THOMAStutorials

Date : NEET 2016 Test No. : XIIA

Time : 01:34:00 XII Full Portion NCERT Marks : 360

Single Correct Answer Type A

1. There is a solid sphere of radius ′�′ having
uniformly distributed charge. What is the I
relation between electric field ′ ′ (inside the
sphere) and radius of sphere ′�′ is
a) b) c) d) C
∝ �− ∝ �− ∝ ∝�
�
2. Two identical charged spheres are suspended B'
by strings of equal lengths. The stings make an I

angle of o with each other. When suspended

in a liquid of density . � − , the angle I
remains the same. If density of the material of
the sphere is . � − , the dielectric constant A'
of the liquid is
a) 1 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 μ
a) = b) = ( )
3. If eight similar charge drops combine to form a � �
μ d) Zero
bigger drop, then the ratio of capacitance of c) = ( )
�
bigger drop to that of smaller drop will be
8. Which curve may best represent the current
a) 2:1 b) 8:1 c) 4:1 d) 16:1
deflection in a tangent galvanometer
4. A capacitor is connected to a cell of emf

having some internal resistane . The potential c
difference across the  a b d
2
a) Cell is < b) Cell is
c) Capacitor is > d) Capacitor is < i
5. To convert a moving a coil galvanometer a) b) c) d)
(MCG) into a voltmeter 9. Water is
a) A high resistance R is connected in parallel a) Diamagnetic b) Paramagnetic
with MCG c) Ferromagnetic d) None of these
b) A low resistance r is connected in parallel 10. Quantity that remains unchanged in a
with MCG transformer is
c) A low resistance r is connected in series with a) Voltage b) Current
MCG c) Frequency d) None of these
d) A high resistance R is connected in series 11. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of
with MCG ℎ and an inductance of . ℎ . If an
6. Length of a hollow tube is , it s outer ac voltage of and frequency of
diameter is and thickness of it s wall is is applied to this circuit, the current in the
. If resistivity of the material of the tube circuit would be nearly
is . × −8 Ω × then resistance of tube will a) 0.32 b) 0.16 c) 0.48 d) 0.80
be
a) . × − Ω b) × − Ω 12. In the L-C-R circuit shown, the impedance is
c) × − Ω d) None of these
7. Current through ABC and A B C is I. What is
the magnetic field at P? � = � ′ = (Here C
B PBC are collinear)

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 L C R spherical chamber of radius 0.10m. Assume
that 66% of the energy supplied to the bulb is
1H μF Ω converted into light and that the surface of
chamber is perfectly absorbing. The pressure
exerted by the light on the surface of the
chamber is
a) . × − Pa b) . × − Pa
c) . × − Pa d) None of these
a) Ω b) Ω c) Ω d) Ω 18. The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in
the ground state of the hydrogen atom is
13. The relation between electric field vector E, the (Radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom
displacement vector D and the polarization = . Å)
vector P for a dielectric placed in electric field a) 1.67 Å b) 3.33 Å c) 1.06 Å d) 0.53 Å
E is given by
19. The wavelengths involved in the Spectrum of
a) � = ε + b) � = +
deuterium ( D are slightly different from that
c) = ε + � d) = + �
of hydrogen Spectrum, because
14. A man can see the objects upto a distance of
a) Sizes of the two nuclei are different
one metre from his eyes. For correcting his eye
b) Nuclear forces are different in the two cases
sight so that he can see an object at infinity, he
c) Masses of the two nuclei are different
requires a lens whose power is
d) Attraction between the electron and the
Or
nucleus is different in the two cases.
A man can see upto of the distant
20. The ionization energy of the electron in the
object. The power of the lens required to see
hydrogen atom in its ground state is
far objects will be
. �.The atoms are excited to higher energy
a) +0.5 b) + . c) + . d) − .
levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths.
15. The distance between a convex lens and a
Maximum wavelength of emitted radiation
plane mirror is . The parallel rays
corresponds to the transition between
incident on the convex lens after reflection
= to =
from the mirror form image at the optical a) = to = states b)
states
centre of the lens. Focal length of lens will be
= to =
c) = to = states d)
states
21. Neutrino emission in β − decay was predicted
O theoretically by
a) Planck b) Heisenberg
a) 10 c) Laue d) Pauli
b) 20 22. The plate characteristic curve of a diode in
c) 30 space charge limited region is as shown in the
d) Cannot be determined figure. The slope of curve at point � is
16. In Young s double slit experiment the . /�. The static plate resistance of diode
will be
wavelength of light was changed from Å
IP B
to Å. While doubling the separation (mA)
between the slits which of the following is not
150
true for this experiment P

a) The width of the fringes changes

b) The colour of bright fringes changes O 50 Volt
VP
A
c) The separation between successive bright a) 111.1Ω b) 222.2Ω c) 333.3Ω d) 444.4Ω
fringes changes 23. When �� is the modulation frequency in
d) The separation between successive dark frequency modulation, the modulation index is
fringes remains unchanged proportional to
17. A 100 W light bulb is placed at the centre of a a) �� b) �� c) /�� d) /��
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24. The frequency of a FM transmitter without c) Satellite d) Cerussite
signal input is called 34. In blast furnace, the highest temperature is in
a) Lower side band frequency a) Fusion zone b) Reduction zone
b) Upper side band frequency c) Combustion zone d) Slag zone
c) Resting frequency 35. The acid employed for etching of glass is
d) None of these a) HCl b) HClO
25. Which of the following has highest value of c) HF d) Aqua regia
energy gap? 36. Which of the following compound is expected
a) Aluminum b) Silver to be coloured?
c) Germanium d) Diamond a) Ag SO b) CuF c) MgF d) CuCl
26. For � ionic crystal to exist in bcc structure, 37. When hydrogen peroxide is added to acidified
�ca i
the ratio of radii should be potassium dichromate, a blue colour is
�a i
a) Between 0.41 and 0.73 produced due to formation of
b) Greater then 0.73 a) CrO b) Cr O c) CrO d) CrO −
c) Less than 0.41 38. Which of the following compounds exhibit
d) Equal to 1.0 linkage isomerism?
27. The molarity of pure water is a) [Co en ]Cl b) [Co NH ][Cr CN ]
a) 55.6 b) 5.56 c) 6.55 d) 65.5 c) [Co en NO Cl]Br d) [Co NH Cl]Br
28. Vapour pressure of pure A is mm of Hg at 39. Which one of the following
∘ chlorohydrocarbons readily undergoes
C . It from an ideal solution with B in
which mole fraction of A is 0.8. If the vapour solvolysis?
pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at a) CH = CHCl
∘ ∘
C, the vapour pressure of pure B at C
b)
is
a) 28 mm b) 56 mm c) 70 mm d) 140 mm
29. Saturated solution of KNO is used to make c)
salt-bridge because
Velocities of both K + and NO− are nearly the d)
a)
same 40. The cleavage of an aryl-alkyl ether with cold HI
b) Velocity of K + is greater than that of NO− gives
c) Velocity of NO− is greater than that of K + a) Alkyl iodide and water
d) KNO is highly soluble in water b) Aryl iodide and water
30. The rate constant is doubled when c) Alkyl iodide, aryl iodide and water
temperature increases from ℃ to ℃. d) Phenol and alkyl iodine
Activation energy in kJ is 41. Alcohol CH CHCH OH cannot be obtained
a) 34 b) 54 c) 100 d) 53 by
31. The / of the first order reaction is a) HCHO + CH CHCH Mg�
a) Dependent of initial concentration
b) Directly proportional to initial concentration b)
c) indirectly proportional to initial
concentration c) CH CHCH CH Mg� + O air
d) Independent of initial concentration d) CH CHCHO + CH Mg�
32. In which of these processes platinum is used as 42.
a catalyst?
a) Oxidation of ammonia to form HNO
b) Hardening of oils Final product and the name of the reaction is
c) Protection of synthetic rubber
d) Synthesis of methanol
33. Which of the following is not an ore? a)
a) Malachite b) Calamine

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 a) Male gamete fuses with female gamete
b) b) Pollen tube enter into the ovule through
micropyle
c) Pollen tube enter into the ovule through
chalaza
c)
d) Vegetative cell and tube cell fuse
52. Self-incompatibility is a device for
d) None of the above
I. Ensuring cross-pollination
43. Which of the following amines can be directly
II. Preventing self-pollination
oxidized to the corresponding nitro compound
III. Ensuring self-fertilisation
by potassium permanganate?
IV. Genetic control for self-fertilisation
CH − CH − CH
Choose the correct statements from those
a) CH NH b) |
given above
NH
a) I, II and III
c) CH NH d) CH C − NH
b) I, II, III and IV
44.
compounds reacts with NH or c) I, III and IV
amines followed by H /Ni. The reaction is d) I, II and IV
called 53. Parthenogenesis is a type of
a) Mendius reaction b) Hofmann a) Sexual reproduction
bromamide b) Asexual reproduction
c) Reductive amination d) Gabriel s c) Budding
phthalimide d) Regeneration
45. Which amino acid has imidazole ring? 54. Mammalian egg has
a) b) c) d) Histidin a) No yolk at all
Alanine Leucine Tyrosine
e b) Small amount of yolk
46. Bakelite is an example of c) Large amount of yolk
a) Elastomer d) Yolk concentrated at one pole
b) Fibre 55. A Change in the amount of yolk and its
c) Thermoplastic distribution in the egg will affect
d) Thermosetting polymer a) Formation of zygote
47. The number average molecular mass and mass b) Pattern of cleavage
average molecular mass of a polymer are c) Number of blastomeres produced
respectively 30,000 and 40,000. The poly d) Fertilization
dispersity index of the polymer is 56. The organ which produces gametes are called
a) <1 b) >1 c) 1 d) 0 …A… and which neither produces gametes nor
48. The drug, which is not a tranquillizer, is hormones are called …B… . Here A and B
a) Ibuprofen b) Veronal represent
c) Luminal d) Seconal a) A-primary sex organs; B-secondary sex
49. What is common between vegetative organs
reproduction and apomixis? b) A- secondary sex organs; B- primary sex
a) Both occur round the year organs
b) Both produce progeny identical to the c) A-tertiary sex organs; B-secondary sex
parent organs
c) Both are applicable to only dicot plants d) A- secondary sex organs; B- tertiary sex
d) Both bypass the flowering plant organs
50. The part where fertilization of ovum takes 57. Correct statement with reference to a test tube
place in rabbit, humans and other placental bay is
mammals is: a) The fertilized egg is placed in the womb of
a) Ovary b) Uterus the mother where the gastrula period is
c) Vagina d) Fallopian tube completed
51. Syngamy is the process in which b) Unfertilized egg is placed in the womb and
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 allowed to grow parthenogenetically d) Mendel
c) A prematurely born baby is reared in an 65. Hand of man, wing of bat and flipper of seal
incubator represents
d) Fertilized egg is taken out and grown in a a) Vestigial organs
large test tube b) Analigous organs
58. In the production of test tube babies : c) Evolutionary organs
a) Fertilization is external and foetus formation d) Homologous organs
is internal 66. Single step large mutation leading to speciation
b) Fertilization is internal and foetus formation is also called
is external a) Founder s effect b) Saltation
c) Fertilization and foetus formation is external c) Branching descent d) Natural selection
d) Fertilization and foetus formation is internal 67. Graft transplantation to save certain patients
59. ICSI stands for fails due to the rejection of such organs by the
a) Inter Cytoplasmic b) Intra Cytoplasmic patient. Which type of immune response is
Semen Injection Semen Injection responsible for such type of rejection?
c) Inter Cytoplasmic d) In Cytoplasmic a) Cell-mediated immune response
Semen Injection Semen Injection b) Humoral immune response
60. The genome of ℎ �� � c) Both (a) and (b)
consists of d) Innate immune response
a) 3 million base pairs and 30,000 genes 68. Lung cancer is caused by
b) 180 million base pairs and 13,000 genes a) Tabacco smoke b) X-rays
c) 4.7 million base pairs and 4,000 genes c) UR rays d) Vehicle smoke
d) 97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes 69. Neurasthenia refers to
61. Given pedigree chart indicates a) Undue concern about health
b) Traumatic experience like rape
c) Disorder of sensory perception
d) Mental inability to concentrate on or enjoy
things
70. Which one of the following is not a fungal
a) Autosomal recessive trait disease?
b) Y-linkage trait a) Rust of wheat b) Smut of bajra
c) Autosomal dominant trait c) Black rot of crucifers d) Red rot of sugar
d) Sex linkage recessive trait cane
62. A man and a woman, who do not show any 71. A hybrid variety produced, having more meat
apparent sign of a certain inherited disease, producing capacity, in chickens is:
have seven children (two daughter and five a) Broilers b) Plymoth rock
sons). Three of the sons suffer from the given c) White Cornish d) New Hemisphere
disease but none of the daughters are affected. 72. Which hexaploid wheat is used to make bread?
Which of the following mode of inheritance do a) Triticum turgidum
you suggest for this disease? b) Triticum durum
a) Autosomal dominant c) Triticum monococcum
b) Sex –linked dominant d) Triticum aestivum
c) Sex –limited recessive 73. Sunhemp is obtained from
d) Sex –linked recessive a) Crotalaria juncea
63. Polymorphism occurs at b) Linum usitatissimum
a) Genetic level b) Individual level c) Corchorus capsularis
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above d) None of these
64. Jumping genes in maize were discovered by 74. The nuclease enzyme, which beings its attack
a) Hugo de Vries from free end of a polynucleotide, is?
b) Barbara McClintock a) Exonuclease b) Kinase
c) T H Morgan c) Polymerase d) Endonuclease
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75. I endotoxins obtained from that it has a relatively fast pace
� ℎ ��� � are effective against d) It begins on a bare rock
a) Nematodes b) Bollworms 82. An ecosystem is
c) Mosquitoes d) Flies a) Different communities of plants, animals and
76. There is a restriction endonuclease called Eco microbes interact together with their
RI. What does co part in it stand for? physico-chemical environments
a) Coelom b) Coenzyme b) Different communities of plants and
c) Coli d) Colon microbes interact with their physico-
77. Genetic engineering is related with chemical environments
a) Eugenics b) Euphenics c) A localised assemblage of several plants and
c) Euthenics d) All of these animals
78. The RNAi stands for d) An assemblage of plants, animals and their
a) RNA interference b) RNA interferon surroundings
c) RNA inactivation d) RNA initiation 83. Red list in India completed by
79. Age structure of a population influences a) Botanical survey of India
population growth because b) Zoological survey of India
a) Different ago group have different c) Geological survey of India
reproductive capabilities d) None of the above
b) Different age group have same reproductive 84. Plant for which India is secondary centre for
capabilities domestication is
c) More young individual indicate decreasing a) Tobacco b) Rice c) Potato d) Maize
population 85. Global agreement in specific control strategies
d) All of the above to reduce the release of ozone depleting
80. The inherent maximum capacity of an substances, was adopted by
organism to reproduce or increase in number a) Rio de Janerio Conference
is called as b) Montreal Protocol
a) Biotic potential b) Ecosystem c) Kyoto Protocol
c) Population d) Ecology d) Vienna Convention
81. Which one of the following statements is 86. At present, the concentration of CO in the
correct for secondary succession? atmosphere is about
a) It occurs on a deforested site a) 100 b) 240 c) 380 d)
520 ppm
b) It follows primary succession ppm ppm ppm
c) It is similar to primary succession except

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