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PHYSICS
Q.50 (CST-2) (Logic Gates) Q.5 (CST-2) (Wave on a String)

1. Identify the logic operation carried out by the 1. The type of wave which need material medium to

following circuit travel is called

(1) Mechanical wave
(2) Non-mechanical wave
(3) Transverse wave
(4) Longitudinal wave
2. The type of wave which does not need material
medium to travel is called

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate (1) Mechanical wave

(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate (2) Non-mechanical wave

2. The given logic gate circuit is equivalent to (3) Transverse wave

(4) Longitudinal wave
3. Transverse stationary wave is produced in
(1) Open organ pipe
(1) OR gate (2) NOR gate
(2) Closed organ pipe
(3) NOT gate (4) AND gate
(3) Sonometer
3. The inputs to the digital circuit are shown below.
(4) None of these
The output Y is given by
4. A sound wave can travel through
(1) A steel rod (2) A string
(3) An open organ pipe (4) All of these
Q.7 (CST-2) (Conservation of Angular Momentum)
1. A circular disc is rotating about an axis with
angular velocity . If it has moment of inertia I
about the axis, then the angular momentum of the
disc is
· C
(1) AB
I
· C
(2) AB (1) (2) I

· C
(3) AB
1 2
(3) I (4) I2
(4) A  B  C 2

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Physics

2. If no external torque is acting on a system, then (1) Work done in adiabatic process AC is more
(1) Angular momentum of the system remain than the isothermal process AB
conserved (2) Work done in isothermal process AB is more
(2) Angular momentum of each constituent body than the adiabatic process AC
in the system must remain conserved
(3) Work done in isothermal process AB is same
(3) Angular momentum of the system goes on
as work done in adiabatic process AC
increasing
(4) Angular momentum of the system goes on (4) P-V diagram does not given any information
decreasing about work done
3. A circular disc rotates freely about an axis 2. In the given P-V diagram, adiabatic curves are
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its shown for which process adiabatic constant is
plane with angular speed 0. A disc having maximum?
double the mass and same radius as of the first
disc is placed gently on the disc, such that both
disc finally rotates with common angular speed.
The new angular speed of the system will be
(1) 0 (2) 20
0 0
(3) (4)
3 2
Q.29 (CST-2) (Nature of Physical Laws)
(1) AB (2) AD
1. The symmetry of the laws of nature with respect
(3) AC (4) AE
to translation in time is equivalent to the law of
conservation of 3. In the four adiabatic curve as shown in figure,
change in internal energy is maximum for the
(1) Charge (2) Energy
process
(3) Angular momentum (4) Linear momentum
2. The symmetry of the laws of nature with respect
to rotation in space is equivalent to the law of
conservation of
(1) Angular momentum (2) Charge
(3) Energy (4) Linear momentum
3. Which of the following is/are fundamental force in
nature? (1) AB (2) AD
(1) Gravitational (2) Electromagnetic
(3) AC (4) AF
(3) Weak nuclear force (4) All of the above
Q.6 (CST-1) (Image Formation by Convex Lens)
Q.40 (CST-2) (Problems Related to Isothermal and
1. A convex lens is made of a material of refractive
Adiabatic Process)
index 1.5 having radius of curvature R1 = R2 = 20
1. For the given P-V diagram, choose the correct cm. Then the focal length of lens will be
statement (1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 15 cm
2. In the (Q. 1), if object is placed at a distance of 20
cm from lens, then image will form at
(1) Infinity
(2) 20 cm behind the lens
(3) 30 cm behind the lens
(4) 40 cm behind the lens

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Physics

3. In (Q. 1), if a plane mirror is placed behind the Q.17 (CST-2) (Resistivity)
lens such that light falling normal to the plane of 1. If n, e, m and  are free electron density in
mirror, then image will coincide with object if conductor, charge of electron, mass of electron
(1) Mirror is at a distance 20 cm from lens and relaxation time of free electrons respectively,

(2) Mirror is at a distance 30 cm from lens then resistivity  of the conductor can be
expressed as
(3) Mirror is at a distance 15 cm from lens
m ne2 
(4) Irrespective of the distance of mirror from lens (1)   (2)  
ne2  m
image will always coincide with object
ne m
Q.14 (CST-01) (Calorimetry) (3)   (4)  
m ne
1. The amount of heat rejected by a copper pot of 2. Resistivity of a conductor is independent of
mass 3 kg when it cools from 150°C to 100°C will
(a) Applied voltage
be (given Ccu = 390 J kg–1 k–1) (b) Number density of free
(1) 58.5 kJ (2) 35.5 kJ (c) Average relaxation time
(3) 90 kJ (4) 45 kJ (d) Length of conductor
2. Consider the statements given below and select (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (d) only
the correct option (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Statement (A) when two bodies having different 3. If n, e,  and m are representing electron density,
temperature are in thermal contact with each charge, relaxation time and mass of an electron
other then heat absorbed by cold body is equal to respectively, then the resistance of a wire of
the heat loss by hot body. If (there is no other length l and cross section area A is given by
heat interaction with surrounding) ml mA
(1) (2)
ne2 A ne2 
Statement (B) Principle of calorimetry is based
on law of conservation of energy. ne2 A ne 2 A
(3) (4)
ml ml
(1) (A) and (B) both are wrong statements wrong
4. Resistance of a conductor depends on
statements
(a) Applied voltage
(2) (A) and (B) both are correct statements
(b) Number density of free electrons
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(c) Average relaxation time
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
(d) Length of conductor
3. m mass of water is poured in a copper pot of
(1) (a) only
mass M. If temperature of water and copper pot is
(2) (a) and (b) only
T1 and T2 (T1 < T2) respectively, then final
(3) (b) and (c) only
temperature of the system will be (assume the
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
heat interaction takes place only between water
Q.18 (CST-2) (YDSE)
and pot given Cw and CCu are the heat capacities
1. A light ray passing through one medium to
of water and copper)
another medium, then
MCcuT2  mCwT1 MCcuT2 – mCwT1
(1) (2) (1) Frequency will change
mCw  MCcu mCw  MCcu
(2) Speed will change
MCcuT2  mCwT1 MCcuT2 – mCwT1
(3) (4) (3) Wavelength will change
mCw – MCcu mCw – MCcu
(4) Both (2) and (3)

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Physics

2. Instead of using two slits as in Young’s double slit (1) (a) only (2) (a), (b) only
experiment, if we use two separate but identical (3) (c), (d) only (4) (b), (d) only
sodium lamps, then which of the following occurs 3. Two individual wave having intensity 3I and 4I
(a) Uniform illumination is observed interfere on the screen. The maximum intensity of
(b) Widely separate interference the resultant wave on the screen will be
(c) Very bright maximum (1) 5I (2) 7I
(d) Very dark minimum (3) I (4) 4I

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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PHYSICS
Answer Key
Q.50 (CST-2) (Logic Gates) 2. (4)
3. (1)
1. ( 4)
Q.6 (CST-1) (Image Formation by Convex Lens)
2. (2)
3. (4) 1. ( 1)
Q.5 (CST-2) (Wave on a String) 2. (1)
3. (4)
1. ( 1)
Q.14 (CST-01) (Calorimetry)
2. (2)
3. (3) 1. ( 1)
4. (4) 2. (2)
Q.7 (CST-2) (Conservation of Angular Momentum) 3. (1)
Q.17 (CST-2) (Resistivity)
1. ( 2)
2. (1) 1. ( 4)
3. (3) 2. (2)
Q.29 (CST-2) (Nature of Physical Laws) 3. (1)
4. (4)
1. ( 2)
Q.18 (CST-2) (YDSE)
2. (1)
3. (4) 1. ( 4)
Q.40 (CST-2) (Problems Related to Isothermal and 2. (1)
Adiabatic Process) 3. (2)

1. ( 2)
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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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CHEMISTRY
Q. 66. (CST-02) (Borax) 2. Compound having the highest pKb value is
1. The hybridization state(s) of Boron atoms in (1) Benzenamine
Borax is/are
(1) sp2 only (2) sp3 only (2) N-methylaniline
(3) sp and sp2 (4) sp2 and sp3 (3) N, N-dimethylaniline
2. Consider the following statements
(4) Phenylmethanamine
Statement I: Borax is a white crystalline solid of
formula Na2B4O7. 10 H2O. 3. Correct order of basic strength of the given
Statement II: Borax dissolves in water to give compounds in aqueous medium is
an acidic solution.
(1) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
In the light of above statements, identify the
correct option. (2) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3NH > NH3
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(3) NH3 > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH
correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (4) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
incorrect
4. Most basic compound among the following is
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. The correct formula of Borax is
(1) (2)
(1) Na2B4O7.10H2O
(2) Na2[B4O5(OH)6].6H2O
(3) Na2[B4(OH)10].2H2O
(4) Na2[B4O5(OH)4] .8H2O
4. Borax on strong heating gives
(3) (4)
(1) NaBO2 + B2O3 (2) H3BO3 + NaOH
(3) NaBO2 + B2H6 (4) B2H6 + B2O3
Q.79. (CST-02) (Chemical Properties of Amines)
1. Correct order of basic strength of amines in Q.95. (CST-02) (Physical Properties of Aldehydes and
gaseous state is Ketones)
(1) 1. Compound having the highest boiling point is

(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)

(4) (4)

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Chemistry

2. Assertion (A): The boiling point of aldehydes 3. The compound which will release minimum
and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons and amount of energy on catalytic hydrogenation is
ethers of comparable molecular masses.
Reason (R): Weak molecular association exist
in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole-dipole (1) (2)
interaction.
In the light of above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) (4)
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not Q.64. (CST-02) (Energy of Orbitals)
the correct explanation of (A) 1. Which among the following orbitals will have
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct minimum energy for hydrogen atom?
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (1) 2s (2) 3s
3. Incorrect statement among the following is (3) 3d (4) 3p
(1) Methanal is a gas at room temperature 2. The correct order of energies in the same
subshell is
(2) Ethanal is a volatile liquid
(1) E2s(Na) > E2s(Li) > E2s(K) > E2s(H)
(3) Ethanal is insoluble in benzene
(2) E2s(Li) > E2s(H) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K)
(4) Propanone is miscible with water in all
proportions (3) E2s(H) > E2s(Li) > E2s(Na) > E2s(K)
Q.57. (CST-01) (Type of Unit Cell) (4) E2s(H) = E2s(Li) = E2s(Na) = E2s(K)
1. The lattice having ABAB …. Type of pattern 3. The (n + l) value is maximum for
forms (1) 3s (2) 4s
(1) Simple cubic unit cell
(3) 4d (4) 3p
(2) Face-centred cubic unit cell
Q.64. (CST-01) Valence Bond Theory (VBT)
(3) Body-centred cubic unit cell
1. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– is
(4) Hexagonal close-packed unit cell
(1) 3.1 BM (2) 4.7 BM
2. Coordination number in ABCABC …… type
arrangement is (3) 3.4 BM (4) 5.9 BM
(1) 6 (2) 8 2. Which of the following complex ions has
(3) 12 (4) 4 maximum magnetic moment?
3. The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids (1) [Mn(CN)6]3– (2) [MnCl6]3–
in FCC unit cell respectively are (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [FeF6]3–
(1) 4, 4 (2) 4, 8 3. Which of the following complexes has zero
(3) 8, 4 (4) 8, 8 magnetic moment?
4. The number of tetrahedral void(s) present per (1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [CoF6]3–
atom in ccp unit cell is (3) [NiCl4]2– (4) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
(1) 1 (2) 2 4. If a complex compound has 3.87 BM spin only
(3) 3 (4) 4 magnetic moment, then it has
Q.60. (CST-01) (Catalytic Hydrogenation of Alkene) (1) One unpaired electron
1. The correct order of heat of hydrogenation for (2) Two unpaired electrons
the given compounds is (3) Three unpaired electrons
(4) Four unpaired electrons
Q.57. (CST-02) (IUPAC System of Nomenclature)
1. Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is
(1) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
(2) (II) > (IV) > (III) > (I)
(3) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(4) (III) > (II) > (IV) > (I)
2. Which among the following is most stable
alkene?
(1) 2-Chloro-4-methylanisole
(1) (2) (2) 4-Methyl-2-chloroanisole
(3) 4-Methoxy-2-chlorotoluene
(3) (4) (4) 2-Chloro-4-methoxytoluene

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Chemistry

2. Hexane-2,4-dione is the IUPAC name of

(3)

(1)

(4)
(2)
Q.76. (CST-02) (Electrode Potential and EMF of a Cell)
(3) 1. The standard electrode potentials of the given
half cell. K+/K = – 2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V is
(4) (1) – 3.73 V (2) 2.13 V
(3) – 2.13 V (4) 3.73 V
3. Which of the following functional group has
2. The electrochemical cell representing the given
highest priority in IUPAC naming?
reaction
(1) – NO2 (2) – COCl Zn(s) + Cu+2(aq)  Zn+2 (aq) + Cu(s)
(3) – COOR (4) – CN
(1) Zn(s)/Cu+2(aq) || Zn+2(aq) /Cu(s)
4. Which of the following compound is consider as
(2) Zn(s)/Zn+2(aq) || Cu+2(aq)/Cu(s)
isooctane?
(3) Zn+2/(aq)/Zn(s)||Cu(s)/Cu+2(aq)
(4) Cu(s)/Cu+2(aq) || Zn+2(aq)/Zn(s)
(1)
3. Which of the following metal ions has positive
SRP value?
(1) Mg2+ (2) Pb2+
(2)
(3) Cu2+ (4) Fe2+
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CHEMISTRY
Answer Key
Q.66. (CST-02) (Borax) 2. (4)
1. (4) 3. (3)
2. (2) Q.64. (CST-02) (Energy of Orbitals)
3. (4) 1. (1)
4. (1) 2. (3)
Q.79. (CST-02) (Chemical Properties of Amines) 3. (3)
1. (2) Q.64. (CST-01) Valence Bond Theory (VBT)
2. (1)
1. (4)
3. (4)
2. (4)
4. (1)
3. (1)
Q.95. (CST-02) (Physical Properties of Aldehydes and
4. (3)
Ketones)
Q.57. (CST-02) (IUPAC System of Nomenclature)
1. (2)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (3)
Q.57. (CST-01) (Type of Unit Cell) 3. (3)
1. (4) 4. (4)
2. (3) Q.76. (CST-02) (Electrode Potential and EMF of a Cell)
3. (2) 1. (4)
4. (2) 2. (2)
Q.60. (CST-01) (Catalytic Hydrogenation of Alkene) 3. (3)
1. (2)

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

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BOTANY
Q.115. (CST-01) Biological Classification (Kingdom: 2. Which of the following segments of mRNA is
Monera) considered to be a complete translation unit?
1. The bacteria that can fix atmospheric nitrogen (1) 5’ AUG CGA AAC GCC 3’
are called (2) 5’ AUG UAG UAA UGA 3’
(1) Nitrifying bacteria (3) 5’ AUG AAC UAA CGA 3’
(2) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (4) 5’ UAG AAC CGA AUG 3’
(3) Ammonifying bacteria 3. Deletion of which G base from the 5’ end of the
(4) Denitrifying bacteria given mRNA makes it a complete translation
2. Nitrifying bacteria are unit?
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophic 5’ AGG AUGG CGC AUU UAG 3’
(2) Photoautotrophic (1) 9th or 16th (2) 2nd or 3rd
(3) Symbiotic (3) 3rd or 9th (4) 6th or 7th
(4) Parasitic 4. Substitution of which base by G from 5’ end of
3. Which amongst the following are N2-fixing the given mRNA makes it a complete translation
bacteria? unit?
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrococcus 5’ AUG ACC GCA UAUGCA 3’
(3) Rhizobium (4) Nitrobacter (1) 11th A (2)14th C
4. (3) 12th U (4) 10th U
Photosynthetic autotrophic eubacteria that can
fix atmospheric nitrogen are Q.121. (CST-02) (Microbes in human welfare:
(1) Cyanobacteria Microbes in household products)
(2) Saprophytic bacteria 1. Select the option which includes bacteria only.
(3) Sulphur bacteria (1) Saccharomyces & Lactobacillus
(4) Hydrogen bacteria (2) Saccharomyces & Staphylococci
5. The heterotrophic nitrogen fixing bacterium is (3) Penicillium & Yeast
(1) Anabaena (2) Nostoc (4) Lactobacillus & Staphylococci
(3) Nitrocystis (4) Rhizobium 2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is also commonly
Q.129 (CST-01) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance termed as Baker’s yeast as it is involved in
(Translation) (1) Butter production
1. A complete translation unit in an mRNA has (2) Bread production
(a) Start codon (3) Cheese production
(b) Stop codon (4) Conversion of milk into curd
(c) Codes for a polypeptide 3. The fungi responsible for imparting a particular
The correct one(s) is /are flavour to cheese is
(1) Only (a), and (b) (1) Saccharomyces
(2) All (a), (b) and (c) (2) Penicillium
(3) Only (a) and (c) (3) Staphylococci
(4) Only (c) (4) Lactobacillus

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Botany

Q.125 (CST-02) : Molecular basis of inheritance : The Q.131. (CST-01) (Environmental issues: Water
search for genetic material pollution and its control)
1. In Hershey and Chase experiment 1. A mere 0.1 percent impurities make domestic
(1) Viruses were grown on medium containing sewage unfit for human use. These impurities
radioactive sulphur only are categorised in all, except

(2) Bacteria were grown on medium containing (1) Gaseous pollutants

radioactive sulphur only (2) Suspended solids
(3) Some viruses were grown on medium (3) Colloidal material
containing radioactive sulphur and some (4) Dissolved material
others on medium containing radioactive
phosphorus 2. All of the following are the colloidal impurities
present in waste water, except
(4) Some bacteria were grown on medium
containing radioactive sulphur and some (1) Faecal matter (2) Cloth fibres
others on medium containing radioactive (3) Sand (4) Paper fibres
phosphorus
3. Which of the following represents the
2. In Hershey and Chase experiment, after
suspended solid impurity found in waste water?
centrifugation
(1) Silt (2) Nitrate
(1) Supernatant contains bacterial cells
(3) Bacteria (4) Phosphate
(2) Supernatant contains virus coats
Q.112. (CST-02) (Ecosystem: Ecosystem Function)
(3) Pellet contains dead bacterial cells only
1. Primary Production is
(4) Pellet contains virus particles
3. In experiments of Hershey and Chase, it was (1) The rate at which inorganic matter produced
by plant during photosynthesis
inferred that
(2) The rate of organic matter build up or stored
(1) Bacteria infected with viruses that had by producer in excess of respiratory
radioactive proteins became radioactive utilisation
after infection
(3) Defined as the amount of biomass or
(2) The genetic material is DNA that was organic matter produced per unit area over
passed from bacteria to viruses a time period during photosynthesis
(3) The proteins did not enter the bacteria from (4) Rate of formation of new organic matter by
the viruses consumers
(4) Radioactivity is detected in supernatant 2. Primary productivity is also expressed in terms
when the infecting viruses had radioactive
of energy as
DNA
Q.105. (CST-01) Plant Kingdom: Pteridophytes (1) gm–3 (2) (kcal m–2) y–1
(3) kcal m–2 (4) gm–2 y–1
1. Which of the following organisms is a
bryophyte? 3. What is the unit of primary productivity in terms
of weight?
(1) Marchantia (2) Lycopodium
(1) gm–1 y–1 (2) gm–2 y–2
(3) Salvinia (4) Selaginella
(3) (gm–1) y–2 (4) (gm–2) y–1
2. Which of the following plant group is only
homosporous in nature? Q.118. (CST-02) (Biological Classification Kingdom :
Protista)
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes
1. Members of which kingdom show
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms
chemosynthetic mode of nutrition?
3. Which of the following organisms is a
Pteridophyte? (1) Protista (2) Fungi
(3) Monera (4) Plantae
(1) Marsilea (2) Funaria
2. All of the following are photosynthetic protists,
(3) Polytrichum (4) Sphagnum
except
4. All of the following are heterosporous
pteridophytes, except (1) Dinoflagellates (2) Slime moulds
(3) Desmids (4) Diatoms
(1) Selaginella
3. Which group of protista cannot synthesise their
(2) Dryopteris
own food?
(3) Salvinia
(1) Diatoms (2) Desmids
(4) Marsilea
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Protozoans

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Botany

4. ______________ act as decomposer as they 3. Which of the following plant groups is considered as
feed on dead and decaying matter. the ‘first tracheophyte’?
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (1) Bryophytes
(1) Slime moulds (2) Gymnosperms
(2) Dinoflagellates (3) Pteridophytes
(3) Englenoids (4) Angiosperms
(4) Chrysophytes

Q.117. (CST-02) (Biological Classification Kingdom :

Q.103. (CST-02) (Plant Kingdom: The main Fungi)
characteristics of bryophytes are)
1. Morels, truffles and yeast belong to the class
1. Zygotes undergo mitosis to form embryo. These
embryos were not found in which of the following (1) Basidiomycetes (2) Ascomycetes
plant groups? (3) Deuteromycetes (4) Phycomycetes
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes 2. Mushroom belongs to the class
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms (1) Basidiomycetes (2) Denteromycetes
2. Select the option that represents correct sequence (3) Phycomycetes (4) Ascomycetes
of plant groups from primitive to advanced according 3. Find the inedible fungi from the following options.
to phylogeny.
(1) Mushroom (2) Smut
(1) Bryophyte  Gymnosperm  Angiosperm 
(3) Yeast (4) Truffle
Pteridophyte
(2) Bryophyte  Pteridophyte  Gymnosperm 
Angiosperm
(3) Pteridophyte  Bryophyte  Gymnosperm 
Angiosperm
(4) Gymnosperm  Angiosperm  Bryophyte 
Pteridophyte
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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Botany

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CST-01 & 02

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
BOTANY
Answer Key

Q.115. (CST-01) (Biological Classification (Kingdom: Q.131. (CST-01) (Environmental issues: Water pollution
Monera) and its control)
1. (2) 1. (1)
2. (1) 2. (3)
3. (3) 3. (1)
4. (1) Q.112. (CST-02) (Ecosystem: Ecosystem Function)
5. (4) 1. (3)
Q.129. (CST-01) (Molecular Basis of Inheritance 2. (2)
(Translation) 3. (4)
1. (2) Q.118. (CST-02) (Biological Classification Kingdom :
2. (3) Protista)
3. (4) 1. (3)
4. (3) 2. (2)
Q.121. (CST-02) (Microbes in human welfare: Microbes 3. (4)
in household products) 4. (1)
1. (4)
2. (2) Q.103. (CST-02) (Plant Kingdom: The main
3. (2) characteristics of bryophytes are)
Q.125 (CST-02) : Molecular basis of inheritance : The 1. (1)
search for genetic material 2. (2)
1. (3) 3. (3)
2. (2)
3. (3) Q.117. (CST-02) (Biological Classification Kingdom :
Q.105. (CST-01) Plant Kingdom: Pteridophytes Fungi)
1. (1) 1. (2)
2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (1) 3. (2)
4. (2)

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 CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Zoology

Based on
CST-01 & CST-02

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ZOOLOGY

CST-02: Q.No.153 (Australian Marsupials) 2. Select the correct set of animals having flame cells
1. Marsupial mouse and placental mouse have for excretion.
evolved to share many similar characteristics. This (1) Flatworms, prawns, insects
type of evolution may be referred to as (2) Insects, Amphioxus, Planaria
(1) Convergent evolution (3) Planaria, rotifers, Amphioxus
(2) Adaptive divergence (4) Cephalochordates, flatworms, prawns
(3) Divergent evolution 3. Malpighian tubules are excretory structures of
(4) Homology (1) Cockroach
2. When more than one adaptive radiations appeared (2) Prawn
to have occurred in an isolated geographical area
(representing different habitats), one can call this (3) Crustaceans
(1) Homology (4) Annelids
(2) Divergent evolution 4. Which of the following are ammonotelic animals?
(3) Adaptive divergence (1) Reptiles
(4) Convergent evolution (2) Aquatic amphibians only
3. Complete the analogy w.r.t. convergent evolution. (3) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects
Anteater : Numbat : : Lemur : _______ (4) Terrestrial insects
(1) Tasmanian tiger cat CST-02: Q.No.172 (Oogenesis)
(2) Flying phalanger 1. The secondary oocyte forms a new acellular
(3) Spotted cuscus membrane called
(4) Marsupial mole (1) Corona radiata
4. The process of evolution of different species in a (2) Zona pellucida
given geographical area starting from a point and (3) Theca externa
radiating to other geographical areas (habitats) is (4) Theca interna
called
2. The cellular layer covering the zona pellucida of an
(1) Cyclic evolution ovum just after ovulation is called
(2) Convergent evolution (1) Perivitelline space
(3) Adoptive convergence (2) Theca interna
(4) Adoptive radiation (3) Corona radiata
(4) Theca externa
CST-02: Q.No.165 (Animals are classified on the 3. Changes in which of the following structures during
basis of their main excretory product) fertilization ensures that only one sperm can
1. Protonephridia are the excretory structures in fertilise an ovum?
(1) Arthropods (1) Zona pellucida
(2) Platyhelminthes (2) Perivetilline space
(3) Hemichordates (3) Acrosome
(4) Chordates (4) Corona radiata

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Zoology

4. The middle thick layer of uterine wall that 4. Tiger cat, marsupial rat, wombat, koala, etc. are
undergoes contractions during parturition is (1) Placental mammals
(1) Myometrium (2) Trophoblast
(2) Finches
(3) Perimetrium (4) Endometrium
(3) Marsupials
5. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged
into an inner group of cells called inner cell mass (4) Pouchless mammals
attached to an outer layer called CST-01: Q.No.179 (Lipids)
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Trophoblast 1. Read the following statements carefully.
(3) Myometrium (4) Corona radiata Statement (A): Glycerol is a simple lipid which is
CST-02: Q.No.152 (Primary and Secondary chemically trihydroxy propane.
Metabolites) Statement (B): Lecithin is a phospholipid and is
1. In average composition of cells, select the found in cell membranes.
compound that constitutes maximum percentage Choose the correct option w.r.t. the above given
of the total cellular mass statements.
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (1) Both (A) and (B) are true
(3) Water (4) Lipids
(2) Both (A) and (B) are false
2. Select the correct option to complete the analogy.
Carbohydrates : 3% : : Lipids : ________. (3) Only (A) is true
(1) 2% (2) 1% (4) Only (B) is true
(3) 70 – 90% (4) 10 – 15% 2. All of the following statements are correct w.r.t.
lipids, except
3. The total cellular mass of ______ is more than that
of nucleic acids in cells. Select the correct option (1) Lipids are generally water insoluble.
to fill in the blank. (2) Glycerol is a complex lipid, which is chemically
(1) Lipids (2) Proteins trihydroxy propane.
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Ions (3) Complex lipids are generally found in neural
4. The least abundant organic substance in cells is tissue.
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (4) Lecithin is found in cell membranes.
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids 3. Lecithin is a/an _____ found in cell membranes.
Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
CST-01: Q.No.183 (Placental Mammals) (1) Phospholipid (2) Polysaccharide
1. Anteater shows convergent evolution with (3) Polynucleotide (4) Amino acid
(1) Numbat 4. Lipids are generally _____. Choose the correct
(2) Spotted cuscus option for the above given blank.
(3) Flying phalanger (1) Water soluble (2) Water insoluble
(4) Tasmanian wolf (3) Hydrophilic (4) Zwitterions
2. Read the following statements. CST-02: Q.No.160 (Darwin’s Theory or Darwinism)
Statement (A): When more than one adaptive 1. According to Hugo de Vries mutations are
radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated (1) Directional and random
geographical area (representing different
habitats), it is called convergent evolution. (2) Small and directional
Statement (B): Anteater and numbat show (3) Large and directional
convergent evolution w.r.t. each other. (4) Random and directionless
In the light of above statements, select the correct 2. Evolution for Darwin was ____
option.
(1) Gradual
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true
(2) Single step
(2) Both (A) and (B) are false
(3) Non-directional
(3) (A) is true but (B) is false
(4) (A) is false but (B) is true (4) Non-heritable
3. Darwin’s finches represent one of the best 3. Darwinian variations are
examples of (1) Major and heritable
(1) Adaptive radiation (2) Minor and heritable
(2) Adaptive convergence (3) Major and non-heritable
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Minor and non-heritable
(4) Analogy

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CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Zoology

4. Single step large mutation is called 3. Which of the following structures is present only in
(1) Speciation 6th abdominal segment of a female cockroach?
(2) Variation (1) Ovaries
(3) Saltation (2) Testes
(4) Natural selection (3) Spermatheca
CST-02: Q.No.161 (The Living State) (4) Mushroom-shaped gland
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 4. In male cockroach, which of the following
structures is present in 6th – 7th abdominal
(1) Living state and metabolism are synonymous segments
(2) Living organism are always in equilibrium (1) Testis
(3) ATP molecule are produced during cellular (2) Mushroom-shaped gland
respiration
(3) Spermatheca
(4) Glycolysis is a catabolic pathway
(4) Genital pouch
2. Living state is a/an _______
(1) Equilibrium unsteady-state
CST-02: Q.No.164 (Fisheries)
(2) Non-equilibrium steady-state
1. Production of useful aquatic plants and animals
(3) Equilibrium steady-state such as fishes, prawn etc. by the proper utilization
(4) Non-equilibrium unsteady-state of small and large water bodies is included under
3. According to physics, system at equilibrium (1) Pisciculture (2) Aquaculture
(1) Can perform work (3) Fisheries (4) Apiculture
(2) Cannot perform work 2. Catching, processing and selling of fish, shellfish
(3) Can do work efficiently or other aquatic animals is termed

(4) Can do work but less efficiently (1) Apiculture (2) Fisheries
(3) Aquaculture (4) Sericulture

CST-02: Q.No.181 (Reproductive System) 3. Rearing, catching selling etc. of only fishes is
called
1. In male cockroach testes are present in
(1) Fisheries (2) Pisciculture
(1) 2nd – 6th abdominal segments
(3) Aquaculture (4) Apiculture
(2) 6th – 7th abdominal segments
4. All of the following requires large or small water
(3) 4th – 6th abdominal segments bodies for the culture of related organisms, except
(4) 6th abdominal segment (1) Fisheries (2) Pisciculture
2. Ovaries in female cockroach are situated in (3) Apiculture (4) Aquaculture
(1) 2nd – 6th abdominal segments
(2) 6th – 7th abdominal segments
(3) 4th – 6th abdominal segments
(4) 6th abdominal segment
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(3)
CSS-01 (CST-01 & 02) Zoology

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CST-01 & CST-02

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CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-01
ZOOLOGY

CST-02: Q.No.153 (Australian Marsupials) CST-01: Q.No.179 (Lipids)

1. (1) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (3) 3. (1)
4. (4) 4. (2)
CST-02: Q.No.165 (Animals are classified on the CST-02: Q.No.160 (Darwin’s Theory or Darwinism)
basis of their main excretory product) 1. (4)
1. (2) 2. (1)
2. (3) 3. (2)
3. (1) 4. (3)
4. (3) CST-02: Q.No.161 (The Living State)
CST-02: Q.No.172 (Oogenesis) 1. (2)
1. (2) 2. (2)
2. (3) 3. (2)
3. (1) CST-02: Q.No.181 (Reproductive System)
4. (1) 1. (3)
5. (2) 2. (1)
CST-02: Q.No.152 (Primary and Secondary 3. (3)
Metabolites)
4. (2)
1. (3)
CST-02: Q.No.164 (Fisheries)
2. (1)
1. (2)
3. (2)
2. (2)
4. (3)
3. (2)
CST-01: Q.No.183 (Placental Mammals)
4. (3)
1. (1)
2. (1)
3. (1)
4. (3)
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