SFG 2024 Level--Test-4-QP-Eng_KING_R_QUEEN_P (1)

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C.: FIAS-SFG24-L2T4 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES & CSAT

Time Allowed: ONE HOUR Maximum Marks: 100


INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and
Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and
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Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box Email Id:
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else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.1) Consider the following statements: Q.4) Consider the following statements
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of regarding the Alluvial soils:
Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 1. In India, these soils cover more than 40% of
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the the total land area.
easternmost part of Satpura Range. 2. They are suitable for agricultural crops due
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the to very high nitrogen content in the soil.
southernmost part of Western Ghats. 3. The sand content in the Alluvial soils
How many of the statements given above are decreases from the west to east.
correct? How many of the above statements are
a) Only one correct?
b) Only two a) Only one
c) All three b) Only two
d) None c) All three
d) None
Q.2) Consider the following statements
regarding the phenomenon of ‘El-Nino’: Q.5) With reference to various Isthmus in the
1. The weakening of trade winds is world, consider the following pairs:
responsible for the onset of El-Nino.
Isthmus Connects the
2. It can lead to a Southward shift of the
landmasses of
Pacific jet streams.
3. It weakens the Humboldt cold current 1. Isthmus of Kra Malay Peninsula with
near the coast of Peru. continental Southeast
4. It leads to extensive drought conditions Asia
across the entire globe.
How many of the above statements are 2. Isthmus of North America and
correct? Panama South America
a) Only one
3. Isthmus of Suez Africa and Europe
b) Only two
c) Only three 4. Isthmus of Peloponnese and
d) All four Tehuantepec mainland of Greece

How many of the pairs given above are


Q.3) Which of the following statements is correctly matched?
incorrect regarding the Tropical Moist a) Only one
Deciduous forests? b) Only two
a) These forests are found in areas with c) Only three
rainfall between 100-200 cm per annum. d) All four
b) These forests are widely distributed
covering both in southern and northern Q.6) Consider the following rivers of India:
states including Tamil Nadu and Arunachal 1. Wainganga
Pradesh. 2. Vaigai
c) The trees in these forests mostly shed their 3. Subarnarekha
leaves during the winter season. 4. Penner
d) Generally, these types of forests have a What is the correct order of the above rivers
lower number of tree species compared to as one travels from north to south directions?
tropical evergreen forests. a) 3-4-1-2
b) 1-3-4-2
c) 1-4-2-3
d) 3-1-4-2

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.7) Consider the following trees found in 4. In Rajya Sabha, the Ethics committee looks
India: after the matters related to privileges as
1. Mahogany well.
2. Deodar How many of the above statements are
3. Rosewood correct?
4. Sal a) Only one
5. Ebony b) Only two
How many of the above trees are c) Only three
predominantly found in tropical evergreen d) All four
forests in India?
a) Only two Q.11) Which one of the following is an artificial
b) Only three lake?
c) Only four a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
d) All five b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
Q.8) Which Indian river’s delta is the site of the d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, famous for its
estuarine crocodiles? Q.12) With reference to the Retreating
a) Chambal river Monsoon Season, consider the following
b) Son river statements:
c) Damodar river 1. The apparent movement of the Sun
d) Brahmani river towards the Tropic of Capricorn is the
primary reason attributed to this season.
Q.9) With reference to the Western cyclonic 2. This season is marked by the absence of
disturbances and its impact on Indian Climate, any kind of cyclonic activity across India.
consider the following statements: 3. The coastal areas of Tamil Nadu receive
1. They originate over the Arabian Sea most of their rainfall during this season.
branch of the Indian Ocean. How many of the statements given above are
2. They are primarily transported into India correct?
by the prevailing trade winds in the Sub a) Only one
tropical areas. b) Only two
3. They majorly cause rainfall in Northern c) All three
parts of India during the Winter. d) None
How many of the statements given above are
correct? Q.13) Consider the following States/Union
a) Only one Territories of India:
b) Only two 1. Maharashtra.
c) All three 2. Puducherry.
d) None 3. Karnataka.
4. Andhra Pradesh.
Q.10) With reference to the Ethics Committee 5. Kerala
of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, consider the 6. Tamil Nadu.
following statements: How many of the above States/Union
1. The members of the committee are elected Territories (UTs) form part of the Cauvery
by the members of the Houses themselves. River basin?
2. Its recommendations for punishing a a) Only three
Member of Parliament (MP) for unethical b) Only four
conduct are binding for the House. c) Only five
3. It cannot take cases of misconduct d) All six
involving non- MP’s.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.14) Consider the following items: Q.17) Consider the following Agricultural
1. Bamboo practices:
2. Canes 1. Roughening the land surface.
3. Medicinal plants 2. Practicing Monocropping.
4. Timber 3. Building embankments parallel to the
5. Cocoon slope.
How many of the above are considered as 4. Practicing Intensive tillage.
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) under the Forest 5. Planting crops perpendicular to the wind
Rights Act, 2006? direction.
a) Only two How many of the above practices can help in
b) Only three controlling soil erosion?
c) Only four a) Only two
d) All five b) Only three
c) Only four
Q.15) With reference to the climate d) All five
phenomenon known as ‘Norwesters’, consider
the following statements: Q.18) Consider the following statements:
1. They are generally evening thunderstorms Statement-I: Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are
that occur in the region of Assam and West the two wettest places on the earth, receiving
Bengal. over 1000 cm of rainfall annually.
2. They occur typically after the monsoon Statement-II: Mawsynram and Cherrapunji
season and most prevalent in the months of are located at the high-altitude on southern
October and November. slope of Khasi hills with funnel shaped
3. They play an instrumental role in tea and catchment area.
rice cultivation in the various regions. Which one of the following is correct in
How many of the statements given above are respect of the above statements?
correct? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Only one correct and Statement-II is the correct
b) Only two explanation for Statement-I.
c) All three b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) None correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
Q.16) Consider the following tributaries of c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
River Brahmaputra: incorrect.
1. Subansiri d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
2. Dhansiri is correct.
3. Tista
4. Kameng Q.19) With reference to ‘Reserve Forests’ in
5. Manas India, consider the following statements:
6. Torsa 1. They constitute more than half of the total
How many of the above given rivers join forest area in India.
Brahmaputra River within India? 2. Generally, activities like grazing cattle and
a) Only three hunting are banned in these forests.
b) Only four Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Only five correct?
d) All six a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.20) With reference to recently passed Q.23) In the context of Indian monsoon,
Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita Act 2023, consider the consider the following statements:
following statements: Statement I: There are large variations in the
1. It defines terrorism as the act that intends total amount of rainfall from year to year.
to threaten the unity, integrity, security or Statement II: Rainfall variability is highest
economic security of the country. where the amount of rainfall is lowest.
2. It is proposed to provide community Which one of the following is correct in
service as one of the punishments for petty respect of the above statements?
offences. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct and Statement-II is the correct
a) 1 only explanation for Statement- I
b) 2 only b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) Both 1 and 2 correct and Statement-II is not the correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Q.21) Consider the following statements: incorrect
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
volcano located in the Indian territory. correct
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of
Great Nicobar. Q.24) With reference to Indian forests, the
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano plants named “Strychnine, Aconite & Datura”
erupted was in 1991 and it has remained are related to which of the following?
inactive since then. a) They are medicinal plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are b) They are commonly used as tanning
correct? material.
a) 1 only c) They are edible plants.
b) 2 and 3 only d) They are toxic plants.
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only Q.25) With reference to Indian Polity, consider
the following statements:
Q.22) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The President's actions during
Statement-I: Unlike many other peninsular the State Emergency declared under Article
rivers, Narmada and Tapi neither form deltas 356 of the Indian Constitution are exempted
nor estuaries. from Judicial review.
Statement-II: Narmada and Tapi flow through Statement-II: The State emergency declared
the rift valleys. under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is
Which one of the following is correct in ideally imposed to prevent the breakdown of
respect of the above statements? the Constitutional machinery in state.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Which one of the following is correct in
correct and Statement-II is the correct respect of the above statements?
explanation for Statement- I a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.
explanation for Statement-I b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is correct and Statement-II is not the correct
incorrect explanation for Statement-I.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
correct incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.

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Q.26) Consider the following states in India: How many of the statements given above are
1. Gujarat correct?
2. Odisha a) Only one
3. Jharkhand b) Only two
4. Rajasthan c) All three
5. Karnataka d) None
In How many of the above states Semi-Arid
steppe climate is found as per Koeppen’s Q.30) The Harike wetland is situated at the
classification? confluence of which of the following rivers?
a) Only two a) Chenab and Ravi.
b) Only three b) Beas and Sutlej.
c) Only four c) Jhelum and Chenab.
d) All five d) Sutlej and Ravi.

Q.27) Consider the following pairs regarding Q.31) At one of the places in India, if you stand
the Waterfalls and the rivers associated with it: on the seashore and watch the sea, you will
Waterfall River find that the sea water recedes from the
1. Jog Waterfall Kaveri river shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to
2. Sivasamudram Waterfall Sharvati river the shore, twice a day, and you can actually
3. Dhuandhar waterfall Narmada river walk on the sea floor when the water recedes.
How many of the above pairs are correctly This unique phenomenon is seen at-
matched? a) Bhavnagar
a) Only one b) Bheemunipatnam
b) Only two c) Chandipur
c) All three d) Nagapattinam
d) None
Q.32) With reference to soil types, Thur , Kakar
Q.28) In the context of Laterite soils of India, and Chopan are different names of which soil
consider the following statements: type?
1. Laterite soils are generally deficient in a) Alluvial soil
Nitrogen. b) Laterite soil
2. Laterite soils are suitable for growing c) Saline and alkaline soil
plantation crops like tea and coffee. d) Peaty and marshy soil
3. Laterite soils are well developed in the
Himalayan region of India. Q.33) Consider the following rivers
How many of the above statements are 1. Sabarmati
correct? 2. Mahi
a) Only one 3. Indus
b) Only two 4. Pennar
c) All three 5. Vaigai
d) None How many of the rivers given above flow into
the Arabian Sea?
Q.29) Consider the following statements with a) Only two
respect to natural vegetation in India b) Only three
1. The majority of Indian forests are c) Only four
dominated by hardwoods. d) All five
2. India's average timber yield is on par with
the global average.
3. The total Forest cover in tiger reserves of
India has increased in the last decade.

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Q.34) Consider the following statements c) Only three


regarding various geographical phenomena d) All four
and their impact on Indian monsoon:
1. The easterly jet stream descends over the Q.37) With reference to various Dams and the
Indian Ocean (near Madagascar), and rivers on which they are located, consider the
intensifies high pressure system, driving following pairs:
the southwest monsoon towards India. Dams The river on which
2. Presence of anticyclonic conditions in it is situated
Tibetan plateau during summers in India 1. Bhakra Nangal dam Ravi river
strengthen the Indian Monsoon. 2. Hirakud dam Mahanadi river
3. Cyclones formed in the Arabian sea 3. Nagarjuna Sagar dam Godavari river
enhances the progression of monsoon, 4. Indira Sagar dam Chambal river
whereas Cyclones formed in the Bay of How many of the above pairs are correctly
Bengal typically suppresses it. matched?
How many of the above statements are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) Only three
b) Only two d) All four
c) All three
d) None Q.38) Consider the following statements
regarding the Jhelum River:
Q.35) With reference to the Military exercises 1. It originates from the Verinag’ spring in
between India and various countries, consider the Kashmir Valley.
the following pairs: 2. It passes through the Wular Lake in Jammu
Military exercise Countries associated & Kashmir.
1. Mitra Shakti India and Bangladesh 3. It is the largest tributary of the Indus
2. Vajra Prahar India and USA River.
4. Nallah Lidder is a tributary of the Jhelum
3. VINBAX India and Vietnam
River.
4. SIMBEX India and Singapore
How many of the above statements are
How many of the above pairs are correctly correct?
matched? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) Only three d) All four
d) All four
Q.39) Lac is a resinous substance that is
Q.36) Consider the following statements with obtained from insects. In this context,
respect to Forest conservation act, 1980: consider the following statements:
1. Under the provisions of this Act, prior 1. Lac is a natural resin produced by the
approval of the Central government is insect Laccifer Lacca.
essential for diversion of forest lands for 2. India is the largest producer of lac in the
the non-forestry purposes. world.
2. It introduced the concept of reserved 3. Jharkhand is the largest lac producing
forests, protected forests and village state in India.
forests. 4. It can be used in making electrical
3. The power to make rules under the act lies insulation materials.
with respective State governments. How many of the above statements are
4. It contained provisions regarding correct?
constitution of Forest advisory committee. a) Only one
How many of the above statements are b) Only two
correct? c) Only three
a) Only one d) All four
b) Only two

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Q.40) Article 99 of the Charter of the United Q.43) Consider the following statements:
Nations (UN) which has been recently seen in Statement-I: Generally, Frequency of tropical
the news is related to: cyclones is more in the Bay of Bengal than in
a) the authority of the UN Security Council to Arabian sea.
seek advisory opinions from the Statement-II: Sea surface temperatures over
International Court of Justice (ICJ) on legal the Arabian Sea has been increasing in recent
matters. times.
b) the selection of the UN Secretary-General Which one of the following is correct in
based on the recommendation of the UN respect of the above statements?
Security Council. a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
c) the power of the UN Secretary-General to correct and Statement 2 is the correct
mandate the UN Security Council to explanation for Statement I
convene meetings regarding urgent b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
international issues. correct but Statement 2 is not the correct
d) the composition of the UN Security Council, explanation for Statement I
including the process for selecting its non- c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
permanent members. not correct
d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II
Q.41) Which of the following have coral reefs? is correct
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh Q.44) The soil salinity and alkalinity in the
3. Gulf of Mannar country is particularly visible on a large scale
4. Sunderbans in many parts of India. In this context,
Select the correct answer using the code given Consider following statements:
below: 1. Over-irrigation can lead to both salinization
a) 1, 2 and 3 only and alkalization of soil.
b) 2 and 4 only 2. One of the positive aspects of Soil alkalinity
c) 1 and 3 only and salinity is that they can reduce the
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 impacts of localized floods.
3. Treatment of topsoil with gypsum can
Q.42) Which one of the following statements is reduce alkalization of soil.
correct regarding the India State of Forest How many of the above statements are
Report (ISFR), 2021 and its findings? correct?
a) This report is published by Wildlife a) Only one
Institute of India (WII). b) Only two
b) The report highlights that total forest and c) All three
tree cover of India amounts to one third of d) None
its total geographical area.
c) The report noted that Madhya Pradesh has Q.45) In the landform development process
the largest forest cover as percentage of which of the following statements best
total geographical area. describes the term “Saltation”?
d) As per the report, Open Forest (OFs) a) It is a one type of wind erosional process.
constitutes the largest area classified under b) It is the process in which salt accumulates
forest with respect to the total in the top horizon of the soil.
geographical area of the country. c) It is a one type of glacial depositional
process.
d) It is the process which results in leaching
salts from the top layer of the soil.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Q.46) Consider two Statements and a Passage-1


Question: The phenomenon of urbanization has
In a six-floor apartment six people namely transformed the landscape of human
Rehman, Shikhar, Reshav, Piku, Qureshi and settlements, bringing about significant
Shobhit reside in a certain manner. changes in social, economic, and
Statement-1: Rehman resides on the fourth environmental domains. As populations
floor. Shikhar resides on a floor which is even. migrate from rural to urban areas in search of
Reshav didn’t stay on the top floor. better employment opportunities, education,
Statement -2: Reshav is two floors below Piku and healthcare, cities across the globe have
who is 3 floors above Shikhar. seen exponential growth. This migration has
Question : Who resides on the top floor? led to the expansion of urban areas, often at
Question: Which one of the following is the expense of natural habitats, leading to
correct in respect of the Statement and the pressing concerns about sustainability and
Question? environmental degradation.
a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer Urbanization offers the promise of improved
the question access to services and a higher standard of
b) Statement -2 alone is sufficient to answer living, but it also poses challenges. The
the question concentration of populations in cities can lead
c) Both Statement-1 and Statement -2 are to overcrowded living conditions, strain on
required to answer the question infrastructure, and increased pollution.
d) Neither Statement-1 nor Statement -2 is Moreover, the rapid expansion of urban areas
sufficient to answer the question. without adequate planning can result in the
loss of green spaces, contributing to the urban
Q.47) Consider the following sequence: heat island effect and reducing biodiversity.
5, 5, 11, 10, 23, 17, 47, 26 On the other hand, urbanization can also drive
Which one of the following numbers does not innovation and sustainable development. With
fit the pattern? the right policies and planning, cities have the
a) 17 potential to become hubs of energy efficiency,
b) 23 waste reduction, and green technology. The
c) 47 development of public transportation, green
d) 26 buildings, and renewable energy sources are
examples of how urban areas can lead to a
Q.48) Shakti and Rashmi are among 22 more sustainable future.
students who took an examination. Shakti
scored 81. The average score of the 21 students Q.49) Which one of the following statements
other than Rashmi is 61. The average score of best reflects the most critical inference that
all the 22 students is one more than the can be made from the passage given above?
average score of the 21 students if we drop a) Urbanization inevitably leads to
Shakti. Calculate how many marks Rashmi environmental degradation and the loss of
scored in the same examination? biodiversity.
a) 39 b) The challenges posed by urbanization, such
b) 49 as overcrowding and pollution, are
c) 51 insurmountable.
d) 37 c) Urban areas have no potential for
contributing to sustainable development.
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: d) With appropriate planning and policies,
Read the following two passages and answer urbanization can be aligned with
the items that follow. Your answer to these sustainable development goals.
items should be based on the passages only.

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SFG 2024 | LEVEL 2 |Test 4 |

Passage-2
The digital revolution has ushered in an era
where information is at our fingertips,
transforming how we communicate, work, and
learn. With the advent of the internet and
smartphones, access to information has
become unprecedentedly easy, leading to an
increase in self-education and remote learning
opportunities. People from all corners of the
globe can now connect, share ideas, and
access a wealth of knowledge that was once
confined to libraries and academic institutions.
However, this ease of access also comes with
challenges. The vast amount of information
available online can be overwhelming, and not
all of it is reliable or accurate. This situation
necessitates critical thinking and digital
literacy skills, enabling individuals to discern
credible sources from misleading ones.
Furthermore, the digital divide remains a
significant issue, with a substantial portion of
the global population still lacking access to
reliable internet services, thereby missing out
on these educational opportunities.
Despite these challenges, the potential for
digital platforms to enhance education and
foster a more informed society is immense.
Online courses, webinars, and educational
apps have democratized learning, offering
flexible and personalized education paths that
cater to diverse needs and learning styles. As
digital literacy improves and internet access
becomes more widespread, the benefits of the
digital revolution in education are likely to
expand, making knowledge more accessible
than ever before.

Q.50) What is the most logical assumption that


can be made from the passage given above?
a) Digital platforms diminish the quality of
education by providing excessive
information.
b) The digital revolution is necessary to make
education accessible to people worldwide.
c) Critical thinking and digital literacy are
essential skills in the digital age.
d) The majority of the global population now
has access to reliable internet services.

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