Major Test-1-(Phase-1 & 2) (TP)

CLASS-XI (JEE MAIN)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
NURTURE COURSE Test Pattern : JEE Main
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 300

Instructions CODE: 2302CJA101001240012

1. Immediately fill in Name and form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil
is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
Booklet/OMR Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 Multiple Choice questions (All are to be answered) with only one correct option. Marking
scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. (Out of which only five are to be answerd) Marking scheme
: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
Candidates are advised to read all 10 questions in Section II of each part before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than five questions, the first five questions answered by the candidate shall
be evaluated.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side–2 of the OMR Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone or any electronic
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Sheet.

Name of the Candidate : …………….………………………………………………………………………………………

Form Number : ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE: ALAMBAGH | ALIGANJ | GOMTI NAGAR | HAZRATGANJ

 PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has with time t as bt. The particle starts from the origin
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled by
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For the particle in time t will be:
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: 1 3 1 3
(A) v0 t + bt (B) v0 t + bt
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 6 3
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (C) 1 (D) 1
v0 t + bt2 v0 t + bt2
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. 3 2
5. A particle is thrown from a point on an incline
dy
1. y = sin3 x + sin 3x find plane, with a velocity of 20 m/s at an angle of 60°
dx
2 with the horizontal, angle of incline plane is 30°. At
(A) sin x cosx + 3 cos3x
what time the velocity of the projectile becomes
(B) 3sin2x cosx + 3 cos3x parallel to the incline plane ?
(C) 3sin2x cosx – 3 cos3x
(D) sin2x cosx + cos3x
6y
2. ∫ dy =
√3y 2 + 4

2√2y 2 + 1 + c
3/2
(A) (B) 6(3y 2 + 4) +c
√3 2
(C) 6√3y 2 + 4 + c (D) 2√3y 2 + 4 + c (A) s (B)
√3
s
2
13 1
(C) √3 s (D) s
3. Find I = ∫ y. dx, for given x – y curve √3
9
6. A particle is projected horizontally from a tower of
height 45m with speed 30m/s. Its speed just before
striking ground will be
(A) 30√2 m/s

(B) 50 m/s
(A) 48 (B) 78 (C) 40 m/s
(C) 30 (D) None (D) 30 m/s

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7. A particle moves in straight line in same direction 11. In given figure system is in equilibrium. If
for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then moves W 1 = 400 N, then W 2 is equal to
with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 sec and finally
moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds.
What is the average velocity of the particle?
(A) 3 m/s (B) 4 m/s
(C) 5 m/s (D) Zero (A) 500 N
8. A particle is thrown with velocity u at an angle θ (B) 400 N
from horizontal ground, the average velocity of the (C) 670 N
particle during its time of flight will be
(D) 300 N
(A) u sin θ (B) u cos θ
12. Find out the mass of block B to keep the system at
(C) u cos θ (D) u sin θ rest : (g = 10 m/s2)
2 2 [Surface is smooth and pulley is ideal]
9. Equation of trajectory of projectile is y = 12x –
3 2
x . If horizontal component of velocity is 3m/s,
4
then range of projectile will be :
(A) 18 m
(B) 16 m
(C) 12 m (A) 5 kg (B) 2.5 kg
(D) 21.6 m (C) 10 kg (D) None of these
10. What should be the value of "m" so that 4kg block 13. A man in a balloon rising vertically with an
remains at rest :- acceleration of 4.9 m/s2 releases a ball 2 sec after
the balloon is let go from the ground. The greatest
height above the ground reached by the ball is
(g = 9.8 m/sec2 )

(A) 14.7 m
(B) 19.6 m
(A) 3 kg (B) 4 kg (C) 9.8 m
(C) 1.5 kg (D) 2.5 kg (D) 24.5 m
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14. Three bodies are projected from the top of a tower 17. The free body diagram of the block of mass m is:-
with same speeds but in the directions as shown. If
their speeds on reaching the ground are v1, v2 and
v3 respectively, then

(A)

(A) v1 > v2 > v3

(B) v1 > v2 < v3 (B)
(C) v1 = v3 < v2
(D) v1 = v2 = v3
15. gx2
The equation of a projectile is y=x− , the (C)
2
angle of projection is : -
(A) 30°
(D) None of the given
(B) 60°
18. A block of mass M is in equilibrium on a horizontal
(C) 45°
surface. Force applied by block on surface is
(D) None of these
16. To man running at a speed of 5 m/sec, the rain
drops appear to be falling at an angle of 45° from
the vertical. If the rain drops are actually falling
vertically downwards, then velocity of rain drops in (A) Mg ^j
m/sec is (B) Mg (−j^)
(A) 5 (B) 5 √3
(C) Mg ^i
(C) 5 √2 (D) 4
Mg (−i )
^
(D)
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19. As shown particle is projected up the inclined if SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40)
particle strikes perpendicularlly to the inclined This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
plane then find value of α :- attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places;
4
(A) tan−1 ( ) e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer
3
3 is 11.36777.....
(B) tan−1 ( ) then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) by darken
4
3 the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
(C) tan−1 ( )
2 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
2 the following marking scheme:
(D) tan−1 ( )
3 Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered.
20. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered.
10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road the Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered..
raindrops appear to be coming with a speed of 20 1. Find out normal force (in N) applied by ground on
m/s. The velocity of cyclist is : 10 kg block (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 10 m/s
(B) 10√3 m/s

(C) 20 m/s
(D) 20√3 m/s

2.

Find tension in string connecting (in S.I. Units) two

blocks

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3. A ball is thrown from the top of 36 m high 6.
tower with velocity 5 m/s at an angle 37° above
the horizontal as shown. Its horizontal range on
the ground is closest to [g = 10 m/s2]
7.
8.
4. On turning a corner, a motorist rushing at 44 ms – 1
9.
finds a child on the road 100 m ahead. He instantly
stops the engine and applies the brakes so as stop
it within 1 m of the child. If time required to stop
it is n/2 (in second) then find n.
10.
5. A particle is moving in straight line, starting
from rest and acceleration - time graph is shown
in figure. Find magnitude of velocity of particle
at t = 2 sec.
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A body moving in a straight line with constant
acceleration of 10 m/s2 covers a distance of 40 m in
the 4th sec. How much distance will it cover in the
6th second
In a new system of units force (F), momentum
(P) and mass (M) are taken as fundamental
physical quantities. If the dimensional formula
of power in new system is FaPbMc then find the
value of (a + b + c).
The sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector. If the
magnitude of their difference is √x. Fill the value
of x in OMR sheet.
Velocity of a particle moving in a straight line is
given by 3t2 – 2t + 4 then of acceleration is At + B
∣ ∣
then value of ∣ A ∣ is.
∣B∣
Two blocks of masses 5kg and 3 kg are placed in
contact on a horizontal frictionless surface as
shown in the figure. A force of 8N is applied on
mass 5 kg. The acceleration (in m/s2) of the mass
3 kg will be
2302CJA101001240012
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 PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 4. Li3+ and a proton are accelerated by the same
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has potential, their de-Broglie wavelengths have the
4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice ratio (assume mass of proton = mass of neutron) :
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For (mass number of Li = 7)
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: (A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (C) 1 : √21 (D) 1 : 3 √3
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
5. The wave function ( Ψ ) of 2s is given by
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1/2
1 1 r
1. An organic compound contains 49.3% carbon, Ψ 2s = ( ) (2 − ) e−r/2a0
2 √2 π a0 a0
6.84% hydrogen and its vapour density is 73. At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in
Molecular formula of compound is :- terms of a0
(A) C6H10O4 (B) C4H10O2 (A) r0 = a0 (B) r0 = 4a0
(C) C3H5O2 (D) C3H10O2 (C) a0
r0 = (D) r0 = 2a0
2. A compound H2X with molar weight of 80 g is 2
dissolved in a solvent having density of 0.4 g ml-1. 6. From the given set of species, point out the species
Assuming no change in volume upon dissolution, from each set having smallest Size
the molality of a 3.2 molar solution is (a) O2 – , F – , Na+ (b) Li, Be, Na
+
(c) Li , H –
(A) 4 m (B) 16 m
(C) 8 m (D) 32 m (A) a-Na+ b-Be c-Li+

3. Consider the following reaction (B) a-O2 – b-Li c-H –

2Na + 2NH3 → 2NaNH2 + H2(g) (C) a-F – b-Na c-Li+
2NaNH2 + C → Na2CN2 + 2H2(g)
(D) a-Na+ b-Be c-H –
Na2CN2 + C → 2NaCN
51gm dry ammonia gas is passed over excess 7. The option with only amphoteric oxides is :-
heated sodium to form sodamide (NaNH2) which is (A) Cr2O3, NO, SnO, PbO
further reacted with carbon (excess) to finally form
NaCN. Find the total volume of H2(g) evolved at (B) NO, B2O3, PbO, SnO2
0.5 atm, 273K (C) Cr2O3, BaO, SnO, SnO2
(A) 201.6 L (B) 100.8 L (D) ZnO, Al2O3,PbO, PbO2
(C) 403.2 L (D) 50.4 L

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8. Consider the following ionization enthalpies of two 11. The formal charge of each O in O3 is.
elements ‘A’ and 'B' : Options And Answer(s)
(A) 0, +2, – 2
(B) 0, +1, – 1
(C) 0, 0, 0
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Both ‘A’ and 'B' belong to group-2 where 'A' (D) – 1, +2, – 1
comes below 'B' 12. The type of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen
(B) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group-2 where 'B' in NO+2 , NO−3 and NH4+ respectively are
comes below 'A' expected to be
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to group-1 where 'B' (A) sp, sp3 and sp2
comes below 'A'
(B) sp, sp2 and sp3
(D) Both 'A' and belong to group-1 where 'A'
(C) sp2, sp and sp3
comes below 'B'
9. Which set does not shows correct matching (D) sp2, sp3 and sp
according to modern periodic table (at. no of Cr, Fe 13. Atomic orbitals involved in hybridization
& Sc are resp 24, 26 & 21): of SF 6 molecule are :-
(A) Cr = [Ar] 3d5 4s1 ; element belongs to 6th group. (A) 3s, 3px, 3py, 3pz, 3dz 2 , 3dx2−y 2
(B) Fe2+ = [Ar] 3d6 ; element belongs to 8th group. (B) 3s, 3px, 3py, 3pz, 3dz 2
(C) Sc3+ = [Ne] 3s2 3p6 ; element belongs to (C) 4s, 4px, 4py, 4pz, 3dx2−y 2 , 3dxy
zero/eighteen group.
(D) 3s, 3px, 3py, 3dxy, 3dyz, 3dxz
(D) 59Pr = [Xe]4f3 6s2 belongs to 3rd group
14. In which of the following molecule C—C bond
10. Which of the following overlaps is incorrect
length will be highest ?
[assuming z-axis to be the internuclear axis] ?
(a) 2py + 2py → π 2py (A) CF3 – CF3
(b) 2pz + 2pz → σ 2pz (B) F2CH – CHF2
(c) 2px + 2px → π 2px (C) FCH2 – CH2F
(d) 1s + 2py → π (1s – 2py ) (D) CH3 – CF3
(A) ‘a’ & ‘b’ (B) ‘b’ & ‘c’
(C) only ‘d’ (D) 'a' & 'c'
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15. Which among the following are not isostructural ? 18. Which of the following order is CORRECT for
(A) XeO2F2, SF4 indicate property ?

(B) CO2, I3 – (A) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb (Ionization energy)

(C) NO3 – , CO32 – (B) S > O > Se > Te (Electron gain enthalpy)

(D) ClF3, XeF2 (C) SiO2 > Al2O3 > MgO (Basic character)

16. If the z-axis is taken as the internuclear axis, then (D) Cl2O7 > N2O5 > P4O10 (acidic character)
which of the following combinations of atomic 19. Among the given elements, select which is at the
orbitals is a nonbonding combination ? peak of Lothar Meyer's curves ?
(A) s and py (A) La (B) K
(B) px and s (C) Cl (D) Xe
(C) px and py Paragraph for Questions 20
(D) All of these Elements with their electronic configurations
are given below :
17. The compound which contains only covalent
I : 1s2 2s2 II : 1s2 2s2 2p6 III : 1s2 2s2
bonds is:
2p6 3s2
(A) KCN IV : 1s2 2s2 2p3 V : 1s2 2s2 2p5
(B) NH4Cl 20. Which of the following element having highest
(C) PCl5 (solid) ionisation energy?
(D) H2O2 (A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) V

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 5. Total number of elements which can accomodate in
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to the 10th period of periodic table if present.
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 6. If from 3 moles MgSO4 . 7H2O, all the ‘O’ atoms
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted are taken out and converted into ozone, find the
questions will be evaluated. number of moles of O3 formed.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. 7. Find the number of electrons having the value of
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If azimuthal quantum number ‘l’ = 1 for Cd2+(at. no
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, of Cd = 48).
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; 8. Find the maximum number of electrons in 4th
e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer shell.
is 11.36777.....
then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) by darken 9. An electron is accelerated from rest and it has
wavelength of 1.41 Å by how much amount
the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
potential should be dropped so that wavelength
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
associated with electron becomes 1.73 Å.
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. 10. The total number of bonding and antibonding
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. electrons in O2⊕ are ".................." and ".................."
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered. respectively.
[If the answer is 14 and 7, then represent as 147]
1. The sum of σ -bonds, π -bonds and lone pairs (on S
and O) in SO3 – 2 is ___.
2. In HCl molecule, if bond distance is 1.34 Aº,
charge = 4.8 × 10−10 esu then calculate % of ionic
character, if the experimental value of μ = 1.08 D.
Round off to nearest integer.
3. X different wavelengths may be observed in the
spectrum from a hydrogen sample if the atoms are
excited to state with principal quantum number n =
6 ? The value of X is _______.
4. Total number of lone pairs in N2O4 is :-

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 PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
n n
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. If ∑ Tr = n(2n2 + 9n + 13) then ∑ √Tr is
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has r=1 r=1

4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice (A) √ 3 (n2 + 3n)

Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For 2
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: (B) √ 3 [n3 + 3n2 + 2n]
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 2

Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. (C) √ 2 (n2 + n)

3
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
(D) √ 3 n2
1. Find number of digits in N = (6)600 : 4
6. If a1,a2,.....,an are in A.P. with common difference,
(A) 465 (B) 466
d, then the sum of the following series is
(C) 467 (D) 452 sin d(cos ec a1 . cosec a2 + cosec a2 . cosec a3 +. . . . .
2. If sin x + sin2 x + sin3 x = 1 + cosec an−1 cosec an )
then cos6 x − 4cos4 x + 8cos2 x = _________. (A) sec a1 − sec an

(A) 0 (B) 2 (B) cot a1 − cot an

(C) 4 (D) 8 (C) tan a1 − tan an

3. If sin θ 1 + sin θ 2 + sin θ 3 + sin θ 4 = 4, then cos θ 1 + (D) cosec a1 − cosec an

cos θ 2 + cos θ 3 + cos θ 4 is equal to - x4 + 2x2 + 10
7. The minimum value of
x2 + 1
(A) 4 (B) π −4 (A) 10 (B) 6
2
(C) 1 (D) 0 (C) 20 (D) 4
4 5
4. 15
1 8. If a,2,b,c,d,10,e,... are in A.P., then common
Value of ∑ is - difference of the A.P. is :
r=1
(9r2 + 15r + 4)

15 1 (A) 1
(A) (B)
49 5 (B) 1.5
15 15
(C) (D) (C) 2
196 22
(D) 2.5

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9. The sum of all numbers between 100 and 10,000 n −1
14. If the value of ∑ cos2 ( r π ) ; n ⩾ 2 is 7, then 'n'
which are of the form n3 (n ∈ N) is equal to- r=1
n
is equal to-
(A) 55216 (B) 53261
(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 51261 (D) None of these
(C) 14 (D) 16
10. If a,b,c are in harmonic progression, then
15. The value of the expression
a b c
, , are in- ∘
cos 20 − sin 20 ∘
b+c c+a a+b is equal to
√2 − √2 + 2 cos 100∘
(A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(A) 1 (B) 1
(C) H.P. (D) None of these 2
11. cos12° – cos48° is equal to - 1
(C) (D) √2
√2
√5 + 1
(A) 16. If p > q > 0 are two real numbers, then the value of
4
√pq + (p − q)√pq + (p − q)√pq + (p − q)√pq+. . . . . . .
√5 − 1
(B)
4
2 − √3 is -
(C)
2 + √3 (A) independent of q
√10 − 2√5
(D) (B) independent of p
4
7 + 6 tan x − tan2 x
(C) independent of both p and q
12. If the maximum value of y =
(1 + tan2 x) (D) dependent on both p and q.
is λ then the value of log√2 ( λ ) is 12
17. If B = and
(A) 0 (B) 6 3 + √5 + √8

(C) 8 (D) 1 A = √1 + √2 + √5 − √10, then value of logA B is

sin x cos x (A) a positive integer

13. ƒ (x) = + is constant in
√1 + tan2 x √1 + cot2 x
(B) a prime integer
which of the following interval -
(C) a non-negative integer
π π
(A) (0 , ) (B) ( , π) (D) non integer
2 2
3π π π
(C) (π, ) (D) (− , )
2 2 2

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18. The shaded region in the figure is 19. Let A = {n ∈ [100, 700] ∩ N : n is neither a
multiple of 3 nor a multiple of 4}. Then the number
of elements in A is
(A) 300 (B) 280
(C) 310 (D) 290
(A) A ∩ (B ∪ C) 20. Number of solutions of the
(B) A ∪ (B ∩ C) equation 2 ℓ n2x = ℓ n( 7x – 2 – 2x 2 ) is
(C) A ∩ (B − C) (A) 0 (B) 1
(D) A − (B ∪ C) (C) 2 (D) None of these

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 40) 4. If 3tanA – 4 = 0 and A is in 3rd quadrant then find
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to value of 5 sin2A + 3sinA + 4cosA
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 5. If p = cos 55°, q = cos 65°, r = cos 175°, then the
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 1 1 r
questions will be evaluated. value of + + is :
p q pq
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value. 6. The number of integers in the range of y = 4tanx
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If cosx is
the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
7. The five digit number a679b is multiple of 72.
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places;
e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer Then the value of a + 2b is :
is 11.36777..... 8. Let x = √3 − √5 and y = √3 + √5. If the value of
then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct) by darken
the expression x − y + 2x2 y + 2xy 2 − x4 y + xy 4 can
the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
be expressed in the form √p + √q where p, q ∈ N ,
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme: then (p + q) has the value equal
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is entered. 9. ||x – 2| – 3| < 2, then number of integer solution of
Zero Marks : 0 If the question is unanswered. the equation will be :
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong answer is entered..
−1 −2 −4
10. x = 71/3 – 7 – 1/3 then find value of 7x3 + 21x
1. (1 + 5 ) . (1 + 5 ) . (1 + 5 ) . . . . .
λ
(1 + 5−2 ) = (1 − 5−2 )
n n+1

μ
such that gcd( λ , μ ) = 1 then find value of ( λ ⋅ μ )
2. If S1, S2, S3. ...., Sn are the sums of infinite
geometric series whose first terms are 1, 2, 3, .., n
and whose common ratios are
1 1 1 1
, , , ...., respectively, then find
2 3 4 n+1
S1 + S2 +. . . . +S10

3. If yz + zx + xy = 12, where x, y, z are positive

values, find greatest value of xyz.

Nurture - LUCKNOW-IIT-JEE MAIN-NURTURE-PHASE-1&2-MAJOR TEST-1 (TP) 2302CJA101001240012

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Nurture - LUCKNOW-IIT-JEE MAIN-NURTURE-PHASE-1&2-MAJOR TEST-1 (TP) 2302CJA101001240012

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