THOMAStutorials

Date : NEET - 2016 TEST ID: 07

Time : 03:00:00 PCB Marks : 720

Single Correct Answer Type b) Pattern B is sturdier

1. The unit of reduction factor of tangent c) Pattern C is sturdier
galvanometer is d) All will have same sturdiness
a) b) 7. A ball of mass � starts moving with an
c) � d) None of these acceleration of / . When hit by a force,
2. Surface tension has the same dimensions as which acts on it for . the impulsive force
that of is
a) Coefficient of viscosity a) . - b) . - c) . - d) . -
b) Impulse 8. Two springs and are identical but is
c) Momentum harder than > . Let and
d) Spring constant represent the work done when the springs are
3. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain stretched through the same distance and ′
height. Assuming that the value of acceleration and ′ are the work done when these are
due to gravity remains the same throughout stretched by equal forces, then which of the
motion, its displacement in three successive following is true
half second intervals are , , . a) > and ′ = ′
Then, b) > and ′ < ′
a) : : : : : b) : : : : : c) > and ′ > ′
c) : : : : : d) : : : : : d) < and ′ < ′
4. A particle is projected from the ground with 9. Three identical spheres of mass each are
an initial velocity of ms− at an angle ° placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle
with horizontal. From what height should an of side 2 m. Taking one of the corners as the
another particle be projected horizontally origin, the position vector of the centre of mass
with velocity ms− so that both the particles is
collide in ground at point if both are ̂
a) √ ̂ − ̂ b) + ̂
projected simultaneously g = ms− √
a) 10 m b) 15 m c) ̂ + ̂/ d) ̂ + ̂/√
c) 20 m d) 30 m 10. A wheel of moment of inertia 2.5 Kg-m has an
5. A body of mass 1 kg thrown with a velocity of initial angular velocity of 40 rads − . A
ms− at an angle of ° with the horizontal. constant torque of 10 Nm acts on the wheel.
Its momentum at the highest point is The time during which the wheel is
a) kg ms − b) kg ms − accelerated to 60 rads − is
c) kg ms − d) kg ms − a) 4 s b) 6 s c) 5 s d) 2.5 s
6. If a street light of mass is suspended from 11. The correct option is
the end of a uniform rod of length in different a) The time taken in travelling DAB is less than
possible patterns as shown in figure, then that for BCD
b) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater
than that for BCD
c) The time taken in travelling CDAD is less
than that for ABC
d) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater
than that for ABC
a) Pattern A is sturdier 12. The graph is drawn between the applied force
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 and the strain for a thin uniform wire. work done during the complete cycle is given
The wire behaves as a liquid in the part by the area
F P
B
b P2
d C
a

c D
P1 A

O X A B V
x
a) b) c) d) a) b) ′ ′
13. A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross c) d) ′ ′
section contains mercury in both sides of its 18. The latent heat of vaporization of water is
arms. A glycerin (density = . �/ ) 2240 J. If the work done in the process of
column of length is introduced into one vaporization of 1 g is 168 J, then increase in
of its arms. Oil of density . � / is internal energy is
poured into the other arm until the upper a) 2072 J b) 1904 J c) 2408 J d) 2240 J
surfaces of the oil and glycerin are in the same 19. A particle of amplitude is executing
horizontal level. Find the length of the oil simple harmonic motion. When the
column. Density of mercury = . �/ potential energy of particle is half of its
maximum potential energy, then
Glycerin

Oil h
10 cm displacement from its equilibrium position
is
a) b) c) d)
Mercury
√
a) . cm b) . cm c) . cm d) . cm 20. The motion which is not simple harmonic is
14. Choose the correct statement(s) for a cricket a) Vertical oscillations of a spring
ball that is spinning clockwise through air b) Motion of simple pendulum
S1 : Streamlines of air are symmetric around c) Motion of a planet around the sun
the ball d) Oscillation of liquid column in a U-tube
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to 21. Two waves are represented by =
it is larger than that below the ball sin � and = sin � . Then
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to Beat frequency is and the ratio of
it is smaller than that below the ball a)
maximum to minimum intensity is ∶
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball Beat frequency is and the ratio of
a) S1, S2 and S4 b) S2 and S4 b)
maximum to minimum intensity is ∶
c) S4 only d) S3 only Beat frequency is and the ratio of
15. Which of the prism is used to see infra-red c)
maximum to minimum intensity is ∶
spectrum of light Beat frequency is and the ratio of
a) Rock-salt b) Nicol d)
maximum to minimum intensity is ∶
c) Flint d) Crown 22. Let be the electric potential at a given point.
16. Which of the following statements is true? Then the electric field along direction at
a) Internal energy of a gas depends only on the that point is given by
state of the gas a) ∞ b) c) d)
b) In an isothermal process change in internal ∫ − −
energy is maximum
23. The number of ways one can arrange three
c) Area under pressure, volume graph equals
identical capacitors to obtain distinct effective
heat supplied in any process
capacitances is
d) Work done is state dependent but not path
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 3
dependent
24. , , and are capacitance, potential
17. A thermodynamic system is taken from state
difference, energy stored and charge of a
to along and is brought back to along
parallel plate capacitor respectively. The
as shown in the diagram. The net
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 quantities that increase when a dielectric slab c) + direction d) − direction
is introduced between the plates without 29. A current carrying small loop behaves like a
disconnecting the battery are small magnet. If Abe its area and Mits magnetic
a) and b) and moment, the current in the loop will be
c) and d) and a) M/A b) A/M c) MA d)
25. A battery consists of a variable number (n) of 30. The earth s magnetic induction at a certain
identical cells, each having an internal point is × − Wbm− . This is to be annulled
resistance r connected in series. The terminal by the magnetic induction at the center of a
of the battery is short-circuited. A graph of circular conducting loop of radius 15 cm. The
current the number of cells will be as required current in the loop is
shown in figure a) 0.56 A b) 5.6 A c) 0.28 A d) 2.8 A
31. A current = sin � is passed in
first coil, which induces a maximum emf of
a) b) � in second coil. The mutual inductance
between the coils is
a) b) c) d)
32. A pure inductor of is connected to a
source of . Given the frequency of the
source as , the current in the circuit
c) d) is
a) 7 b) 14 c) 28 d) 42
33. A series R-C circuit is connected to AC Voltage
source. Consider two cases: (A) when C is
26. In the circuit shown, the value of each
without a dielectric medium and (B) when C is
resistance is , then equivalent resistance of
filled with dielectric of constant 4. The current
circuit between points and will be
r � through the resistor and voltage across
the capacitor are compared in the two cases.
Which of the following is/are true?
r r
r r a) � > � b) � < � c) > d) <
r r 34. A charged particles oscillates about its mean
A B
C equilibrium position with a frequency of 109
a) / b) / c) / d) / Hz. Frequency of the Electromagnetic Waves
27. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero produced by the oscillator is
deflection. If the batteries A and B have a) 10 Hz b) 105 Hz c) 109 Hz d) 1010 Hz
negligible internal resistance, the value of the 35. A person can see objects clearly only upto a
resistor R will be maximum distance of 50 cm. His eye defect,
Ω nature of the corrective lens and its focal
G length are respectively
a) Myopia, concave, 50 cm
A 2V
b) Myopia, convex, 50 cm
12 V B R
c) Hypermetropia, concave, 50 cm
d) Catract, convex, 50 cm
36. If the red light is replaced by blue light
a) 200Ω b) 100 Ω c) 500 Ω d) 1000 Ω illuminating object in a microscope the
28. In the given figure, the electron enters into the resolving power of the microscope
magnetic field. It deflects in …. direction a) Decreases b) Increases
Y × × × c) Gets halved d) Remains unchanged
× e × × 37. In Young s double slit experiment, distance
× × ×
between two slits is 0.28 mm and distance
× × ×
X between slits and screen is 1.4 m. Distance
a) + direction b) − direction
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 between central bright fringe and third bright 45. The velocity of all radio waves in free space is
fringe is 0.9 cm, what is the wavelength of light × / . The frequency of a radio waves of
used? wavelength is
a) Å b) Å a) 20 b) 2 c) 2 d) 1
c) Å d) Å 46. Which of the following contains maximum
38. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps number of molecules?
excited state to the ground state. The a) cc of CO at STP b) cc of N at STP
wavelength so emitted illuminates a c) cc of SO at STP d) cc of O at STP
photosensitive material having work function 47. One atom of an element weights 1.8× − g.
. . If the stopping potential of the its atomic mass is
photoelectron is , then the value of is a) 29.9 b) 18 c) 108.36 d) 154
a) 5 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 48. Einstein s photoelectric equation states that
39. When a proton is accelerated with � =ℎ −
potential difference, then its kinetic energy is Here, � refers to
a) Kinetic energy of all ejected electrons
a) b)
b) Mean kinetic energy of emitted electrons
c) d) c) Minimum kinetic energy of emitted
40. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet electrons
region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. d) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted
The smallest wavelength in the infrared region electrons
of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest 49. The energy of an electron in first Bohr orbit of
integer) is H-atom is − . eV. The possible energy value
a) b) c) 1882 d) of electron in the excited state of Li + is
802 nm 823 nm 1648 nm
nm a) − . eV b) . eV
41. Hydrogen atom emits blue light when it c) − . eV d) . eV
changes from = energy level to the = 50. Which of the following relation is correct?
level. Which colour of light would the atom a) I IE of C > I IE of B
emit when it changes from the = level to b) I IE of C < I IE of B
the = level c) II nd IE of C > II nd IE of B
a) Red b) Yellow c) Green d) Violet d) Both (b) and (c)
42. A radioactive decay chain starts from 51. Which one of the following contains both ionic
produces ℎ by successive and covalent bonds?
emissions. The emitted particles can be a) C H Cl b) H O c) NaOH d) CO
a) Two -particles and one -particle 52. In which pair of species, both species do have
b) Three + particles the similar geometry?
c) One -particle and two + particles a) CO , SO b) NH , BH c) CO − , SO d) −
SO − , ClO−
d) One -particle and two − particles 53. Mark out the wrong expression
43. Platinum and silicon are heated upto ℃
a) Boyle s temperature = �
and after that cooled. In the process of cooling
a) Resistance of platinum will increase and that b) Critical pressure = 2

of silicon will decrease c) Critical temperature, =

�
b) Resistance of silicon will increase and that of d) Critical volume =
platinum will decrease 54. The enthalpies of the elements in their
c) Resistance of both will increase standard states are assumed to be
d) Resistance of both will decrease a) Zero at 298 K
44. Through which mode of propagation, the radio b) Unit at 298 K
waves can be sent from one place to another c) Zero at all temperature
a) Ground wave propagation d) Zero at 273 K
b) Sky wave propagation 55. The cooling in refrigerator is due to
c) Space wave propagation
a) Reaction of the refrigerator gas
d) All of the above
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 b) Expansion of ice sodium in etherial solution, then it will give
c) The expansion of the gas in the a) 2,4-dimethylhexane
refrigerator b) 3,5-dimethylhexane
d) The work of the compressor c) 2,3,4,5-tetramethylhexane
56. The reaction, SO g + O g ⇌ SO g is d) 2,6-dimethyloctane
carried out in a dm vessel and dm vessel 65. Acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid to
respectively. The ratio of the reaction form
velocities will be a) Cl CHCHO b) ClCH COOH
a) 1 : 4 b) 2 : 4 c) 1 : 8 d) 8 : 1
c) Cl COCl d) ClCH CHO
57. Oxidation number of N in N H(hydrazoic
66. The aromatic compounds present as
acid) is
particulates are
a) b) c) d)
− + 0 − a) Benzene
58. The value of ′ ′ in the reaction b) Toluene
c) Nitrobenzene
Cr O − + H + + Fe +
d) Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
⟶ Cr + + Fe + + H O
67. In a compound, atoms of element form ccp
will be
lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of
a) 2 b) 3 c) 6 d) 7
tetrahedral voids. The formula of the
59. Which one of the following is called
compound will be
amphoteric solvent?
a) b) c) d)
a) Ammonium hydroxide
68. Density of a crystal remains unchanged as a
b) Chloroform
result of
c) Benzene
a) Ionic defect b) Schottky defect
d) Water
c) Frenkel defect d) Crystal defect
60. Among the following, which is water insoluble?
69. 19.85 mL of 0.1 N NaOH reacts with 20 mL of
a) Sodium fluoride b) Potassium fluoride
HCl solution for complete neutralization. The
c) Beryllium fluoride d) Magnesium fluoride
molarity of HCl solution is
61. The composition of the common glass is
a) 9.9 b) 0.99 c) 0.099 d) 0.0099
a) Na O. CaO. SiO b) Na O. Al O . SiO
70. Phenol dimerises in benzene having van t Hoff
c) CaO. Al O . SiO d) Na O. CaO. SiO
factor 0.54. What is the degree of association?
62. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of
a) 1.92 b) 0.98 c) 1.08 d) 0.92
a) Alumina
71. Which one of the following condition will
b) Bauxite
increase the voltage of the cell represented by
c) Molten cryolite
the equation?
d) Alumina mixed with molten cryolite
Cu + Ag + ⇌ Cu + + Ag
63. Select R-isomers from the following
a) Increase in the dimension of Cu electrode
b) Increase in the dimension of Ag electrode
c) Increase in the concentration of Cu + ions
d) Increase in the concentration of Ag + ions
72. Order of radioactive disintegration reaction is
a) Zero b) First c) Second d) Third
73. Which is correct about zero order reaction?
a) Rate of reaction depends on decay constant.
b) Rate of reaction is independent of
concentration.
c) Unit of rate constant is −
−
a) I and III b) II, IV and V d) Unit of rate constant is � −
c) I, II and III d) II and III 74. An example of dispersion of a liquid in a gas is
64. 2-chloro-3-methylbutane is treated with a) Milk b) Vegetable oil
c) Foam d) Mist
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75. The method of concentrating the ore which
makes use of the difference in density between
ore and impurities is called a) b)
a) Leaching b) Liquation
c) Levigation d) Magnetic separation
76. Ore pitch blende is main source of
a) Ra b) Th c) Mg d) Ce
77. When ammonium chloride is heated with
c) d)
NaOH, a gas is evolved, which has
a) Pungent odour b) Smell of rotten eggs
c) Smell of ammonia d) No smell
78. Gun metal is 85. Which of the following is not a nitro-
a) Cu + Zn b) Cu + Sn + Zn derivative?
c) Cu + Sn d) Zn + Sn a) C H NO b) CH CH ONO
79. Composition of azurite mineral is
a) CuCO . CuO b) Cu HCO . Cu OH
c) CuCO . Cu OH d) CuCO . Cu OH c) d) C H OH NO
80. Which of the following is a common donor
atom in ligands?
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen 86. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then
c) Arsenic d) Both (b) and (c) treated with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured
81. Among the following the one that gives product. Its structure would be
positive iodoform test upon reaction with I
and NaOH is a)
a) CH CH CH OH CH CH
b) C H CH CH OH
b)
H C − CH − CH OH
c) |
CH
c)
d) PhCHOHCH
82. Ethyl alcohol can be prepared from Grignard
reagent by the reaction of d)
a) HCHO b) CO c) RCN d) RCOCI
83. Which of the following is not soluble in 87. Which of the following is an amphoteric acid?
NaHCO solution? a) Glycine b) Salicylic acid
c) Benzoic acid d) Citric acid
88. Which compound polymerises of neoprene?
a) b) a) CH = CHCl
b) CH = C. Cl − CH = CH
c) Cl C = C. Cl
d) F C = CF
89. Number average molecular mass, ̅̅̅̅ � and
c) d) weight average molecular mass (̅̅̅̅̅ )of
synthetic polymers are related as
a) ̅� = ̅̅̅̅̅ / b) ̅� = ̅
84. The product P in the reaction, ̅ ̅
c) > � d) ̅ < ̅�
90. Paracetamol is a/an
a) Antipyretic b) Analgesic
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Antimalarial
91. The first phylogenetic system of plant

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 classification was proposed by 102. Parts of the plants were observed. Structure-A
a) Engler b) Engler and Prantl develops aerially and produces roots when
c) Eicher d) Bentham and comes in contact with the soil. Structure-B
Hooker develops from underground part of the stem,
92. A taxon is a grow obliquely, becomes aerial and produces
a) Group of related b) Group of related roots on its lower surface. Identify,
species families respectively the structure of A and B.
c) Type of living d) Taxonomic group of a) Sucker, stolon b) Stolon, runner
organism any ranking c) Stolon, sucker d) Runner, stolon
93. Binomial system of nomenclature was given by 103.
a) Engler b) Linaeus
c) Prantl d) Both (a) and (C)
94. During conjugation in �
a) Out of the four micronuclei formed, three
degenerate
b) Out of six macronuclei formed, four
degenerate The above inflorescence is a/an
c) Zygote nucleus undergoes eight successive a) Cyathim b) Dichasial cyme
division in each conjugant c) Umbel d) Panicle
d) Out of 16 nuclei, only 4 degenerate 104. Small branches produced from lower 2 to 3
95. Auxospores and homocysts are formed, nodes in jowar are called
respectively by a) Culm b) Prop roots
a) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria c) Ligule d) Tillers
b) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms 105. Cuticle is absent in which part of plant?
c) Some diatoms several cyanobacteria a) Leaves b) Root
d) Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms c) Stem d) Pneumatophores
96. Which one of the following is a vascular 106. In grasses, the guard cells are
cryptogam? a) Kidney-shaped b) Sphere-shaped
a) � b) � � c) Dump-bell-shaped d) Bean-shaped
c) ℎ � d) 107. Red cell count is carried out by
97. The cones bearing megasporophyll with ovules a) Haemocytometer b) Haemoglobinometer
are called c) Sphygmomanometer d) Electrocardiogram
a) Male strobili 108. Debove s membrane is a layer of
b) Female strobili a) Muscular tissue b) Epithelial tissue
c) Megasporangia c) Connective tissue d) All of these
d) Microsporangia 109. Which of the following differentiate plant cells
98. Characteristic of coelenterate is occurrence of from animal cells?
a) Nematocysts b) Polymorphism a) Large vacuole, b) Cell wall, plastid and
c) Flame cells d) Choanocytes plastid and cell wall centriole
99. Sea fan belongs to c) Cell wall, plastid and d) Cell membrane,
a) Coelenterata b) Porifera mitochondria plastid and cell wall
c) Echinodermata d) Mollusca 110. Identify the components labelled , , , and
100. Hydroskeleton is not found in in the diagram given below from the list I to
a) Mollusca VIII given along with it
b) Echinoderms
c) Annelida
d) Cnidarian
101. In cauliflower, the inflorescence is
a) Corymbose b) Cymose
c) Raceme d) Capitulum

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 end−C −terminal end
Left end−reducing end, Right end−non-
b)
reducing end
Left end− non-reducing end, Right
c)
end−reducing end
Left end−C −terminal end, Right
d)
end−N −terminal end
Components
113. Select the matched ones.
I. Cristae of mitochondria
I . S-phase - DNA replication
II. Inner membrane of mitochondria
III. Cytoplasm II. Zygotene - Synapsis
IV. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum III. Diplotene - Crossing over
V. Rough endoplasmic reticulum IV. Meiosis - Both haploid and
VI. Mitochondrial matrix diploid cells
VII. Ribosome V -phase - Quiescent stage
VIII. Nucleus a) I and II only b) III and IV only
The correct components are c) III and V only d) I,III and V only
A B C D E 114. Which of the protein is found in spindle
a) VIII V VII III IV b) I IV VII VI III
fibre?
c) VI V IV VII I d) V I I II IV
a) Tubulin b) Albumin
111. The figure given below shows three
c) Mucin d) Haemoglobin
velocity substrate concentration curves for
115. In osmosis, there is movement of
an enzyme reaction. What do the curves A,
a) Solute only b) Solvent only
B and C depict respectively?
c) Both (A) and (B) d) Neither (A) nor
(B)
116. Which one is true about guttation?
a) It occurs through specialized pores
called hydathodes
b) It occurs in herbaceous plants when root
pressure is low and transpiration is high
c) It only occur during the day time
a) A-normal enzyme reaction, B-
d) It occurs in plants growing under
competitive inhibition, C-non-
conditions of low soil moisture and high
competitive inhibition
b) A-enzyme with an allosteric modulator
humidity
117. Which pathway applies least resistance to the
added, B-normal enzyme activity, C-
movement of water?
competitive inhibition
a) Apoplast pathway
c) A-enzyme with an allosteric stimulator,
b) Symplast pathway
B-competitive inhibitor added, C- normal c) Trans membrane pathway
enzyme reaction d) Vacuolar pathway
d) A- normal enzyme reaction, B-non- 118. Which of the following is considered as partial
competitive inhibitor added, C- allosteric mineral elements in plants?
inhibitor added a) Potassiu b) Phospho c) d)
Nitrogen Iron
112. Name the term given to the left and right ends m rus
of a polysaccharide 119. Which of the following is considered to be
the best chemical method of fixing
atmospheric nitrogen?
a) Fisher method
a) Left end−N −terminal end, Right
b) Decan method

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 c) Haber-Bosch method d) Inhibition of root growth
d) Parnas-Meyerhoff method 127. Characteristic of mammalian liver is
120. Every CO molecule entering the Calvin cycle a) �upffer s cells and leucocytes
needs b) Leucocytes and canaliculae
a) 2 molecule of NADPH and 3 molecule of ATP c) Glisson s capsules and �upffer s cells
for its fixation d) Glisson s capsule and leucocytes
b) 2 molecule of NADPH and 2 molecule of ATP 128. Diastema refers to
for its fixation a) Gap between the teeth
c) Variable amount of ATP b) Gap between tongue and teeth
d) Only NADPH c) Ciliary cells on alimentary wall
121. Compensation point refers to d) Cell lining along pharynx
a) Little photosynthesis 129. Haemoglobin of the human blood forms a
b) Beginning of photosynthesis stable complex compound with which of the
c) Rate of photosynthesis equals to the rate of following gas leading to death?
respiration a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide
d) None of the above c) Carbon monoxide d) Nitrogen
122. The process by which ATP is produced in the 130. Carbon dioxide is transported in blood in the
inner membrane of a mitochondrion, the form of
electron transport system transfers protons a) Haemoglobin b) Oxyhaemoglobin
from the inner compartment to the outer, as c) Carbonate d) Bicarbonate
the protons flow back to the inner 131. Which is largest among the given type of
compartment, the energy of their movement is leucocytes?
used to add phosphate to ADP, forming ATP is a) Eosinophils b) Basophils
a) Chemiosmosis b) Phosphorylation c) Monocytes d) Lymphocytes
c) Glycolysis d) Fermentation 132. Generally, artificial pacemaker consists of one
123. Glycolysis battery made up of
I. causes partial oxidation of glucose (one a) Nickel
molecule) to form 2-molecules of pyruvic acid b) Dry cadmium
and 2 ATP as net gain c) Photo sensitive material
II. takes place in all living cells d) Lithium
III. uses 2 ATP at two steps 133. Erythropoietin is secreted from
IV. scheme was given by Gustav Embden, Otto a) Pituitary gland b) Pancreas
Mayerhof and J Parnas c) Adrenal gland d) Kidney
Choose the correct option containing 134. Inner to the hilum of the kidney, there is a
appropriate statements from the above broad funnel-shaped space called
a) I, II and III b) I, II and IV a) Renal pelvis b) Medulla
c) I, II, III and IV d) Only I c) Cortex d) Adrenal gland
124. Rapid and dramatic increase in shoot length is 135. I. Ureter II. Renal pelvis, III. Calyx IV.
called Urinary bladder V. Urethra
a) Triple response growth Choose the correct sequence of urine route to
b) Bolting outside
c) scarification a) I→II→III→IV→V b) V→IV→III→II→I
d) Night break effect c) V→III→IV→I→II d) III→II→I→IV→V
125. Which one of the following is a natural growth 136. Choose the correct properties of muscle fibres
inhibitor? I. Muscle fibre is lined by the plasma
a) NAA b) ABA c) IAA d) GA membrane called sarcolemma
126. Auxin in plant means for II. Cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is called
a) Cell elongation protoplasm
b) Fruit ripening III. Sarcolemma of the muscle fibre encloses
c) Cell division the sarcoplasm
IV. Muscle fibre is syncitium
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 Select the correct option a) Lupine
a) All except II b) All except I b) �
c) All except III d) All except IV c) Date palm
137. Identify A, B and C along the given diagram d) Phoenix
148. Sertoli s cell are regulated by the pituitary
hormone known as
a) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-Factin a) b) c) Prolacti d)
FSH GH LH
b) A-Thick filament, B-Troponin, C- n
Tropomyosin 149. Which hormone level increases in the luteal
c) A-Myosin filament, B-Troponin, C- phase?
Tropomyosin a) LH
d) A-Meromyosin, B-Troponin, C-Tropomyosin b) Progesterone
138. Centrum of h vertebra of frog is c) Testosterone
a) Procoelous b) Acoelous d) FSH
c) Amphicoelous d) Amphiplatyan 150. If a germ cell in a female gonad and a germ cell
139. Nerve impulse travels faster in in a male gonad begin undergoing meiosis
a) Medullated nerve fibre simultaneously, what will be the ratio of ova
b) Non- medullated nerve fibre and sperm produced?
c) Both (a) and (b) a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:4 d) 2:1
d) None of the above 151. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic
140. Number of cranial nerves in frog sectional view of the female reproductive
a) 10 pairs b) 9 pairs system of humans. Which one set of three parts
c) 12 pairs d) None of these out of A-F have been correctly identified?
141. Secretion of PTH is regulated by the circulating
levels of …… in blood
a) Na+ b) I − c) Ca + d) Fe +
142. GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide)
a) Inhibits the gastric secretion and motility a) C-Infundibulum, D-Fimbriae, E-Cervix
b) Inhibits the gastric secretion only b) D-Oviducal funnel, E-uterus, F-Cervix
c) Activate the gastric secretion and motility c) A-Perimetrium, B-Myometrium, C-fallopian
d) Activate the gastric secretion only tube
143. Where does syngamy occur in …….. d) B-Endometrium, C- Infundibulum, D-
a) External medium b) Internal medium Fimbriae
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these 152. Oral polio vaccine and hepatitis first dose is
144. Binary fission is the mode of asexual given to a child at
reproduction in a) 6 weeks after birth b) 10 weeks after birth
a) Amoeba b) Paramecium c) 20 weeks after birth d) 24 weeks after birth
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Yeast 153. Copper releasing IUDs are used for
145. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of suppressing the
fruits produced will be determined by the a) Activity of ova
genotype of b) Activity of the uterus
a) Stock b) Scion c) Motility of the sperms
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Neither (a) nor (b) d) Motility of ova
146. Chances of pollination in air and water are 154. When the chromosome number of a given
increased by increasing number of pollens. organism has one additional chromosome in
This statement is one of the homologous pairs, the addition is
a) True b) False known as
c) Sometimes (a) and d) Neither (a) nor (b) a) Trisomy b) Monosomy
sometimes (b) c) Polyploidy d) nullisomy
147. Most oldest viable seed is of 155. Chromosomal mutations occurs due to

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 I. Deletion II. Duplication b) Only II
III. Translocation IV. Inversion c) Only III
Choose the correct option d) I and III
a) I, II and b) II, III c) I, III and d) All of 165. The commercial jute fibers are:
III and IV IV these a) Xylem fibres b) Cortical fibres
156. Heterogametic male condition does not occur c) Phloem fibres d) Interxylary fibres
in 166. The plant most commonly used as green
a) Birds b) Humans manure is
c) Drosophila d) Honey bee a) Dilbergia sissoo b) Polyalthea
157. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in c) Sesbania aculeata d) None of these
a) Mitochondria b) Chromoplast 167. Which industrial products are synthesized
c) Ribosomes d) Chloroplast from microbes?
158. Human chromosomes contain I. Antibiotics II. Fermented beverages
a) . × bp b) . × bp III. Bioactive molecules IV. Enzyme
c) . × bp d) . × bp Choose the correct option
159. Hardy-Weinberg principle is the a) I, II, III and IV b) II, III and IV
a) Genetic structure of b) Genetic structure of c) I, III and IV d) III and IV
a non-evolving an evolving 168. Identify and match the labelled items
population population , , , , , and in the diagram below from
c) Phenotypic structure d) Phenotypic the list I-VII given with components
of an evolving structure of a non-
population evolving population
160. Which type of growth living organism
undergoes?
a) Reversible
b) Apical
c) Accretion
d) Intussusception
161. Your immune system helps to protect you
against viruses and bacteria that can cause
sickness. Which cells are part of the immune
system? I. DNA polymerase
a) White blood cells b) Red blood cells II. plasmid
c) Nerve cells d) None of these III. plasmid with sticky ends
162. Haemozoin is released into blood during the IV. DNA ligase
infection of Plasmodium vivax at every V. restriction endonuclease
a) 24 h b) 48 h c) 72 h d) 12 h VI. recombinant DNA
163. Which one of the followin pairs is not correctly VII. reverse transcriptase
matched? The correct components are
a) Streptomyces - Antibiotic A B C D E F G
b) Serratia - Drug Addiction a) VII I II V III IV VI
c) Spirulina - Single cell protein b) VII VI V IV III II I
d) Rhizobium- Biofertilizer c) VII V III I II IV VI
164. Which of the following is not an important d) I II IV VI III V VII
characteristic of the green revolution? 169. I. � also controls the copy numbers of the
I. Mechanised agriculture linked DNA
II. Hybrid seeds II. If a foreign DNA ligates at the HI site of
III. Slash and burn tetracycline resistance gene in the vector
Which of the above are correct? pBR322, the recombinant plasmid loses the
a) Only I tetracycline resistance due to insertion of

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 foreign DNA a) Carbon cycle b) Hydrologic cycle
Choose regarding the above statements c) Nitrogen cycle d) Phosphorus cycle
a) I is true, II is false b) II is true, I is false 176. Which one of the following is correct for
c) Both are true d) Both are false xerarch succession?
170. Out of the following which is a genetically a) Successional series from xeric to mesic
engineered anti-viral protein? condition
a) Humulin b) Interferon b) Successional series from hydric to mesic
c) Fumagillin d) Griseofulvin condition
171. In the initial stages of protoplast culture, c) Both (a) and (b)
sorbitol/mannitol is added d) None of the above
a) As an additional source of carbon 177. Soil conservation is a practice, in which soil
b) As an additional source of energy a) Is protected from being carried away by
c) To keep cells alive after the removal of cell wind and water.
wall b) Is well aerated
d) As a osmotic stabilizer c) Fertility is enhanced
172. Main objective of production/use of herbicide d) Erosion is allowed
resistant GM crops is to 178. Which of the following is � conservation?
a) Eliminate weeds from the field without the a) Banning of Akhard Sikar in Similipal
use of manual labour b) Breeding of animals in Nandan Kanha
b) Eliminate weeds from the field without the c) Protecting migration of birds in Chilka lake
use of herbicides d) Protecting fishing in Bhitar Kanika
c) Encourage eco-friendly herbicides 179. Study carefully the following pie diagram
d) Reduce herbicide accumulation in food representing the relative contribution of
articles for health safety various greenhouse gases to total global
173. Character displacement take place when there warming. Identify the gases , , and
is
a) Geographic displacement
b) Geographic overlapping
c) Geographic non-overlapping
d) Habitat displacement
174. Ecologist say that niche is like a species …A…,
while habitat is like a …B… there A and B
indicate a) A-N O, B − CO , C − CH , D − CFCs
a) A-education; B-occupation b) A-CO , B − CH , C − CFCs, D − N O
b) A-appearance; B-physiology c) A-CH , , B − CFCs, C − N O, D − CO
c) A-occupation; B-address d) A-CFCs, , B − N O, C − CO , D − CH
d) A-physiology; B-anatomy 180. Term used for accumulation of non-degradable
175. Which of the following is known as the pollutant in higher trophic level is
sedimentary cycle because its reservoir is a a) Biomagnification b) Eutrophication
sedimentary rock? c) Biome d) Ecotone

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