1. Sebocytes express leptin receptor, therefore
Regional
high body mass index (BMI) is a predictive factor
for increased risk of developing moderate to
severe acne in adolescents and young adults.
a) First sentence is true, second sentence is false
b) First sentence is false, second sentence is true
c) Both sentences are true and there is a causative
relation between them
d) Both sentences are true and there is no
causative relation between them
e) Both sentences are false
2. Systemic manifestations including fever,
arthralgias, myalgias, hepatosplenomegaly, severe
prostration and occasional erythema nodosum
may be observed in:
a) acne vulgaris
b) acne fulminans
c) acne conglobata
d) acne excoriée des jeunes filles
e) acne mechanica
3. Atopic dermatitis results from increased
delayed-type hypersensitivity to topical allergens.
Sedating antihistamines are helpful in breaking the
"itch-scratch cycle' in atopic dermatitis, especially
when given at bedtime.
a) First sentence is true, second sentence is false
b) First sentence is false, second sentence is true
c) Both sentences are true and there is a causative
relation between them
d) Both sentences are true and there is no
causative relation between them
e) Both sentences are false
4. Patients with atopic dermatitis have a greater
susceptible staphylococcal exotoxins- can function
as superantigen; which may exacerbate dermatitis.
Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) baths are advocated
in patients with atopic dermatitis:
a) First sentence is true. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is true
b) First sentence is true. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is false
c) First sentence is true. Second sentence is false.
Third sentence is true.
d) First sentence is false. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is true.
e) First sentence is true. Second sentence is false.
Third sentence is false.
5. There is an abrupt onset of fever, chills, malaise
and nausea in your patient. A few hours to a day
later, a small plaque of erythema develops that
progressively spreads. The area is clearly
demarcated from uninvolved tissue, hot, tense and
indurated with non-pitting edema. The affected
area is painful to palpation and may burn.
lymphadenopathy is normally present, with or
without lymphatic streaking. Pustules,vesicles,
bullae and small areas of hemorrhagic necrosis
may also form. This clinical description is
consistent with:
A. cellulitis
B. necrotizing fasciitis
C. erysipelas
D. erythrasma
E. erythroderma
6. An exquisitely tender, erythematous, hot and
swollen area of extensive cellulitis that does not
respond to antibiotics appears in your patient. The
disease progresses at an alarming rate, with the
skin changing from red and purple to a
pathognomonic gray-blue with ill-defined patches
within 36 hours after onset. A thin, watery,
malodorous fluid is oozing from the lesion. The
area becomes anesthetic and feels wooden hard
on palpation. Patients becomes toxic, with fever,
chills, malaise, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. This
clinical description is consistent with:
A. cellulitis
B. furunculosis
C. carbuncle
D. necrotizing fasciitis
E. erysipelas
7. A lesion develops as a solitary red papule or
polyp that grows rapidly on your patient's lip over
the course of several weeks, then stabilizes
reaching 6mm in diameter. Lesion is extremely
friable, frequently ulcerate, and may bleed
profusely with minor trauma. This clinical
description is consistent with:
A. cherry angioma.
B. cutaneous angiofibroma
C. pyogenic granuloma
D. dermatofibroma
E. acrochondron
8. A firm, hyperpigmented, dome-shaped papule
measuring 8mm in diameter. In dermoscopy there
is a 'starburst' pattern. On palpation, it seems
attached to the subcutaneous tissue: pinching the
lesion gently results in apparent downward
movement of the tumor, also known as the dimple
sign. This clinical description is consistent with:
A. cutaneous angiofibroma
B. dermatofibroma
C. acrochondron
D. pearly penile papules
E. fibrous papule
9. A rapidly enlarging papule evolves into a sharply
circumscribed crateriform nodule with at keratotic
core over a period of a few weeks and then may
resolve slowly over months to leave an atrophic
scar. Most lesions occur on the head or sun-
exposed areas of the extremities, with or without
symptoms of pain or tenderness. This clinical
description is consistent with:
A. nodular basal cell carcinoma
B. Merkel cell carcinoma
C. keratoacanthoma
D. actinic keratosis
E. Bowen's disease
10. A solitary rapidly growing asymptomatic, flesh-
coloured tumour appears on the head of your
patient. Skin biopsy reveals densely packed sheets
of small round blue cells. Cells stain positively for
CK-20 in a dot-like pattern. This clinical description
is consistent with:
A. nodular basal cell carcinoma
B. Merkel cell carcinoma.
C. keratoacanthoma
D. actinic keratosis
E. Bowen's disease
11. Important prognostic factor in melanoma are all
except:
A. Thickness of the melanoma.
B. Area of the melanoma
C. Mitotic index of the melanoma
D. Presence of ulceration
E. Number of regional lymph nodes involved
12. Vitiligo may coexist with other autoimmune
endocrinopathies. The strongest association is
between vitiligo and:
A. Addison's disease
B. type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. pernicious anemia
D. gonadal failure
E. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
13. A multisystem disorder characterized by
uveitis, aseptic meningitis, otic involvement,
poliosis and vitiligo, especially of the head and
neck region is known as:
A. Ribbentrop-Molotov syndrome
B. Alezzandrini Syndrome
C. Sutton syndrome
D. Vogt-Konyagi-Harada syndrome
E. Bellizarius syndrome
14. Surgical treatment options in vitiligo include all
except
A. shave excision
B. micropigmentation
C. suction blister epidermal grafting
D. punch biopsy skin grafting
E. hair follicle grafting
15. Pathogenic mechanism underlying melanocyte
loss in vitiligo include:
A. Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
B. abnormal expression of TYRP1
C. defective free radical defence
D. reduced melanocyte survival
E. all of the above
16. Clinical variants of herpes zoster include:
A. gangrenous, lymphatic, ophthalmic, generalized
or disseminated
B. diabetic, hemorrhagic, labial, generalized or
disseminated
C. gangrenous, hemorrhagic, ocular, generalized
or disseminated.
D. vibrating, hemorrhagic, lymphatic, ophthalmic,
generalized or disseminated
E. gangrenous, hemorrhagic, labial, generalized or
disseminated
17. The most common, 'classic' causative factor of
genital herpes is:
A. HPVI
B. HSV2
C. HCV3
D. HSV1
E. VZV1
18. A 50-year-old man visited you because of
periocular violaceous erythema and muscle
weakness of the shoulder girdle. Serum CPK levels
are increased. The clinical description is most
consistent with:
A. systemic sclerosis.
B. systemic lupus erythematosus
C. scleroderma
D. dermatomyositis
E. subacute lupus erythematosus
19. Which of the following symptoms does not
belong to the clinical picture of systemic sclerosis?
A. Raynaud's symptom.
B. dyspnoea in the course of interstitial
C. masque face with microstomy.
D. dysphagia and gastroesophageal reflux.
E. Gottron's sign
20. The eczema lesions located within the 25. Which of the following describes relation
antecubital and popliteal fossae, face and neck between smoking and psoriasis:
with accompanying pruritus and positive atopic A. Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
family history are characteristic for: the risk remains elevated in former smokers
A. Atopic dermatitis B. Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
B. Psoriasis the risk normalizes in former smokers
C. Seborrheic dermatitis C. Active smoking idecreases the risk of psoriasis,
D. Urticaria the risk normalizes in former smokers
E. Erythema multiforme D. Active smoking decreases the risk of psoriasis,
the risk remain decreased in former smokers
21. Isomorphic sign consisting of psoriatic plaque E. Smoking does not influence the risk of
within tattoos and horse bites have been first developing psoriasis
described by:
A. Heinrich Koebner 26. Risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease are
B. Heinrich Auspitz all except of:
C. Ferdinand Hebra A. multiple sexual partners
D. Tulusi Behcet B. past history of STI in partner
E. John Fitzpatrick C. homosexuallity
D. in vitro procedure within last 6 weeks
22. Increased risk of developing both psoriasis and E. insertion of intrauterine device within last 6
Crohn's disease is associated with mutations in: weeks
A. CARD14
B. IL27 27. Condylomata lata occur during:
C. AGPAT2 A. early prenatal syphilis
D. LLRK2 B. tertiary syphilis
E. ICD10 C. late latent syphilis
D. secondary syphilis
23. PEST, PASE, and ToPAS questionaires are E. primary syphilis
usefull tools in early diagnosis of:
A. pustular psoriasis 28. Social stigmatization because of psoriasis is
B. psoriatic arthritis experienced at least once in a life by :
C. lupus erythematosus A. 0,09% patients
D. plaque psoriasis B. 0,9% patients
E. atopic dermatitis C. 9% patients
D. 20% patients
24. Which of the following describes relation E. 90% patients
between infections and psoriasis
A. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, 29. A 25-year-old female patient reported to the
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis doctor due to rapidly progressing baldness. In the
B. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis, physical examination there are focuses of oval
antibiotics exacerbate the course of psoriasis shape alopecias in the temporal region, at the
C. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis, circumference of which exclamation hair are
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis present. The most probable cause of baldness is:
D. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, A. androgenic alopecia
antibiotics may both exacerbate and ameliorate the B. drug-induced alopecia
course of psoriasis C. trichotilomania
E. There is no relation between infections and the D. alopecia areata
course of psoriasis E. systemic lupus erythematosus.

30. A characteristic symptom of Lyme disease i

A. Migrating erythema, peripherally spreading
B. Lymphocytoma
C. Pain in the joints and muscles
D. Subfebrile state and weakness
E. All answers are correct
31. The risk factors for melanoma development 37. Rosacea can be differentiated from acne
does NOT include: vulgaris by which of the following features?
A. Light complexion, especially in people exposed A. Absence of comedones
to sunlight in childhood B. Distribution limited to the face
B. skin phototype III C. Inflammatory papules and pustules
C. A positive family history of melanoma D. Irritation from topical products
D. Presence of dysplastic pigmented nevi E. Gender of the patient
E. Genetic factors
38. First line therapy for late latent syphilis
32. In the treatment of shingles, recommended oral according to IUSTI 2014 is:
dose of acyclovir is: A. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
A. 4x200mg for 10 days and 15
B. 5x800mg for 7-10 days B. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
C.different depending on the location of the lesions C. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days.
and the duration of the disease D. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units i.m. single
D. 5x400mg for 7 days dose
E. 5x200mg for 14 days E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days

33. An 8 year-old patient presents to clinic with 39. First line therapy for non gonorrheal urethritis
moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical is:
corticosteroids. You counsel the parent about A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
potential side effects of this medication. Which of B. doxycycline 100mg 2 x day for 7 days
the following is a common side effect of prolonged C. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
topical corticosteroid use? and 15
A. Cushing's syndrome D. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
B. Glaucoma ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
C. Photosensitivity azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
D. Skin atrophy E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
E. Hypertension
40. First line therapy for uncomplicated
34. Oral tetracyclines are not used in children gonnorhoea is:
younger than 8 years of age because: A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
A. Risk of bleaching of the hair B. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
B. Risk of damage to tooth enamel and developing and 15
bones C. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
C. Risk of hyperkalemia D. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
D. Risk of hyperpigmenteation of the skin E. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
E. Risk of hypertension ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
35. A 65 year old woman has been struggling with
urticaria for over 2 years. She has been tested 41. Oral allergy syndrome is caused by cross-
several times for allergies, but all have been reacting allergens found in both pollen and raw
negative. What is the most common cause for fruits or vegetables. People affected by oral allergy
chronic urticaria? syndrome can usually eat the same fruits or
A. Aspirin vegetables in cooked form
B. Food allergies A. first sentence is true, the second is false,
C. Idiopathic B. first sentence is false the second is true
D. Medications. C. there is no such condition
E. Preservatives. D. both sentences are false
E. both sentences are correct
36. Which of the following is the cardinal symptom
of urticaria?
A. Anesthesia
B. Paresthesia
C. Bullae
D. Pruritua
E. Target lesions
42. Brick orange fluorescence in Wood lamp
examination is characteristic for:
A. Corynebacterium minuttissimum
B. Melassezia furfur
C. Dihydroxyacetone
D. Microsporum canis
E. Treponema pallidum
43. Irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact
dermatitis, especially the chronic forms, can take
on similar clinical appearances. Therefore patch
testing remains the gold standard for diagnosing
allergic contact dermatitis.
A. first sentence is true, the second is false
B. first sentence is false the second is true
C. there are no such conditions
D. both sentences are false
E. both sentences are correct
F B. Retinoids are vitamin D derivatives
44. Vascular spasms of digital arteries with distinct
clinical patterns; often associated with autoimmune
diseases is called:
A. Koebner phenomenon
B. Asboe-Hansen sign
C. Kabuki syndrome
D. Fitzpatrick syndrome
E. Raynaud phenomenon
48. Typical features of herpes zoster include:
A. Pain with or preceding the eruption
B. Dermatomal distribution
C. Pain persisting after the eruption resolves
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above
49. Which one IS NOT true?
A. Clobetasol is high potency topical steroid
B. Topical steroids provide symptomatic relief for
burning and pruritic lesions
C. High potency are recommended for skin folds
D. Topical steroids can cause perioral dermatitis
E. Topical steroids
50. Which one IS NOT true
A. Oral isotretinoin is teratogenic and therefore is
absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
C. Topical retinoids can caused dryness, pruritus,
erythema, scaling
D. Retinoids are Used for the treatment of acne
vulgaris
E. Retinoids are used for the treatment of
lympomas

45. Dermatitis herpetiformis:

A. is pruritic nodular disease
B. is most common in people of African origin
C. can be effectively treated with gluten-free diet
D. caused by IgG autoantibodies against
Desmoglein-3
E. is bacterial infection

46. Differential diagnosis of erythrasma include the

following, except:
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Candidiasis
C. Tinea
D. Psoriasis inversa
E. Intertrigo

47. Search for underlying tumor MUST be done in

patients with:
A. Psoriasis
B. Erythema Multiforme
C. Dermatomyositis
D. Subacute Cutaneous Lupus Erythematosus
E. Atopic dermatitis
1. Pearly nodule of distal nailfold in young person is
most likely:
A. onychofibroma
B. osteochondroma
C. onychomatricoma
D. glomus tumor
E. pseudomyxoma
2. Systemic manifestations including fever,
arthralgias, myalgias, hepatosplenomegaly, severe
prostration and occasional erythema nodosum
may be observed in:
A. acne vulgaris
B. acne fulminans
C. acne conglobata
D. acne excoriée des jeunes filles
E. acne mechanica
3. Atopic dermatitis results from increased
delayed-type hypersensitivity to topical allergens.
Sedating antihistamines are helpful in breaking the
itch-scratch cycle in atopic dermatitis, especially
when given at bedtime.
A. First sentence is true, second sentence is false
B. First sentence is false, second sentence is true
C. Both sentences are true and there is a causative
relation between them
D. Both sentences are true and there is no
causative relation between them
E. Both sentences are false
4. Patients with atopic dermatitis have a greater
susceptibility for staphylococcal colonisation.
Staphylococcal exotoxins can function as
superantigens which may exacerbate the
dermatitis. Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) baths are
advocated in patients with atopic dermatitis.
A. First sentence is true. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is true.
B. First sentence is true. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is false
C. First sentence is true. Second sentence is false.
Third sentence is true.
D. First sentence is false. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is true.
E. First sentence is true. Second sentence is false.
Third sentence is false.
5. There is an abrupt onset of fever, chills, malaise
and nausea in your patient. A few hours to a day
later, a small plaque of erythema develops that
progressively spreads. The area is clearly
demarcated from uninvolved tissue, hot, tense and
indurated with non-pitting edema. The affected
area is painful to palpation and may burn. Regional
lymphadenopathy is normally present, with or
without lymphatic streaking. Pustules, vesicles,
bullae and small areas of hemorrhagic necrosis
may also form. This clinical description is
consistent with:
A. cellulitis
B. necrotizing fasciitis
C. erysipelas
D. erythrasma
E. erythroderma
6. An exquisitely tender, erythematous, hot and
swollen area of extensive cellulitis that does not
respond to antibiotics appears in your patient. The
disease progresses at an alarming rate, with the
skin changing from red and purple to a
pathognomonic gray-blue with ill-defined patches
within 36 hours after onset. A thin, watery,
malodorous fluid is oozing from the lesion. The
area becomes anesthetic and feels wooden hard
on palpation. Patients becomes toxic, with fever,
chills, malaise, leukocytosis, and tachycardia. This
clinical description is consistent with:
A. cellulitis
B. furunculosis
C. carbuncle
D. necrotizing fasciitis
E. erysipelas
7. A lesion develops as a solitary red papule or
polyp that grows rapidly on your patient's lip over
the course of several weeks, then stabilizes
reaching 6mm in diameter. Lesion is extremely
friable, frequently ulcerate, and may bleed
profusely with minor trauma. This clinical
description is consistent with:
A. cherry angioma
B. cutaneous angiofibroma
C. pyogenic granuloma
D. dermatofibroma
E. acrochondron
8. A firm, hyperpigmented, dome-shaped papule
measuring 8mm in diameter. In dermoscopy there
is a 'starburst' pattern. On palpation, it seems
attached to the subcutaneous tissue; pinching the
lesion gently results in apparent downward
movement of the tumor, also known as the dimple
sign. This clinical description is consistent with:
A. cutaneous angiofibroma
B. dermatofibroma
C. acrochondron
D. pearly penile papules
E. fibrous papule
9. A rapidly enlarging papule evolves into a sharply
circumscribed crateriform nodule with a keratotic
core over a period of a few weeks and then may
resolve slowly over months to leave an atrophic
scar. Most lesions occur on the head or sun-
exposed areas of the extremities, with or without
symptoms of pain or tenderness. This clinical
description is consistent with:
A. nodular basal cell carcinoma
B. Merkel cell carcinoma
C. keratoacanthoma
D. actinic keratosis
E. Bowen's disease
10. A solitary rapidly growing asymptomatic, flesh-
coloured tumour appears on the head of your
patient. Skin biopsy reveals densely packed sheets
of small round blue cells. Cells stain positively for
CK-20 in a dot-like pattern. This clinical description
is consistent with:
A. nodular basal cell carcinoma
B. Merkel cell carcinoma
C. keratoacanthoma
D. actinic keratosis
E. Bowen's disease
11. Important prognostic factor in melanoma are all
except:
A. Thickness of the melanoma.
B. Area of the melanoma
C. Mitotic index of the melanoma
D. Presence of ulceration
E. Number of regional lymph nodes involved
nodular basal
12. Vitiligo may coexist with other autoimmune
endocrinopathies. The strongest association is
between vitiligo and:
A. Addison's disease
B. type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. pernicious anemia
D. gonadal failure
E. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
13. A multisystem disorder characterized by
uveitis, aseptic meningitis, otic involvement,
poliosis. and vitiligo, especially of the head and
neck region is known as:
A. Ribbentrop-Molotov syndrome
B. Alezzandrini Syndrome
C. Sutton syndrome
D. Vogt-Konyagi-Harada syndrome
E. Bellizarius syndrome
14. Surgical treatment options in vitiligo include all
except:
A. Shave excision
B. micropigmentation
C. suction blister epidermal grafting
D. Punch biopsy skin grafting
E. hair follicle grafting
15. Pathogenic mechanism of underlying
melanocyte loss in vitiligo include:
A. Autoimmuno destruction of melanocytes
B. abnormal expression TYRPI
C. defective free radical defense
D. reduced melanocyte survival
E. all of the above
16. Clinical variants of herpes zoster include:
A. gangrenous, lymphatic, ophthalmic, generalized
or disseminated
B. diabetic, hemorrhagic, labial, generalized or
disseminated
C. gangrenous, hemorrhagic, ocular, generalized
or disseminated
D. vibrating, hemorrhagic, lymphatic, ophthalmic,
generalized or disseminated
E. gangrenous, hemorrhagic, labial, generalized
or disseminated
17. The most common, 'classic' causative factor of
genital herpes is:
A. HPVI
B. HSV2
C. HCV3
D. HSV1
E. VZVI
18. A 50-year-old man visited you because of
periocular violaceous erythema and muscle
weakness of the shoulder girdle. Serum CPK levels
are increased. The clinical description is most
consistent with:
A. systemic sclerosis.
B. systemic lupus erythematosus
C. scleroderma
D. dermatomyositis
E. subacute lupus erythematosus
19. Which of the following symptoms does not 25. Which of the following describes relation
belong to the clinical picture of systemic sclerosis? between smoking and psoriasis:
A. Raynaud's symptom. A. Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
B. dyspnoea in the course of interstitial lung the risk remain elevated. in former smokers
disease. B. Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
C. masque face with microstomy. the risk normalizes in former smokers
D. dysphagia and gastroesophageal reflux. C. Active smoking idecreases the risk of psoriasis,
E. Gottron's sign the risk normalizes in former smokers
D. Active smoking decreases the risk of psoriasis,
20. The eczema lesions located within the the risk remain decreased in former smokers.
antecubital and popliteal fossae, face and neck E. Smoking does not influence the risk of
with accompanying pruritus and positive atopic developing psoriasis
family history are characteristic for:
A. Atopic dermatitis 26. Risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease are
B. Psoriasis all except of:
C. Seborrheic dermatitis A. multiple sexual partners
D. Urticaria B. past history of STI in partner
E. Erythema multiforme C. homosexuallity
D. in vitro procedure within last 6 weeks
21. Isomorphic sign consisting of psoriatic plaque E. insertion of intrauterine device within last 6
within tattoos and horse bites have been first weeks
described by:
A. Heinrich Koebner 27. Condylomata lata occur during:
B. Heinrich Auspitz A. early prenatal syphilis
C. Ferdinand Hebra B. tertiary syphilis
D. Tulusi Behcet C. late latent syphilis
E. John Fitzpatrick D. secondary syphilis
E. primary syphilis
22. Increased risk of developing both psoriasis and
Crohn's disease is associated with mutations in: 28. Social stigmatization because of psoriasis is
A. CARD14 experienced at least once in a life by :
B. IL27 A. 0,09% patients
C. AGPAT2 B. 0,9% patients
D. LLRK2 C. 9% patients
E. ICD10 D. 20% patients
E. 90% patients
23. PEST, PASE, and TOPAS questionaires are
useful tools in early diagnosis of: 29. A 25-year-old female patient reported to the
A. pustular psoriasis doctor due to rapidly progressing baldness. In the
B. psoriatic arthritis physical examination there are focuses of oval
C. lupus erythematosus shape alopecias in the temporal region, at the
D. plaque psoriasis circumference of which exclamation hair are
E. atopic dermatitis present. The most probable cause of baldness is:
A. androgenic alopecia
24. Which of the following describes relation B. drug-induced alopecia
between infections and psoriasis C. trichotilomania
A. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, D. alopecia areata
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis E. systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis,
antibiotics exacerbate the course of psoriasis 30. A characteristic symptom of Lyme disease is:
C. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis, A. Migrating erythema, peripherally spreading
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis B. Lymphocytoma
D. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, C. Pain in the joints and muscles
antibiotics may both exacerbate and ameliorate the D. Subfebrile state and weakness
course of psoriasis E. All answers are correct
E. There is no relation between infections and the
course of psoriasis
31. The risk factors for melanoma development 37. Rosacea can be differentiated from acne
does NOT include: vulgaris by which of the following features?
A. Light complexion, especially in people exposed A. Absence of comedones
to sunlight in childhood B. Distribution limited to the face
B. skin phototype III C. Inflammatory papules and pustules
C. A positive family history of melanoma D. Irritation from topical products
D. Presence of dysplastic pigmented nevi E. Gender of the patient
E. Genetic factors
38. First line therapy for late latent syphilis
32. In the treatment of shingles, recommended oral according to IUSTI 2014 is:
dose of acyclovir is: A. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1, 8
A. 4x200mg for 10 days and 15
B. 5x800mg for 7-10 days. B. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
C. different depending on the location of the C. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
lesions and the duration of the disease. D. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units i.m. single
D. 5x400mg for 7 days dose
E. 5x200mg for 14 days E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days

33. An 8 year-old patient presents to clinic with
moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical
corticosteroids. You counsel the parent about
potential side effects of this medication. Which of
the following is a common side effect of prolonged
topical corticosteroid use?
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Glaucoma
C. Photosensitivity
D. Skin atrophy
E. Hypertension
34. Oral tetracyclines are not used in children
younger than 8 years of age because:
A. Risk of bleaching of the hair
B. Risk of damage to tooth enamel and developing
bones
C. Risk of hyperkalemia
D. Risk of hyperpigmenteation of the skin
E. Risk of hypertension
39. First line therapy for non gonorrheal urethritis
is:
A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
B. doxycycline 100mg 2 x day for 7 days
C. benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1, 8
and 15
D. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
ceftriaxone i.m. single dose
together with azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
E. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
40. First line therapy for uncomplicated
gonnorhoea is:
A. metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for
B. benzathine penicillin units on day 1,8 and 15
C. tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
D. amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
E. a combination therapy with 500 mg of
ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose

35. A 65 year old woman has been struggling with 41. Treatment of choice of pseudocyst of the nail
urticaria for over 2 years. She has been tested. apparatus is:
several times for allergies, but all have been A. cryodestruction
negative. What is the most common cause for B. surgical removal with adequate margin
chronic urticaria? C. elecrocautery
A. Spirin D. bleomycin injection
B. Food allergies E. drainage with glicocorticosteroid injection and
C. Idiopathic compression
D. Medications
E. Preservatives 42. Brick orange fluorescence in Wood lamp
examination is characteristic for:
36. Which of the following is the cardinal symptom A. Corynebacterium minuttissimum
of urticaria? B. Melassezia furfur
A. Anesthesia C. Dihydroxyacetone
B. Paresthesia D. Microsporum canis
C. Bullae E. Treponema pallidum
D. Pruritus
E. Target lesions
43. Irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact
dermatitis, especially chronic forms, can take on
similar clinical appearances. Therefore patch
testing remains the gold standard for diagnosing
allergic contact dermatitis.
A. First sentence is false, the second is false
B. first sentence is false the second is true
C. there are no such conditions
D. both sentences are false
E. both sentences are correct
44. Vascular spasms of digital arteries with distinct
clinical patterns; often associated with autoimmune
diseases is called:
A. Koebner phenomenon
B. Asboe-Hansen sign
C. Kabuki syndrome
D. Fitzpatrick syndrome
E. Raynaud phenomenon
49. Which one IS NOT true?
A. Clobetasol is high potency topical steroid
B. Topical steroids provide symptomatic relief for
burning and pruritic lesions
C. High potency topical steroids are recommended
for skin folds
D. Topical steroids can cause perioral dermatitis
E. Topical steroids can cause strie distense
50. Which one IS NOT true
A. Oral isotretinoin is teratogenic and therefore is
absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy
B. Retinoids are vitamin D derivatives
C. Topical retinoids can caused dryness, pruritus,
erythema, scaling
D. Retinoids are Used for the treatment of acne
vulgaris
E. Retinoids are used for the treatment of
lympomas

45. Dermatitis herpetiformis:

A. is Pruritic nodular disease
B. is most common in people of African origin
C. can be effectively treated with gluten-free diet
D. caused by IgG autoantibodies against
Desmoglein-3
E. is bacterial infection

46. Differential diagnosis of erythrasma include the

following, except:
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Candidiasis.
C. Tinea
D. Psoriasis inversa
E. Intertrigo

47. Search for underlying tumor MUST be done in

patients with?
Psoriasis
Erythema multiforme
Dermatomyositis
Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematous
Atopic dermatitis

48. Typical features of herpes zoster include:

Pain with or preceding the eruption
Dermatomal distribution
Pain persisting after the eruption resolve
All of the above
None of the above
1. Choose the medication which is contraindicated
in pregnant women with acne vulgaris because it is
teratogenic:
a) Erythromycin (systemic therapy)
b) Erythromycin (topical therapy)
c) Azelaic acid
d) Isotretinoin (systemic therapy)
e) Benzoyl peroxide
2. Which of the following sentences contain true
information about acne vulgaris?
a) Increased levels of estrogens play a role in the
pathogenesis of the acne vulgaris.
b) Comedones which are superficial with the hair
follicle are known as whiteheads.
c) Acne vulgaris is most often seen in people at the
age of 50.
d) Excessive growth of the Propionibacterium
acnes plays a role in the development of
the acne vulgaris.
e) It is a very rare disease.
3. Sebocytes express leptin receptor, therefore
high body mass index (BMI) is a predictive
factor for increased risk of developing moderate to
severe acne in adolescents and young adults.
a) First sentence is true, second sentence is false
b) First sentence is false, second sentence is true
c) Both sentences are true and there is a causative
relation between them
d) Both sentences are true and there is no
causative relation between them
e) Both sentences are false
4. Systemic manifestations including fever,
arthralgias, myalgias, hepatosplenomegaly, severe
prostration and occasional erythema nodosum
may be observed in:
a) acne vulgaris
b) acne fulminans
c) acne conglobata
d) acne excoriée des jeunes filles
e) acne mechanica
5. Chronic defect extending into dermis or
subcutaneous defect, which develops as a result of
tissue necrosis and heals poorly. It is a description
of a:
a) Ulcer
b) Pustule
c) Scar
d) Crust
e) Cyst
6. Atopic dermatitis results from increased
delayed-type hypersensitivity to topical allergens.
Sedating antihistamines are helpful in breaking the
'itch-scratch cycle' in atopic dermatitis, especially
when given at bedtime.
a) First sentence is true, second sentence is false
b) First sentence is false, second sentence is true
c) Both sentences are true and there is a causative
relation between them
d) Both sentences are true and there is no
causative relation between them
e) Both sentences are false
7. Patients with atopic dermatitis have a greater
susceptibility for staphylococcal colonisation.
Staphylococcal exotoxins can function as
superantigens which may exacerbate the
dermatitis. Sodium hypochlorite (bleach) baths are
advocated in patients with atopic dermatitis.
a) First sentence is true. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is true.
b) First sentence is true. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is false.
c) First sentence is true. Second sentence is false.
Third sentence is true.
d) First sentence is false. Second sentence is true.
Third sentence is true.
e) First sentence is true. Second sentence is false.
Third sentence is false.
8. A type of cellulitis with significant lymphatic
involvement presenting as tense, hot and
indurated plaque with non-pitting edema and well-
defined margins is known as:
a) intertrigo
b) ecthyma
c) folliculitis
d) impetigo
e) erysipelas
9. Find answer that contains true information about
atopic dermatitis:
a) Distribution of lesions of atopic dermatitis does
not change over a lifetime.
b) The disease is familial, with apparent polygenic
inheritance.
c) Atopic dermatitis is also known as contact
dermatitis.
d) In children under one year of age only hands
and feet are affected.
e) Emollient creams or ointments are the only
treatment in the atopic dermatitis.
10.Following sentences describe signs and 14.A rapidly enlarging papule evolves into a
symptoms known as major features used in a sharply circumscribed crateriform nodule with a
diagnosis of atopic dermatitis but there is one Keratotic core over a period of a few weeks and
answer which is incorrect. Find it. then may resolve slowly over months to leave an
a) Oily skin. atrophic scar. Most lesions occur on the head or
b) Chronic and recurrent course. sun-exposed areas of the or without symptoms of
c) Positive personal or family history for atopy. Pain or tenderness. This clinical description is
d) Typical dermatitis (typical localization of skin consistent with
lesions depending on the age of patients) a) nodular basal
e) Pruritus. b) Merkel cell carcinoma
c) keratoacanthoma
11.An exquisitely tender, erythematous, hot and d) actinic keratosis
swollen area of extensive cellulitis that does e) Bowen's disease
not respond to antibiotics appears in your patient. cell carcinoma
The disease progresses at an alarming rate,
with the skin changing from red and purple to a 15.Important prognostic factor in melanoma are all
pathognomonic gray-blue with ill-defined except:
patches within 36 hours after onset. A thin, watery, a) Thickness of the melanoma.
malodorous fluid is oozing from the b) Area of the melanoma
lesion. The area becomes anesthetic and feels c) Mitotic index of the melanoma
wooden hard on palpation. Patients becomes. d) Presence of ulceration
toxic, with fever, chills, malaise, leukocytosis, and e) Number of regional lymph nodes involved
tachycardia. This clinical description is
consistent with: 16. Vitiligo may coexist with other autoimmune
a) cellulitis endocrinopathies. The strongest association is
b) furunculosis between vitiligo and:
c) carbuncle a) Addison's disease
d) necrotizing fasciitis b) type 1 diabetes mellitus
e) erysipelas c) pernicious anemia
d) gonadal failure
12.A lesion develops as a solitary red papule or e) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
polyp that grows rapidly on your patient's lip
over the course of several weeks, then stabilizes 17.A multisystem disorder characterized by uveitis,
reaching 6mm in diameter. Lesion is aseptic meningitis, otic involvement, poliosis and
extremely friable, frequently ulcerate, and may vitiligo, especially of the head and neck region is
bleed profusely with minor trauma. This known as:
clinical description is consistent with: a) Ribbentrop-Molotov syndrome
a) cherry angioma b) Alezzandrini Syndrome
b) cutaneous angiofibroma c) Sutton syndrome
c) pyogenic granuloma d) Vogt-Konyagi-Harada syndrome
d) dermatofibroma e) Bellizarius syndrome
e) acrochondron
18. An organoid hamartoma, shoulder presenting
13.A firm, hyperpigmented, dome-shaped papule with hypermelanosis, hypertrichosis and
measuring 8mm in diameter. In dermoscopy, there hypertrophic sebaceous glands is known as:
is a starburst pattern. On palpation, it seems a) Fitzpatrick's melanosis
attached to the subcutaneous tissue; b) Braun-Falco' melanosis
pinching the lesion gently results in apparent c) Becker's melanosis
downward movement of the tumor, also known d) Hannecke's melanosis
as the dimple sign. e) Ring's melanosis
This clinical description is consistent with:
a) cutaneous angiofibroma
b) dermatofibroma
c) acrochondron
d) pearly penile papules
e) fibrous papule
19.The eczema lesions located within the 24.A skin malignancy with very high mortality rate
antecubital and popliteal fossae, face and neck and rapidly increasisng incidence usually
with accompanying pruritus and positive atopic presenting as solitary rapidly growing
family history are characteristic for: asymptomatic, flesh-coloured tumour
a) Atopic dermatitis predominantly on the head, neck and extremities is
b) Psoriasis known as:
c) Seborrheic dermatitis a) BCC
d) Urticaria b) SCC
e) Erythema multiforme c) MCC
d) BBC
20. Isomorphic sign consisting of psoriatic plaque e) CBS
within tattoos and horse bites have been first
described by: 25. Which of the following describes relation
a) Heinrich Koebner between smoking and psoriasis:
b) Heinrich Auspitz a) Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
c) Ferdinand Hebra the risk remain elevated in former smokers
d) Tulusi Behcet b) Active smoking increases the risk of psoriasis,
e) John Fitzpatrick the risk normalizes in former smokers
c) Active smoking idecreases the risk of psoriasis,
21.Increased risk of developing both psoriasis and the risk normalizes in former smokers
Crohn's disease is associated with mutations in: d) Active smoking decreases the risk of psoriasis,
a) CARD14 the risk remain decreased in former smokers
b) IL27 e) Smoking does not influence the risk of
c) AGPAT2 developing psoriasis
d) LLRK2
e) ICD10 26. A rash of consisting of blisters and/or plaques
with overlying honey-colored crust with blister
22.PEST, PASE, and ToPAS questionaires are formation mediated by bacterial exfoliative toxin
usefull tools in early diagnosis of: binding to the desmosomal protein desmoglein 1
a) pustular psoriasis and cleaving its extracellular domain is known as
b) psoriatic arthritis a) intertrigo.
c) lupus erythematosus b) ecthyma.
d) plaque psoriasis c) folliculitis
e) atopic dermatitis d) impetigo
e) furunculosis
23. Which of the following describes relation
between infections and psoriasis 27.Risk factors for pelvic inflammatory disease are
A. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, all except of:
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis a) multiple sexual partners
B. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis, b) past history of STI in partner
antibiotics exacerbate the course of psoriasis c) homosexuallity
C. Infections ameliorate the course of psoriasis, d) in vitro procedure within last 6 weeks
antibiotics ameliorate the course of psoriasis e) insertion of intrauterine device within last 6
D. Infections exacerbate the course of psoriasis, weeks
antibiotics may both exacerbate and ameliorate the
course of psoriasis 28.Condylomata lata occur during:
E. There is no relation between infections and the a) early prenatal syphilis
course of psoriasis b) tertiary syphilis
c) late latent syphilis
d) secondary syphilis
e) primary syphilis
29.Social stigmatization because of psoriasis is
experienced at least once in a life by:
a) 0,09% patients
b) 0,9% patients
c) 9% patients
d) 20% patients
e) 90% patients
30.A 25-year-old female patient reported to the
doctor due to rapidly progressing baldness. In the
physical examination there are focuses of oval
shape alopecias in the temporal region, at the
circumference of which exclamation hair are
present. The most probable cause of baldness is:
a) androgenic alopecia
b) drug-induced alopecia
c) trichotilomania
d) alopecia areata
e) systemic lupus erythematosus.
31. A characteristic symptom of Lyme disease is:
a) Migrating erythema, peripherally spreading
b) Lymphocytoma
c) Pain in the joints and muscles
d) subfebrile state and weakness
e) All answers are correct
32.The risk factors for melanoma development
does NOT include:
a) Light complexion, especially in people exposed
to sunlight in childhood
b) skin phototype III
c) positive family history of melanoma
d) Presence of dysplastic pigmented nevi
e) Genetic factors
33.In the treatment of shingles, recommended oral
dose of acyclovir is:
a) 4x200mg for 10 days
b) 5x800mg for 7-10 days.
c) different depending on the location of the
lesions and the duration of the disease
d) 5x400mg for 7 days.
e) 5x200mg for 14 days
34. An 8 year-old patient presents to clinic with
moderate atopic dermatitis requiring topical.
corticosteroids. You counsel the parent about
potential side effects of this medication. Which of
the following is a common side effect of prolonged
topical corticosteroid use?
a) Cushing's syndrome
b) Glaucoma
c) Photosensitivity
d) Skin atrophy
e) Hypertension
35. Oral tetracyclines are not used in children
younger than 8 years of age because:
a) Risk of bleaching of the hair
b) Risk of damage to tooth enamel and developing
bones
c) Risk of hyperkalemia
d) Risk of hyperpigmenteation of the skin
e) Risk of hypertension
36. A sexually transmitted disease common in
Carribean, Africa and Latin America usually
presenting with painful genital ulcer with tender
suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy is known
as:
a) syphylis
b) PID
c) chancroid
d) pinta
e) pertenue
37.Perihepatitis with peritoneal adhesions resulting
from sexually transmitted infection is known as:
a) Fitzpatrick's syndrome
b) Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
c) Fitzroy syndrome
d) Fitzgerald syndrome
e) Fitzgenstein syndrome
38. Rosacea can be differentiated from acne
vulgaris by which of the following features?
a) Absence of comedones
b) Distribution limited to the face.
c) Inflammatory papules and pustules
d) Irritation from topical products
e) Gender of the patient
39.First line therapy for late latent syphilis
according to IUSTI 2014 is:
a) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
and 15
b) amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
c) metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
d) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units i.m. single
dose
e) tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
40.First line therapy for non gonorrheal urethritis is:
a) metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
b) doxycycline 100mg 2 x day for 7 days
c) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
and 15
d) a combination therapy with 500 mg of
ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
e) tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
41.First line therapy for uncomplicated gonnorhoea
is:
a) metronidazole 500mg 2 x day for 14 days
b) benzathine penicillin 2.4 mln units on day 1,8
and 15
c) tetracycline 1 g 2 x day for 14 days
d) amoxyciline 500mg 3 x day for 14 days
e) a combination therapy with 500 mg of
ceftriaxone i.m. single dose together with
azithromycin 2 g as single oral dose
42.Irritant contact dermatitis and allergic contact
dermatitis, especially the chronic forms, can
take on similar clinical appearances. Therefore
patch testing remains the gold standard for
diagnosing allergic contact dermatitis.
a) first sentence is true, the second is false
b) first sentence is false the second is true
c) there are no such conditions
d) both sentences are false
e) both sentences are correct
43. Choose the answer that contains only primary
skin lesions:
a) Papule, nodule, crust, scar
b) Plaque, ulcer, erosion, papule
c) Papule, pustule, ulcer, vesicle
d) Macula, nodule, papule, cyst
e) Papule, nodule, vesicle, macula
44. Vascular spasms of digital arteries with distinct
clinical patterns; often associated with Autoimmune
diseases is called:
a) Koebner phenomenon
b) Asboe- Hansen sign
c) Kabuki syndrome
d) Fitzpatrick syndrome
e) Raynaud phenomenon
45.Dermatitis herpetiformis:
a) is pruriticnodular disease
b) is most common in people of African origin.
c) can be effectively treated with gluten-free diet
d) caused by IgG autoantibodies against
Desmoglein-3
e) is bacterial infection.
46.Read the following sentences and decide which
are true.
1. The epidermis is composed primarily of
keratinocytes along with smaller populations of two
other resident cells - melanocytes and Merkel
cells.
2. The outermost layer of the epidermis is the
stratum granulosum.
3. The stratum lucidum is present only in palms
and soles.
4. Dermal keratinocytes are the key resident cells
of the dermis
5. Dermis is divided into two areas: papillary region
and reticular region.
Which answer contains only true sentences?
a) All sentences are true
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,3,5
d) 1,4,5
e) 2,3,4
47.Choose the correct answer about sweat glands:
a) Eccrine sweat glands are present only on palms
and soles.
b) Apocrine sweat glands are distributed almost all
over the body.
c) Apocrine sweat glands are inactive before
puberty.
d) Eccrine sweat glands are also known as
Meibomian Glands.
e) Sweat glands produce an oily matter called
sebum.
48.Typical features of herpes zoster include:
a) Pain with or preceding the eruption
b) Dermatomal distribution
c) Pain persisting after the eruption resolves
d) All of the above
e) none of the above.
49. Which one IS NOT true?
a) Clobetasol is high potency topical steroid
b) Topical steroids provide symptomatic relief for
burning and pruritic lesions
c) High potency topical steroids are recommended
for skin folds
d) Topical steroids can cause perioral dermatitis
e) Topical steroids can cause strie distensestrie
distense
50.Bullous pemphigoid is a subepidermal blistering
disease caused by autoantibodies to components
of the hemidesmosomes in the basement
membrane zone. Pemphigus vulgaris is a disease
with intraepidrmal blister formation on skin and
mucosa caused by autoantibodies against proteins
of the hemidesmosomes.
a) Both sentences are true.
b) First sentence is true, but the second is false.
c) Both sentences are incorrect.
d) First sentence is incorrect, but the second is
true.
e) All answers are incorrect.
f) In the skin there are no hemidesmosomes.