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PHYSICS

Q. 1 (CST-05) (Temperatures Dependence of 3. Assertion (A): Thin films such as soap bubble
Resistivity) or a thin layer of oil on water show beautiful
colours when illuminated by white light.
1. The dimensional formula of thermal coefficient
Reason (R): It happens due to the dispersion
of electric resistance of any wire is
of light reflected from the upper surface of thin
(1) [ML3T–3A–2] film.
(2) [ML3T–3A–2–1] (1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
(3) [ML2T–3] correct and reason is the correct
(4) [M0L0T0–1] explanation for assertion
2. For which of the following material, the (2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
temperature coefficient of electric resistance correct but reason is not the correct
will be negative explanation for assertion
(1) Copper (2) Germanium (3) Assertion (A) is correct but reason (R) is
incorrect
(3) Tungsten (4) Aluminium
(4) Assertion (R) is incorrect but reason (R) is
3. Nichrome, manganin and constantan are
correct
widely used in wire bound standard resistors
Q. 14 (CST-05) (Microscopic Domain)
because
1. What are the two principal thrust in Physics?
(1) Resistivity is independent of temperature
(1) Unification and reduction
(2) Strong dependence of resistivity with
temperature (2) Unification and oxidation
(3) Very weak dependence of resistivity with (3) Simplification and reduction
temperature (4) Oxidation and reduction
(4) None of these 2. The branch of science which deals with nature
Q. 5 (CST-05) (Interference of Light and Young’s and natural phenomena is called
Double Slit Experiment) (1) Mathematics (2) Civics

1. On a rainy day, small oil films on water shown (3) Sociology (4) Physics
brilliant colours. This is due to 3. Electron microscope is based on which
(1) Dispersion scientific principle?
(2) Total internal reflection (1) Digital logic
(3) Polarization (2) Reflection of ultrasonic waves
(4) Interference (3) Light amplification by stimulated emission
2. Colours appear on a thin soap film and on of radiation
soap bubbles due to phenomenon of (4) Wave nature of electrons
(1) Interference Q. 3 (CST-05) (Electric Potential)
(2) Dispersion 1. Electric field in a region along x-axis varies as
(3) Refraction shown in the graph. If potential at x = 0 is –10V,
(4) Total internal reflection then potential at x = 25 m is

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Physics

3
(1) V0 (2) V0
2
3
(3) 2 V0 V0 (4)
4
3. The work done by the gas during the process
AB as shown, is

(1) 110 V (2) –190 V

(3) 210 V (4) –210 V
2. Potential in a region is varies as shown in the
graph. The magnitude of electric field at r = 10
m is 3
(1) P0V0 (2) P0V0
2
5
(3) 2 P0V0 (4) P0V0
2
Q. 18 (CST-06) (Ohm’s Law)
1. The Resistance of a metallic conductor
decreases with
(1) Increase in temperature of conductor
(1) 50 V/m (2) 150 V/m
(3) 100 V/m (4) Zero (2) Increases in length of conductor
3. Choose the correct relation between electric (3) Increase in cross-sectional area of
field and potential difference in a space.
r r r r conductor
(1) V   E·dr (2) V  –  E·dr
(4) Decrease in cross-sectional area of
r r r r
(3) E  V ·r (4) E  –V ·r conductor
Q. 50 (CST-05) (Thermodynamics) 2. The specific resistance of a conductor
1. Two moles of an ideal gas expands by the depends on
process AB as shown in figure. If the initial
temperature of gas at A is T0, then its (1) Temperature of conductor
temperature at point B is (2) Nature of material of conductor
(3) Cross-sectional area or conductor
(4) Both (1) and (2)
3. Resistance of a conductor is
(1) Directly proportional to potential difference
applied
(1) T0 (2) 2T0
(2) Inversely proportional to current flowing
(3) 3T0 (4) –T0
2. One mole of an ideal gas expands by the through it
process AB as shown in figure. The value of (3) Independent of potential difference applied
volume at which temperature is maximum
during the process AB is and current flowing through it
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Q. 20 (CST-06) (Theorem of Parallel Axis)
1. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular ring
of radius R and mass M, about tangential axis
in the plane of ring is

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Physics

MR 2 Q. 24 (CST-06) (Logic Gates)

(1) MR2 (2)
2 1. Which of the following table given below is for
3 5 NAND gate?
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
2 4
2. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
of radius R and mass M, about tangential axis
perpendicular to the plane of disc is (1) (2)

MR 2
(1) MR2 (2)
2
3 5
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
2 4
3. The moment of inertia of a uniform spherical
shell of mass m and radius r about tangential (3) (4)
axis is
2 5
(1) mr 2 (2) mr 2
3 3 2. The truth table for the gate given below in the
diagram
7 3
(3) mr 2 (4) mr 2
5 5
Q. 8 (CST-06) (Mirror Equation)
1. An object is placed at a distance F in front of
convex mirror then the image will be formed (F
is focal length)
(1) (2)
(1) At infinity
(2) At a distance F/2 behind the mirror
(3) At the principal focus
(4) Between principal focus and centre of
curvature
2. The ray of light approaching parallel to
principal axis for a convex mirror will converge (3) (4)
at (symbols have there usual meaning)
(1) At distance f behind the mirror
(2) At distance f in front of mirror 3. For the logic gate given below if A and B are
(3) At distance 2f behind the mirror the in put the output of the gate will be
(4) At distance 2f in front of mirror
3. A convex mirror is forming the image of an
object 120 cm behind the mirror, when object
is placed at a distance 240 cm in front of (1) AB (2) AB
mirror, then focal length of mirror will be
(3) A  B (4) A  B
(1) 60 cm (2) 240 cm
(3) 120 cm (4) 40 cm
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03 (Physics)
Answer Key

Q. 1 (CST-05) (Temperatures Dependence of Q. 50 (CST-05) (Thermodynamics)

Resistivity) 1. (1)
1. (4) 2. (2)
2. (2) 3. (2)
3. (3) Q. 18 (CST-06) (Ohm’s Law)
Q. 5 (CST-05) (Interference of Light and Young’s 1. (3)
Double Slit Experiment) 2. (4)
1. (4) 3. (3)
2. (1) Q. 20 (CST-06) (Theorem of Parallel Axis)
3. (3) 1. (3)
Q. 14 (CST-05) (Microscopic Domain) 2. (3)
1. (1) 3. (2)
2. (4) Q. 8 (CST-06) (Mirror Equation)
3. (4) 1. (2)
Q. 3 (CST-05) (Electric Potential) 2. (1)
1. (4) 3. (2)
2. (4) Q. 24 (CST-06) (Logic Gates)
3. (2) 1. (3)
2. (3)
3. (1)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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CHEMISTRY
Q. 96. (CST-05) (Aromatic Hydrocarbons) 3. If a hydrogen like species has ionisation energy
1. Which among the following is optically active of 96 eV per atom, then energy of electron in
molecule?
fourth Bohr orbit of atom will be
(1) H2C=C=CH2 (2) Cl2C=C=CHCl
(1) – 24 eV (2) – 6 eV
(3) ClHC=C=CHCl (4) Cl2C=C=CCl2
2. Heterocyclic aromatic compound among the (3) – 48 eV (4) – 12 eV
following is
4. Energy difference E
n2 – En1  of electron

(1) (2) between two energy level n1 and n2 for

hydrogen atom will be (n2 > n1)

(3) (4)  1 1
(1) 13.6  n22 – n12  (2) – 13.6  2 – 2 
3. Which of the following will not show keto enol  n1 n2 
tautomerism?
13.6  1 1
(1) CH3CHO (3) (4) 13.6  2 – 2 
n – n12
2
2  n1 n2 
(2) H3C–CH2–CH=CH–OH
(3) (CH3)3C–CHO Q.57. (CST-05) (Viscosity and Surface Tension)
(4) CH3COCH3
1. 1 poise is equal to
4. Which of the following will have maximum enol
content? (1) 10–1 kg m–1s–1 (2) 10–3 kg m–1s–1

(3) 10–6 kg m–1s–1 (4) 10–2 kg m–1s–1

(1) (2)
2. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Viscosity of liquids decreases as
(3) temperature rises.
(4) Statement II: Ethylene glycol is more viscous
than ethanol.
Q.89. (CST-05) (Bohr's Model for Hydrogen Atom) In light of the above statements, choose the
1. Which of the following transition will emit photon correct answer
with maximum wavelength for hydrogen atom? (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(1) 2  1 (2) 3  2 (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(3) 4  2 (4) 3  1 (3) Both the statements I and II are correct
2. Energy of electron in 3rd Bohr's orbit of Li2+ ion (4) Both the statements I and II are incorrect

will be 3. SI unit of surface tension is

(1) Nm–2 (2) Nm–1
(1) – 13.6 eV (2) – 122.4 eV
(3) Nm–3 (4) Nsm–2
(3) – 54.4 eV (4) – 3.4 eV

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Chemistry

4. Consider the following statements: Q. 63. (CST-06) (Packing Efficiency in Cubic Unit Cell)
(a) The energy required to increase the surface 1. The total member of carbon atoms per unit cell
of diamond is
area of the liquid by one unit is defined as
(1) 4 (2) 8
surface energy.
(3) 12 (4) 2
(b) The magnitude of surface tension of a liquid 2. The effective number of atoms present in fcc
depends on the attractive forces between unit cell is
the molecules. (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 8
(c) Surface tension decreases as the
3. The ratio of effective numbers of atoms present
temperature is raised. in BCC unit cell to simple cubic unit cell is
The correct statements are (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(1) (a) and (b) only (3) 4 : 3 (4) 1 : 4

(2) (b) and (c) only 4. An atom present at the edge centre of cubic unit
cell is shared between n number of unit cell. The
(3) (a) and (c) only value of n is
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 8 (4) 6
Q.68. (CST-05) (Nucleic Acids)
Q.68. (CST-06) (Depression in Freezing Point)
1. Number of –OH groups present in -D-ribose is
(1) 6 (2) 4 1. Calculate the depression in freezing point when
11.1 g CaCl2 is mixed with 250 g of water (Kf of
(3) 5 (4) 3 H2O is 1.86 K kg mol–1)
2. Purine base among the following is (Assume 100% ionisation of CaCl2)
(1) Uracil (2) Thymine (1) 1.48 K (2) 2.23 K
(3) Cytosine (4) Adenine (3) 2.49 K (4) 1.86 K
3. The base which is absent in RNA is 2. The van't Hoff factor(i) for a dilute aqueous
(1) Thymine (2) Guanine solution of the strong electrolyte (100%
ionisation) sodium chloride is
(3) Uracil (4) Adenine
(1) 0 (2) 1
Q. 53. (CST-06) (Back Bonding) (3) 2 (4) 3
1. Which of the following is the strongest Lewis acid?
3. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HA)
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3 is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1,
(4) BBr3 (4) BI3 the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
2. In which of the following species, the central atom is (1) 0.22 K (2) 0.56 K
sp2 hybridized? (3) 0.43 K (4) 0.38 K
(1) N(CH3)3 (2) N(SiH3)3 Q.79. (CST-06) (Chemical Bonding (VSERPR):
(3) NH3 (4) NF3 1. The molecule with square pyramidal shape is
3. Consider the following statements (1) XeF4 (2) BrF5
Statement I: B-F bond length in BF3 in shorter than (3) PCl5 (4) XeO3
–
in BF .
4 2. Choose the incorrect match from the following
Statement II: The bond order of B-F bond in (1) CCl4 – Tetrahedral
BF3 is greater than 1. (2) SF4 – See-saw
(1) Both the statements I and II are correct (3) ClF3 – Bent T-shaped
(2) Both the statements I and II are incorrect (4) O3 – Linear
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is 3. The molecule with the maximum number of lone
incorrect pairs at central atom is
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) SO2 (2) H2O
correct (3) CO2 (4) O3
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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CHEMISTRY
Answer Key
Q. 96. (CST-05) (Aromatic Hydrocarbons) Q. 53. (CST-06) (Back Bonding)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (2)
2. (2)
3. (3)
3. (1)
4. (3)
Q. 63. (CST-06) (Packing Efficiency in Cubic Unit Cell)
Q.89. (CST-05) (Bohr's Model for Hydrogen Atom)
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (2)
Q.57. (CST-05) (Viscosity and Surface Tension) Q.68. (CST-06) (Depression in Freezing Point)

1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (3) 2. (3)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (4) Q.79. (CST-06) (Chemical Bonding (VSERPR):
Q.68. (CST-05) (Nucleic Acids) 1. (2)
1. (4) 2. (4)
2. (4) 3. (2)
3. (1)
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BOTANY

CST-05: Q.No.101 (The Living World: Taxonomical CST-05: Q.No.118 (Cell: The unit of Life: Eukaryotic
Aids) cells)
1. All of the following botanical gardens are found in 1. The space limited by thylakoid membrane is
India, except (1) Stroma (2) Lumen
(1) Llyod Botanical Garden (3) Matrix (4) Vacuole
(2) Royal Botanical Garden 2. Stroma is the space enclosed by
(3) Indian Botanical Garden (1) Inner chloroplast membrane
(4) National Botanical Garden (2) Outer chloroplast membrane
2. Indian Botanical Garden is situated in (3) Thylakoid membrane
(1) Darjeeling (4) Stromal lamellae
(2) Lucknow 3. Chloroplasts contain ribosomes of Svedberg’s
(3) England value (S) of
(4) Howrah (1) 50 (2) 70
3. Which among the following is not situated in (3) 80 (4) 90
Delhi? CST-05: Q.No.121 (Reproduction in Organisms:
a. National Museum of Natural History Sexual Reproduction)
b. National Botanical Garden 1. Monocarpic plants
c. National Zoological Park (1) Flower repeatedly at fixed intervals
(1) Both a and b (2) Only a (2) Always bear flowers throughout the year
(3) Only b (4) Both b and c (3) Flower only once in their life
CST-05: Q.No.131 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: (4) Have recovery phase between two flowering
The DNA) phases
1. The genetic material of ϕ × 174 bacteriophage is 2. ___________ is a polycarpic plant.
(1) Linear ssDNA (2) Circular ssDNA Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option
(3) Linear ssRNA (4) Circular dsDNA (1) Wheat (2) Mango
2. Which bond holds together two strands in a (3) Rice (4) Marigold
double stranded DNA? 3. Which among the following is annual monocarpic
(1) Covalent bond plant?
(2) Phosphodiester bond (1) Carrot (2) Radish
(3) Hydrogen bond (3) Henbane (4) Wheat
(4) N-glycosidic bond CST-05: Q.No.111 (Cell Cycle and Cell Division:
3. Which bond is absent in a single stranded nucleic Phases of the cell cycle)
acid? 1. Most of the cell organelles, except mitochondria,
(1) Hydrogen bond chloroplast and golgi apparatus duplicate during
which phase of cell cycle?
(2) Phosphodiester bond
(1) G1 Phase (2) G2 Phase
(3) N-glycosidic bond
(3) G0 Phase (4) S Phase
(4) Covalent bond

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Botany

2. Duplication of centrioles in cytoplasm of animal 3. Which of the following pigments is/are present in
cells, occurs during which phase of cell cycle? the reaction centre of photosystem?
(1) G0 Phase (2) S Phase (1) Only chlorophyll a
(3) G2 Phase (4) G1 Phase (2) Chlorophyll a and carotenoids
3. G2 phase of cell cycle is concerned with (3) Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
(1) Synthesis of histone proteins (4) Only chlorophyll b
(2) Duplication of DNA content CST-06: Q.No.104 (Principles of Inheritance and
(3) Duplication of mitochondria and chloroplasts Variation: Genetic Disorders)
(4) Formation of mitotic spindle 1. Which of the following phenomena lead(s) to
variation in DNA?
CST-05: Q.No.135 (Environmental Issues: Solid
wastes) (a) Recombination
1. One of the methods of solid wastes disposal is (b) Mutation
landfilling. In this process (c) Mitosis
(1) The wastes are used to construct roads The correct ones is/are
(2) Piling of wastes is done on selected low-lying (1) Only (b)
land (2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Anaerobic combustion of wastes is done (3) All (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Wastes are used as fertilizers in the fields (4) Only (b) and (c)
2. Landfills pollute the underground water resources 2. Read the following statements and choose the
because option which is true for them.
(1) Seepage of harmful chemicals from wastes Statement-1: DNA being the carrier of genetic
occurs to the underground water material, it should not show any change or
(2) Underground water cannot be drained out due alteration during transmission from one generation
to waste deposition to other.
(3) Soil at these places is not exposed to air for Statement-2: Alteration of DNA sequences
ventilation consequently results in changes in the
(4) Wastes in the landfills have microorganisms genotype and the phenotype of an organism.
3. The only solution of the treatment of hospital (1) Only statement-1 is correct
wastes is incineration because (2) Only statement-2 is correct
(1) Only non-biodegradable materials are present (3) Both the statements are correct
in these wastes (4) Both the statements are incorrect
(2) Hospital wastes are ecofriendly 3. The carrier of genetic information in all the
(3) These wastes can be used to produce other prokaryotes and eukaryotes is
products (1) DNA (2) mRNA
(4) Hospital wastes have harmful chemicals and (3) tRNA (4) Polypeptide
pathogenic micro-organisms
CST-05: Q.No.130 (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants:
Photosynthetic Pigments) CST-06: Q.No.109 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
Genetic Code)
1. The light harvesting complex of Photosystem II
has all of the following, except 1. Anticodon of tRNA is
(1) Light harvesting pigments (1) Complementary to codon
(2) Reaction centre (2) Identical to codon
(3) Antenna molecules (3) Similar to codon except it has U instead of T
(4) Proteins (4) Similar to codon except it has T instead of U
2. Select the incorrect statement from the following 2. Codon of a mRNA is read in direction from
(1) Reaction centre in the Photosystem is (1) 3’ to 5’ (2) 1’ to 3’
surrounded by a number of light harvesting (3) 5’ to 3’ (4) 5’ to 2’
pigment molecules 3. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t base
(2) Light harvesting complex of each photosystem pairing in nucleic acids?
has all the pigments, except one molecule of 1. A = T 2. T = U
chlorophyll a which forms the reaction center. 3. A = U 4. C ≡ G
(3) Only reaction centre of the Photosystem I and
II has chlorophyll a
(4) Light harvesting pigments include carotenoids

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Botany

CST-06: Q.No.112 (Environmental Issues: Air CST-06: Q.No.118 (Cell: The unit of Life: An
pollution and Its Control) Overview of Cell)
1. The collecting plates in the electrostatic 1. Which of the following is not an inclusion body?
precipitator (1) Contractile vacuole
(1) Can remove only 10% of the air pollutant (2) Gas vacuole
(2) Produce corona that release electron (3) Phosphate granules
(3) Are grounded and attract charged dust (4) Glycogen granules
particles
2. Which of the following prokaryotic structure is not
(4) Have electrodes which are maintained 100 bounded by any membrane system and lie free in
volts only. the cytoplasm?
2. Which among the following gives net negative (1) Fimbriae (2) Inclusion bodies
charge to the dust particles passing through
electrostatic precipitator? (3) Chromatophores (4) Pili
(1) Water molecules 3. In a prokaryotic cell, inclusion body is a storehouse
of
(2) Collecting plates
(1) Pigments
(3) Lime spray
(2) Reserve material
(4) Corona releasing electrons
(3) Enzymes
3. A scrubber can remove
(4) Genetic material
(1) Solid waste
CST-06: Q.No.123 (Strategies for Enhancement in
(2) Sulphur dioxide Food Production: Plant Breeding)
(3) Oxygen 1. Select the odd one out w.r.t. selection and testing
(4) Nitrogen of superior recombinants
CST-06: Q.No.121 (The Living World: Taxonomic (1) Crucial to the success of the breeding
Categories) experiment.
1. All of the following are orders, except (2) Only hybrids are produced in this step
(1) Primata (2) Diptera (3) It requires careful scientific evaluation of the
(3) Insecta (4) Poales progeny
2. Which of the following is the class of housefly? (4) Selected progenies are self-pollinated for
several generations till they reach
(1) Arthropoda (2) Insecta homozygosity.
(3) Diptera (4) Muscidae 2. Which of the following step of plant breeding is the
3. Rice and wheat belong to root of any breeding programme?
(1) Different families (1) Evaluation of parents
(2) Same order poales (2) Collection of variability
(3) Same class dicotyledonae (3) Selection of parents
(4) Different divisions (4) Cross-hybridisation among the selected
parents
3. Which of the following step of plant breeding is
very time consuming and tedious process?
(1) Collection of variability
(2) Evaluation of parents
(3) Cross-hybridisation among the selected
parents
(4) Selection of parents

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CST-05: Q.No.101 (The Living World: Taxonomical CST-06: Q.No.104 (Principles of Inheritance and
Aids) Variation: Genetic Disorders)
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (4) 2. (3)
3. (3) 3. (1)
CST-05: Q.No.131 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance: CST-06: Q.No.109 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
The DNA) Genetic Code)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (3) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (2)
CST-05: Q.No.118 (Cell: The unit of Life:
Eukaryotic cells) CST-06: Q.No.112 (Environmental Issues: Air
1. (2) pollution And Its Control)
2. (1) 1. (3)
3. (2) 2. (4)
CST-05: Q.No.121 (Reproduction in Organisms: 3. (2)
Sexual Reproduction) CST-06: Q.No.121 (The Living World Taxonomic
1. (3) Categories)
2. (2) 1. (3)
3. (4) 2. (2)
CST-05: Q.No.111 (Cell Cycle and Cell Division: 3. (2)
Phases of the cell cycle) CST-06: Q.No.118 (Cell: The unit of Life: An
1. (1) Overview of Cell)
2. (2) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (2)
CST-05: Q.No.135 (Environmental Issues: Solid 3. (2)
wastes) CST-06: Q.No.123 (Strategies for Enhancement in
1. (2) Food Production: Plant Breeding)
2. (1) 1. (2)
3. (4) 2. (2)
CST-05: Q.No.130 (Photosynthesis in Higher Plants: 3. (3)
Photosynthetic Pigments)
1. (2)
2. (3)
3. (1)
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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Zoology

Based on
CST-05 & CST-06

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03
ZOOLOGY

CST-05: Q.No.172 (Neural Control and 3. EcoRI produces 2 fragments of 8 kb each by

Coordination: Central Neural System) digestion of a dsDNA, then how many bands will
1. Myelin sheath is made up of which of the following be observed on agarose gel after electrophoresis?
biomolecules? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Protein and lipids (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Protein and carbohydrates 4. EcoRI produces 2 fragments of 10 kb and 6 kb
each by digestion of a dsDNA, then how many
(3) Nucleotide and carbohydrates
bands will be observed on agarose gel after
(4) Nucleotide only electrophoresis?
2. Myelin sheath is formed around (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) Cell body + Axon + dendrites (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Cell body + axon CST-05: Q.No.179 (Human Health and Disease:
Immunity)
(3) Cell body only
1. Each monomeric antibody molecule has
(4) Axon only
(1) Two light chains and two heavy chains
3. Myelin sheath is formed by ____ in CNS and by
______ in PNS. (2) One light chain and one heavy chain
(1) Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells (3) Two light chains and one heavy chain
(4) One light chain and two heavy chains
(2) Astrocytes, Schwann cells
2. How many interchain disulfide bonds are present
(3) Schwann cells, oligodendrocytes
in between light chain and heavy chain of a
(4) Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes monomeric antibody?
4. Schwan cells are a type of (1) One (2) Two
(1) Bipolar neurons (3) Three (4) Four
(2) Apolar neurons 3. Which of the following linkages are present in the
antibody molecule?
(3) Multipolar neurons
a. Interchain disulfide bonds
(4) Neuroglial cells
b. Intrachain disulfide bonds
CST-05: Q.No.154 (Biotechnology - Principles and
Processes: Tools of Recombinant DNA c. Inter and intrachain ester bonds
Technology) Choose the correct option.
1. If EcoRI digests a 16 kb circular dsDNA fragment (1) a only (2) a and b only
at two restriction sites, which are at an equal (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c only
distance from each other, then how many
4. How many disulfide bonds are present between
fragments will be formed?
one light and one heavy chain present in IgG?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) Two (2) Three
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) One (4) Four
2. If EcoRI digests a 16 kb circular dsDNA fragment CST-05: Q.No.180 (Animal Kingdom (Chordates):
at two restriction site, which are at an equal Classification of Protochordata or Acraniata)
distance from each other, then what will be the
1. Notochord is present only in larval tail in
length of two fragments respectively?
(1) Ascidia (2) Branchiostoma
(1) 4 kb and 12 kb (2) 10 kb and 6 kb
(3) Scoliodon (4) Pristis
(3) 8 kb and 8 kb (4) 5 kb and 9 kb

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Zoology

2. Notochord is persistent throughout their life in (3) Thermus aquaticus

(1) Amphioxus (2) Salpa (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Hippocampus (4) Magur 3. Modified Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3. Select the name of organism which possesses is used as a cloning vector for
cartilaginous endoskeleton with poison string. a. Monocot plants
(1) Torpedo (2) Trygon b. Dicot plants
(3) Pristis (4) Carcharodon c. Eukaryotic cells
4. Select the option which includes only Osteichthyes d. Viruses
organisms. How many of them are correct?
(1) Exocoetus, Betta, Petromyzon (1) 3 (2) 4
(2) Myxine, Clarias, Pterophylleum (3) 2 (4) 1
(3) Pterophyllum, Clarias, Labeo 4. First recombinant plasmid of salmonella was
(4) Labeo, Ichthyophis, Betta transformed into which of the following host?
CST-06: Q.No.166 (Evolution: Mechanism of (1) Haemophilus influenza
Evolution) (2) Thermus aquaticus
1. In which of the following period, tree trunks (3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
became dark due to industrial smoke and soot ?
(4) E.coli
(1) After industrialisation
CST-06: Q.No.169 (Biotechnology - Principles and
(2) Pre-industrialisation Processes: Processes of Recombinant DNA
(3) During industrialisation only Technologies)
(4) Prior to industrialisation and after 1. The large chambers called ________ are used to
industrialization culture microorganisms in a liquid/solid medium.
2. Which of the following moths were selected by Choose the option to fill the blank correctly
nature during post-industrialization period? (1) Conical flasks (2) Autoradiograph
(1) Red-coloured moths (3) Bioreactors (4) PCR machine
(2) White-coloured moths 2. The volume of culture can be processed in a
(3) Dark-coloured moths bioreactor, ranges between
(4) Grey-coloured moths (1) 10 L – 100 L (2) 50 L – 70 L
3. Choose the moths which did not survived due to (3) 100 L – 1000 L (4) 1200 L – 1800 L
predators during post industrialization. 3. The optimum growth conditions provided in a
(1) Red-coloured moths bioreactor do not include
(2) White-coloured moths (1) pH (2) CO2
(3) Dark-coloured moths (3) Temperature (4) O2
(4) Grey-coloured moths 4. The stirrer mainly facilitates
4. Melanised moths survided during (1) Oxygen availability
(1) Pre-industrialisation (2) Temperature control
(2) Industrialisation only (3) pH control
(3) Pre and post industrialisation (4) Product removal
(4) Post industrialisation CST-06: Q.No.180 (Animal Kingdom (Chordates):
CST-06: Q.No.167 (Human Health and Disease: Classification of Protochordata)
Common Diseases in Humans) 1. Select the correct option w.r.t. open circulatory
1. First restriction endonuclease Hind II was isolated system
from (1) Anopheles, Hirudinaria, Pheretima
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Leech, Pila, Periplaneta
(2) Haemophilus influenzae (3) Pheretima, Rattus, Pavo
(3) Thermus aquaticus (4) Brachiostomata, Scolidon, Exocoetus
(4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens 2. Statement-1: All mammals have seven cervical
2. Taq polymerase enzyme was isolated from the vertebrae.
thermostable bacteria. Select the correct name of Statement-2: Almost all mammals including
that bacteria. humans have seven cervical vertebrae.
(1) Escherichia coli Statement-3: All chordates have notochord in their
(2) Haemophilus influenzae adult life.

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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Zoology

(1) Statement-1 and statement-2 are correct CST-06: Q.No.172 (Reproductive Health:
(2) Statement-2 and statement-3 are correct Methods of Birth Control)
(3) Statement-1 and statement-3 are correct 1. Which of the following are examples of IUDs?
(4) Only statement-2 is correct (1) CuT, Multiload 375, progestasert
3. In which of the following organisms, notochord is (2) CuT, Saheli, Lippes loop
present only in the larval tail? (3) CuT, Multiload 375, Nirodh
(1) Urochordates (4) LNG-20, Progestasert, Vaults.
(2) Cephalochordates 2. Oral contraceptive pills prevent conception by
(3) Vertebrates inhibiting/preventing all of the following, except
(4) Echinoderms (1) Implanation
4. Select the correct statement(s) w.r.t. cyclostomata. (2) Ovulation
a. They have a sucking and circular mouth (3) Entry of sperm through cervix
without jaws. (4) Spermiogenesis
b. Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins. 3. Which of the following methods prevent
c. Cranium and vertebral column are bony in conception by altering the quality of cervical mucus
nature. to prevent/retard entry of sperms?
Choose the correct option (1) IUDs (2) Barrier method
(1) a and b (3) Natural method (4) Oral pills
(2) a and c 4. Select the correct option w.r.t. to sterilization
method?
(3) b and c
(1) LNG-20 (2) Tubectomy
(4) only b
(3) Saheli (4) Lippes loop
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CSS-03 (CST-05 & 06) Zoology

Based on
CST-05 & CST-06

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-03
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY
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CST-05: Q.No.172 (Neural Control and CST-06: Q.No.167 (Human Health and Disease:
Coordination: Central Neural System) Common Diseases in Humans)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (4) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (4)
CST-05: Q.No.154 (Biotechnology - Principles and CST-06: Q.No.169 (Biotechnology - Principles and
Processes: Tools of Recombinant Processes: Processes of
DNA Technology) Recombinant DNA Technologies)
1. (4) 1. (3)
2. (3) 2. (3)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (2) 4. (1)
CST-05: Q.No.179 (Human Health and Disease: CST-06: Q.No.180 (Animal Kingdom (Chordates):
Immunity) Classification of Protochordata)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (4)
3. (2) 3. (1)
4. (3) 4. (1)
CST-05: Q.No.180 (Animal Kingdom (Chordates): CST-06: Q.No.172 (Reproductive Health:
Classification of Protochordata or Acraniata) Methods of Birth Control)
1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (4)
3. (2) 3. (4)
4. (3) 4. (2)
CST-06: Q.No.166 (Evolution: Mechanism of 
Evolution)
1. (1) 
2. (3) 
3. (2) 
4. (4)
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