. Find incorrect order of stability :
(1) ℓ 1 > ℓ 2 > ℓ 3 (2) ℓ 1 > ℓ 3 > ℓ 2
(3) ℓ 3 > ℓ 2 > ℓ 1 (4) ℓ 3 > ℓ 1 > ℓ 2 (1)
82. Consider

(2)

Correct order of stability (3)

(1) A > B > C > D
(2) A > C > B > D
(3) C > B > A > D (4)

(4) C > A > B > D

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SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) 90. Which of the following is correct for-
Zn(s) | Zn+2(aq, 1M)|| Cu+2(aq., 1M)| Cu(s)
86. The rate constant for the first order reaction is 0 0 0
4
(1) ECell = EZn +2 |Zn − ECu+2 |Cu
1.25 × 10
given by : log K = 14.34 – 0
ECell 0
= EZn|Zn 0
T (2) +2 + ECu+2 |Cu
Calculate the activation energy : 0 0 0
(3) ECell = ECu|Cu +2 + EZn+2 |Zn
(1) 2.393 × 105 J
0 0 0
(4) ECell = ECu|Cu +2 + EZn|Zn+2
(2) 8.69 × 104 J
91. Select the correct statements from following A → B
(3) 1.18 × 105 J for a 1st order reaction :-
(4) 8.69 × 105 J (A) [A]t = [A]0 – kt
(B) Time taken for 75% completion is 2 times of t50%.
87. The value of molar conductivity of 0.1 M HCl is
(C) Unit of pre-exponential factor (A) is time–1.
greater than that of 0.1 M NaCl at a particular (D) Half life is doubled if concentration of A is
temperature because : doubled.
(1) Molecular mass of HCl is less than that of NaCl. Choose the correct answer from the option given
below.
(2) Velocity of H+ ions is more than that of
Na+ ions (1) A, B, C and D

(3) HCl is strongly acidic (2) A, B and C only

(4) Ionisation of HCl is larger than that of NaCl (3) B and C only

88. The reduction potential values are given below:- (4) A and C only
Al3+/Al = – 1.67 volt, Mg2+/ Mg = – 2.34 volt, 92. Reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be
Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 volt, I2/2I – = +0.53 volt, negative if-
Which one is the best reducing agent ? (1) P H2 = 1atm and [H+] = 2M
(1) Al (2) P H2 = 1atm and [H+] = 1M
(2) Cu (3) P H2 = 2atm and [H+] = 1M
(3) Mg (4) P H2 = 2atm and [H+] = 2M
(4) I2 93. I−
For reaction 2H2O2 −−−−−−−−−−−→ 2H2O + O2
Alkaline medium
89. Half life of a radioactive substance is 15 hours, rate equation for this reaction is found to be-
then what fraction of substance remain undecayed rate = k [H2O2] [I¯]
after 45 hours- this suggest that-
1 (1) This reaction is an elementary reaction.
(1)
2
1 (2) This reaction is a complex reaction
(2)
4 (3) This reaction take place in two steps
(3) 3 H2O2 + I – → H2O + IO – ; fast
4
H2O2 + IO – → H2O + I – + O2 ; slow
(4) 1
8 (4) For this reaction molecularity is 2.
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94. Half life of a 1st order and zero order reactions 97. Phenol is less Acidic than. :-

(A) → (B) and P → Q respectively is same, if (1) o – cresol (2) Benzyl alcohol
(3) m – nitrophenol (4) Ethanol
initial concentration of reactant in both reaction
98. Antiaromatic species are :-
is 1M, then ratio of initial rate of 1st order and
zero order reaction respectively is- (a) (b)

1
(1)
0.693
(c) (d)
(2) 2 × 0.693
2
(3) (1) a, b (2) a, d (3) a, b, d (4) all
0.693
(4) 6.93 99. Consider
95. The correct order of increasing basic strength of
the bases NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH and
(CH3)3N in aqueous solution is :-

(1) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH

Correct order of stability
(2) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N < NH3 (1) A > B > C > D

(3) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3NH (2) B > A > D > C
(3) C > A > D > B
(4) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(4) C > D > A > B
96. Incorrect order of acidic strength is :- 100. Consider

(1)

(2) CHF3 < CHCl3

Correct order of stability :-
(3) CF3COOH > CCl3 – COOH
(1) a > b > c > d > e > f
(2) f > e > c > b > d > a
(4) (3) f > e > c > d > b > a
(4) f > e > d > c > b > a

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Topic : BIOTECHNOLOGY, MICROBES IN HUMAN
EVOLUTION [BACK UNIT] : HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I )
101. The activated Bt toxin binds to the surface of
which cells of the target insect ?
(1) Foregut epithelial cells
(2) Midgut endothelial cells
(3) Hindgut epithelial cells
(4) Midgut epithelial cells
102. The cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that
control :-
(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borers respectively
(2) Corn borers and cotton bollworms respectively
(3) Tobacco budworms and corn borers respectively
(4) Corn borers and tobacco budworms respectively
103. Which of the following foods can prevent the
deficiency of vitamin A in human body ?
(1) Bt-Brinjal
(2) Golden Rice
(3) Lemon
(4) Groundnut
104. Statement-I : In first gene therapy functional
ADA gene using Retroviral vector is introduced
into lymphocytes.
Statement-II : The First clinical gene therapy was
given to a 4 year old girl with ADA Deficiency.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
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WELFARE, GENETICS, ORIGIN AND
105. Statement-I :- At present 30 recombinant therapeutic
have been marketed for human use in India.
Statement-II :- Recombinant therapeutic do not
induce unwanted immunological response as is
common in case of similar product isolated from non
human source
Choose the correct answer from option given below :
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
106. Match the column.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Bt toxin (i) Somatic hybridisation
(b) Pomato (ii) Insecticide
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Amplification of DNA
(d) PCR (iv) Virus Free plant
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
107. Assertion : Milk of transgenic cow, Rosie is
nutritionally a more balanced product for human
babies than natural cow milk.
Reason : Milk of transgenic cow of Rosie has
human milk protein - ∝ - lactalbumin.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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108. Maximum number of transgenic animals are :- 114. The linking of desired gene with the plasmid
(1) Cow (2) Mice vector become possible with the special enzyme,
which acts on cut DNA molecules and join their
(3) Sheep (4) Pig ends, this enzyme is called :-
109. The Indian parliament has recently cleared which (1) Restriction enzyme (2) DNA ligase
amendment of the Indian patents bill :-
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Reverse transcriptase
(1) 1st (2) 2nd
115. Large holes in Swiss cheese are made by :-
(3) 3rd (4) 4th
(1) A machine
110. The use of bioresources by multinational
companies and other organization without proper (2) A bacterium producing a large amount of
authorization from countries and people concerned H2S during curdling.
with compensatory payment it is known as :- (3) A fungi producing a large amount of CH4
(1) Biopiracy (2) Biopatent during ripening.

(3) Biowar (4) Bioremediation (4) A bacterium producing a large amount of

CO2 during ripening.
111. Downstream process includes ?
I. Separation of the product from the reactor. 116. Match the following columns :-
II. Purification of the product. Column I Column II
III. Formation of the product with suitable (Products) (Produced by)

preservatives. A Citric Acid i Streptococcus

Which of the statements given above are correct:- B Streptokinase ii Propionibacterium sharmanii
(1) I, II and III (2) II and III only C Swiss cheese iii Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) I and III only (4) I and II only D Ethanol iv Aspergillus niger
112. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for : Option
(1) availability of oxygen throughout the process A B C D
(2) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel (1) iv iii ii i
(3) purification of product (2) iv i ii iii
(4) addition of preservatives to the product (3) i ii iii iv
113. Select the incorrect statement for continuous (4) ii i iv iii
culture system :- 117. The recessive characters are those characters
(1) Used medium is drained out from one side which are expressed :
while fresh medium is added from other side. (1) Only in homozygous conditions
(2) In this cells are maintained in their (2) Only in heterozygous conditions
physiologically most active lag phase of growth.
(3) Both in homozygous and heterozygous conditions
(3) It produces larger biomass
(4) Neither in homozygous nor in heterozygous
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product. conditions
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118. Method of producing thousands of plants of 122. Match column-I with column-II :
plants through tissue culture is called :- Column-I Column-II
(1) Micro injection (a) Flocs (i) Mosquitoes
(2) Genetics Engineering (b) Protease (ii) Clear Bottle juice
(3) Micro-propagation (c) Dragonflies (iii) fix atmospheric nitrogen
Mass of bacteria and
(4) Electroporation (d) Azospirillum (iv)
fungus
119. Once of BOD of sewage or waster water is
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed
into a settling tank where the bacterial 'flocs' are (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
allowed to sediment. This sediment is called :- (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(1) Primary sludge (2) Activated sludge (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) Primary effluent (4) Suspended solids 123. In curd which of the following vitamin increase
120. Match the items in column 'A' and Column 'B' it's nutritional quality :
and choose correct answer. (1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin A
Column A Column B
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
(i) Lady Bird (a) Menthano bacterium
124. The branch of biology deals with the inheritance,
(ii) Mycorrhiza (b) Trichoderma as well as the variation of characters from parents
(iii) Biological control (c) Aphids to offspring is :-
(iv) Biogas (d) Glomus (1) Cytology (2) Genetics
The correct answer is: (3) Physiology (4) Ecology
(1) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - c, (iv) - a 125. Which of the following is not a correct match :-
(2) (i) - c, (ii) - d, (iii) - b, (iv) - a (1) Alleles – Slightly different forms of the same
(3) (i) - d, (ii) - a, (iii) - b, (iv) - c gene.
(4) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - a, (iv) - d (2) Genes – the units of inheritance
121. Match the following (column-I with Column-II) (3) Character – feature of an organism
Column-I Column-II (4) Unmodified allele – Always represents the
a Allele i Two alleles of a gene are identical resessive allele
An individual having two different 126. Select the incorrect match:
b Genotype ii
alleles of a gene (1) Ramapithecus – Existed around 15 mya.
Genetic constitution of an (2) Australopithecus – Lived in East African
c Homozygous iii
organism grasslands.
d Heterozygous iv Alternative forms of a gene (3) Homo habilis – Fossils discovered from Java .
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) Homo erectus – Cranial capacity 900 cc.
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
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127. The thorn of Bougainvillea and Tendril of 130. Identify the correct match from column-I and
Cucurbita in the given figure does not show : column-II
Column-I Column-II
Invertebrates
A. (i) 350 mya
formed
B. Sea weed existed (ii) 65 mya
(1) Homology (2) Divergent evolution Jawless fish
C. (iii) 500 mya
(3) Common ancestory (4) Vestigial structures evolved
128. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below Extinction of
D. (iv) 320 mya
represent four different types of fore-limbs of Dinosaurs
mammals. Which one of these is correctly (1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
identified in the option given along with its
correct function and adaptation. (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i,D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
131. In following experiment of Stanley Miller A,B,C
are simulation of ?

Fore limb Function Adaptation

(1) (D) Bat Flying Aerial
(2) (A) Man Running Carnivore
(3) (B) Whale Swimming Aquatic
(4) (C) Cheetah Running Carnivore
129. Find out the correct match from the following table :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Vertebrates' Homologous Divergent (A) (B) (C)
(i)
brain organ evolution Primitive Hot dilute
Flippers of
(1) Raining
Analogous Divergent atmosphere soup
(ii) Penguins and
organ evolution
dolphins Hot dilute Primitive
(2) Raining
Thorns of soup atmosphere
Bougainvillea Homologous Divergent
(iii)
and Tendrils organ evolution
Primitive Hot dilute
(3) Raining
of Cucurbita atmosphere soup
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii) Hot dilute Primitive
(4) Raining
(3) (iii) only (4) (i) and (iii) soup atmosphere
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132. Identify the dinosaurs A and B:
(1) A-Tyrannosaurus, B-Stegosaurus
(2) A-Triceratops, B-Stegosaurus
(3) A-Tyrannosaurus, B-Brachiosaurus
(4) A-Triceratops, B-Tyrannosaurus
133. Refer the given figure. What does it represent?
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Both '2' & '3'
134. Assertion :- Due to continental drift pouched
mammals of Australia survived.
Reason :- There was lack of competition from
any other mammal.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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135. Assertion : Dog fish and Whale are example of
analogy.
Reason : Ancestors of Dog fish and Whale were
terrestrial.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I )
136. Plants, bacteria, fungi & animals whose genes
have been altered by manipulation are called
genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which
of the following statements is not applicable to
GM plants ?
(1) Reduced dependence on chemical pesticides
(2) Prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil
(3) Crops are less tolerant to abiotic stresses
(cold, drought, salt, heat)
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
137. Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding RNA interference ?
(i) A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the
roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield.
(ii) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
as a method of cellular defence.
(iii) Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode
specific genes were introduced into the host plants.
(iv) Nematode can parasitise a wide variety of
plants and animals including human beings.
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, iii
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i, iii, iv
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138. ELISA is :-
(1) Technique of disease diagnosis based on PCR
(2) Technique of gene silencing based on
antigen-antibody interaction.
(3) Technique of molecular diagnosis based
antigen-antibody interaction
(4) Technique of conventional diagnosis
139. Statement-I : In E.Coli chain A and B of insulin
were produced separately.
Statement-II : C-Peptide is not present in the
mature insulin.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
140. Protein α -1 antitrypsin is used to treat :-
(1) Cancer (2) Rhumatoid arthritis
(3) Alzheimer's disease (4) Emphysema
141. The figure shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase
Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct
identification together with what it represents :-
(1) B-Denaturation at a temperature of about
98°C separating the two DNA strands
(2) A-Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
(3) C-Extension in the presence of heat stable
DNA polymerase
(4) B-Annealing with three sets of primers
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142. During the formation of bread it becomes porous
due to release of CO2 by the action of:-
(1) Yeast
(2) Bacteria
(3) Virus
(4) Protozoans
143. Statement-I : Depending on the type of the raw
material used for fermentation and the type of
processing (with or without distillation) different
types of alcoholic drinks are obtained.
Statement-II : Wine and beers are produced
without distillation whereas whisky, brandy and
rum are produced by distillation of the fermented
broth.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is
incorrect.
144. Statement-I : Conventional farming practices
often uses chemical methods to kill only harmful
life.
Statement-II : Organic farmer work to create a
system where the insect pests are completely
eradicated.
(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are
correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are
incorrect.
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145. Statement-1 : Recessive trait is always form due 148. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
to functional enzyme. matching :-
Statement-2 : The modified allele is generally
the recessive allele.
(1) Both statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.
(2) Both statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-1 is correct.
(4) Only statement-2 is correct.
146. Correctly match column I and column II :-
Column I Column II
(A) Cromagnon man (I) First man who stood erect
Neanderthal
(B) (II) First man who made tools
man
(C) Australopithecus (III) First man who used fire
Prehistoric cave art developed (1) b-directional, a-disruptive, c-stabilising
(D) Homo habilis (IV)
18,000 yrs ago
(2) b-directional, c-disruptive, a-stabilising
(E) Homo erectus (V) Used hides, burial of dead
(1)
A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – II, E – I (3) c-directional, b-disruptive, a-stabilising
(2)
A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – III
(3)
A – IV, B – V, C – III, D – II, E – I (4) a-directional, c-disruptive, b-stabilising
(4)
A – V, B – I, C – III, D – II, E – IV 149. Stanley Miller performed his experiment at
147. Identify A,B and C from above figure :- which temperature?
(1) 33°C

(2) 500°C

(3) 100°C

(4) 800°C
150. One of the most common infectious disease in
man is ?
(1) Elephantiasis

(2) Ringworms
(1) A-sauropsid, B-therapsid, C-pelycosaurs
(2) A-sauropsid, B-pelycosaurs, C-therapsid (3) Ascariasis
(3) A-sauropsid, B-thecodonts, C-pelycosaurs
(4) Cancer
(4) A-synapsids, B-pelycosaurs, C-thecodonts
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Topic : BIOTECHNOLOGY, MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE, GENETICS, ORIGIN AND

EVOLUTION [BACK UNIT] : HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 154. Assertion : Mutations are random and non-directional.

151. Read the statement I and II and choose the correct
option.
Statement-I : Mutations are pre-adaptive.
Statement-II : Pre-existing advantageous mutations
when selected will result in observation of new
phenotypes.
(1) Both I and II are correct
(2) I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) II is correct but I is incorrect
(4) Both I and II are incorrect
Reason : Darwinian variations are small and directional.
(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason
is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason
is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.
155. Louis Pasteur's swan neck flask experiment
dismissed which theory of origin of life ?
(1) Modern theory
(2) Theory of spontaneous generation
(3) Theory of biogenesis

152. Statement-I : Evolution is not a directed process (4) Cosmic panspermia theory
156. Identify the correct sequence of evolution of man:
in the sense of determinism.
A. Homo habilis
Statement-II : Evolution is a stochastic process B. Home erectus
based on chance events in nature and chance C. Ramapithecus
mutation in the organisms. D. Australopithecus
E. Homo sapiens
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect Options:
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) A, B, C, D, E
incorrect
(2) B, C, D, A, E
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(3) C, D, A, B, E
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(4) D, C, A, B, E
153. Statement-1 : Dryopithecus was more man like.
157. It is said that when we see stars, we apparently
Statement-2 : Ramapithecus was more ape like. are peeping into the past. Because:
(1) Earth is very large
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Light reaching to our eyes from stars takes
(2) Statement-1 is correct, Statement-2 is incorrect millions of years

(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, Statement-2 is correct (3) Stars do not emit light
(4) Earth takes much time to revolve around the sun
(4) Both Statements are incorrect
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158. An extinct group of ancestor of mammals which 164. Due to continental drift when South America
is now found in form of fossils only : joined North America these animals were
overridden by _______
(1) Sauropsids (2) Thecodonts
(1) North American Flora
(3) Tuatara (4) Therapsids
(2) South American Fauna
159. Which of the following was common ancestor of
crocodile, Birds and dinosaur? (3) North American Fauna

(1) Synapsid ancestors (4) Both 1 and 2

(2) Pelycosaurus ancestor 165. Numbat shows convergent evolution with which
of the following placental mammal ?
(3) Archaeopteryx
(1) Spotted cuscus (2) Lemur
(4) Thecodont ancestor
(3) Flying squirrel (4) Anteater
160. Aves and mammals evolved from : –
166. Zosterophyllum plants originated or evolved from :-
(1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians
(1) Chlorophyte ancestors
(3) Dinosaur (4) Coelocanth
(2) Tracheophyte ancestors
161. Which type of plants fell to form coal deposites?
(3) Rhynia type plants
(1) Bryophyta (2) Pteridophyta
(4) Psilophyton
(3) Gymnosperm (4) Angiosperms
167. Among the following how many organisms are
162. Read the following four (A-D) statements : marsupials, present in Australia :-
(A) When migration of a section of population to Tiger cat, Wombat, Lemur, Koala, Sugar glider,
another place and population occurs, gene Flying squirrel.
frequencies changes.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
(B) If gene migration happens multiple times
there would be a gene flow. 168. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg
(C) If loss of gene from a population occurs by equilibrium if ?
chance it is called as genetic drift. (1) There are no mutations
(D) Natural selection is a process in which (2) There is no migration
heritable variations enabling better survival are (3) The population is large
enabled to reproduce and leave greater number (4) Individuals mate selectively
of progeny. 169. Tracheophyte ancestors were originated from ?
How many of the above statements are true ? (1) Rhynia type plants
(1) Two (2) One (3) Four (4) Three (2) Psilophyton
163. In Galapagos island, Darwin found different varieties (3) Seed ferns
of finches, originated from a common ancestor. The (4) Chlorophyte ancestors
original variety of these finches was :–
170. In the given list how many are placental mammals ?
(1) insectivorous (2) vegetarian Lemur, Bobcat, Wolf, Anteater, Flying squirrel
(3) seed-eating (4) cactus eating (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
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171. Natural selection can lead to ? 178. Which of the following are useful for prevention
(1) Stabilisation (2) Directional change and control of alcohol and drugs abuse among
adolescents ?
(3) Disruption (4) All of the above (A) Avoid undue peer pressure
172. In the given list how many diseases are caused (B) Education and councelling
by bacteria ? (C) Pushing a child to perform beyond his
Malaria, Typhoid, Common cold, Pneumonia, threshold limits
Elephantiasis (D) Looking for danger signs
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3 Choose correct answer from given options-

173. Which of the following statements is false ? (1) A, B, C, D

(1) Most parasites are pathogens. (2) A, B, D only

(2) Pathogens have no need to adapt to life (3) A, B only

within the host. (4) B, D only
(3) Some of the infectious diseases like AIDS 179. Which is not the effect of nicotine ?
are fatal. (1) Stimulates adrenal gland to release
(4) Drugs and alcohol also affect our health adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.
adversely. (2) Increases blood pressure.
174. Acid in stomach, saliva in mouth, tears from (3) Increases heart rate.
eyes are included in ?
(4) Increases concentration of haembound oxygen
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
180. In the given list how many drugs can be
(3) Physical barrier (4) Innate immunity produced by using flower tops, leaves and resin
175. Which drug is obtained from latex of poppy plant ? of cannabis in various combinations ?
(1) Cocaine (2) Morphine Marijuana, Hashish, Charas, Ganja, Morphine
(3) Charas (4) Amphetamine (1) 5 (2) 4

176. Which drug has potent stimulating action on (3) 3 (4) 2

central nervous system ? 181. Which of the following is not true for cocaine ?
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin (1) It produces a sense of euphoria.
(3) Cocaine (4) Barbiturates (2) It is commonly called coke or crack.
177. Excessive does of drugs may lead to coma and (3) It's excessive dosage causes hallucination.
death due to ? (4) It causes sense of decreased energy.
(1) Respiratory failure
182. In case of drug abuse the amounts / frequency of a
(2) Heart failure drug can impair which of the following functions ?
(3) Cerebral hemorrhage (1) Physical (2) Physiological
(4) All of the above (3) Psychological (4) All of the above
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183. Which technique uses strong magnetic fields and 189. In which of the following immature lymphocytes
non-ionising radiations to accurately detect differentiates into antigen sensitive lymphocytes ?
pathological changes in the living tissue ? (1) Spleen (2) Appendix
(1) CT-scan (2) X-ray (3) MALT (4) Thymus
(3) ELISA (4) MRI 190. In the given list how many are secondary
184. Which of the following statement is false ? lymphoid organs ?
(1) Benign tumors can never remain confined Spleen, Tonsils, Bone marrow, Lymph nodes,
to their original location. Peyer's patches
(2) Malignant tumors are a mass of proliferating cells. (1) 3 (2) 4

(3) Normal cells show a property called contact (3) 2 (4) 1

inhibition 191. Which of the following lobed organ is located
(4) Cancer cells appeared to have lost the near the heart and beneath the breast bone ?
property of contact inhibition (1) Spleen (2) Peyer's patches
185. Treatment of which disease with antiretroviral (3) Thymus (4) Tonsils
drug is only partially effective ? 192. Which structure act as filter of blood by trapping
(1) Typhoid (2) Malaria blood-borne micro-organisms ?
(3) Filariasis (4) AIDS (1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus
SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II ) (3) Spleen (4) Lymph nodes
193. Which statement is false for AIDS ?
186. In which of the following disease close contact
with infected person should be avoided ? (1) It was first reported in 1981.
(1) Cancer (2) It is caused by a retrovirus, which have an
envelope enclosing the DNA genome.
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) It does not spread through mere touch.
(3) Pneumonia
(4) There is always a time lag between the
(4) Allergy
infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms.
187. In the given list how many diseases are 194. Which disease has no cure and prevention is the
controlled to a large extent by use of vaccines ? best option ?
Tetanus, AIDS, Polio, Diphtheria, Pneumonia
(1) Typhoid (2) Malaria
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) Ascariasis (4) AIDS
188. Natural killer cells and monocytes are included in ?
195. Symptoms of which disease include constipation,
(1) Cell mediated immunity
abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess
(2) Humoral immunity mucous and blood clots?
(3) Acquired immunity (1) Typhoid (2) Amoebiasis
(4) Innate immunity (3) Filariasis (4) Ascariasis
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196. For plasmodium fertilisation and development 198. Haemozoin is responsible for symptoms of which
takes place in ? disease ?
(1) Typhoid (2) Ascariasis
(1) Salivary gland of mosquito
(3) Filariasis (4) Malaria
(2) Gut of mosquito 199. Which disease can spread through contaminated
(3) RBC of human objects such as pen, books, doorknobs etc. ?
(1) Malaria (2) Typhoid
(4) Liver of human
(3) Common cold (4) Filariasis
197. Plasmodium reproduces asexually in ?
200. Mary Mallon is related to which of the following ?
(1) Liver of human
(1) A disease caused by a virus.
(2) Gut of human
(2) A disease caused by a protozoa.
(3) RBC of human
(3) A disease caused by a bacteria.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) A disease caused by a helminth.

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2024 - 2025)
ENTHUSE ADV. COURSE I(A) : MEA
MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. & PREVIOUS UNIT (COMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
DATE

RAY OPTICS &

P
OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
04
02-06-2024
06-05-2024 C SOLUTION
TO
01-06-2024
HUMAN REPRODUCTION &
B
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MEA-I (A)

05-05-2024 1001CMD303029240003
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