Based on

CST-03 & 04

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
PHYSICS

Q. 40 (CST-03) (Simple Harmonic Motion) extension of the spring in equilibrium position

is given by (where symbols have their usual
1. A particle of mass m and charge q is tied to an
meaning)
inextensible string of length l. A uniform
electric field is applied as shown. If particle is
slightly displaced perpendicular to length of
string and then released, then time period of
small oscillation of particle will be

Mg Mg – qE
(1) (2)
k k
Mg  qE
(3) (4) Zero
k
l l
(1) T  2 (2) T  2 Q. 18 (CST-03) (Acceleration Due to Gravity)
g qE
m 1. The weight of the body at centre of earth

l l (1) Infinite
(3) T  2 (4) T  2
qE qE
g g– (2) Zero
m m
(3) Same as other place
2. A spring of spring constant k is attached to the
ceiling. A block of mass M is attached to its (4) Greater than as other places
lower end and is released suddenly. The
extension of the spring in the equilibrium 2. The mass of the body at the surface of earth is
position is given by (1) Infinite
(2) Zero
(3) Same as other places
(4) Greater than as other places

R
3. The weight of the body at a distance from
2
Mg 2Mg the centre of earth is (Where R is the radius of
(1) (2)
k k earth)
3Mg
(3) Zero (4) (1) Twice the weight of the body at surface
5
3. A spring block system undergoes simple (2) Half the weight of the body at surface
harmonic motion while the block is given (3) Thrice the weight of the body at surface
charge q and a uniform vertical electric field is
switched on (as shown in figure). The (4) Same as the weight of body at surface

(1)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Physics

Q. 14 (CST-03) (Application of Gauss’s Law) 2. In the above (Q. 1), if FG, FB and FS are
gravitational, Buoyant and spring force
1. The electric field intensity due to an infinite thin
respectively, then correct equation will be
sheet having charge density  C/m2, at a (1) FG = FB + FS (2) FB = FG + FS
distance r from it will be (3) FS = FB + FG (4) Data insufficient
(1) /20 (2) /0 3. A body of volume V and density of its material
 is hanging at one end of a spring submerged
(3) 3/20 (4) 5/20
in a liquid of liquid density  where  <  then
2. A positive and a negative charge are moving in extension in the spring will be
the direction opposite to electric field in a V g V ( – )g
uniform electric field region, then the work (1) (2)
x x
done by electric field on both charges
V ( – )g V g
respectively will be (3) (4)
x x
(1) Both positive (2) Both negative
Q. 8 (CST-04) (Relation between Electric Field
(3) Positive, negative (4) Negative, positive
and Potential)
3. Consider the situation in diagram given below
in which a charge q moves from point A to B 1. The relation between electric field and
then work done by electric field will be potential is given by (symbols have their usual
meanings)
q q r r r r
(1) – d (2) d
20 2 0 (1) V  –  E.dr (2) V   E.dr

2q 4q E r r
(3) d (4) d (3) V  (4) V   E  dr
0 0 r
r
2. A uniform electric field given by E  iˆ exists
in a region. The potential difference (VA – VB)
between A(x1) and B(x2) is
(1) (x2 – x1) (2) (x2 – x1)
(3) (x1 – x2) (4) (x1 – x2)
r
3. An electric field is expressed as E  iˆ  jˆ .
The potential difference (VB – VA) between two
points A (x1, y1, z1) and B (x2, y2, z2) is
(1) (x2 – x1) + (y2 – y1)
(2) (x2 – x1)
Q. 6 (CST-03) (Archimedes’ Principle) (3) (x2 – x1) + (y2 – y1)
1. Consider the situation given below in the (4) –(x2 – x1) – (y2 – y1)
r
diagram, the direction of gravitational, spring 4. An electric field is expressed as E  (2iˆ – 3 jˆ)
and buoyant force respectively can be given as N/C. The potential difference (VA – VB)
between two points A(1, –1, 2) and B(3, 2, –1)
( and  are the density of fluid and solid
is (coordinates are in metre)
respectively and  < ) (1) 5 V (2) –5 V
(3) 10 V (4) Zero
Q. 34 (CST-04) (Superposition of Waves)

1. When two waves given by y1 = A1sin(t – kx)

and y2 = A2sin(t – kx + ) are superimposed,
then the amplitude of resultant wave will be

(1) A12  A22

(2) A12  A22  2A1A2 cos 

(1) (2)
(3) A12  A22  2A1A2
(3) (4)
(4) A12  A22  2A1A2 sin 

(2)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Physics

2. When two waves given by y1 = 3 sin(t – kx) 1 q 1 q

(1) (2)
and y2 = 4sin(t – kx + 60°) are superimposed, 4 0 r 40 r 2
then the amplitude of resultant wave will be 1 q 1 q2
(3) (4)
(1) 37 (2) 5 40 r 3 4  0 r 2

(3) 7 (4) 12 2. Two point charges +8q & –2q are located at
x = 0 & x = l respectively. The point on x-axis
3. When two waves given by y1 = A1sin(t + kx) at which net electric field is zero due to these
and y2 = A2sin(t + kx) are superimposed, then charges is
the amplitude of the resultant wave will be (1) 2l (2) 4l
(1) A1 + A2 (3) 8l (4) 5l
3. The electric field at a distance of 2 cm from the
(2) A1 – A2
centre of a uniformly charged spherical
(3) A12  A22 conductor having charge 2C and radius 1 cm
is
(4) A12 – A22 (1) 2 × 107 V/m (2) 9 × 10–7 V/m
(3) 5.4 × 10–7 V/m (4) 4.5 × 107 V/m
4. When two waves given by y1 = 3cos(t – kx)
Q. 50 (CST-04) (Centre of Mass)
and y2 = 4cos(t – kx) are superimposed, then
the amplitude of the resultant wave will be 1. Two particles A & B are moving as shown in
(1) 7 (2) 1 figure
(3) 5 (4) 2
Q. 2 (CST-04) (Angle of Contact)
1. If a liquid wets the glass, then angle of contact The velocity of centre of mass is
with glass is (1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
3 3 (3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
(1) (2)
4 2 2. Two particles are initially at rest as shown. If a
 force of 6 N starts acting on the 3 kg particle,
(3) Less than (4)  then the velocity of centre of mass of these
2
particles at t = 5 s is
2. A liquid does not wet glass, then its angle of
contact is
(1) Zero (2) Obtuse
(1) 6 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) Acute (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) 4 m/s (4) 5 m/s
3. If the surface of a liquid is plane inside a
capillary, then the angle of contact of the liquid 3. Two particles of equal masses have velocities
r r
with the walls of the capillary is v1  aiˆ and v 2  ajˆ while the acceleration of
r
(1) 60° (2) 180° first particle is a1  b(iˆ  jˆ), where a and b are
(3) 30° (4) 90° constants. If the acceleration of the second
Q. 14 (CST-04) (Electric Field) particle is zero, the centre of mass of the two
1. Choose the correct expression for electric field particle moving along a
intensity due to point charge. (Assume medium (1) Straight line (2) Circle
to be free space) (3) Ellipse (4) Parabola


(3)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Physics

Based on
CST (03 & 04)

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02 (Physics)
Answer Key

Q. 40 (CST-03) (Simple Harmonic Motion) 2. (1)

1. (3) 3. (4)
2. (1) 4. (2)
3. (3) Q. 34 (CST-04) (Superposition of Waves)
Q. 18 (CST-03) (Acceleration Due to Gravity) 1. (2)
1. (2) 2. (1)
2. (3) 3. (1)
3. (2) 4. (1)
Q. 14 (CST-03) (Application of Gauss’s Law) Q. 2 (CST-04) (Angle of Contact)

1. (1) 1. (3)
2. (4) 2. (2)
3. (1) 3. (4)
Q. 6 (CST-03) (Archimedes’ Principle) Q. 14 (CST-04) (Electric Field)

1. (3) 1. (2)

2. (1) 2. (1)
3. (3) 3. (4)
Q. 50 (CST-04) (Centre of Mass)
Q. 8 (CST-04) (Relation between Electric Field
1. (2)
and Potential)
2. (1)
1. (1)
3. (1)



(4)
 Based on
CST-03 & 04

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
CHEMISTRY
Q. 55. (CST-03) (Nucleophilic Substitution Reactions) 2. Which among the following has the highest
1. The increasing order of rate of SN1 reaction is basicity?

(1) SbH3 (2) AsH3

(3) NH3 (4) PH3

3. Which among the following hydrides shows

hydrogen bonding?

(1) AsH3 (2) PH3

(1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) (3) NH3 (4) SbH3
(2) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
Q.58. (CST-03) (Energies of Atomic Orbitals)
(3) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(4) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) 1. Which among the following subshell has
2. Which among the following is most reactive highest energy?
towards SN1 reaction?
(1) (E2s)Li (2) (E2s)Na

(3) (E2s)H (4) (E2s)K

(1) (2)
2. The number of degenerate orbitals in third shell
of H-atom is/are
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) (4)
(3) 9 (4) 3
3. The most reactive compound towards SN1 3. The (n + l) value is highest for a multielectronic
reaction is
species is of

(1) (2) (1) 3s (2) 3p

(3) 4d (4) 5s
Q.69. (CST-03) (Preparation of Ethers)
1. The correct IUPAC name of phenetole is
(3) (4)
(1) Methoxybenzene
Q.66. (CST-03) (Chemical Properties and Trends in
(2) Ethoxybenzene
Chemical Reactivity)
1. The correct boiling point order of hydrides of (3) 2-methylphenol
group 15 elements is (4) 2-methyl anisole
(1) BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 2. The common name of methoxybenzene is
(1) Phenol
(2) BiH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(2) Cresol
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(3) Anisole
(4) SbH3 > BiH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > NH3 (4) Toluene
(1)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Chemistry

Q.58. (CST-04) (Alkanes: Preparation of Alkanes)

1. Which among the following alkane cannot be

prepared by Kolbe's electrolysis? (3) (4)

(1) n-Butane (2) Ethane

(3) Propane (4) Methane

3.
2. The major product obtained when
V O
n-Heptane 
773K 
2 5
This reaction is called as
10–20 atm
(1) Fittig reaction
(1) Heptene
(2) Wurtz reaction
(2) 1-Methylcyclohexane
(3) Swarts reaction
(3) Cycloheptane
(4) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
(4) Toluene
4. The major product obtained when
3. The correct rate of reactivity of following
halogens with alkanes is

(1) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 > I2

(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(3) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(4) I2 > Cl2 > Br2 > F2

(1) (2)
Q.61. (CST-04) (Reaction of Haloarenes: Reaction with
Metals)

1. Which among the following is most reactive towards

nucleophilic substitution reaction? (3) (4)

(1) (2) Q.67.(Lewis Acids and Bases)

1. Which among the following is not a Lewis acid?
(1) BCl3 (2) AlCl3
(3) CO2 (4) NH3

(3) (4) 2. The conjugate acid of HSO4– is

(1) H2SO4 (2) SO2–

4

2. The major product C obtained when (3) SO2 (4) H2SO3

3. Which among the following cannot act as

Bronsted-Lowry base?

(1) F–

(2) NH4
(1) (2)
(3) H2O

(4) CN–

(2)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Chemistry

Q.92. (Alkanes: Properties of Alkanes) In the light of above statements, the correct
option is
1. Statement I: Alkanes possess weak van der
Waal forces. (1) Both statement I and II are true

Statement II: Alkanes are colourless and (2) Both statement I and II are false
odourless compounds.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
In the light of above statement, select the
correct option. (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false 3. Which among the following represents the
chain propagation step of free radical
(2) Statement I false but statement II is true
chlorination of methane?
(3) Both statement I and II are true  
(1) CH3  CH3 
 CH3  CH3
(4) Both statement I and II are false  
(2) CH3  Cl 
 CH3  Cl
2. Statement I: The most stable conformation of

(3) Cl2  2Cl
hv
ethane is staggered conformation.
Statement II: Staggered conformation has the  
maximum torsional strain. (4) CH3 + Cl2 
hv
CH3Cl + Cl





(3)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Chemistry

Based on
CST-03 & 04

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
CHEMISTRY
Answer Key

Q. 55. (CST-03) (Nucleophilic Substitution Reactions) Q.58. (CST-04) (Alkanes: Preparation of Alkanes)
1. (3) 1. (4)
2. (4) 2. (4)
3. (4)
3. (2)
Q.66. (CST-03) (Chemical Properties and Trends in
Q.61. (CST-04) (Reaction of Haloarenes: Reaction with
Chemical Reactivity)
Metals)
1. (1)
1. (3)
2. (3)
3. (3) 2. (1)
3. (1)
Q.58. (CST-03) (Energies of Atomic Orbitals)
4. (2)
1. (4) Q.67 (Lewis Acids and Bases)
2. (3)
1. (4)
3. (3)
2. (1)
Q.69. (CST-03) (Preparation of Ether)
3. (2)
1. (2)
Q.92. (Alkanes: Properties of Alkanes)
2. (3)
1. (3)
2. (3)
3. (4)
















(4)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Botany

Based on
CST-03 & CST-04

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
BOTANY

CST-03: Q.No.137 (Transport in Plants: CST-03: Q.No.111 (Principles of Inheritance and

Transpiration) Variation: Genetic Disorders)
1. The process of exudation of liquid drops from the 1. Which of the following terms is used if there is non-
margin of the leaves is called disjunction of homologous chromosomes?
(1) Transpiration (2) Surface tension (1) Aneuploidy
(3) Guttation (4) Cohesion
(2) Polyploidy
2. Guttation takes place through special openings of
(3) Frameshift mutation
veins near the tip of grass blades called
(1) Lenticels (2) Stomata (4) Point mutation
(3) Cuticle (4) Hydathodes 2. Autosomal trisomy of a particular chromosome
number results in which of the following disorders?
3. Through hydathodes liquid drops are released due
to (1) Down's syndrome
(1) Transpiration (2) Thalassemia
(2) A type of negative pressure (3) Turner's syndrome
(3) Root pressure (4) Haemophilia
(4) Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules
3. An allosomal aneuploidy is exemplified by
CST-03: Q.No.135 (Environmental Issues: Water
pollution and Its Control) (1) Turner's syndrome
1. The increase in concentration of toxicant at (2) Edwards syndrome
successive trophic levels is referred to as (3) Colour blindness
(1) Biomagnification (2) Eutrophication (4) Down's syndrome
(3) Precipitation (4) Detoxification 4. Which of the following is not due to non-disjunction
2. Find the incorrect option w.r.t. ectoparasites such of chromosomes?
as lice and bugs
(1) Down's syndrome
(1) Their number is usually large
(2) Turner's syndrome
(2) Only one parasite can live on single host
(3) Their biomass is usually smaller than host (3) Edwards syndrome

(4) They are found on the body surface of host (4) Sickle cell anaemia
3. Why does DDT get accumulated at higher trophic CST-03: Q.No.127 (Strategies for Enhancement in
level? Food Production: Plant Breeding)
(1) It is an important structural component of 1. All of the following are Vitamin C enriched crops
biomass released by the IARI, Delhi, except
(2) It cannot be metabolized or excreted by the (1) Bitter gourd (2) Bathua
organisms and gets stored in the biomass (3) Spinach (4) Tomato
(3) It helps in synthesis of various proteins 2. Which of the following crops is vitamin A enriched
(4) Its concentration increases by biosynthesis released by IARI?
within organisms (1) Garden pea (2) Pumpkin
(3) Mustard (4) French beans

(1)
 CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Botany

3. The crop released by IARI enriched with both CST-04: Q.No.116 (Respiration in Plants: The
Vitamin A as well as calcium and iron is Respiratory Balance Sheet)
(1) Carrot (2) Bathua 1. Which of the following options represents the
(3) Tomato (4) Spinach correct sequence required for complete oxidation
of pyruvate?
CST-03: Q.No.134 (Biodiversity and Conservation:
Biodiversity) (1) Glycolysis  Krebs cycle  Oxidative
phosphorylation
1. The regression coefficient for very large areas like
the entire continent is (2) Krebs cycle  Link reaction  Oxidative
phosphorylation
(1) 0.6 – 1.2 (2) 0.1 – 0.2
(3) Glycolysis  Link reaction  Krebs cycle 
(3) 0.1 – 0.3 (4) 0.3 – 0.5
Oxidative phosphorylation
2. The regression coefficient for smaller areas are
(4) Link reaction  Krebs cycle  Oxidative
(1) 0.6 – 1.2 (2) 1.15 phosphorylation
(3) 0.1 – 0.2 (4) 3 – 5 2. How many molecules of NADH + H+ and FADH2
3. With very few exception, harbours more are produced in a single link reaction and one turn
of Krebs cycle?
species than areas. Choose the correct
options to fill (A) & (B). NADH + H+ FADH2
(A) (B) (1) 4 1
(1) Temperate Tropical (2) 2 2
(2) Polar Tropical (3) 4 2
(3) Tropics Temperate (4) 3 1
(4) Polar Temperate 3. How many ATPs is/are produced by substrate
level phosphorylation during single turn of Krebs
4. Alexander Von Humboldt is credited with the
cycle?
proposition of
(1) One (2) Two
(1) Rivet popper hypothesis
(3) Four (4) Zero
(2) Evil quartet
4. Number of ATP produced by oxidative
(3) Method of biodiversity conservation
phosphorylation of one NADH + H+ and one
(4) Species area relationship FADH2 respectively are
CST-04: Q.No.115 (The Living World: Diversity in (1) 2 and 3
the Living World)
(2) 3 and 2
1. The word systematics is derived from the word
(3) 4 and 3
‘systema’ that is a ___________ word
(4) 3 and 1
(1) Latin (2) Greek
CST-04: Q.No.120 (Plant Growth and Development:
(3) English (4) Spanish
Growth)
2. Systematics differs from taxonomy as it takes into
1. Vacuoles are absent or negligible in which type of
account
plant cell?
(1) Identification
(1) Meristematic cell
(2) Nomenclature
(2) Elongated living cell
(3) Evolutionary relationship among organisms
(3) Parenchymatous cell
(4) Characterization
(4) A mature living cell
3. Which amongst the following is/are titles(s) of
2. During phase of elongation, water enters into the
Linnaeus book?
plant cells causing
a. Systema Naturae
(1) Plasmolysis
b. Species Plantarum
(2) Vacuolation
c. Synopsis of Animals
(3) Decrease in turgor pressure
Choose the correct option.
(4) Decrease in cell volume
(1) All (a), (b) and (c) (2) Only (b)
3. Phase of maturation is characterized by
(3) Only (c) (4) Only (a) and (b)
(1) Increased vacuolation
(2) Cell elongation
(3) Cell enlargement
(4) Wall thickening and protoplasmic modification

(2)
 CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Botany

CST-04: Q.No.124 (Transport in Plants 4. Consider the following statements and choose the
Phloem Transport: Flow from Source to Sink) correct option.
1. Transpiration in plants does not Statement A – The movement of the sugar in the
(1) Create transpiration pull for transport of water phloem begins at the source, where sugar is
loaded actively into the sieve tube.
(2) Cool the leaf surfaces
Statement B – Water potential gradient in sieve
(3) Involve ATP tube facilitates the mass movement of sugars in
(4) Help in maintaining the shape and structure of the phloem.
plants (1) Only statement A is correct
2. Movement of most of the ions from the soil to the (2) Only statement B is correct
interior of the roots
(3) Both statements are correct
(1) Occurs along the concentration gradient
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Requires energy
(3) Is mainly a passive process
CST-04: Q.No.110 (Biological Classification
(4) Occurs through diffusion Kingdom: Fungi)
3. All of the following are true regarding opening and 1. In fungi, conidia are
closing of stomata, except
(1) Haploid asexual spores
(1) Endosmosis in guard cells leads to opening of
stomata (2) Diploid asexual spores
(2) ABA regulates closing of stomata (3) Haploid sexual spores
(3) H+ – K+ ions exchange helps in opening and (4) Diploid sexual spores
closing of stomata 2. Endogenously produced non-motile meiospores of
(4) Exchange of ions through the plasma sac fungi are
membrane of guard cells is independent of (1) Conidia (2) Zoospores
ATP (3) Basidiospores (4) Ascospores
3. Fungi consist of long, slender, thread like
structures which are
(1) Haploid hyphae (2) Diploid mycelium
(3) Haploid asci (4) Diploid basidium


 

(3)
 CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Botany

Based on
CST-03 & CST-04

Corp. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
BOTANY
Answer Key

CST-03: Q.No.137 (Transport in Plants: CST-04: Q.No.115 (The Living World: Diversity in
Transpiration) the Living World)
1. (3) 1. (1)
2. (4) 2. (3)
3. (3) 3. (4)
CST-03: Q.No.135 (Environmental Issues: Water CST-04: Q.No.116 (Respiration in Plants: The
Pollution and Its Control) Respiratory Balance Sheet)
1. (1) 1. (4)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (2) 3. (1)
CST-03: Q.No.111 (Principles of Inheritance and 4. (2)
Variation: Genetic Disorders)
CST-04: Q.No.120 (Plant Growth and Development:
1. (1) Growth)
2. (1) 1. (1)
3. (1) 2. (2)
4. (4) 3. (4)
CST-03: Q.No.127 (Strategies for Enhancement in CST-04: Q.No.124 (Transport in Plants: Phloem
Food Production: Plant Breeding) Transport: Flow from Source to Sink)
1. (3) 1. (3)
2. (2) 2. (2)
3. (4) 3. (4)
CST-03: Q.No.134 (Biodiversity and Conservation: 4. (3)
Biodiversity) CST-04: Q.No.110 (Biological Classification:
1. (1) Kingdom: Fungi)
2. (3) 1. (1)
3. (3) 2. (4)
4. (4) 3. (1)








(4)
 CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Zoology

Based on
CST-03 & CST-04

Corp. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
ZOOLOGY

CST-03: Q.No.185 (Diseases Caused by Protozoans)

1. Sexual stages or gametocytes of plasmodium
develop in CST-03: Q.No.181 (Origin and Evolution of Animals)
(1) Liver cells of human 1. Therapsids were the most recent ancestor of
(2) RBCs of human (1) Pelycosaurs (2) Tuataras
(3) Intestine of mosquito (3) Mammals (4) Birds
(4) Salivary gland of mosquito 2. Choose the correct sequence of history of
2. Select the name of the toxin produced by evolution of mammals from the earliest to most
plasmodium which is responsible for chill and high recent.
fever. (1) Early reptiles  Synapsids  Pelycosaurs 
(1) Haemoglobin (2) Haemozoin Therapsids  Mammals
(3) Haem (4) Histamine (2) Early reptiles  Sauropsids  Thecodonts 
3. Fertilisation and development of plasmodium Therapsids  Mammals
takes place in (3) Synapsids  Early reptiles  Pelycosaurs 
(1) Intestine of mosquito Therapsids  Mammals
(2) Liver cell of human (4) Sauropsids  Synapsids  Thecodonts 
(3) Salivary gland of mosquito Therapsids  Mammals
(4) Stomach of mosquito 3. Which of the following have given rise to
mammals?
CST-03: Q.No.176 (Restriction Enzymes (RE))
(1) Dinosaurs (2) Sauropsids
1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of
(3) Therapsids (4) Thecodonts
(1) Virus
4. Complete the analogy by choosing the correct
(2) Several dicot plants
option.
(3) All dicot plants
Progymnosperms : Seed ferns : Therapsids : ____
(4) Helminthes
(1) Birds (2) Crocodiles
2. Which of the following is caused by Agrobacterium
(3) Turtles (4) Mammals
tumefaciens?
CST-03: Q.No.161 (Fisheries)
(1) Crown gall disease (2) AIDS
1. Choose the odd one w.r.t. fresh water fishes
(3) Hepatitis B (4) Tetanus
(1) Catla (2) Rohu
3. Tumor inducing plasmid of Agrabacterium
tumefaciens transforms normal plant cells into a (3) Common carp (4) Mackerel
tumor in 2. Which of the following cannot live in marine water?
(1) Nematodes (2) Bacteria (1) Hilsa (2) Sardines
(3) Fungi (4) Several dicot plants (3) Mackerel (4) Common carp
4. Which of the following bacteria is commonly used 3. _________ is usually found in rivers.
in plant genetic engineering?
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(1) Haemophilus (2) Mycobacterium
(1) Mackerel (2) Sardines
(3) Rhizobium (4) Agrobacterium
(3) Rohu (4) Hilsa

(1)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Zoology

CST-04: Q.No.170 (Treatment of Cancer) In the light of above statements choose the correct
1. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation answer from the following given options
than normal cells because they are (1) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) correctly
(1) Undergoing rapid divisions explains (A)
(2) Different in structure (2) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) does not
correctly explain (A)
(3) Non-dividing
(3) (A) is true; (R) is false
(4) Starved of mutation
(4) (A) is false; (R) is true
2. Transformation of normal cells into cancerous
neoplastic cells may be induced by 2. Normal activities of the human heart are regulated
_____, hence, the heart is said to be _____.
(1) Viral oncogenes only Choose option that fills the blanks correctly.
(2) Proto onchogenes (1) Extrinsically, auto-regulated respectively
(3) Only estrogen (2) Extrinsically, semi-auto regulated respectively
(4) Carcinogens (3) Intrinsically, semi-auto regulated respectively
3. Identify the incorrect statement w.r.t. cancer. (4) Intrinsically, auto regulated respectively
(1) -interferon helps in destroying the tumor. 3. A unique vascular connection exists between the
(2) In radiotherapy, tumor cells are irradiated. digestive tract and liver is called
(3) Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to (1) Hepatic portal system
kill cancerous cells. (2) Renal portal system
(4) Majority of drug have side effects like hair loss, (3) Coronary circulation
anaemia, diarrhoea, whooping cough, etc.
(4) Hypothalamic portal system
CST-04: Q.No.182 (Phylum – Mollusca)
4. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from __A__
1. Members of which phylum of animal kingdom to the __B__. Identify A and B and choose the
possess radula? correct option.
(1) Arthropoda A B
(2) Mollusca (1) Digestive tract Kidney
(3) Annelida (2) Kidney Heart
(4) Porifera (3) Liver Heart
2. Which of the following animals of phylum Mollusca (4) Intestine Liver
shows asymmetry in adult stage?
CST-04: Q.No.180 (Menstrual Cycle)
(1) Pila
1. All of the following hormones show their peak just
(2) Octopus before ovulation, except
(3) Chaetopleura (1) FSH (2) LH
(4) Pinctada (3) Oestrogen (4) Progesterone
3. Members of which phylum exhibit unsegmented 2. Progesterone hormone shows its peak during
body? which phase of menstrual cycle?
(1) Annelida (2) Chordata (1) Follicular phase
(3) Mollusca (4) Arthropoda (2) Ovulatory phase
4. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. phylum (3) Proliferative phase
Mollusca
(4) Luteal phase
(1) It is second largest phylum of animal kingdom.
3. During menstrual cycle, oestrogen shows peak in
(2) Body is usually covered by a calcareous shell.
(1) Follicular and Luteal phase
(3) Body is distinct into head, muscular foot and
visceral hump. (2) Menstruation and Follicular phase

(4) They are usually monoecious. (3) Luteal and menstrual phase
(4) Proliferative and menstrual phase

CST-04: Q.No.173 (Circulation through Special 4. Consider the given statements and select the
Regions) correct option

1. Assertion (A): Human heart is myogenic. Statement-A: The secretion of gonadotropins

increases gradually during follicular phase of
Reason (R): Normal activities of the heart are menstrual cycle.
regulated intrinsically by specialized muscles, i.e.,
Statement-B: The follicular phase is followed by
nodal tissues.
menstrual phase.

(2)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Zoology

(1) both A and B are correct 3. Select the common character shared by
(2) both A and B are incorrect Saccoglossus and limulus.
(3) only A is correct (1) Excretory organ is proboscis gland.
(4) only B is correct (2) Body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk.
CST-04:Q.No.183(Sub-phylum - (3) Open circulatory system
Vertebrata/Craniata) (4) Jointed appendages
1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement 4. Circulatory system is open type when
regarding members of cyclostomata? (1) Blood is circulated through a series of vessels
(1) Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins. of varying diameters
(2) They have elongated body bearing 6 – 15 pairs (2) Blood is pumped out of the heart and the cells
of gill slits. and tissue are directly bathed in it
(3) They have open type of circulatory system. (3) Blood is absent and gaseous exchange occurs
(4) All living members are ectoparasites on some through body surface
fishes. (4) Capillaries are present.
2. Select the odd one w.r.t. closed circulatory system
(1) Myxine (2) Ichthyophis
(3) Columba (4) Limulus


 

(3)
CSS-02 (CST-03 & 04) Zoology

Based on
CST-03 & CST-04

Corp. Office :Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

CONCEPT STRENGTHENING SHEET

CSS-02
ZOOLOGY
ANSWER KEY

CST-03: Q.No.185 (Diseases Caused by Protozoans) CST-04: Q.No.182 (Phylum – Mollusca)
1. (2) 1. (2)
2. (2) 2. (1)
3. (4) 3. (3)
CST-03: Q.No.176 (Restriction Enzymes (RE)) 4. (4)
1. (2) CST-04: Q.No.173 (Circulation through Special
2. (1) Regions)
3. (4) 1. (1)
4. (4) 2. (4)
CST-03: Q.No.181 (Origin and Evolution of Animals) 3. (1)
1. (3) 4. (4)
2. (1) CST-04: Q.No.180 (Menstrual Cycle)
3. (3) 1. (4)
4. (4) 2. (4)
CST-03: Q.No.161 (Fisheries) 3. (1)
1. (4) 4. (3)
2. (4) CST-04:Q.No.183(Sub-phylum -
Vertebrata/Craniata)
3. (3)
1. (3)
CST-04: Q.No.170 (Treatment of Cancer)
2. (4)
1. (1)
3. (3)
2. (4)
4. (2)
3. (4)










(4)