Pysiology:

1) Skeletal muscle:
a) Botulinum toxin inhibit the release of a cotylchaline from presynaptic terminals.
b) An exciting post-synaptic potential is generated by an influx of Na ions at motor end
plate.
c) Action potential cause release of Ca from longitudinal tubular system.
d) Contraction is initiated by the binding of Ca+2 to myocin
e) Skeletal muscle operate most effectively at the peak of the length tension.

2) Concern entopic uisual phenomena

a) Post untreous floaters are more easily perceived than anterior ones.
b) Flying blue or small dark spot same size commonly seen against plain white
background- intracapillary white blood cell.
c) Halos seen around light in corned edema result from internal light reflection
d) Retinal vasculaure is not normally self perceived because the vessel lie with
retina.
e) Congenital blue dot contract can cause small fixed scotoma
Optics:
3) Interferances:
a) Is one of the requirement to produce laser light.
b) Antireflective coating use distructive interference to increase the amount of
light transmitted by lens
c) Occur when prism used as mirror.
d) Antireflective coating is most coffecient for light for light incidences at
critical angle.
e) Can result in laser speckle
4) Spectacle lenses
a) RSM is defined as ratio of corrected image size to emmdtropic image size.
b) For convex lens, RSM is if lens is moved anterisely away fro, the anterior
focal point.
c) Myopic spectacles produce a base out prism effect for near vision.
d) The back vertex distance should be meed surreal if spectacle correction is
more than 5 dropter.
e) For s myopic correction in range 1 to 6, the best form lens is a base curve of
it 6D furthest from the range.
Interference using from the high degree of coherence in laser light ……..
5) Regarding Mirror.
a) For both concave and convex spherical mirror the focal length is
approximately half of radius of curvature of mirror.
b) For concave spherical mirror if object between mirror and its focal point,
the image is virtual and erect.
c) Image of object infront of convex mirror is always virtual.
 d) Plane mirror does not obey the principle of reversibility.
e) Parabolic reflecting surface can form a perfect image.
6) Ray optics :
a. Fermat’s principle states that the path taken by a light ray is the path of least
time.
b. A ray passes through the nodal point un deviated.
c. Can only be used in Para axial approximation.
d. Can be used to locate the cardinal points for an optical system.
e. Can be used to describe the monochromatic aberration of an optical system.
7) Prism:
a. In position of minimum deviation, one face of prism is to the incident light.
b. Total prism power of 3 prism of same orientation stacked next to each other is
less than sum of individual powers.
c. Prism of angle 5 degree made of a material of R,I=1.8 has a prism power of
2.5 D.
d. Short light is desisted more than long light in prism.
e. When myope wearing spectacle look down prism effect result in image
moving up.
8) Lasers.
a. Light from Nd. YAG laser is strongly absorbed by water on.
b. Argon laser light at 488nm is absorbed by Hb.
c. Nd-YAG laser is Q-switched to increase energy available in each pulse.
d. The energy profile of TEMOO mode laser beam hip.
e. Laser cavity of length L has frequency separated of D + c/2 f where C-speed
of light in medium between modes.
9) Diffraction:
a. Resolution of eye is diffraction limited when pupil is dilated.
b. The Airy disc is formed by list minimum of diffraction when light passes
through circular operature.
c. Can be explained by wave theory of light.
d. Is reduced by placing small operature on optic axis of any optical system.
e. Is for short than for long.
10) Biomicroscopic lenses.
a. A produce virtual images.
b. Require almost coaxial illumination to view the fundus.
c. Are aberration free.
d. Stiles-crawford effect of spherical aberration in eye.
e. Oblique astigmatism is an off axis aberration.
11) Reagarding lenses.
a. For thin lenses the Newtation form of lens equation can be used to calculate
image magnification.
b. Aplanoconvex lens has more spherical aberration than biconvex lens when
plano surface faces on coming light.
c. Lens formula are based on paraoxial approximination.
d. Number of lens is ratio of lens diameter to a focal length.
e. An a chromatic doublet consist of 2 lenses of different material separated
short distance
Refraction:
1) Subjective refraction :
a) Is commenced after subtract 1.5 diopter from retinoscopy
b) The spherical component is adjusted first
c) Power of cylindrical component is adjusted before axis
d) If VA remain unchanged after addition 0.5 diopter, this should be added to
the prescription.
e) Is not possible in children < 10 years.
2) retinoscopy
a) scissor reflex occur when one part of pupil is relatively mypopic
and other part hypermetropic
b) the reflex may be brighter in centre of the pupil
c) at neutralization, patient for point is at retinoscopy in retina
d) off axis retinoscopy may include irregular contigruatism.
e) As neutralization is approached reflex more rapidly
3) Astigmatism
a) With rule include of –ve cylinder at 90
b) In mixed astigmatism circle of least confusion may lie on retina throughout
any optical correction.
c) The circle of least confusion lies outside sturnum’s cornoid
d) Lenticular astigmatism is small.
e) In compound myopic, one focal line in front of retina and the second behind
the retina

4) Hypermetropia:
a) Far point is vitual
b) Most common type of refractive error in front
c) Latent hypermetropia has magnitude of 2D
d) May mean that presbyopic spectacles are never needed
e) Faculititive hypermetropia is the amount of hypermetropia that can be
overcome by accommodation
5) Slit/lamp:
a) Illumination system consist of collimating lens, filter, an aperture
b) Optics of viewing system form a real inverted image within instrument
c) Image is inverted using prism
d) Variable magnification can be achieved by internal cralielian
telescope.
e) Binoculars microscope has short working distance.
6) Normal binocular vision:
a) Fusion always occur if image fall on corresponding retinal point
 b) Horepter is that locus, which for a a given fixation distance, has zero
binocular disparity
c) Pannum’s fusion area in narrow in the periphery.
d) Pannum’s fusion area is small for small object than it is for larger
object when those are viewed at the same location
e) The steropic angle substended by 2 point is defined as the difference
between angles substended by each point at each eye.
7) Contrast sensitivity:
a) A gravity C.S is measured with square wave grating
b) If the light bars of the grating have luminance of 30cd/m2 and dark
bars have luminance of 10cd/m2
c) Peak contrast of the healthy eye is 10 cycle /degree
d) Is with pupil dilation
e) Is independent of background luminance.
8) Red/ green douchrome test:
a) Useful test for dutrope
b) Should be performed in cell patients
c) Can be used to obtain best vision with a spherical lens
d) Is used to ensure myopic, not overcorrected
e) Is a monocular test
9) Long MAR Aluity chart:
a) VA of 1.0 approximently to 616 on smaller chart
b) Currently read letter score 0,0.2 long units
c) There is geometric reading of letter size from line to line
d) Number of letter on each line increase as length become smaller
e) Should rest be view through pinhole
10) Relative spectacle magnification
a) Is defined as the ratio of emmetropic image size to correct image size
b) In axial a metropia(axial myopia), if the spectacle lens is at the
anterior focal point, RSM is 1
c) Myopic, if spectacle lens in closure to the eye than anterior focal point
,RSM>1
d) Index myopia RSM<1
e) Pseudophatic RSM=1

1. Concerning retinal photoreceptors

a) The foveal cones have long cylindrical shape.
b) The myoid portion of the inner segment contains villus-like extention of
muller cells.
c) They depolarize in response to light
d) The outer segment lamellae (discs) number 60-100.
e) A primary cilium connects the inner segment to the outer segment
2. Lacrimal sac:
a) Is an contact with the angular vein
 b) In an adult, the medial palpebral ligment crosses lower half of the sac
c) Joins the nasolossimal duct at the value of Hasner.
d) The anterior ethmoid air cells lie upper-medical to it
e) Is covered by the lacsimal fascia

3. The meibomianglands of eyelid:

a) Are exocrine
b) Number in the upper than the lower lids
c) Are holocrine
d) Lie immediately posterior to the tarsal plate
e) Deliver meibomian oil to the margin of the lid

4. The following are branches of the internal carotid artery:

a) Anterior choroidal artery

b) Middle meningeal artery
c) Superficial temporal artery
d) Maxillary artery
e) Hypophyseal branches
5. Concerning the trabecular meshwork:
a) The outer portion , the corneoscleral meshwork, is connected to the sceral
spur.
b) The trabecular sheets are covered by trabecular cells
c) Trabecular cells contain cytoskeltal proteins
d) Collagen fibres are arranged radially in the trabecular sheets
e) Inter trabecular spaces are larger in the more posterior parts
6. The eyeball:
a) Consist of segment of two perfect spheres
b) Is widest in its anteroposterior diameter
c) Its centre of rotation is behind its geometric centre
d) The optic axis is the line passing from the fovea to the fixation point
e) The inter papillary distance is 58-60mm is a normal caucasion adult
7. In the paranasal sinuses
a) The maxillary sinus communicates with the nose via the semilunar hiatus.
b) The posterior wall of the sphenoid sinus is related to the pituitary fossa
c) Each cavernous sinus is lateral to the sphenoid sinus is related to the
sphenoid sinus
d) The sphenoid sinuses drain into the retropharyngeal lymph nodes
e) The ethmoid air cells drain into the inferior meatus of the nose
8. The extraocular muscles:
a) Contain both muscle spindles and crolgi tendon organs
b) Contain only fast twitch fibres
c) Every muscle fibre has a single nerve ending
d) Afferent nerve fibres travel in the third nerve
 e) Posses a sarcoplasmic reticulum
9. The following lie with the cone of the rectus muscles:
a) The inferior division of the oculomotor nerve
b) The trochlear nerve
c) The lassimal nerve
d) The long ciliary nerve
10. Concerning blinking:
a) The palpebral portion of the orbicularis oculi muscle is under exclusively
involuntary control
b) Firmly closing the lids is a function of the orbital portion of the or the
orbicularis oculi muscle
c) The blink reflex infants is 2-5 per minute
d) The afferent arc of the blink reflex is exclusively through the
trigeminal(5th) nerve
e) The efferent arc of the blink reflex is exclusively through the facial
(7th)nerve
11. Concerning the iris:
a) It is thinnest at its root
b) The pupil is geometrically exactly central
c) The posterior pigment epithelium is derived from neurectaderm
d) The vascular endothelium is fonestrated
e) The major arterial circle of the iris lies deep under the collarette
12. Concerning the retinal ganylion cells :
a) They may contain pigment
b) Mcells are larger than pcells
c) 80% are m cells
d) P cells receive input from relatively few photo receptors
e) Some projector directly to the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the
hypothalamus

13. Concerning the lens:

a) it exerts more dioptric power than the cornea
b) the lens capsule becomes thinner with age
c) grminative (peripheral) lens fibre cells migrate both anteriorly and
poseriorly
d) lens fibres are attached to each other by “ball and socket” interdigitations
e) lens zone fibres arise mostly from the valleys of the pars plicata
14. concerning the uterous body:
a) it is not attached to the lens around the optic axis
b) the patellar fossa is formed by the remnants of the hyaloids vascular
system
c) halocytes secrete hyaluronic acid
d) hyalocytes are phagocytic
emberyology and development:
15. the fetal (optic or chroidat) fissure
a) invagination starts in the 4th week of gestation
b) retinal ganglion cells enter it before it closes
c) is vascular
d) it closes after the 10th week of gestation
e) detects of its ignition (origination) give rise to colobomas.
16. Concerning retinal development:
a) It commences posteriorly
b) The retinal pigment epithelium is derived from neural crest cells
c) Photoreceptors are evident histologically in the first trimester
d) Retinal pigment epithelium cells increase mitotic activity by birth
e) The future retinal pigment epithelium is initially non pigmented
17. The lens:
a) Forms from nueroectoderm.
b) The lens placode appears at 42 days
c) Fibres first appear posteriorly
d) PAX6 is essential for normal lens development
e) Y-crystallin is mostly produced after birth
18. Neural crest cells contribute significantly to the development of the following:
a) The lens
b) Corneal strunum
c) Lens conules
d) Posterior pigment layer of the iris
e) Ciliary body
19. The anterior segment:
a) The cornea is derived from both surface ectoderm and cornial neural crest
cells
b) TGFB from the lens influences anterior segment development
c) The trabecular meshwork is not identifiable until 30 weeks gestation
d) Both the sphincter and dilator pupilae are derived from neuroctoderm
e) The tunica vasculosa lantin starts to act atrophy at 35 weeks gestation
20. The optic nerve:
a) Retinal ganglion cells are the firsh retina cells to appear in development
b) Retinal ganglim cell first appeare anteriorly
c) Retinal ganglim cell axons are about 50% crossed in the chaisma from
the beginning
d) Growth cores guide retinal ganglion cell axons to the lateral germinate
body
e) By birth, up to 70% of all retinal ganglion cells are subjected to apoptosis
Neural anatomy:

21. With respect to the sensory nerves in the orbit:

 a) The ophthalmic division of the trigeminal divides into the lassimal,
fomtal and nasociliary branches
b) The nesociliary nerve is the largest branch of the opthelmic nerves
c) The supratrochlear nerve leaves the orbit through the supernorbital notch
d) The lacrimal nerve has sensory branches to the conjunctiva
e) The anterior ethwoidal nerve is a branch of fontal nerve
22. With regards to the dural venous sinuses
a) All the dural venous sinuses are situated between layers of the dura moter
b) Their valves are predominantly unidirectional
c) Their walls are composed of smooth muscle cells
d) The straight signs is formed from the inferior sagittal sinus and the great
celebral vein
e) The transverse sinuses end by turning downward as the sigmoid sinuses
23. Concerning the lateral genicular nucleus:
a) Its blood supply is from the branches of the middle and posterior celebral
arteries
b) It receives its neural input solely from the retinal ganglion cells
c) The cell bodies are larges in layers 1 and 2
d) Fibres from the ipsilateral retina synapse in layers 2,4 and 6
e) The optical tract is not joined directly to the superior colliculus
24. The ciliary ganglion:
a) It is the conection for pain fibres from the cornea, iris of ciliary body
b) It is a connection for parasympathetic fibres to the sphincter muscle of the
pupil
c) Sympathetic fibres don’t synapse in the ciliary ganglion
d) It is situated 3cm anterior to the annulus of zinn
e) It lies between the optic nerve and lateral rectus
25. Regarding the retinal pigment epithelium(rpe)
a) It consists of several layers of hexagonal cells
b) Spindle shaped welanin granules are found in the cells nearest the
photoreceptors
c) RPE cells are linked together with junctional complexes
d) RPE cells don’t normally undergo mitosis
e) RPE cells are tightly bound to rods and cones
26. Cells of the visual cortex
a) There are connections between the puluinar of the extra striate cortex
b) Simple cells of the primary visual cortex are found mainly in layer four
c) Concentric cells have receptive fields in the form of parallel bonding
d) Complex cells are mainly found in layers three and five
e) Complex cells respond to stimulus orientation moving in a separate
direction
27. Concerning the optical nerve:
a) 80% of the nerve fibres are myelinated
 b) 90% of the fibres originate from midget ganglion cells associated with
cone photoreceptors
c) The optical nerve is composed of about 1.2 million axons
d) During early development, there may be 3million nerve fibres
e) Optical nerve fibre organization is topographical
28. Concerning the pterygo-palatine ganglion (sphenopalatine ganglion):
a) The parasympathelic preganglimic nerve fibres are delivered from the
lassimatory nucleus of the facial nerve
b) The parasympathetic preganglionic fibres travel to the ganglion in the
maxillary nerve
c) It gives off nerve fibres to the chorda tympani nerve
d) It gives rise to the parasympathetic innervation to the sublingual salivary
gland
e) It gives rise to the parasympathetic innervation to the lassimal gland
29. Concerning the superior cervical ganglion:
a) It has branches passing to the 9th, 10th,11th and 12th cranial nerves
b) Postganglionic fibres pan in white rami communicontes to the first four
cervical nerves.
c) It lies at the level of the cricoids cartilage
d) It has branches that join the 9th to 10th nerves as the pharyngeal plexus
e) The preganglionic principal neuro transmitters is acetylcholine
30. Regarding the lateral ventricles, which of the following is correct
a) They are separated from each other anteriorly by the septum pellucidum
b) They have posterior horns extending into the accipital lobes of the
celebral hemispheres
c) They are limited interiorly by the corpus cellosum
d) The optic radiation passes between their central point of inferior horn
e) They communicate with the third ventricle via the aqueduct of sylus
General physiology:
31. Vitamin A:
a) Is conjugated with opsin in the ii-cis and 11-trans isomeric forms
b) Deficiency occurs only under –developed countries
c) Is produced by conversion of carotenoids in the intestines
d) Helps maintain epithelial integrity
e) Playsan important role in gene transcription
32. The kreb citric acid cycle:
a) Produces an ATP yield greater than glycolysis
b) Occurs in cytoplasm
c) Requires no oxygen
d) Is equivalent to oxidation phospherylation
e) Is part of the pathway converting carbohydrate to energy

33. In a neuron :
 a) A refractory period of a few milliseconds follow transmission of an action
potential
b) Myelination of a nerve fibres increases conduction spe
c) Inhibitory innervations increases membrane repolisation
d) A retrograde impulse will cause transmission across a synapse
e) Axons may branch
34. Calcium:
a) Is absorbed from the intestine by a vitamin C dependant mechanism
b) Is required for blood clotting to occur
c) Is required in the release of neural transmitters
d) Is released from boneby the action of parathyroid hormone.
e) Measured calcium varies with the serum albumin level
35. Growth hormone:
a) Increases protein synthesis in adult
b) Stimulates insulin like growth factor 1
c) Increase the number of muscle fibres
d) Concentration in the plasma in higher an hour after working than while
sleeping
e) Promotes lipolysis
36. Oxytocin:
a) Is released from the posterior pituitary by depolarization of nerve
terminals from the hypothalamus
b) Is produced in the hypothalamus
c) Is a steroid hormone
d) Stimulate contractions of the pregnant uterus
e) Does not across the blood –brain barrier
37. Concerning the heart:
a) The greater and diastolic volume, the greater stroke volume
b) The anteriovanticular node distributes impulses to the atria and ventricles
c) On an electrocardiogram the Twave represents depolarization
d) The mitral valve has tree cusps
e) The mean resting cardiac output is approximately 5 litres / minute.
Vision, ocular physiology and biochemistry :
38. In the corneal endothelium:
a) A tight junctions between the endothelial cells make the endothelium to act
as a barrier to the passage of water
b) The endothelelial cells pumps Na+ into the stroma
c) The Na+-K+ ATpase helps regulate the intraocular pressure
d) The regular hexagonal arrangement of cells is important for the maintenance
of corneal transparency
e) The normal cells account in a young adult approximately equal to 3000/mm2
39. Concerning eye movements:
a) Smooth pursuit movements normally have a maximum velocity of about
40deg/sec
 b) Smooth pursuit movements normally be executed without the stimulus of
target motion
c) The inferior celliculus is an important centre for visusmotor processing
d) The flocculus has a role in plassicity of the vestibule-ocular reflex
e) Horizontal saccades are generated in the paramedian reticular formation

40. Normal stereopsis is produced by:

a) Horizontal retinal disparity
b) An intact corpus callosum
c) Polarized light
d) Microsaccadic oscillations
e) The fox –talbot effect
41. The corneal stroma
a) The heat sensitive nerve fibres are unmylinated
b) Light scatter by fibres is reduced by destructive interference
c) Consists of 500 layers of type 1 collagen
d) Corneal lamellae are produced by kecatocytes
e) Corneal cosvature is determined by tension in radial fibres of the stroma
42. The eye is resistant to infections due to the followings:
a) Exposure to low amounts of pathologenic micro- organisms
b) The presence of lactoferrin in tears
c) Ciliated conjunctival epithelium which entrap particles
d) The presence of low levels of glucose in the tears
e) Lysozyme in the tear film
43. Concerning movements of the eyelids:

a) Reflective lid movements are inhibited during sleep

b) Eyelids movements are always bilateral and symmetrical
c) Elevation of the globe is associated with a slight lowering of the upperlid
d) During forced eye closure, only the palpebral portion of the orbicular is
muscle is activated
e) The lower eyelid moves medically during a blink
44. In the crysalline lens:
a) Extra –cellular matrix constitutes 20% of lens volume
b) Crystalline molecules are insoluble in water
c) Sodium ions and water are actively pumped out of the lens
d) The concentration of conscerbic acid is not as high as acqueous
e) Delta crystallins are important in human lens fibre fiormation
45. Cell Biology
a) Mitochondria are the site of ATPICs T.P formation
b) the Golgi apparatus produces lysosomes
c) the PH in alysosome is more alkaline than cyosol.
d) the Endoplaomic Reticulum in the main source of energy in the cell.
e) the Nucleolus in where are DNA transcription takes place.
46. Mitochondra
a) are the site of the citric acid cycle. +3
b) are surrounded by a double homogeneous membrane +1
c) have their own DNA ribosoms +3
d) originate from both parents +1
e) are involved in apoptosis programmed cell death.
47. concerning phototrasduction
a) it takes place in all cells in the retina.
b) when struck by a photon all-trans retinal photo isomorises to II- cis retinal
c) photoreceptors are hyperpolarized in the light.
d) GT pase activating protein (Gap) limits the photo receptors to light.
e) the retinal pigment epithelism regerasets II cis retinal.
48. in dark adaptation
a) the minimum light threshold in the dark is reached in 30 minutes
b) the cones adapt more quickly and completely than rods.
c) dark adaptation varies in different parts of the retina.
d) the time course for dark adaptation and rhodopsin regeneration are the same.
e) a rod- cone break is seen with light of all wavelengths.
49. in the aging normal lens
a) transmission of light deceases to longer wave lengths.
b) enzymatic activity in unchanged in the cortex.
c) synthesin of gamm crystallins relatively decreases.
d) fluorescent pigment is visible when 51 or more of lens protein a glycated.
e) aquopsin activity decreases.
50. concerning tears
a) the pH is slightly acidic
b) the concertation of potanism in higher than that of plasma
c) IgE is the mayor immunoglobulin in tears.
d) the mucus layer is not wiped away by blinking
e) Psychogenic tearing is always bilateral.
51. Concerning ocular Tocicty from systemic drugs:
a) phenytoin causes nystagmus.
b) the mucus layer is not wiped away by Blinking
c)Etham butol causes an optical neuropathy.
dHydroxychloroquine toxicity in not dependent on the dose.
e) systemic seroids in high does for 28 weeks cause open angle alaucoma
52. Drug deliver to the age:
a) increasing eye drop, viscosity increases conjunctional contact time.
b) suspensions of carticestecoids give higher levels of penetration than solutions.
c) liposome delivery systems cause blurring of vision.
d) liposomes readily carry hydrophilic drugs
e) Genatmycin cannot be delivered via a collagen shield.
53. Concerning acetazolamide
a) it should not be taken by individuals with sickle cell anaemia.
b) it may cause peripheral parasthesiae
c) it can cause metabolic alkalosis.
d) it enhances the conversion of the bicarbonate radical (HCO3-) to water and carbondioxide
e) 99% of carbonic anhydrase must be inhibited in the Giliary. Body before aqueous flow is
reduced.
54. Which of the following drugs inhibit the action of cholinesterase?
a) Edrophonium chloride.
b) Neostigmine
c) pilocarpine
d) physostigmine
e) echothiophate
55. An x-adrenocaptor agonist may.
a) contract gastrointestinal smooth muscle.
b) contract the dilator pupillae muscle.
c) increase intraocular pressure
d) cause cycloplegia
e) cause arterial hypotensium.

56. Concerning orally administered digoxin

a) it lowers the heart rate.
b) it significantly decreases intraocular pressure.
c) in large doses it causes irreversible changes in the yellow-blue axis of color vision.
d) its effects may be reduced by the administration of oral antiacids.
e) it inhibits the ATP-ase pump.
57. Concerning chloramperical.
a) it is lipid soluble.
b) it does not bind to serum protein.
c) it is bacteriostatic.
d) it has only limited activity against methicillin resistant staph aureus.
e) it may cause bone marrow suppression.
58. Concerning suxamehonium
a) it causes a rise in intraocular pressure.
b) may trigger malignant hyperthermia.
c) it decreases vascularity of the ciliary body.
d) it has prolonged effect in congenital absence of plasma cholinesterase.
e) 1 in 3000 individuals fail to inactivate it.
59. The following drugs may cause miosis.
a) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
b) Echothiophate.
c) Antihistamines
d) Hydroxy-amphetamine.
e) Morphine.
60. B-blockers.
a) betaxolol is a selective B1 – receptor blocker.
b) B – blockers increase awareness of hypoglycaemia.
c) selective B1 – antagonists have no effect on the born child tree.
d) overdose is treated with inravenous glucagons.
e) B-blocker eye can safely be used for infants.
Epidemiology and statistics.
61. An appropriate significance test to use to compare two proportions is.
a) paired t-test
b) a chi squared test of anociatim.
c) McNemar’s test.
d) t-test
e) Mantel-Haensized test.
62. the standard error of a sample.
a) is the accuracy with which a single observation is measured.
b) is a measure of the precision with which the mean.
c) depends on the square root of the sample size.
d) decreases as the sample size increases.
e) it is used to calculate a confidence interval.
63. Concerning comparisons of crude mortality rates.
a) they should never be made.
b) should be experienced in percentage terms.
c) must be adjusted account for the ratio of male to female death.
e) can only be made using standardized rates.
e) may be misleading because populations compared might of a different structure.
Genetics.
64. Trinucleotide repeats and expansion.
a) Underly the genetic phenomenon of “anticipation”
b) Result in abnormal gene expression whenever they occur.
c) are implicated in huntington’s disease, and fragile X.
d) take place during mitosis.
e) poly of disease often shows progressive degeneration of nerve cells.
65. Regarding mutations in the PAX6 gene.
a) can occur due to a deletion of the short arm of chromosome 13, b and 11.
b) are associated with autosomal dominant form of anicidia.
c) there is a high risk of developing nephroblastoma in familial cases.
d) as part of the WAGR syndrome is associated with mental retardation.
e) is associated with anterior segment malformations.
66. Genetic disorders.
a) affect lessthan 5% of live-born infants.
b) mendelian Genetics explains the inheritance of mitochondrial disease.
c) the human genome project has identified fewer than 40,000 human genes.
d) chromosome translocations may segregate in a Mendelian fashion.
e) account for 5% of childhood blindren.
67. In development.
a) Homeobox (HOX) genes are transcription factors.
b) HOX genes become redundant once development is complete
c) transcription factors are proteins which bind to specific regulatory DNA sequences.
d) as a result of lyonisation, all female are x-chromosome mosaics.
e) sonic hedgehog pathway genes are organ –specific.

68. concerning screening for genetic diseases.

a) Neurotibromatosis type 1 (NF1) can always be diagnosed by 4 years of age.
b) Biochemical tests may be fully infrormative of a patient’s genetic status.
c) there are consistent clinical signs in carrier females of mos x-linked diseases.
d) Lisch nodules are present in 98% of children under 5 years with NF1.
e) in children under 5 with uon Hippel-Lindau disease, with a proven mutation, retinal
screening is carried out every 3 months.
69. Concerning gene therapy.
a) liposomes can deliver large genes into cells.
b) has been shown to modify retinal dystrophy in humans.
c) can be delivered by an adenousisus vector.
d) is an effective treatment for cystic fibrosis.
e) germ cell gene therapy is widely accepted ethically.
70. IN x-linked recessive disease.
a) all sons of a carrier female are affected.
b) the mother is always the carrier.
c) males cannot pass the affected gene to their sons.
d) females are never affected.
e) 50% of a hetero zygous female’s daughter will be carriers.
71. Regarding sterilization and disinfection.
a) pasteurization involves temperature of 10000C
b) sterilization will be produced by dry heat at 11000C
c) auto chasing at temperatures of 13400C for 3 minutes will kill all organisms.
d) ultraviolet radiation is a commonly for sterilizing syringes.
e) culture plates are sterilized by steam under pressure.
72. concerning bacterial exotoxins and endotoxins.
a) endotoxins are proteins.
b) exotoxins are heat stables.
c) exotoxins are strongly antigenic.
d) endotoxins are present in all grain positive bacteria.
e) diphtheria vaccine is developed from exotoxin.
(73) The following organisms are gram negative:
a- propionic bacterium
b- pseudomonas aeruginosa.
c- treponemapallidium.

d- Neisseria gonorrhea
e- pneumococcus

(74) concerning to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV):

a- it lacks reverse transcriptase.

b- it is trophic for CD4 receptors.
c- contains a double strand of RNA.
d-primarily affects humoral immunity.

e- it is a retro virus.

(75) which of the following is regarding chlamydia trachomatis?

a- it is an obligate intracellular organism.
b- serotypes A, B, and C cause classic endemic trachoma.
c- ELISA techniques are used to confirm infection.

d- serotypes D to K cause lymphogranuloma vanadium.

e- it is a common cause of ophthalmic neonatorum.

(76) which of the following is true of immunoglobulins?

a- they consist of two heavy and light chains.

b- IgA is transported across placenta.
c- IgM is very effective in opsonisation for bactericidal effect.
d- These are two classes of light chain K (Kappa) and λ(lambda).

e- IgE is only produced in the linings of respiratory and intenstinal tracts.

(77) The functions of cells are;

a- the production of interleukin 1.
b- aiding antibody production by B (beta) cells.

c- the production of ɣ(gamma) interteson.

d- cell mediate cytotoxccity.
e- an innate ability to lyse tumous cells.

(78) which of the following is of hypersensitivity reactions?

a- type I hypersensitivity is triggered by the cross- linkage of IgA Fab Fragments on most
cells.
b- type II hypersensitivity reactions are caused by circulating immune complexes.

c- the Arthurs reaction is a local form of type II hypersensitivity reaction.

d- all type IV hypersensitivity reactions involve T cells.
e- necrotizing uescuritin typifies type III hypersensitivity.

(79) with regard to the speed of malignant tumors, which of the following is?
a- nodal enlargement near a tumor does not necessarily mean dissemination of primary
cancer.
b- basal cell carcinomas do not usually metastasize.

c- malignant uveal udauomas metastasizevia lymphatics.

d- sarcomas spread more frequently via the blood than the lymphatics.
e-carcinomas generally spread to regional lymph nodes.

(80) concerning toxoplasmosis infection:

a- reactivation of congenital lesions in the most common cause of ocular infection in HIV
positive patients.
b- congenital toxoplasmosis in the cause of all ocular toxoplasmosis infection.

c- ocular infection is due to parasitisationof the choroid by toxoplasma Gondi

d- if a child has congenital toxoplasmosis all subsequent siblings are not at risk.
e- most infected fetuses die before birth.

80. concerning toxoplasmosin infection.

a) reactivation of congenital lesions in the west common cause of ocular infection HIV positive
patients.
b) congenital toxoplasmosis in the cause of all ocular toxoplasmosis infection.
c) ocular infection is due to parasitisation of the chroid by taxoplasm gondii.
d) if a child has congenital taxoplasmosis cell subsequent siblings are not at risk.
e) most infected fetuses die before birth.
Optics.
81. which of the following make use of interference?
a) polarizing filters.
b) anti-reflect coatings.
c) laser visual acuity meter.
d) pachymeter.
e) applanation tonometer.
82. Light.
a) has a belocity of 3X108 meters/second in a vaccum.
b) the photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle nature of light.
c) is a longitudinal wave.
d) can be provided by the declaration of electrons.
e) is produced by electrons jumping to a higher energy level in an atom.
83. the following methods can be used to form polarized light.
a) scattering.
b) bi-refringence.
c) dichroism
d) reflection
e) interference.
84. when light passes from one medium to another with a different refractive index the
following may occur.
a) diffraction
b) reflection
c) refraction
d) interference.
d) polarization.
85. when light passes form one medium to another with a different refractive index the
following may occur.
a) the maximum resolution is approximately equal to the shortest wavelength of light used
image formation.
b) a real image is formed within the instrument.
c) the objective lens has a shorter focal length.
d) in its simplest form consists of one positive lens and one negative lens.
e) in clinical microscopes, the primary image is inverted by prisms.
86. considering lenses.
a) Angular magnification refers to the image size divided by the object size.
b) the cardinal points of a thick lens consist of two principal planes, two focal points and a
single nodal point.
c) a spherical lens produces minimal aberratims when an aperture infront of the lens restricts
light to its paraxial region.
d) the dioptric power of a convex lens in air in less than that of the same lens in water.
e) the prismatic power of a spherical lens is given by multiplying the dioptic power of the lens
in diptic by the decentration in centimeters.
87. In physical optics:
a) the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction.
b) when light powers from a region of high refractive index to me of lower refractive index,
the ray of light in deflected away from the vertical.
c) total internal reflection may discuss when the incident beam is at Brewster’s angle to the
refraction surface
d) when light passes from a medium of high velocity to low velocity it is deflected towards the
normal.
e) the critical angle is more than 90.
88. Reflection from a mirror:
a) can be accurately described by ray Optics.
b) can be accurately described by the wave theory of light.
c) The image formed is always virtual.
d) is an example of specular reflection
e) is subjected to spread by diffraction.
89. concerning lasers:
a) Argon Fluoride Excimes lasers are a continuous wave.
b) laser light is not strictly monochromatic.
c) Neodymium: Yag lasers can be a continuous wave.
d) Frequency doubling increases a ND-YAG laser’s wave length from 1064 to 2128 mm. 532
e) The eximer laser produces a large amount of heat in the cornea.
90. The eye
a) the most important refracting surface is the air-tearfilm interface.
b) the posters curture of the lens changes most during accommodation
c) the anterior chamber shallows during accommodation.
d) the refractive index of the sernea in 1.420.
e) the first focal point is located 15.7mm in front of the anterior surface cornea.
Refraction:
91. Hypermetropia:
a) The far point lies within the vitreous
b) Is common in children.
c) index hypersuvetropia occurs in long eyes.
d) lantent hypesivetropia cannot be detected by cycloplegia.
e) facultative hypermetsopia is the amount of hypersmetropia that can be overcome by
accommodation.
92. Refraction after recent contract extraction with a superior incinion gives the
following results. The course of action suggested is:
a) -1.000/- 0.50 @ 900 - Remove 12 O’clock suture.
b) + 3.75/-4.00 @ 1800 - Resture the incision.
c) -1.25 / +6.00 @ 4500- Crive the full prescription.
d)- 5.25/ + 600 @ 450- Remove all sutures
e) + 2.25/ -2.50-2.50 @ 450 Remove any sutures at 450 ,

93. Vision and refraction of children:

a) acuity normal reaches adult levels by 5 years’ age.
b) accommodation is accurate by 12 months of age.
c) in an infant under one year of age, hypersertaspia of 2-3 droptres is common.
d) binocular vision and stereopsis are present at birth
e) most children over the age of one year have a small degree of against the rule astigmatism.

94. Regarding spectacles:

a) lenticular lenses for a high myope give qa narrow visual field.
b) the back vertex distance must be specified in all spectacle prescriptions.
c) if positive lenses are pushed down the nose the effective power of the lenses is increased
d) myopic spectacles produce a base- is prism effect for near vision.
e) it is better to over- power a reading segment in elderly patients.
95. Concerning prismatic jump:
a) it can be reduced by incorporating a base-up prism into the reading segment.
b) it is made worse if the optical Centre of the near addition in the spectacle is at the top of the
bifocal segment.
c) is often worse in bifocals to correct myopia.
d) progressive multifocal lens has the prismatic jump.
e) it is significantly more marked in anisometropia.
96. A patient wearing a spectacle glan of -10 D at 15 mm in front of the eye wishes to
wear contact lenses. Which should the power of contact lens be?
a) -11.31
b) -8.53
c) -8.69
d) -9.45
e) -8.00
97. A patient with a corneal scar has only 20/40 after best refractive correction. With a
stenopoeic aperture (pinhole) his vision is 20/25. What could be an explanation?
a) spherical aberration
b) myopic astigmatism.
c) irregular astigmatism
d) simulation.
e) image degradation.
98. The duochrome test:
a) it can be used in patients with red-green colour blindness.
b) it is a monocular test.
c) it can prevent the overcorrection of myopes.
d) it is an objective test.
e) an uncorrected hypercmotrope (Hyperopes) sees the red letters more clearly.
99. A presbyope can read with his distance glasses for distances by holding his book
further away: which of the following is likely to be the reason?
a) He muat be myopic
b) He must be hypesmetropic
c) he can be myopic or hypesmetropic
d) He probably has significant astigmatism.
e) he probably has significant anisometropia.
100. Concerning the refraction of children:
a) cycloplegia is usually necessary to control accommodation.
b) the initial over-correction of myopia may help control intermitted exodeviation.
c) hypermetropia need only be corrected if the vision is reduced or there is an esodeviation.
d) astigmatism may be initially under- corrected to aid tolerance of new glasses.
e) “off-axis” errors of prescription are rare.