THOMAStutorials

Date : NEET FULL PORTION TEST ID: 55

Time: 03 hrs PCB Marks : 720

Single Correct Answer Type 8. Two identical blocks and , each of mass
1. The initial temperature of a liquid is resting on smooth floor are connected by a
. ± . C. After it has been cooled, its light spring of natural length and spring
temperature is . ± . C. The fall in constant , with the spring at its natural
temperature in degree centigrade is length. A third identical block mass )
a) 70.0 b) 70.0± . moving with a speed along the line joining
c) . ± . d) . ± . and collides with . The maximum
2. The surface tension of a liquid is / , compression in the spring is
in MKS system value is a) b) c) d)
√ √ √
a) / b) × − /
c) × / d) × / 9. The moment of momentum is called
3. The acceleration of a particle starting from a) Couple b) Torque
rest varies with time according to relation c) Impulse d) Angular momentum
= + . The velocity of the particle after a 10. The moment of inertia of two spheres of equal
time will be masses about their diameters are equal. If one
of them is solid and other is hollow, the ratio of
a) +β b) +β their radii is
+ β a) √ : √ b) 3 : 5 c) √ : √ d) 5 : 3
c) + β d)
11. In the solar system, which is conserved
4. The force required to keep a body in uniform a) Total Energy b) K.E.
circular motion is c) Angular Velocity d) Linear Momentum
a) Centripetal force b) Centrifugal force 12. If longitudinal strain for a wire is 0.03 and its
c) Resistance d) None of the above Poisson s ratio is . , then its lateral strain is
5. The magnitude of resultant of three vectors of a) 0.003 b) 0.0075 c) 0.015 d) 0.4
magnitude 1, 2 and 3 whose directions are 13. When a glass capillary tube of radius 0.015 cm
those of the sides of an equilateral triangle is dipped in water, the water rises to height of
taken in order is 15 cm within it. Assuming contact angle
a) zero b) √ unit between water and glass to be °, the surface
c) √ unit d) √ unit tension of water is [ρwater = kg m− , g =
6. The backside of a truck is open and a box of 40 . ms− ]
kg is placed 5 m away from the rear end. The a) . Nm− b) . Nm−
c) . −
coefficient of friction of the box with the Nm d) None of these
surface of the truck is 0.15. The truck starts 14. A trough contains mercury to a depth of 3.6
from rest with m/s acceleration. Calculate cm. If some amount of mercury is poured in it
the distance covered by the truck when the then height of mercury in the trough will be
box falls off. a) 3.6 cm b) 7.2 cm
a) 20 m b) 30 m c) 40 m d) 50 m c) 6 cm d) None of these
7. The spring balance inside a lift suspends an 15. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper
object. As the lift begins to ascent, the reading and brass of the same thickness and having
indicated by the spring balance will thermal conductivities in the ratio 1:4. If the
a) Increase free face of brass is at ℃ and that of copper
b) Decrease at ℃, the temperature of interface is
c) Remain unchanged a) ℃ b) ℃ c) ℃ d) ℃
d) Depend on the speed of ascend 16. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated

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 at a constant pressure of 1 atm from ℃ to direction. They exert a force on each other.
℃. Work done by the gas is Now the current in one of them is increased to
a) . × J b) . × − J two times and its direction is reversed. The
c) . × − J d) . × J distance is also increased to 3 . The new value
17. If the door of a refrigerator is kept open, then of the force between them is
which of the following is true a) -2 b) /3 c) -2 /3 d) - /3
a) Room is cooled 24. A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates
b) Room is heated of an isolated charged capacitor. Which of the
c) Room is either cooled or heated following quantities remain unchanged?
d) Room is neither cooled nor heated a) The charge on the capacitor
18. If temperature of a black body increases from b) The stored energy in the capacitor
7℃ to 287℃, then the rate of energy radiation c) The potential difference between the plates
increases by d) The electric field in the capacitor
a) b) c) d) 25. If a high power heater is connected to electric
16 4 2
/ mains, then the bulbs in the house become dim,
19. A particle is performing simple harmonic because there is a
motion with amplitude and angular velocity a) Current drop b) Potential drop
�. The ratio of maximum velocity to maximum c) No current drop d) No potential drop
acceleration is 26. All bulbs in figure, are identical. Which bulb
a) � b) /� c) � d) � lights brightly?
20. The motion which is not simple harmonic is
a) Vertical oscillations of a spring
b) Motion of simple pendulum
c) Motion of a planet around the sun
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
d) Oscillation of liquid column in a U-tube
27. A heating coil can heat the water of a vessel
21. Two waves having equations
from ℃ to ℃ in � . Two such
= sin � + � , = sin � + �
heating coils are put in series and then used to
If in the resultant wave the frequency and
heat the same amount of water through the
amplitude remain equal to those of
same temperature range. The time taken now
superimposing waves. Then phase difference
will be (neglecting thermal capacity of the
between them is
coils)
a) �/ b) �/ c) �/ d) �/
a) � b) �
22. Two identical point charges are placed at a
c) � d) . �
separation of . is a point on the line joining
28. A magnetic field can be produced by
the charges, at a distance from any one
a) A moving charge
charge. The field at is , is plotted against
b) A changing electric field
for values of from close to zero to slightly
c) None of these
less than . Which of the following represents
d) Both of these
the resulting curve
29. Which of the following is true
a) Y b) Y
a) Diamagnetism is temperature dependent
b) Paramagnetism is temperature dependent
E E
c) Paramagnetism is temperature dependent
X X
O x O x d) None of these
c) Y d) Y 30. A bar magnet is long, and is kept with
its north (N)- pole pointing north. A neutral
E E point is formed at a distance of from
x x each pole. Given the horizontal component of
X X
O O
earth s field to be . Gauss, the pole strength
23. Two long conductors, separated by a distance of the magnet is
carry currents and in the same a) 9 - b) 6.75 - c) 27 - d) 1.35 -

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 -ray is polarized in the plane of incidence
31. A step-down transformer is connected to main d) and -ray perpendicular to the plane of
supply to operate a , bulb. The incidence
current in primary is 38. The ratio of the energy of a photon with
a) b) . c) . d) . �= nm to that with � = nm is
32. In a series L – C – R circuit the frequency of a a) b) c) d)
2 4
10 V AC voltage source is adjusted in such a
fashion that the reactance of the inductor 39. A photon of wavelength Å is passing
measures Ω and that of the capacitor Ω. through vacuum. The effective mass and
If = Ω, the potential difference across the momentum of the photon are respectively
series combination of L and C will be a) × − , . × − - /
b) × − −
a) 8 V b) 10 V c) 22 V d) 52 V , . × - /
−
33. In an AC circuit the emf(e) and the current (i) c) Zero, . × - /
at any instant are given respectively by d) × − , . × − - /
= sin � 40. Mercury vapour lamp gives
� = sin � − ϕ a) Continuous spectrum
The average power in the circuit over one cycle b) Line spectrum
of AC is c) Band spectrum
d) Absorption spectrum
a) b) sin �
41. In the nuclear reaction: , � the term
c) cos � d) will be
a) b) 9 c) d)
34. If a free electron is placed in the path of a plane +
42. A nucleus decays by β -emission followed by
electromagnetic wave, it will start moving
a − emission. If the atomic and mass numbers
along
of the parent nucleus are and A respectively,
a) Centre of earth b) Equator of earth
the corresponding numbers for the daughter
c) Magnetic field d) Electric field
nucleus are respectively
35. 1% of light of a source with luminous intensity
a) − and − b) + and
is incident on a circular surface of
c) − and d) + and −
radius . The average illuminance of
43. A researcher wants an alarm to sound when
surface is
the temperature of air in his controlled
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400
research chamber rises above ° or falls
36. A double convex thin lens made of glass
below ° . The alarm can be triggered by the
(refractive index μ = . ) has both radii of
output of a
curvature of magnitude 20 cm. Incident light
a) AND gate b) NAND gate
rays parallel to the axis of the lens, will
c) NOT gate d) OR gate
converge at a distance such that
44. Consider telecommunication through optical
a) = cm b) = cm fibres. Which of the following statements is no
true?
c) = cm d) = cm
a) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive
37. When light is incident on a doubly refracting
index
crystal, two refracted rays-ordinary ray ( -
b) Optical fibres are subjected to electro-
ray) and extra ordinary ray ( -ray) are
magnetic interference from outside
produced. Then
c) Optical fibres have extremely low
Both -ray and -ray are polarized
a) transmission loss
perpendicular to the plane of incidence
d) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core
Both -ray and -ray are polarized in the
b) with a suitable cladding
plane of incidence
45. If � and � represent the carrier wave
-ray is polarised perpendicular to the plane
frequencies for amplitude and frequency
c) of incidence and -ray in the plane of
modulations respectively, then
incidence a) � > � b) � < � c) � = � d) � ≥ �

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46. A sample of ammonium phosphate b) Derived based on mathematical analysis
contains 6.36 moles of hydrogen c) Empirical and nobody disproved
atoms. The number of moles of oxygen atom in d) Mere statements
the sample is 55. Which one of the following is correct?
(atomic mass of N = 14.04, H = 1, P = 31, O =
a) −∆ = ∆ − ∆ b) ∆ = ∆ − ∆
16)
a) 0.265 b) 0.795 c) 2.12 d) 4.14 c) ∆ = [∆ − ∆ ] d) ∆ = [∆ − ∆ ]
47. An ore contains 1.34% of the mineral
56. NH HS ⇌ NH g + H S g
argentite, , by mass. How many gram of
In the above reaction, if the pressure at
this ore would have to be processed in order to
obtain 1.00 g of pure solid silver, ? equilibrium and at 300 K is 100 atm then
a) 74.6 g b) 85.7 g c) 107.9 g d) 134.0 g what will be the equilibrium constant � ?
48. Which of the following statements is wrong a) 2500 atm b) atm
about cathode rays? c) atm d) atm
a) They produce heating effect 57. For the reaction,NH + OCl− ⟶ N H + Cl−
b) They carry negative charge occurring in basic medium, the coefficient of
They produce −rays when strike with N H in the balanced equation will be
c)
material having high atomic masses a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
d) None of the above 58. The oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is
49. Which of the following sets of quantum a) +3 b) 8/3 c) +6 d) +2
numbers represents an impossible 59. Hydrogen directly combines with
arrangement? a) Cu b) Au c) Ca d) Ni
60. The substance not likely to contain CaCO is
a) 3 2 − + a) A marble statue b) Calcined gypsum
c) Sea shells d) Dolomite
b) 3 2 − +
61. Anhydrous AlCl is obtained from
c) 4 0 0 − a) Aluminium and chlorine gas
d) 5 3 0 − b) Hydrogen chloride gas and Aluminium metal
c) Both of the above
50. Increase in atomic size down the group is due
d) None of the above
to
62. For purification of alumina, the modern
a) Increase in number of electrons
processes most useful when i the impurity
b) Increase in number of protons and neutrons
present is a lot iron oxides and (ii) the
c) Increase in number of protons
impurity present is a lot of silica, are
d) Increase in number of protons, neutrons and
For i the Hall s process; for ii Baeyer s
electrons a)
process
51. The paramagnetic molecule at ground state
For i Serpeck s process; for ii Baeyer s
among the following is b)
process
a) H
For i Hall process; for ii Serpeck s
b) O c)
process
c) N
For i Baeyer s process; for ii Serpeck s
d) CO d)
process
52. Which of the following species in non-linear?
63. Correct order of nucleophilicity is
a) ICl− b) I − c) N − d) ClO−
a) I − > r − > l− > F −
53. Which of the following represents total kinetic
b) F − > l− > r − > I −
energy of one mole of gas?
c) Cl− > F − > r − > I −
a) / b) /
d) I − > l− > r − > F −
c) ( � − � ) d) /
64. An alkyl bromide, Brof molecular weight 151
54. We believe in the laws of thermodynamics is the exclusive product of bromination of
because they are which hydrocarbon?
a) Theoretical
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 a) Dodecane concentration of A is increased by 3 times and
b) 2, 2-dimethylpropane concentration of B is increased by 2 times, how
c) 2, 2-dimethylhexane many times rate of reaction increases?
d) 2, 2, 3-trimethylheptane a) 9 times b) 27 times c) 18 times d) 8 times
65. What are the products obtained by the 74. An aerosol is a
ozonolysisof CH = C ? a) Dispersion of a solid or liquid in a gas
a) CH CH b) CO b) Dispersion of a solid in a liquid
c) CO d) None of these c) Dispersion of a liquid in a liquid
66. The term acid rain was coined by d) Solid solution
a) Robert Boyle b) Robert Augus 75. Following method is not used for extraction of
c) Alfred Nobel d) Havoisier Al
67. Which is not the correct statement for ionic a) Van Arkel b) Serpeck
solids in which positive and negative ions are c) Baeyer d) Hall-Heroult
held by strong electrostatic attractive forces? 76. The cyanide process is used for obtaining
The radius + / − increases as coordination a) Cu b) Na c) Zn d) Ag
a)
number increases 77. A gas, that relights glowing splinter, is
b) As the difference in size of ions increases, a) H2 b) O2 c) N2 d) NO2
coordination number increases 78. KMnO (acidic/alkaline) is not decolourized by
When coordination number is eight, the a) Mohr salt b) Oxalic acid
c) + −
/ ratio lies between 0.225 to 0.414 c) Benzene d) Propene
In ionic solid of the type ZnS, Wurtzite , 79. Bronze is a mixture of
d) the coordination number of Zn +andS − a) b) c) Cu d) Pb
Pb + Sn Cu + Sn
respectively are 4 and 4 + Zn + Zn
68. Density of a crystal remains unchanged as a 80. An enantiomerically pure acid is treated with
result of racemic mixture of an alcohol having one chiral
a) Ionic defect b) Schottky defect carbon. The ester formed will be
c) Frenkel defect d) Crystal defect a) Optically active mixture
69. The relative lowering of vapour pressure of an b) Pure enantiomer
aqueous solution containing non-volatile c) compound
solute is 0.0125. The molality of the solution is d) Racemic mixture
a) Vapour pressure b) Osmotic pressure 81. Which of the following is added to chloroform
c) Boiling point d) Freezing point to slow down its aerial oxidation in presence of
70. Colligative properties are used for the light?
determination of a) Carbonyl chloride b) Ethyl alcohol
a) Molar mass c) Sodium hydroxide d) Nitric acid
b) Equivalent weigh 82. In the following sequence of reactions,
c) Arrangement of molecules +2 M C 2
CH CH OH → → → →
d) Melting and boiling points et er
The compound D is
71. The electrolytic conductance is a direct
a) Butanal b) n-butyl alcohol
measure of
c) n-propyl alcohol d) Propanal
a) Resistance b) Potential
83. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by
c) Dissociation d) Concentration
heating with concentrated the initiation
72. In a first order reaction the concentration of
step is
reactant decreases from 800 / to 50
a) Protonation of alcohol molecule
/ in × s. The rate constant of
− b) Formation of carbocation
reaction in is
c) Elimination of water
a) × b) . × −
d) Formation of an ester
c) . × − d) × −
84. The reagent used in Gattermann Koch
73. Rate of reaction can be expressed by following
aldehyde synthesis is
rate expression, rate= [ ] [ ], if
a) Pb/BaSO b) Alkaline KMnO

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 c) Acidic KMnO d) CO + HCl 96. Iodine is obtained from
85. 1 mole of ethyl amine on reaction with HNO a) � � b) ℎ
gives at NTP c) � ℎ � d) ℎ
a) 11.2LofN b) 5.6L of N 97. Heterospory is the production of
c) 22.4L of N d) 1L of N a) Sexual and asexual spores
86. In which case formation of butane nitrile is b) Large and small spores
possible? c) Haploid and diploid spores
a) C H Br + KCN b) C H9 Br + KCN d) Diploid and tetraploid spores
c) C H OH + KCN d) C H9 OH + KCN 98. The number of segments on the anal cerci of
87. The function of DNA in an organism is cockroach is
a) To assist in the synthesis of RNA molecule. a) 12 b) 15 c) 18 d) 16
b) To store information of heredity 99. Cnidarias are divided into the following classes
characteristics a) Hydrozoa, Desmospongia and Scyphozoa
c) To assist in the synthesis of proteins and b) Actinozoa, Scyphozoa and Anthozoa
polypeptides c) Scyphozoa, Anthozoa and Hydrozoa
d) All of the above d) None of the above
88. The compound that inhibits the growth of 100. Starfish belongs to phylum
polymer chain during vinyl polymerization, is a) Porifera b) Coelenterata
a) Carbon tetrachloride b) p-benzoquinone c) Echinodermata d) Arthropoda
c) Benzophenone d) Carbon dioxide 101. Edible part if mango is
89. Name of compound/compounds used in a) Endocarp b) Receptacle
preparation of nylon-66 c) Epicarp d) Mesocarp
a) � − caprolactum 102. Root hairs are found
b) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid a) In the zone of elongation
c) Dimethyl terephthalate b) Adventitious roots
d) Hexamethylenediamine c) On the root cap
90. 4-chloro-3,5-dimethyl phenol is called d) In the zone of maturation
a) Chloramphenicol b) Paracetamol 103. Inflorescence in jowar is
c) Barbital d) Dettol a) Corymb b) Spike c) Panicle d) Head
91. What is the old name of Indian Board of wildlife 104. Phylloclades are
a) National Board of Wildlife Animal a) Green, photosynthetic, succulent stems of
b) Central Board of Wildlife indefinite growth
c) Board of Wildlife b) One internode long stems
d) Wildlife Protection Board c) Leaf modifications
92. In which of the following, the usual taxonomic d) None of the above
hierarchy is not followed? 105. Quiescent centre is present in
a) Polypetalae and Gamopetalae a) Shoot apex b) Root apex
b) Gamopetalae and Monochlamydae c) Both (a) and (b) d) Meristematic tissue
c) Monochlamydae and monocots 106. Quiescent centre theory was proposed by
d) None of the above a) b) c) Hanstei d)
Nagelli Schmidt Clowes
93. True regeneration is found in n
a) Amoeba b) Hydra 107. Which one of the following is the correct
c) Planaria d) Bacteria pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle
94. Fungi shows vegetative reproduction by all of tissue that moves it?
the following except a) Heart wall- Involuntary unstriated muscle
a) Fragmentation b) Fission b) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
c) Budding d) Akinetes c) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
95. Virus was discovered by whom? d) Iris –Involuntary smooth muscle
a) Stanley b) Ivanowski 108. The abdomen of both male and female
c) Herelle d) Beijerinck cockroaches consists of
a) 9 segments b) 7 segments
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 c) 10 segments d) 12 segments identical sister chromatids at the S-phase
109. During replication of a bacterial chromosome, The correct option is
DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin a) I and III
site and b) II only
a) RNA primers are involved c) II and III
b) Is facilitated by telomerase d) I, II, III and IV
c) Moves in one direction of the site 115. Read the following statement and choose the
d) Moves in bi-directional way correct one from the codes given below
110. Which one of the following is correctly I. The apoplastic movement of water takes
matched? place exclusively through intercellular spaces
a) Frederick Griffith - Discovered the and cell wall without crossing any membrane
phenomenon of transformation II. Symplastic movement occurs from cell to
b) Linus Pauling - Isolated DNA for the cell through plasmodesmata, �. ., adjacent cells
first time are connected through plasmodesmata
c) Francis Crick - Proposed one gene-one III. Permeability of a membrane depends on its
polypeptide hypothesis composition and chemical nature of the solute
d) George Beadle - Proposed the concept of IV. Solutes present in a cell increases the free
inborn errors energy of the water or water potential
111. Which statement regarding coenzyme is a) I, II and III
incorrect? b) I, II and IV
a) Every coenzyme is a cofactor and every c) II and IV
cofactor is a coenzyme d) I and IV
b) Every coenzyme is a cofactor but every 116. Water lost in Guttation is
a) Pure water b) Impure water
cofactor is not a coenzyme
c) Most of the coenzymes are nucleotides c) In vapour form d) Either (A) or (B)
117. Why is active transport considered important?
and are composed of vitamins
a) Because material is transported from higher
d) Coenzymes are the active constituents of
concentration to lower concentration
enzymes b) Because material is transported from lower
112. Which of the following is a disaccharide? concentration to higher concentration
a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Because it increases diffusion coefficient
c) Sucrose d) Galactose d) Because it does not use ATP
113. During the G -phase of cell division 118. Nitrates are converted into nitrogen by
a) RNA and proteins are synthesized a) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
b) DNA and proteins are synthesized b) Sulphur fixing bacteria
c) Cell prepares for M-phase c) Denitrifying bacteria
d) Cell undergoes duplication d) None of the above
114. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not 119. Media, which is used most commonly in
correct about meiosis? hydroponics is
I. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous a) b) c) d) Perlite
chromosomes and recombination between Loam Only Sand and
them and clay clay and soil vermicul
II. Two diploid cells are formed at the end of ite
meiosis-II 120. Proton gradient is broken down due to
III. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of a) Movement of electrons across the
nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and membrane to stroma
meiosis-II, but only a single cycle of DNA b) Movement of electrons across the
replication membrane to lumen
IV. Meiosis-I is initiated after the parental c) Movement of proton across the membrane
chromosome replication which produce to lumen

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 d) Movement of proton across the membrane b) All statements are correct
to stroma c) I and II are correct only
121. The functions of chloroplast of membrane d) I and II are incorrect only
system is 128. Examination of blood of a person suspected of
a) Trapping of light energy having anaemia, shows large, immature,
b) Synthesis of ATP nucleated erythrocytes without haemoglobin.
c) Synthesis of NADPH Supplementing his diet with which of the
d) All of these following is likely to alleviate his symptoms?
122. Before entering respiratory pathway amino a) Thiamine
acids are b) Folic acid and cobalamin
a) Decarboxylated b) Hydrolysed c) Riboflavin
c) Deaminated d) Phosphorylated d) Iron compounds
123. Glycolysis 129. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
a) Takes place in the mitochondria a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal
b) Produces no ATP volume
c) Has no connection with electron transport b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve
chain volume
Reduce two molecules of NAD+ for every c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory
d)
glucose molecule processed reserve volume
124. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hours day d) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
12 hours night period cycles and it flowered, 130. How many molecules of oxygen can bind to a
while in the other set night phase was molecule of haemoglobin?
interrupted by flash of light and it did not a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
produce flower. Under which one of the 131. Which of the following organs can be called a
following categories will you place this plant? sort of blood bank ?
a) Long day b) Darkness neutral a) Heart b) Spleen c) Liver d) Lungs
c) Day neutral d) Short day 132. Spiral valve is present in
125. Difference between kinetin and zeatin is a) Right auricle b) Sinus venosus
a) Kinetin is active zeatin, is non-active c) Right ventricle d) Truncus arteriosus
b) Zeatin is active kinetin, is non-active 133. Anuria is failure of
c) Zeatin is synthetic, kinetin is natural a) Kidney to form urine
d) Zeatin is natural, kinetin is synthetic b) Tubular secretion in kidney
126. The chemical nature of gibberellins is c) Tubular filtration in kidney
a) Acidic b) Alkaline d) Tubular reabsorption in kidney
c) Proteinaceous d) Amines 134. Mammals have the ability to produce
127. Consider the following statements regarding a) Isotonic urine b) Hypertonic urine
the digestion and absorption of food in human c) Hypotonic urine d) Acidic urine
and identify the correct and incorrect 135. Choose the correct statements
statement a) Sebaceous gland eliminate sterols,
I. Antipellagra vitamin is nicotinamide which is hydrocarbons, waxes
present in milk, yeast, meat, leafy vegetable b) Secretion of sebaceous gland provide oily
and whole grains protective covering of skin
II. Deficiency of vitamin thiamine causes loss of c) Small amount of nitrogenous wastes
appetite, muscle depreciation, fatigue and eliminated through saliva
mental confusion d) All of the above
III. Prolonged deficiency of tocopherol reduces 136. Functional unit of skeletal muscle is called
reproductive capacity in human being a) Sarcomere b) Twitch
IV. Gastrovascular cavity performs, �. ., both c) Z-band d) None of these
function digestion and distribution of nutrients 137. A disease associated with joint is humans
Choose the correct option accordingly a) Glaucoma b) Arthritis
a) All statements are incorrect c) Hernia d) Horner s syndrome
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138. Lactic acid in muscles is formed due to
a) Aerobic breakdown of sucrose
b) Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen
c) Anaerobic breakdown of galactose
d) Anaerobic breakdown of fructose
139. When the stimulus reaches the end of one
neuron, it is conducted to the adjacent
neuron through the secretions of
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Acetylcholine
c) Acetylcholine esterase
d) Acetyl Co-A
a) A-Style, B-Stigma, C-Ovules, D-Thalamus, E-
140. The cell body of neuron contains of
Ovary
a) Cytoplasm b) Cell organelles
b) A- Ovary, B- Thalamus, C- Ovules, D- Style, E-
c) Granular bodies d) All of these
141. Decrease in the calcium level in blood is caused Stigma
c) A- Thalamus, B- Style, C- Stigma, D- Ovary, E-
by
Ovules
a) Prolactin b) Calcitonin
d) A- Stigma, B- Style, C- Ovules, D- Ovary, E-
c) Adrenocorticotrophi d) Oxytocin
Thalamus
n
142. Which one of the following is not a second 148. During embryonic development, endoskeleton
and muscle develop from which germinal
messenger in hormone action?
a) GMP b) Calcium layer?
a) Ectoderm b) Endoderm
c) Sodium d) AMP
c) Mesoderm d) Blastopore
143. In papaya, the flowers, are:
149. Prostate gland surrounds the …A… . It
a) Unisexual
b) Bisexual produces milky, slightly alkaline solution
c) Neuter which forms …B… volume of the semen. The
d) Flowers are not formed secretion contains …C… acid; enzymes acid
144. During oogenesis, each diploid oocyte phosphates, amylase pepsinogen and
produces: prostaglandins).
a) Four functional ova A, B and C in the above statement is
b) Two functional eggs and two polar bodies a) A-prostate gland, B- b) A-penis, B-40%, C-
c) Four functional polar bodies 35%, C-carboxylic carboxylic
d) One functional egg and three polar bodies c) A-ureter, B-25%, C- d) A-ureter, B-50%, C-
citric citric
145. Apomixis is like
150. Hormone which causes the parturition is
a) Sexual reproduction b) Fertilization
a) Oestrogen b) Oxytocin
c) Parthenogenesis d) Asexual
reproduction c) Prostaglandin d) All of these
146. Ruminate endosperm is found in the seeds of 151. When released from ovary, human egg
contains
family
a) One Y-chromosome b) Two X-
a) Compositae b) Cruciferae
chromosomes
c) Euphorbiaceae d) Annonaceae
c) One X-chromosome d) XY-chromosomes
147. Identify to in the following diagram
152. In a population, the condition at which the rate
of addition of new members is more than the
rate of individuals lost indicates:
a) Zero population growth
b) Exponential growth
c) Declining growth

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 d) None of these 164. Economic importance of fish includes
153. Which is the figure given below showing in I. fish as food
particular? II. source of income
III. aesthetic value
Which of the above are correct?
a) I and II b) I and III
c) II and III d) I, II and III
a) Uterine cancer b) Tubectomy 165. At the time of herd improvement by MOET
c) Vasectomy d) Ovarian cancer generally …A… ovum is released from each
154. Sickle –cell anaemia has not been eliminated …B… at the time of …C… . But by …D… injection
from the African population because it …E… ova can be produced from the ovary.
a) Is controlled by recessive genes After artificial insemination …F… embryo are
b) Is not a fatal disease collected at a time. Then each embryo is
c) Provides immunity against malaria transplanted into a …G… A to G in the above
d) Is controlled by dominant genes paragraph refers
155. Sex chromosomes in male of silkworm is a) A-one, B-testis, C- b) A-one, B-ovary, C-
a) X b) Y spermatogenesis, D- ovulation, D-
c) XX d) No X no Y hormone, E-more, F- hormone, E-more, F-
156. The tendency of offsprings to differ from their one, G-mother 4 to 10, G-surrogate
parents is called mother
a) Variation b) Heredity c) A-one, B-ovary, C- d) A-one, B-ovary, C-
c) Inheritance d) Resemblance ovulation, D-enzyme, ovulation, D-
157. mRNA directs the building of proteins through E-more, F-4 to 10, G- chemical, E-more, F-
a sequence of mother one, G-mother
a) Exons b) Introns 166. Insecticide obtained from neem plant is
c) Codons d) Anticodons a) Pyrethrin b) Pyrethroid
158. In operon model, all time or constitutively c) Thiocarbamate d) Azadirachtin
working gene is 167. Sunhemp is obtained from
a) Operator a) Crotalaria juncea
b) Promoter b) Linum usitatissimum
c) Regulator c) Corchorus capsularis
d) Structural d) None of these
159. Divergent evolution gives rise to 168. Which of the following key factors, makes
a) Homologous organ b) Analogous organs plasmid, the vector in genetic engineering?
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these a) It is resistant to antibiotics
160. Fossil of Cro-magnon man was found in b) It is resistant to restriction enzymes
a) Southern France b) Northern France c) Its ability to carry a foreign gene
c) Northern Germany d) South Africa d) Its ability to cause infection in the host
161. Morphine is 169. Ability to absorb foreign DNA is:
a) A very effective b) Very useful in a) Sexduction b) Competence
sedative and pain- patients who have c) Hfr d) Transduction
killer undergone surgery 170. A cybrid is hybrid carrying
c) both (a) and (b) d) Stimulant a) Genomes and cytoplasms of two different
162. Ability of the body to fight against the disease plants
causing organisms is called b) Cytoplasms of two different plants
a) Vulnerability b) Susceptibility c) Cytoplasms of two different plants but
c) Irritability d) Immunity genome of one plant
163. Which of the following organs is not involved d) Genomes of two different plants
in the elicitation of immune response? 171. Maximum utilization of biotechnological
a) Brain b) Lymph nodes techniques has been made in the field of
c) Spleen d) Thymus a) Industries b) Medicines
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 c) Agriculture d) Biogas production 2. National Forest Policy was
172. Genetically engineered human insulin, humulin implemented in the year 1988.
was launched by American drug company on 3. The average annual production of dry
a) 5th July 1998 b) 5th July 1993 grass or hay in India is about 250
c) 5th July 1973 d) 5th July 1983 million tonnes.
173. Identify , and 4. About % of the world s population
lives in arid or semi-arid regions.
a) I and II are true
b) I, III and IV are not true
c) I, II and III are true
d) III is not true
178. Hoolock gibbon India s only ape is found in
a) Kaziranga bird sanctuary
a) A–Aphotic zone, B–Euphotic zone, C– b) Hazaribagh national park
Disphotic zone c) Corbett national park
b) A–Euphotic zone, B–Disphotic, C–Aphotic d) Gir national park
zone 179. Given diagram represents the greenhouse
c) A–Euphotic zone, B–Aphotic zone, C– effect
Disphotic zone
d) A–Aphotic zone, B–Disphotic zone, C–
Euphotic zone
174. Interspecific interactions arise from the
interaction of
a) Population of two different species
b) Population of same species
c) Two individuals of same species I. Greenhouse gases absorb infrared radiation
d) Two individuals of different species from the earth. The absorbed radiations again
175. All the animals that depend on plants for food come to earth s surface and heat it up
are called II. CO , CH , CFCs andN O are the gases which
a) Decomposers b) Root feeders are responsible for greenhouse effect
c) Consumers d) Grazers III. Increase in the level of greenhouse gases
176. In food chain, lion is a results considerable heating of earth leading to
a) Tertiary consumer b) Secondary global warming
consumer Which of the statement given above are
c) Primary consumer d) None of these correct?
177. Consider the following statements. a) I and II b) II and III
1. By the end of twentieth century, the c) I and III d) I, II and III
forest cover in India was reduced to 180. Maximum green house gases are released by
19.4%. a) India b) Britain c) USA d) France

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