AIATS OPEN MOCK-01 (@DefeatNEET)

09-04-2023
Medical Entrance Exam - 2023
OPEN MOCK TEST No. 1

(XII Passed Students)
1. Read each question carefully. 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. marked correctly.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed.
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material
in the examination hall. 11. There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only
the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
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Open Mock Test No. 1
Complete Syllabus of NEET

Open Mock Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023
MM : 720 OPEN MOCK TEST - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 5. Choose the correct variation of magnetic

susceptibility of paramagnetic substance with
1. The equation which relates the induced electric field
absolute temperature.
due to time varying magnetic field is
qenclosed
(1)  E · ds = 0 (1) (2)
(2)  B · ds = 0
d
(3)  E ·d =− ( B ) (3) (4)
dt
(4) All of these
6. Choose the correct conclusion with respect to
2. The maximum error in measurement of mass and
resonance in a series LCR circuit
length of a cube are 0.3% and 0.2% respectively.
(1) The impedance of the circuit is purely resistive
The maximum error in the measurement of density
of cube is (2) The power factor in the condition of resonance
is unity
(1) 0.5% (2) 1.5% (3) The current becomes maximum in the condition
(3) 0.9% (4) 0.7% of resonance
(4) All of these
3. If the position of object change with time as x = t2 +
4t + 5 where x is in metre and t is in second, the 7. Choose the correct expression for elastic potential
velocity of particle at t = 1 s is energy density
1
(1) 6 m/s (2) 5 m/s (1) × stress × (strain)2
2
(3) 4 m/s (4) 2 m/s
1 ( stress )
2
4. Two point charges, 4 C and 16 C are placed (2) 

2 (Y )2
12 cm apart. The position from the charge 4C
where electric field intensity will be zero, is 1
(3) × (strain)2 × (Y)
2
(1) 4 cm (2) 3 cm
1
(3) 10 cm (4) 7 cm (4)  stress  Y
2
Space for Rough Work
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 Open Mock Test-1 (Code-E)
8. The radii of two air bubbles are in the ratio 3 : 5. The 13. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving with speed
ratio of work done in blowing these bubbles are 10 m s–1 along straight line x + y = 2. The magnitude
(1) 16 : 25 of angular momentum about the point P(0, 2) m will
be
(2) 9 : 25
(3) 5 : 16 (1) 30 2 (2) Zero
(4) 16 : 36 (3) 80 2 (4) 50
9. A stationary source emits a sound of frequency
14. Choose the correct statement about inelastic
10 Hz. The frequency heard by observer moving
collision
towards source with speed 30 m/s is nearly (speed
of sound is 330 m/s) (1) The coefficient of restitution is less than 1
(1) 15 Hz (2) 11 Hz (2) Velocity of separation is always less than
(3) 9 Hz (4) 7 Hz velocity of approach
10. The magnifying power of a compound microscope (3) Velocity of separation is equal to velocity of
when final image is formed at least distance of clear approach
vision is (where symbols have their usual meaning) (4) Both (1) & (2)
v  D v  D 15. Choose the correct statement among the following
(1) 1 +  (2) 1 − 
u  fe  u  fe  (1) A conservative force cannot be derived from the
scalar quantity like energy
v D  v fe
(3)   (4) M =
u  fe  uD (2) The work done by conservative force between
two points does not depends on the path
11. If a body is projected from the surface of earth then followed by the body
escape speed is minimum for  angle (from vertical)
(3) The work done against the conservative force
of projection. Then  will be
leads to increase in potential energy
(1) 90°
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Zero
16. Let p be the linear momentum of a particle having
(3) 30°
(4) Does not depend upon  position vector r from a point O. Let L be the
angular momentum of this particle about point O,
12. Moment of inertia of a ring about a tangential axis then
lying in plane of ring is (Mass of ring = M, radius =
R) (1) L = r  p
3MR 2 (2) L · p = 0
(1) MR2 (2)
2
(3) L · r = 0
MR 2 MR3
(3) (4)
4 2 (4) All of these
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17. An infinite wire carries a current i. A rod of length l is 20. Choose the effect which can be explained by the
placed perpendicular to the wire with its centre at a particle nature of light
distance d from the wire and it translates, parallel to
(1) The emission of the electron from the metal
wire with velocity v, as shown is the figure.
surface
(2) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron is
independent of intensity of light
(3) The photoelectrons are emitted only when light
The emf induced in the wire is of wavelength smaller than threshold
wavelength strikes the metal surface
0 i  d + / 2 
(1) Zero (2) In v
2  d − / 2  (4) All of these
0 i  d − / 2  0 i  d +  vD
(3) In v (4) In v 21. A quantity P is described by the relation P = ,
2  d + / 2  2  d −  
18. In the circuit shown in figure, the switch is closed at where  is the density, v is the average velocity, D
t=0 is the diameter and  is the coefficient of viscosity.
The dimensions of quantity P is
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M1L2T–2]
(3) [M0L1T0] (4) [M1L1T–2]
22. The velocity of a particle moving along the x-axis is
given by v = 2x2 + 1, where v is in m/s and x is in
The rate at which heat is dissipated in the resistor metre. The acceleration of the particle when passing
R1 long time after switch is closed, is through point x = 2 m, is
E2 (1) Zero (2) 5 m/s2
(1) Zero (2)
R2
(3) 72 m/s2 (4) 20 m/s2
E2 E 2 ( R1 + R2 ) 23. A black body which is at a temperature of T K
(3) (4)
R1 R12 emitted thermal radiation at the rate E watt/m2. The
thermal radiation emitted by a similar body of
19. A series AC circuit contains an inductor (12 H), a emissivity equal to 0.2 at temperature T/2 will be (in
capacitor (3 F), a resistor (10 ) and an AC source watt/m2)
1
of 12 V, Hz . The phase difference between the E E
12 (1) (2)
current and the voltage is 512 80
(1) 0° (2) 45° E E

(3) (4)
(3) 53° (4) 37° 128 256
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24. Select the correct diagram which is representing a (1) At a fixed temperature and pressure the number
heat pump (given T1 > T2) of molecules per unit volume is same for all
gases
(2) The number of molecules in 22.4 litres of any
(1) (2) gas at STP are 6.023 × 1023
(3) At a fixed temperature and volume the number
of molecules is same for all the gases
(4) Both (1) & (2)
28. The number of significant zeros in number 0.002080
will be
(3) (4) (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 5
29. A particle executes SHM with time period of 3 s and
25. The net heat interaction of the system with amplitude 10 cm. The velocity of the particle after
surrounding for the cyclic process shown in figure is 1
s starting from mean position is
4
 2
(1) m/s (2) m/s
10 3 10 2
10  5
(3) m/s (4)
m/s
3 2
30. A simple pendulum is suspended in a trolley which
is moving on a horizontal road with acceleration a.
(1) 4P0V0 The time period of simple pendulum is given by
(2) P0V0 (where symbols have their usual meaning)
(3) P0
2
(4) 2V0
2
26. The ratio of average total kinetic energy of neon

(1) T = 2
molecule at 27°C to the average total kinetic energy g
of oxygen molecule at 27°C is (where
R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 & KB = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1) (2) T = 2
a
3 5
(1) (2)
5 3 (3) T = 2
( g 2 + a2 )
1/2
4 3
(3) (4)
3 4
27. Choose the statement which is incorrect in (4) T = 2
accordance with the Avogadro’s hypothesis g +a
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31. A wave of frequency 500 Hz has wave velocity of 35. The distance of nth bright fringe from the nth dark
300 m/s. The path difference between two points fringe in Young’s double slit experiment is equal to
which are 60° out of phase is 3D 2D
(1) (2)
(1) 0.75 m (2) 0.1 m 2d d
(3) Zero (4) 0.85 m D D
(3) (4)
32. A transverse wave is described by the equation d 2d
 2x  SECTION-B
y = A sin 2Ft − . The ratio of maximum
   36. Unpolarized light of intensity X is incident on a
particle velocity of the wave velocity is polarizing sheet. Intensity of light which gets
transmitted is
2 2 2A2 X
(1) (2) (1) X (2)
A2 2 2
2A A X
(3) (4) (3) (4) Zero
 2 4
33. An equilateral glass prism is made of a material 37. The change in the electric field intensity between the
having refractive index 1.732. The angle of plates of capacitor connected with a battery gives
minimum deviation produced by the prism is rise to
(1) Conduction current
(1) 37° (2) 53°
(2) Displacement current
(3) 60° (4) 45°
(3) emf of battery
34. A fish is in a medium of refractive index 2 which (4) Both (1) & (2)
observes a bird in a medium of refractive 1 where 38. A particle is projected at an angle 60° with the
(2 > 1) as shown in the figure. The distance of bird vertical with a speed of 40 m/s. The change in
as observed by fish is velocity of particle between point of projection and
point of impact is (considering both the point of
projection and point of impact on ground and
assuming upward direction as positive y)
(1) Zero (2) − 40Jˆ
(3) 40iˆ (4) 40 Jˆ

39. The correct position-time graph corresponding to
the velocity time graph given below will be like
(given at t = 0, x = 0)
 
(1) x + 1 y (2) x + 2 y
2 1
 
(3) y + x 2 (4) y + x 1
1 2
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(1) (2)
(3) (4) Ba2 Ba2

(1) (2)
2 2
Ba2 
40. Choose the configuration in which the potential (3) Zero (4)
8
energy of magnetic dipole placed in external uniform
43. A pond is filled with a transparent liquid of refractive
magnetic field is maximum
index . A point source of light is placed at a depth
h from the free surface of liquid. The radius of the
(1) (2) circle from which rays will come out is
h h
(1) (2)
2 2
 −1  +1
h h
(3) (4)
 2 
(3) (4) 44. A particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is tied to a
inextensible string of length l. A uniform electric field
is applied as shown in the figure. If particle is slightly
displaced perpendicular to length of string and then
41. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a fixed vertical
released. Time period of small oscillations of particle
plane, stays in a direction making an angle 1 with will be
the vertical. If the dip at that place is 1 then the
angle of the fixed vertical plane with the meridian is
 cot 1   tan 1 
(1) sin−1   (2) cos−1  
 tan 1   cot 1 
 tan 1   cot 1 
(3) sin−1   (4) cos−1  
 cot 1   tan 1 
(1) T = 2 (2) T = 2
g qE
42. A semi-circular loop of radius a is placed at the edge
m
of uniform magnetic field B. The loop rotates with an
angular velocity  about an axis perpendicular to
(3) T = 2 (4) T = 2
plane of paper. The magnitude of induced emf in the qE qE
g+ g−
loop is m m
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45. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a (1) [M1L1T–1] (2) [M0L–1T1]

potential difference V from a cell and then (3) [M1L0T–1] (4) [M0L1T–1]
disconnected from it. A charge +q0 is now given to 49. A rod of length L and cross-sectional area A is made
its positive plate. The potential difference across of material having Young’s modulus Y and Poisson
plates of capacitor will be ratio . The rod is subjected to the loading as shown
q q
(1) V − 0 (2) V + 0
2C 2C
The lateral strain produced in the rod, is
V
(3) Zero (4) + q0 P P
2C (1) − (2) −
AY AY
46. A positive point charge Q is brought near an isolated
metal sphere. Based upon above information P A
(3) − (4) −
choose correct statements AY PY
(1) The sphere becomes negatively charged 50. A block having area of cross-section A (mass M1) is
(2) The sphere becomes positively charged placed over a viscous liquid. The block is also
attached to another block of mass M2 through
(3) The interior of the sphere becomes charged
strings and pulleys as shown. The constant velocity
(4) The interior remains uncharged but charge is
with which block moves when released from rest is
non-uniformly distributed on surface of sphere
47. In the circuit shown, the charge on 3 F capacitor in
steady state will be
(where  is the coefficient of viscosity of liquid)

(1) 8 C (2) 4 C
M1gd M2 gd
5 (1) (2)
(3) 3 C (4) C A A
8
48. The dimensions of ratio of impulse of force to the M1Ad M2 Ad
(3) (4)
moment of force is g g
[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A
52. The energy of the electron in first excited state of
51. Which among the following has maximum number He+ ion is
of atoms?
(1) – 13.6 eV (2) – 54.4 eV
(1) 32 g of SO2 (2) 12 g of CH4
(3) 22.4 L N2O at STP (4) 11.2 L SO3 at STP (3) – 27.2 eV (4) – 40.8 eV
7/24
53. Match the oxides given in List I with their chemical (1) 19.15 JK–1 (2) 25.14 JK–1
nature in List II. (3) 8.27 JK–1 (4) 32.41 JK–1
List I List II 58. The incorrect statement regarding colloidal
solutions is
a. In2O3 i Amphoteric
(1) The value of their colligative properties are large
b. BeO ii Basic as compared to true solutions at same
c. N2O iii Acidic concentration
(2) Colloidal particles are always in continuous zig-
d. SiO2 iv Neutral
zag motion
a b c d (3) Colloidal particles are always carry an electric
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) charge
(4) They can be coagulated by persistant dialysis
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
59. Which of the following is an ore of copper?
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(1) Calamine (2) Malachite
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Sphalerite (4) Cryolite
54. The correct order of the bond order for the following 60. Which of the following pairs of lanthanoids have
species is nearly same atomic radii?
[Numbers in parenthesis are atomic numbers]
(1) N22−  N2  N2+ (2) N2  N2+  N22−
(1) Pr (59) and Er (68)
(3) N2+  N22−  N2 (4) N22−  N2+  N2 (2) Er (68) and Ce (58)
55. The number of lone pairs of electrons on central (3) Sm (62) and Yb (70)
atom in the XeF4 molecule is (4) Nd (60) and Pm (61)
(1) One (2) Two 61. In the reaction,
(3) Three (4) Four
56. A vessel contains CH4 and SO2 in the molar ratio
2 : 3 at 12 atm pressure. The ratio of rates of The product Y is a/an
diffusion of CH4 and SO2 will be (1) Imine (2) Oxime
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) Schiff’s base (4) Hydrazone
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 4 62. Which of the following compounds can show both
57. The entropy change for one mole of an ideal gas Frenkel and Schottky defect?
whose volume changes isothermally reversibly from (1) AgBr (2) AgCl
1 L to 10 L is nearly (3) NaCl (4) KCl
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63. The ratio of total number of tetrahedral voids with (1) (2)
respect to the total number of voids in a cubic closed
packing (ccp) lattice is
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 (3) Ph – NH – CH3 (4)
64. Match List I with List II and identify the correct code.
List I List II
68. The IUPAC name of the complex K2[Zn(OH)4] is
a 1 (i) Caustic soda (1) Potassium hydroxidozinc(II)
CaSO4 · H2O
2 (2) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate(II)
b NaOH (ii) Gypsum (3) Potassium tetrahydroxidozinc(II)
c Ca(OH)2 (iii) Plaster of Paris (4) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate(I)
d CaSO4 ·2H2O (iv) Slaked lime 69. What is the electronic configuration of the central
atom in [Ni(NH3)6]Br2 based on crystal field theory?
a b c d
(1) t 2g4 eg2 (2) t 2g5 eg3
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) t 2g6 eg0 (4) t 2g6 eg2
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 70. The hybridisation of carbon atoms in the following
sequence respectively are
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
65. The product obtained in the following chemical
reaction is (1) sp3 ,sp3 ,sp3 ,sp (2) sp2, sp3, sp3, sp
Al4C3 + D2O → (3) sp3, sp2, sp, sp (4) sp2, sp, sp2, sp2
(1) C2D2 (2) CD4
71. If the equilibrium constant for a gaseous chemical
(3) C2D4 (4) C2D6 reaction, A + B  C + D is 4. Then the equilibrium
66. Which among the following is not a redox reaction?
constant for the chemical reaction
(1) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 1 1 1 1
C+ D A + B will be
(2) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O 2 2 2 2
(3) 2NaH → 2Na + H2 1
(1) 4 (2)
(4) 2KOH + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2H2O 4
67. The amine which reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to 1
(3) (4) 2
give an alkali insoluble product, is 2
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72. At 27°C and 760 mm Hg pressure, an ideal gas 78. Which of the following alcohol gives aldehyde as a
occupies 300 ml. The pressure of gas when product upon treating with Cu at 573 K?
temperature is increased to 37°C and volume (1) Ethanol
becomes 350 ml will be nearly
(2) Propan-2-ol
(1) 650 mm Hg (2) 780 mm Hg
(3) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(3) 810 mm Hg (4) 673 mm Hg
73. Which of the following alkene will give formaldehyde (4) Butan-2-ol
as one of the products upon reductive ozonolysis? 79. The major products obtained from the following
reaction is
(1) (2) (CH3 )3 C − O − CH2CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
HI (1eq)
(1) (CH3)3C – I + CH3CH2–I

(3) (4) (2) (CH3)3C–OH + CH3CH2–I
74. The rate constant for a reaction A → B is (3) (CH3)3C–OH + CH3CH2–OH
2.1 × 10–3 L mol–1 s–1. The order of the reaction will (4) (CH3)3C–I + CH3CH2–OH
be
80. The total number of chiral carbons in -D-(–)-
(1) 0 (2) 1
fructofuranose is
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) 3
75. When initial concentration of the reactant is tripled,
the half life period of a zero order reaction (2) 4
(1) Becomes doubled (3) 5
(2) Remains same (4) 6
(3) Becomes tripled 81. Producer gas is a mixture of
(4) Becomes one third times (1) CO + N2
76. The mass of copper deposited when a solution of
(2) CO + H2
CuSO4 is electrolysed for 5 minutes with a current of
2 ampere, is (3) CO2 + H2
(1) 0.31 g (2) 0.20 g (4) CO2 + N2
(3) 0.72 g (4) 1.52 g 82. Which among the following is not a component of
77. The correct order of boiling point is given by photochemical smog?
(1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te (1) O3
(2) H2Te > H2Se > H2O > H2S (2) NO
(3) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S (3) SO2
(4) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O (4) HCHO
10/24
83. The major product obtained in following chemical The correct statements are
reaction is (1) I and II only (2) I and III only
(3) II and III only (4) I, II and III
87. The ratio of total nodes to the radial nodes in
4p orbital is
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(1) (3) 2 : 1 (4) 3 : 2
88. The density (in g/L) of NO2 gas having pressure 760
mm of Hg column at 27°C is nearly
(2) (1) 1.24 (2) 1.87
(3) 0.86 (4) 0.98
89. The correct thermodynamic conditions for a reaction
to be non-spontaneous at all temperatures are
(3) (1) H > 0, S > 0 (2) H < 0, S < 0
(3) H > 0, S < 0 (4) H < 0, S > 0
90. The correct statements regarding interstitial
(4)
compounds among the following are
84. Which among the following is one of the monomer I. They have higher melting points than those of
of glyptal? pure metals
(1) Phenol II. They are usually stoichiometric and ionic in
(2) Ethylene glycol nature
(3) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid III. They retain metallic conductivity
(4) Terephthalic acid (1) I and II only (2) II and III only
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
85. Novestrol is a/an
91. The product C in the following reaction sequence is
(1) Antibiotic (2) Antifertility drug
(3) Analgesic (4) Tranquilizer
SECTION-B
86. In the reaction,
2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
(1) (2)
When 3 moles of SO2 and 2 moles of O2 are made
to react to completion, then
I. All the SO2 is consumed
II. 1 mole of O2 is remained (3) (4)
III. 3 moles of SO3 is produced
11/24
92. Which among the following element does not show 96. The major product B in the following reaction is
flame colour?
(1) Ca (2) Mg
(3) Sr (4) Ba
93. The product C obtained in the following reaction
sequence is
(1) (2)
(1) (3) (4)
(2)
97. What is the dissociation constant of 0.05 M acetic
acid if its molar conductivity is 78.1 S cm2 mol–1 and
(3)
m is 390.5 S cm2 mol–1?
(4) (1) 1.9 × 10–3 mol L–1

(2) 2.5 × 10–3 mol L–1
94. The pH of 0.2 M ammonium formate solution is
(3) 3.2 × 10–5 mol L–1
nearly (pKa of formic acid and pKb of ammonia are
3.74 and 4.75 respectively) (4) 1.5 × 10–5 mol L–1
98. Match List I with List II
(1) 3.3 (2) 2.7
List I List II
(3) 5.1 (4) 6.5
95. Which among the following solutions will show a PCl5 (i) Pyramidal
positive deviation from Raoult’s law? b BrF5 (ii) Trigonal bipyramidal
I. Phenol + Aniline c SO3 (iii) Square pyramidal
II. Bromoethane and chloroethane d XeO3 (iv) Trigonal planar
III. Carbon disulphide + acetone (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
IV. Ethanol + water (2) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(1) I and II only (2) III and IV only (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) I, II and III only (4) II, III and IV only (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
12/24
99. The correct statements among the following are 100. The class of product obtained in the following
I. Glycine is optically inactive amino acid. reaction is
II. During denaturation, primary structure of protein R–CH2–Cl + AgCN →
gets destroyed. (1) Nitrile
III. Amino acids are amphoteric in nature in zwitter
(2) Isonitrile
ionic form.
(1) I and III only (2) II and III only (3) Nitroalkane
(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III (4) Alkyl nitrite
[BOTANY]
SECTION-A a. Hydrilla b. Zostera
101. Which of the following options does not differentiate c. Vallisneria d. Water hyacinth
between conidia and zoospore? e. Water lily
Zoospore Conidia (1) Four

(2) Two
(1) Flagellated Non-flagellated
(3) Three
(2) Motile Non-motile
(4) Five
(3) Endogenous Exogenous 104. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. apomixis.
(1) Apomixis is defined as production of seeds
(4) Formed under Formed under
without fertilisation.
favourable unfavourable
conditions only conditions only (2) Apomictic embryos are genetically similar.
(3) It is a type of sexual reproduction where ovules
102. Asexual reproduction
form seeds.
(1) Can occur with or without gametic fusion
(4) Apomictic embryos can be developed from
(2) Can occur through specialised or unspecialised nucellar cells, integuments etc.
parts of parent
105. In a cross between male and female, both
(3) Is complex and slow process of reproduction heterozygous for Phenylketonuria, what percentage
of progeny can be diseased?
(4) Can be uniparental or biparental
(1) 25% (2) 50%
103. In how many of the following, pollen grains are
carried by water currents? (3) 75% (4) 100%
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106. Select the incorrect match. 110. Which of the following features in cotton varieties
provides protection from bollworms?
(1) Co- F1 progeny resembles both
(1) Solid stem
dominance parents
(2) Hairy leaves
(2) Pleiotropy One gene may produce more
(3) Smooth leaves and nectar less plant
than one effect
(4) High aspartic acid and nitrogen content
(3) Polygenic Skin color in man
111. Match the following columns and select the correct
inheritance
option.
(4) Incomplete AB blood group in humans. Column I Column II
dominance
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Lactobacillus
107. The process of translation begins when b. Streptokinase (ii) Aspergillus niger
(1) tRNA binds with amino acid c. Citric acid (iii) Trichoderma
(2) There is inactivation of amino acids polysporum
(3) The small subunit of ribosome encounters d. Lactic acid (iv) Streptococcus
mRNA a b c d
(4) The large subunit of ribosome binds with mRNA (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
108. During transcription in eukaryotes, RNA polymerase (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
II transcribes
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) The RNA which is a part of ribosome
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) The RNA which brings amino acids during
translation 112. Which of the following is not a fermented product of
bacteria?
(3) Precursor of mRNA
(1) Dosa (2) Idli
(4) tRNA and snRNA
(3) Bread (4) Swiss cheese
109. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Meristem culture – Virus free plants 113. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(2) Protoplast fusion – Pomato
A. If a country has small number of pre-
(3) Single cell protein – Unicellular organisms
reproductive individuals followed by a large
used as source of food. number of reproductive individuals then it shows
(4) Callus – has differentiated cells negative growth.
only B. Bell shaped pyramid shows stable growth.
14/24
(1) Only statement A is correct 119. Biomagnification of DDT in an aquatic food chain is
due to non-biodegradable nature of DDT. Maximum
(2) Only statement B is correct
DDT concentration will be seen in
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(1) Water (2) Zooplanktons
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Small fishes (4) Fish eating birds
114. Clownfish that lives among sea anemone gets
120. Green muffler scheme was helpful to prevent
protection from predators.
(1) Noise pollution (2) Water pollution
Above population interaction shows
(3) Radioactive pollution (4) Nuclear pollution
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
121. The organelles that are included in the
(3) Competition (4) Protocooperation
endomembrane system
115. Select the incorrect match. (1) Are double membrane bound
(1) Producers – Tree (2) Have coordinated functions
(2) Primary consumers – Cow (3) Help in energy (ATP) synthesis
(3) Top carnivores – Humans (4) Have their own DNA
(4) Herbivores – Snakes 122. Cell organelles do not duplicate in
116. In the given food chain maximum energy is present (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
at which trophic level?
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
123. Triticum aestivum is not classified in the category
D C B A
named as
(1) A (2) B (1) Poaceae (2) Monocotyledonae
(3) C (4) D (3) Polymoniales (4) Angiospermae
117. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity held 124. Which of the following spores are aplanospores
in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is called produced during favourable conditions in fungi?
(1) The World Summit (2) Kyoto protocol a. Sporangiospores b. Zoospores
(3) The Earth Summit (4) Montreal Protocol c. Chlamydospores
118. Which of the given is not included in ‘ex-situ’ (1) Only a
conservation strategies?
(2) All a, b and c
(1) Wildlife safari parks (2) Sacred groves
(3) Only c
(3) Botanical gardens (4) Zoological parks (4) Only b
15/24
125. Which of the following does not contain double (3) Require concentration gradient
stranded DNA? (4) Respond to protein inhibitors
(1) E. coli (2) Mycoplasma
131. All of the following become toxic in slight excess,
(3) QB bacteriophage (4) Cyanobacteria except
126. Select the incorrect match. (1) Cu (2) Mn
(1) Sweet pea – Leaves modify into (3) Mg (4) Mo
tendrils 132. Select the incorrect match.
(2) Aloe – Leaves modify into spines
(1) Primary CO2 acceptor – RuBP
(3) Bougainvillea – Leaves modify into spines in C3 plants
(4) Grape vine – Axillary buds modify into
(2) Primary CO2 acceptor – PEP
tendrils
in C4 plants
127. Ovary is inferior in
(1) China rose (3) First stable product – Glucose
formed in C3 plants
(2) Potato
(3) Tulip
(4) Ray florets of sunflower (4) First stable product – Organic acid
128. Vascular bundles of monocot stem differ from dicot formed in C4 plants
stem as former are
(1) Open (2) Scattered
133. In aerobic prokaryotes, Krebs’ cycle takes place in
(3) Conjoint (4) Of uniform size
(1) Cytoplasm
129. Both Selaginella and Salvinia
(2) Mitochondrial matrix
(1) Are aquatic ferns
(3) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(2) Produce seeds
(4) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(3) Produce two kind of spores
134. Due to the apical dominance,
(4) Lack vascular tissues
(1) The lateral buds do not grow
130. Facilitated diffusion does not
(2) Apical buds do not grow
(1) Require energy (ATP)
(3) Bushy growth of plants take place
(2) Require membrane proteins
(4) Lateral buds start developing into branches
16/24
135. Select the incorrect option about apoplast pathway 140. Prop roots are similar to stilt roots as both
in plants. (1) Arise from heavy branches to support main
(1) Consists of non-living parts of the plant body. stem
(2) Casparian strips block the pathway beyond (2) Do not arise from radicle
endodermis in roots.
(3) Are seen in dicots only
(3) It does not involve crossing the cell membrane. (4) Absorb water and minerals
(4) It is not dependent on the gradient.
141. The innermost layer of cortex
SECTION-B
(1) Has cells which do not possess cell walls
136. During biological nitrogen fixation, there is
(2) Has casparian strips in roots
conversion of
(3) Is called pericycle
(1) N2 → NH3 (2) NH3 → NO2–
(4) Is a constituent of stele
(3) NO → NO
–
2
–
3 (4) NO → N2
–
3 142. In Red algae, the stored food is
137. Mark the incorrect statement about microtubules. (1) Cellulose (2) Starch
(1) Proteinaceous structure (3) Floridean starch (4) Mannitol
(2) Found in eukaryotes 143. Photosystem I and II both are
(3) Seen in centrioles but not in cilia and flagella (1) Involved in splitting of water
(4) Helps in formation of mitotic apparatus (2) Located on stroma lamellae
138. Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place in (3) Involved in photophosphorylation
(1) Diakinesis (2) Zygotene (4) Devoid of chlorophyll a
(3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene 144. Respiratory quotient (RQ) value of protein is
139. Which of the following kingdoms contain autotrophic (1) 0.7 (2) 0.9
organisms?
(3) 0.1 (4) 4.0
a. Monera b. Protista
145. Which of the following alcoholic beverages is not
c. Plantae d. Fungi produced by distillation?
(1) Only a and c (1) Whisky
(2) Only a, b and c (2) Beer
(3) Only c (3) Brandy
(4) Only b, c and d
(4) Rum
17/24
146. Wheat variety with high protein content has been (1) Only b
used as a donor for improving cultivated wheat is (2) Only a
(1) Ratna
(3) Only a and c
(2) Atlas 66
(4) Only b and c
(3) Jaya 149. Most important cause driving animals and plants to
(4) Himgiri extinction is
147. In which of the following only one species is (1) Over-exploitation
benefitted?
(2) Co-evolution
(1) Proto-cooperation
(3) Co-extinction
(2) Amensalism
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Commensalism 150. Which gas has maximum contribution to total global
(4) Mutualism warming?
148. Which of the following are true for tree ecosystem? (1) N2O
a. Upright pyramid of energy (2) CFCs
b. Inverted pyramid of biomass (3) CO2
c. Upright pyramid of number (4) CH4
[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A
153. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. animal
151. All of the following are primary functions of epithelial tissues present in humans.
tissue, except
(1) Protection (2) Secretion (1) Brush border columnar epithelium is present at
the inner lining of intestine and PCT.
(3) Absorption (4) Excitation
152. Which of the following is not a secondary (2) The fibres of connective tissue provide strength,
metabolite? elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.
(1) Morphine
(3) Cartilage have a solid and pliable matrix devoid
(2) Amino acids of inorganic salts.
(3) Gums
(4) Gap junction may be present in epithelial,
(4) Abrin muscular and neural tissues.
18/24
154. Glycosidic bond is present in between 159. In human dentition, premolars are
(1) Adenine and thymine (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont
(2) Deoxyribose sugar and H3PO4 (2) Thecodont, Monophyodont

(3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont
(3) Nitrogen bases and deoxyribose sugar
(4) Thecodont, Pleurodont
(4) Purine and pyrimidine
160. The first movement of foetus can be observed
155. -1-antitrypsin is used to treat during which month of pregnancy?
(1) Cancer (2) Cystic fibrosis (1) Fourth month
(3) Emphysema (4) Alzheimer’s (2) Second month
156. Which of the following pathogens have ability to (3) Fifth month
transform normal cells into tumor cells in plants and (4) First month
animals, respectively?
161. All of the following are not a part of renal tubule,
(1) Retroviruses and Agrobacterium tumefaciens except
(2) Meloidogyne incognita and Retroviruses (1) Collecting duct
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Retroviruses (2) Glomerulus
(4) Salmonella typhimurium and Retroviruses (3) Distal convoluted tubule

(4) Afferent arteriole
157. The separated bands of DNA are cut from the
agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece by a 162. What is the correct physiological value of protein in
step known as humans?
(1) Spooling (1) 9.0 kcal/g
(2) Elution (2) 4.0 kcal/g

(3) 5.65 kcal/g
(3) Transformation
(4) 4.1 kcal/g
(4) Cloning
163. Choose the correct option to complete the analogy.
158. Choose the incorrect match.
Periplaneta : Malpighian tubule :: ___: Green gland
(1) Cross-breed – Hisardale
(1) Land snail
(2) Improved breed - Leghorn
(2) Prawn
(3) Interspecific hybridization - Mule (3) Liver fluke
(4) MOET – Semen is used in frozen form (4) Rohu
19/24
164. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option. 167. Read the following statements A and B. Choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
List-I List-II
Statement A: The primary and secondary immune
a. Morphine (i) Interfere with transport responses are carried out with the help of both B –
of dopamine lymphocytes and T – lymphocytes.
Statement B: Subsequent encounter with the same
b. Hashish (ii) Binds to receptors pathogen elicits a highly intensified amnestic
present in the CNS and response.
GIT
(1) Both statements are correct
c. Cocaine (iii) Plant with property (2) Only statement A is incorrect
similar to Datura
(3) Both statements are incorrect
d. Atropa (iv) Obtained from plant (4) Only statement B is incorrect

belladonna Cannabis sativa 168. Which among the following is universal acceptor of
blood?
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) O +ve (2) AB +ve
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(3) AB –ve (4) O –ve
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
169. What is approximate ratio of tidal volume to vital
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) capacity in a healthy human during normal
physiological conditions?
165. Which of the following process is not associated
with female reproductive system? (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 9
(1) Capacitation (2) Acrosomal reaction (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 7
(3) Fertilization (4) Vasectomy 170. Which of the following is the correct statement for
the respiration in humans?
166. A male is exhibiting aggressiveness, mood swings,
reduction in size of testicles, oligospermia, (1) Workers in grinding and stone breaking
gynaecomastia and premature baldness. He is industries may suffer from lung fibrosis.
possibly taking (2) About 25% of CO2 is transported as carboxy-
haemoglobin in blood.
(1) Heroin
(3) Cigarette smoking may lead to collapse of
(2) Bhang
alveoli called pneumonia.
(3) Anabolic steroids
(4) Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in
(4) Cocaine medulla may increase breathing rate.
20/24
171. Read the following steps involved in inspiration and 175. All of the following are examples of adaptive
select the physiologically incorrect step. radiation in animals, except
(1) Contraction of diaphragm and external inter- (1) Darwin’s finches on Galapagos islands
costal muscles (2) Industrial melanism
(2) Decrease in intrapulmonary pressure (3) Tasmanian wolf and tiger cat
(3) Air rushes into lungs under positive pressure of (4) Wombat and bandicoot
alveoli 176. Which of the following is industrial pollution
indicator?
(4) Volume of thorax increases in antero-posterior
and dorso-ventral axis (1) Cycas (2) Lichen
172. Choose the incorrect match. (3) Fruit fly (4) Peppered moth
177. Which of the given has highest cranial capacity?
(1) Fishes – Double circulation
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus
(2) Amphibians – Mixed circulation (3) Neanderthal man (4) Australopithecines
178. Statocysts act as a balancing organ in
(3) Birds – Double circulation
(1) Liver fluke (2) Prawn
(4) Reptiles – Mixed circulation (3) Silkworm (4) Penguin
179. Choose the incorrect match.
173. In each cardiac cycle, semilunar valves remain open
only during (1) Exocoetus – Presence of air bladder
(1) Ventricular diastole (2) Joint diastole (2) Trygon – Electric organ
(3) Rana – Tympanum represents ear
(3) Auricular systole (4) Ventricular systole
(4) Neophron – Air sacs supplement respiration
174. In his simulating experiment, S.L. Miller created
similar conditions by using electrical discharge in a 180. Read the following statements A and B w.r.t.
closed flask containing cockroach and choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
(1) CH4, NH3, H2 and O2 at 600°C
Statement A: In male cockroach, genital pouch
(2) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour at 600°C contains dorsal anus, ventral male genital pore and
gonapophysis.
(3) CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour at 800°C
Statement B: The head is connected with prothorax
(4) CH4, NH3, H2 and N2 at 800°C by a short extension of head known as the neck.
21/24
(1) Both statements A and B are correct SECTION-B

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect 186. “Ramachandran plot” is used to confirm the
(3) Only statement A is correct structure of
(4) Only statement B is correct (1) Sucrose (2) DNA
181. Which of the following is a type of movement (3) Collagen (4) Cholesterol
exhibited by human sperms?
187. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. phylum
(1) Amoeboid (2) Ciliary
Chordata.
(3) Muscular (4) Flagellar
(1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates
182. In the resting state, subunit of which of the following
are not vertebrates.
masks the active binding sites for myosin on the
actin filament? (2) All vertebrates are homeotherms but all
(1) Troponin (2) Tropomyosin homeotherms are not vertebrates.
(3) Meromyosin (4) F-actin (3) All vertebrates are gnathostomes but all
183. All of the following bones in human body participate gnathostomes are not vertebrates.
in the formation of rib cage, except (4) All tetrapods have limbs except mammals.
(1) Clavicles (2) Sternum
188. Choose the incorrect statement.
(3) Ribs (4) Thoracic vertebrae
(1) Tetany is wild contractions (spasms) in muscles
184. Amygdala is a part of a complex structure called the
due to low calcium in body fluids.
(1) Endocrine system
(2) Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder
(2) Limbic lobe/system
characterised by progressive degeneration of
(3) Adreno-sympathetic system skeletal muscles.
(4) Motor end plate (3) Gout is inflammation of joints due to
185. Choose the correct match. accumulation of uric acid crystals.
(4) Myasthenia gravis is a genetic disorder affecting
(1) Adrenal medulla Islets of
smooth muscles.
Langerhans
189. Select the odd one w.r.t. cornea.
(2) Hypothalamus Neurosecretory
cells (1) Proteinaceous
(2) Transparent
(3) Pars distalis Catecholamines
(3) Highly vascularised
(4) Pancreas Gonadotropins
(4) Most sensitive part of eye
22/24
190. Choose the incorrect match. 195. Choose the incorrect match.
(1) Addison’s disease – Deficiency of (1) Gametogenesis – Formation of

corticoids gametes
(2) Cretinism – Hypothyroidism (2) Insemination – Release of semen

during pregnancy from Sertoli cells
(3) Diabetes insipidus – Deficiency of (3) Gestation – Embryonic

ADH development
(4) Gigantism – Deficiency of (4) Parturition – Delivery of baby

somatotropins
196. Which of the following is method of traditional
191. Choose the odd one w.r.t. function of contraception?
glucocorticoids. (1) IUDs
(1) Gluconeogenesis (2) Condoms
(2) Lipolysis (3) Lactational amenorrhea
(3) Proteolysis (4) Sterilization
(4) Enhances immune response 197. Choose the incorrect match.
192. Colour vision is the function of (1) Amoebiasis – Housefly acts as mechanical
(1) Cones (2) Rods vector
(3) Cornea (4) Pupil (2) Ascariasis – Infection through

contaminated food and water
193. Which of the following is a method of birth control?
(3) Malaria – Vector borne protozoan
(1) IVF – ET (2) GIFT
disease
(3) IUT (4) IUD
(4) Ringworms – Vector borne fungal disease
194. Proinsulin differs from mature insulin in
198. Assertion (A) – Zygote is considered as the vital
(1) Number of amino acids in A-chain link.
(2) Number of polypeptide chains Reason (R) – Zygote ensures continuity of species
(3) Number of disulphide bonds between organisms of one generation and the next.
(4) Presence of B-peptide chain In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
23/24
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct A B C D
explanation of (A)
(1) Yolk sac Cavity of Mucus plug Placental
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
uterus villi
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false (2) Yolk sac Mucus Placental Cavity of
plug in villi uterus
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true cervix
199. The figure given below represents human foetus
(3) Umbilical Mucus Cavity of Placental
within the uterus. Identify A, B, C and D. Choose the
cord plug uterus villi
correct option.
(4) Yolk sac Placental Mucus plug Cavity of
villi uterus
200. Which of the following initiates a neural reflex

causing an urge for removal of faeces in humans?
(1) Defaecation
(2) Mass peristaltic movement
(3) Faeces in the rectum
(4) Voluntary effort
❑ ❑ ❑
24/24

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09-04-2023

Medical Entrance Exam - 2023

OPEN MOCK TEST No. 1

Complete Syllabus of NEET

MM : 720 OPEN MOCK TEST - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

SECTION-A 5. Choose the correct variation of magnetic

4. Two point charges, 4 C and 16 C are placed (2) 

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(1) 0° (2) 45° E E

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26. The ratio of average total kinetic energy of neon

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(3) 40iˆ (4) 40 Jˆ

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(3) (4) Ba2 Ba2

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45. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a (1) [M1L1T–1] (2) [M0L–1T1]

(where  is the coefficient of viscosity of liquid)

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(1) (CH3)3C – I + CH3CH2–I

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(1) (3) (4)

(4) (1) 1.9 × 10–3 mol L–1

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(3) I and II only (4) I, II and III (4) Alkyl nitrite

Zoospore Conidia (1) Four

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only B. Bell shaped pyramid shows stable growth.

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(1) Adenine and thymine (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont

(2) Deoxyribose sugar and H3PO4 (2) Thecodont, Monophyodont

(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens and Retroviruses (2) Glomerulus

(4) Salmonella typhimurium and Retroviruses (3) Distal convoluted tubule

(1) Spooling (1) 9.0 kcal/g

(2) Elution (2) 4.0 kcal/g

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d. Atropa (iv) Obtained from plant (4) Only statement B is incorrect

(1) Capacitation (2) Acrosomal reaction (3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 7

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(1) Both statements A and B are correct SECTION-B

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(1) Addison’s disease – Deficiency of (1) Gametogenesis – Formation of

(2) Cretinism – Hypothyroidism (2) Insemination – Release of semen

(3) Diabetes insipidus – Deficiency of (3) Gestation – Embryonic

(4) Gigantism – Deficiency of (4) Parturition – Delivery of baby

(3) Cornea (4) Pupil (2) Ascariasis – Infection through

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200. Which of the following initiates a neural reflex

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