Class X (61 Sample Papers)

FOR
Semester-iI
Sample
Question
Papers
ICSE CLASS X
ALL SUBJECTS COMBINED
For 2022 Examination
Fully Solved New Specimen

Question Paper Released by
CISCE in Dec, 2021
BY
PANEL OF AUTHORS
■ Hindi ■ Computer Applications

■ English I & II ■ Physical Education
■ History & Civics ■ Economics
■ Geography ■ Economic Applications
■ Mathematics ■ Commercial Studies
■ Physics ■ Commercial Applications
■ Chemistry ■ Home Science
■ Biology
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Contents
Hindi Geography
Specimen Question Paper 9 Specimen Question Paper 131
Sample Paper 1 17 Sample Paper 1 136

Sample Paper 3 146
Sample Paper 3 30
Sample Paper 4 151
Sample Paper 4 36
Sample Paper 5 156
English-I
Mathematics
Specimen Question Paper 43
Sample Paper 1 49
Sample Paper 1 175
Sample Paper 4 216
English-II Sample Paper 5 229

Sample Paper 1 73
Physics
Sample Paper 2 79 Specimen Question Paper 241
Sample Paper 1 249
Sample Paper 3 86
Sample Paper 2 255
Sample Paper 3 262
History & Civics Sample Paper 4 269
Specimen Question Paper 93 Sample Paper 5 277
Sample Paper 1 99
Sample Paper 2 104 Chemistry
Sample Paper 3 310 Economics
Sample Paper 4 318
Sample Paper 5 325
Sample Paper 1 469
Sample Paper 2 475
Biology
Specimen Question Paper 333 Economic Applications
Sample Paper 1 339
Sample Paper 2 345
Sample Paper 1 488
Sample Paper 3 351
Sample Paper 2 496
Sample Paper 4 357
Sample Paper 5 363
Commercial Studies
Computer Applications
Sample Paper 1 513
Sample Paper 2 520
Sample Paper 1 375
Sample Paper 2 382
Commercial Applications
Sample Paper 3 390

Sample Paper 2 539
Physical Education
Home Science
Sample Paper 1 428
Sample Paper 1 551
Sample Paper 2 444
Sample Paper 2 556
Specimen Question Paper
Hindi (Second Language)
Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One and a half hours
General Instructions
You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
Section A is Compulsory
Section B—Answer-questions from any two books that you have studied.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
ç'u
Section-A
Question 1.
Write a short composition in Hindi of approximately 200 words on any one of the following topics: [12]
fuEufyf[kr fo"k;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij fgUnh esa yxHkx 200 'kCnksa esa fuca/k fyf[k,%
(i)
iqLrdky; O;fDr dks vKku ds va/kdkj ls fudkydj Kku ds çdk'k dh vksj ys tkrk gSA bl dFku dks /;ku esa j[krs gq,
iqLrdky; ds egRo ij çdk'k Mkfy,A
(ii) lekt esa ê|&fu"ks/k* vfuok;Z :i ls gksuk gh pkfg,A bl dFku ds i{k ;k foi{k esa vius fopkj çLrqr dhft,A

(iii) gj O;fDr ds thou dk dksbZ u dksbZ y{; gksrk gSA vkids thou dk D;k y{; gS\ bl fo"k; ij ,d ys[k fyf[k,A

(iv) djr&djr vH;kl ds tM+efr gksr lqtkuµ bl dgkor dks vk/kkj cukdj ,d ekSfyd dgkuh fy[ksaA

(v)
uhps fn, x, fp= dks /;ku ls nsf[k, vkSj fp= dks vk/kkj cukdj] mldk ifjp; nsrs gq, dksbZ ys[k] ?kVuk vFkok dgkuh fyf[k,]
ftldk lh/kk o Li"V laca/k fp= ls gksuk pkfg,A
Hindi Specimen Question Paper
11
mÙkjekyk
Section-A
Answer 1.
(i) ,d dejk] <sj lkjh fdrkcsa] vkSj eupkgh 'kkafrA ,slk ekgkSy ;k rks fdlh /;kuky; esa ;k rks fdlh iqLrdky; esa gh fn[kkbZ nsxkA
iqLrdky;] ftlesa vlhe 'kkafr ds lkFk Kku dh ml xaxk dk òksr gksrk gS] ftlesa ekuo vxj Mqcdh yxkrk gS rks mlds thou ds
vKku dk v¡/ksjk yqIr gks tkrk gS vkSj mls Kku ikrs jgus dh çsj.kk Hkh feyrh gSA
fdlh Hkh mez dk O;fDr viuh :fp ds vuqlkj iqLrdsa i<+dj viuk Kkuo/kZu dj ldrk gSA vyx&vyx fo"k;ksa dh fdrkcsa
i<+us ls O;fDr esa gj {ks= dk Kku c<+rk gSA dkWfeDl] fdLls&dgkfu;k¡] miU;kl] ukVd vkfn i<+us ls O;fDr esa dkYifudrk c<+rh
gSA fdrkc i<+rs oDr O;fDr fdrkc esa fy[kh dgkuh ;k ?kVuk esa [kksdj dkYifudrk esa pyk tkrk gSA i<+kbZ ls lEcfU/kr fdrkc
i<+us ls O;fDr f'kf{kr gksdj vius thou esa vkxs c<+rk gSA
fdrkcsa i<+us ls tkx:drk vkrh gSA lkfgfR;d fdrkcsa lkekftd tkudkjh nsrh gSaA [ksydwn ls lEcfU/kr iqLrdsa O;fDr dks thou
esa vkus okyh leL;kvksa dk lkeuk cukus esa l{ke djus esa ennxkj gksrh gS rFkk 'kjhj ds fofHkUu vaxksa ds mfpr lapkyu dk egÙo
crkrh gSA lkgl Hkjh dFkk,¡ euq"; dks çfrdwy ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa Hkh dqN dj xqtjus dh bPNk'kfDr çnku djrh gSaA
iqLrdky;ksa esa dbZ ,sfrgkfld fdrkcsa Hkh miyC/k jgrh gSa ftls i<+dj O;fDr ns'k vkSj nqfu;k ds jkspd bfrgkl dks tku ldrk
gSA oSKkfud iqLrdsa i<+dj euq";ksa ds tfj, lekt vkSj jk"Vª dk Hkh fodkl gksrk gSA
iqLrdky; Kku dk ,d ,slk eafnj gS] tgk¡ lkfgR;] laxhr] dyk] n'kZu] /keZ] jktuhfr] foKku] lekt] jk"Vªh;] vUrjkZ"Vªh; vkfn
lHkh Lrjksa dh fdrkcksa ds ek/;e ls euq"; ds lHkh oxZ ds vKku dk v¡/ksjk nwj gksrk gSA fdlh Hkh O;fDr ds fy, nqfu;k dh lkjh
fdrkcsa [kjhnuk ukeqefdu gSA ,slh fLFkfr esa de nke esa vf/kdre iqLrdksa dh miyfC/krk iqLrdky;ksa esa gksrh gS ftuds ek/;e
ls Kku çkIr djds vKku dk v¡/ksjk nwj djus esa lgk;rk gksrh gS vkSj euq"; dks Kku dk çdk'k çkIr gksrk gSA
i{k esa% lu~ 1927 esa egkRek xk¡/khth us dgk Fkk fd êSa Hkkjr esa dqN gt+kj 'kjkch ns[kus ds ctk; ns'k dks vR;f/kd xjhc ns[kuk
(ii)
ilan d:¡xkA iw.kZ u'kkcanh ds fy, lkjk ns'k vui<+ Hkh jg tk,] rks Hkh u'kkcanh ds mís'; ds fy, ;g dksbZ ewY; ugha gSA* ckiwth
us dbZ lky igys gh ns'k dks 'kjkc ds xans u'ks ls cpkus dh tks dksf'k'k dh Fkh] mls Hkyk ge ukdke dSls gksus nsa\ xkSre cq¼ th
us Hkh dgk fd 'kjkc ls lnk Hk;Hkhr jguk D;ksafd ;g iki rFkk vukpkj dh tuuh gSA tc ,slh egku gfLr;ksa us Hkh 'kjkc ;k e|
tSlh oLrq dks ekufld foosd dk uk'k djus okyh vkSj ?k`.kkLin crk;k gS rks gesa Hkh blds foijhr ifj.kkeksa dh tkudkjh gksuk
t#jh gSA
'kjkc ;k e| 'kjhj dks [kks[kyk rks cuk gh nsrk gS lkFk&gh&lkFk ekufld larqyu dks Hkh fcxkM+rk gSA dqN R;ksgkjksa esa vkSj thou
esa fdlh thr dk t'u eukus ds fy, e| iku djuk 'kku rFkk [kq'kh dk çrhd ekuk tkrk gSA fdUrq e| iku tc t#jr ls
vf/kd c<+ tkrk gS vkSj O;fDr dks mldh yr yx tkrh gS rks ifjokj dk fouk'k gksrk gS] pfj= dh gkfu gksrh gS] /ku cckZn gks tkrk
gS] LokLF; rFkk cqf¼ u"V gks tkrh gSA vkSj ,sls gkykr esa vkneh ft, dSls\rks fQj e`R;q vVy gh gSA tc vkneh [kRe gksrk gS
rks lekt vkSj jk"Vª dh mUufr dh dkeuk ge dSls dj ldrs gSa\ blhfy, lekt ds yksxksa dks [kkldj ;qokvksa dks e| ds lsou
ls cpkus ds fy, dkuwu ds varxZr gh fu;e ?kksf"kr djus pkfg,A lekt esa e| fu"ks/k vfuok;Z :i ls gksuk gh pkfg,] bl fopkj
ls eSa fny ls lger gw¡A
foi{k esa% ;fn Hkkjr ns'k dk mRFkku ge pkgrs gSa rks e|iku ij jksd yxk nsuk mfpr gh gSA fdarq tgk¡ e|iku ds fxus&pqus fdarq
ykHk nsus okys ifj.kke ij tk;sa rks ogk¡ e|lsou ij çfrca/k cukuk vuqdwy ugha gksxkA e|lsou djuk dksbZ xqukg ugha gS] ijarq
mldh ek=k ij fu;a=.k gksuk vko';d gSA ;fn e| lsou djus okyk O;fDr e| ;k 'kjkc ij 'kkjhfjd rFkk ekufld :i ls fuHkZj
cu tkrk gS] rHkh lkekftd rFkk vk£Fkd :i ls og fodykax cu tkrk gS vkSj e|iku ,d leL;k cudj jg tkrk gSA
fdarq] fons'kh VwfjTe dks c<+kok nsus dh ckr djsa] rks gksVyksa esa ls mlds mRikn miyC/k djk;s tk,a vkSj mudh [kir ;k fglkc dh
ftEesnkjh j[kh tk, rks e|lsou dkuwu ds nk;js esa gh vk;sxkA [kq'kh ;k euksjatu ds volj ij e|lsou dh vko';d vkSj mfpr
ek=k gks rks ml [kq'kh ds volj ij pkj pk¡n gh rks yxsaxsA oSls gh mfpr ek=k esa lsou djsa rks e|lsou ds vkS"kf/k ykHk Hkh gksrs
gSaA
1 Sample Paper
Hindi (Second Language)
ç'u
Section-A
Question 1.
Write a short composition in Hindi of approximately 200 words on any one of the following topics:
fuEufyf[kr fo"k;ksa esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij fgUnh esa yxHkx 200 'kCnksa esa fuca/k fyf[k,%
(i)
djr&djr vH;kl osG tM+efr gksr lqtku—bl dgkor dks vk/kkj cukdj fo|kFkhZ thou esa ifjJe dk egRo crkrs gq, fuca/k
fyf[k,A
(ii) êksckby Qksu* vkt dh vfuok;Z vko';drk gSA bl dFku ij i{k ;k foi{k esa vius fopkj izLrqr dhft,A

(iii)
ns'k&izse loksZPp Hkkouk gS] blls gh ekuo esa R;kx o cfynku dh Hkkouk dk fodkl gksrk gSA—bl fo"k; ij vius fopkj izLrqr
dhft,A
(iv) tSlh djuh oSlh Hkjuh—bl dgkor dks vk/kkj cukdj ,d ekSfyd dgkuh fy[ksaA

(v)
uhps fn, x, fp= dks /;ku ls nsf[k;s vkSj fp= dks vk/kkj cukdj] mldk ifjp; nsrs gq, dksbZ ys[k] ?kVuk vFkok dgkuh fyf[k;sA
ftldk lh/kk o Li"V laca/k fp= ls gksuk pkfg,A
Question 2.
Write a letter in Hindi of approximately 120 words on any one of the topics given below:
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlh ,d fo"k; ij fgUnh esa yxHkx 120 'kCnksa esa i= fyf[k,%
vkidk NksVk HkkbZ Nk=kokl esa jgdj i<+kbZ dj jgk gSA mlus vkils ijh{kk dh rS;kjh osG fy, ekxZ&n'kZu pkgk gSA ijh{kk dh rS;kjh dh
lykg nsrs gq, i= fyf[k,A
vFkok
vkiosG fo|ky; esa [ksy&owGn laca/kh lqfo/kkvksa dh deh gSA bl vksj /;ku vkdf"kZr djkrs gq, d{kk ekWuhVj dh vksj ls vius fo|ky;
osG iz/kkukpk;Z dks ,d i= fyf[k,A
61 Sample Question Papers (ICSE – Class X)
18
Section-B (Answer questions from any of the two books that you have studied.)
lkfgR; lkxjµlaf{kIr dgkfu;k¡

Question 3.
(i)
vkuanh dk C;kg JhoaGB flag osG lkFk oSGls gks x;k\
(ii)
jaxhu izk.kh dkSu Fks\ muosG fo"k; esa cw<+s fl;kj us D;k tkudkjh nh\
(iii)
vkcknh ds c<+us ls ns'k ij D;k çHkko iM+rk gS\
(iv)
fp=k dks ?kj ykSVus esa nsj D;ksa gqbZ\
lkfgR; lkxjµi|
Question 4.
(i)
^vkt esjs lkeus gS jkLrk bruk iM+k* iafDr dk vk'k; Li"V dhft,A
(ii)
rqylhnkl osG vuqlkj thou esa lq[k fdl izdkj izkIr gks ldrk gS\
(iii)
lwjnkl th dk thou ifjp; fyf[k,A
(iv)
es?kksa osG fy, ^cu&Bu osG] l¡oj osG* vkus dh ckr D;ksa dgh xbZ gS\
u;k jkLrk
Question 5.
(i)
fookg osG vykok ehuw osG thou dk D;k y{; Fkk\
(ii)
o"kks± osG I;kj&nqykj osG ckn yM+dh dks vius ifjokj ls fcNqM+uk D;ksa iM+rk gS\
(iii)
lkekftd ca/ku ls D;k ehuw eqDr gks ldh\ Li"V dhft,A
(iv)
ehuw lekt osG >wBs vkoj.k dks gBkdj D;k lR; fn[kkuk pkgrh Fkh\
,dkadh lap;
Question 6.
(i)
,dkadh osG var esa csyk #a/ks xys ls D;k dgrh gS\
(ii)
banq dks csyk dh dkSu&lh ckr lcls vf/kd ijs'kku djrh gS\ D;ksa\
(iii)
cuohj dkSu Fkk\ ifjp; nhft,A
(iv)
^nhinku* mRlo dk vk;kstu fdlosG }kjk djk;k x;k vkSj D;ksa\
mÙkjekyk
Section-A
Answer 1.
(i)
ßdjr&djr vH;kl ls tM+efr gksr lqtkuA
jljh vkor tkr rs] fly ij ijr fulkuAÞ
vFkkZr~ oqG,¡ ls ikuh [khaprs le; jLlh iRFkj ij xgjk fu'kku Mky nsrh gS] blfy, vH;kl og ewyea= gS] ftlls ew[kZ Hkh
fo}ku cu tkrk gS vkSj fo}ku vkSj Hkh oqG'ky gks tkrk gSA vH;kl vkSj ifjJe dk ekxZ viukdj euq"; lQyrk dh lhf<+;k¡
p<+rk tkrk gSA vH;kl euq"; osG xq.kksa dks fodflr djrk gSA bfrgkl bl ckr dk lk{kh gS fd vH;kl vkSj ifjJe osG cy ij
euq"; us vlaHko dks Hkh laHko dj fn[kk;kA vtqZu rFkk ,dyO; fujarj vH;kl vkSj ifjJe djus osG dkj.k gh egku /kuq/kZj cu
losGA okYehfd lrr~ vH;kl osG dkj.k gh vkfndfo okYehfd cusA
eqgEen xkSjh us l=g ckj ijkftr gksdj Hkh gkj ugha ekuh] blfy, vBkjgoha ckj i`Fohjkt pkSgku dks ijkftr dj ldkA gkWdh osG
izfl¼ f[kykM+h /;kupan vH;kl osG dkj.k gh gkWdh osG tknwxj cu losGA
English Language [English-I]
Maximum Marks: 40
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions.
Questions
Question 1.
Write a composition (300 - 350 words) on any one of the following: [20]
(i) Imagine a situation where a child runs away from home but later returns. Why did he or she run
away? What made him/her come back? Write an original short story entitled: ‘Finding My Way
Home’.
(ii) Parents can never be friends with their children. Express your views either for or against this
statement.
(iii) Describe an area in your city or hometown which is famous for its street food. Give details of the
familiar sights and sounds you would experience on this street.
(iv) It is very important for young people to spend time quietly or alone for a short while every day. If
you were given an hour to spend on your own, how will you spend it? What will you learn from the
process?
(v) Study the picture given below. Write a short story or description or an account of what the picture
suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions
from it.
Question 2.
Select any one of the following: [10]
(i) You have been given a small sum of money to buy a gift for a friend. What gift would you choose
(specify) and why would you choose this? Write a letter to your friend telling him/her about the gift
and how it will benefit him/her.
2 Sample Paper
English Language [English-I]
Questions
Question 1.
Write a composition (300-350 words) on any one of the following.
(i) Write an original short story entitled ‘Lost and Found’.
(ii)
‘Democracy cannot survive without education’. Express your views either for or against this
statement.
(iii) You are a regular traveller in your school bus. Describe what you see on your way home from school
each afternoon. Give details of the familiar sights and sounds you experience each day.
(iv) Imagine that you have changed your school recently. Narrate your experiences on your first day in
the new school. How did you feel at the end of the day ?
(v) Study the picture given below. Write a short story or description or an account of what the picture
suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions
from it.
Question 2.
Select one of the following :
(i) Your friend has been sick and has been unable to attend school for two weeks. An interschool drama
competition took place during this period. Write a letter to your friend telling him/her about the
event and your role in it.
(ii) You have accidentally left your suitcase behind when you got off the train. You only realised it after
the train left the platform. Write a letter to the Station Master reporting your loss and request that the
suitcase be located and kept till you claim it.
Question 3.
(i) You are the President of a children’s club in your locality. You and your team are planning to organise
a programme to celebrate Teacher’s Day. Write a notice to be put up in the local supermarket, giving
details of the programme to create an awareness of the event.
(ii) Write an e-mail to the General Manager of the supermarket seeking permission to display the notice
and requesting a sponsorship for the event.
English Literature [English-II]
Maximum Marks: 40
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers
The paper has four sections.
Section A is compulsory – All questions in Section A must be answered.
You must attempt one question from each of the Sections B, C and D.
Questions
Section-A (Attempt all questions)
Question 1. [10]
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write
the correct answer only)
(i) What was announced on the loudspeakers before the start of the race in the poem, ‘Nine Gold
Medals’?
(a) The nationalities of the runners. (c) The names of the runners.
(b) The age of the runners. (d) The gender of the runners.
(ii) Which of the following words would best describe Abou Ben Adhem?
(a) Bold and brash (c) Prayerful and anxious
(b) Devout and compassionate (d) Dreamy and peaceful
(iii) What event were the children in Ray Bradbury’s story, ‘All Summer in a Day’ eagerly awaiting?
(a) Their return to the Earth. (c) Their teacher’s return.
(b) The arrival of the Rocket people. (d) The appearance of the sun.
(iv) How old was Margot when she first arrived on his distant planet?
(a) Five (b) Seven (c) Four (d) Nine
(v) What made Jesse Owens one of the best remembered athletes of all time?
(a) His remarkable achievement of winning four gold medals at the 1936 Olympic Games.
(b) The amazing bond of friendship that he developed with arch rival Luz Long.
(c) His struggle to qualify for the finals of the broad jump at the 1936 Olympic Games.
(d) His anger at the rising nationalistic feelings that characterized the 1936 Berlin Olympics.
(vi) “You should be able to qualify with your eyes closed.” Who said these words and to whom?
(a) Jesses Owens’ coach to Jesse Owens. (c) Jesse Owens to Luz Long
(b) Luz Long to Jesse Owens (d) Hitler to Luz Long
3 Sample Paper
English Literature [English-II]
Questions
Section-A
Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write
the correct answer only.)
(i) What does the angel’s appearance for the second time with a list where Abou’s name topped prove?
(a) God loves all those who love him
(b) God loves those who love his creation more than him
(c) God loves all those who love and adore him
(d) God rejects those who love his creation more than him
(ii) I dentify the figure of speech used here “youngest among them stumbled and staggered.” in the
poem ‘Nine Gold Medals’.
(a) Hyperbole (c) Personification
(b) Alliteration (d) Metaphor
(iii) What message does Jesse Owens give in the lesson ‘My Greatest Olympic Prize’?
(a) The essential thing in life is to do anything to win
(b) The essential thing in life is never bow down
(c) The essential thing in life is not conquering but fighting well
(d) The essential thing in life is to be a winner.
(iv) J esse Owens in the lesson ‘My Greatest Olympic Prize’ says Luz offered him a ‘firm handshake’
indicating a sign of____________.
(a) Strength and assuredness (c) Assurance and shakiness
(b) Jeering and Pride (d) Jeering and taunting
(v) In the story ‘All Summer in a Day’ when the sun comes out it sends a flaming ____________.
(a) Golden colour (c) Bronze colour
(b) Pale Yellow colour (d) Floral and bright
(vi) In the story ‘All Summer in a Day’ the narrator states that the children ran without stopping in the
sunlight for:
(a) Fifteen minutes (c) Thirty minutes
(b) Sixty minutes (d) Sixty seconds
(vii) What does Gratiano offer shylock after the latter has lost his property and case?
(a) Help (b) Water (c) Food (d) Rope
(viii) Where does scene (ii) of Act IV take place?
(a) Outside the court, in Venice (c) A street in Belmont
(b) A street in Venice (d) Outside the court, in Belmont
History & Civics
Maximum Marks: 40
Attemp all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of three questions are to be attempted from Part II, one out of two
questions from Section A and two out of three questions from Section B
The marks intended for questions are given in brackets [ ].
Questions
Part-I (Attempt all questions from this Part)
the correct answer only.)
Question 1. [10]
(i) The procedure to remove the President is called __________.
(a) Impeachment (c) Resolution
(b) Interpellation (d) Prorogation
(ii) The term of office of the Vice President is __________.
(a) Five years (b) Six years (c) Two years (d) Ten years
(iii) The ___________ is considered to be the Leader of the Lok Sabha.
(a) President (c) Vice President
(b) Speaker (d) Prime Minister
(iv) The power of the Supreme Court to review laws passed by Union Legislature is __________.
(a) Revisory Jurisdiction (c) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction (d) Judicial Review
(v) The High Court judges are appointed by the _______________.
(a) President (c) Governor
(b) Prime Minister (d) Chief Justice of India
(vi) Which of the following was not a common ideology of the dictators?
(a) Faith in totalitarian rule (c) Faith in Communism
(b) One party and One Leader (d) Aggressive Nationalism and Imperialism
(vii) The International Court of Justice consists of __________ judges.
(a) 9 (b) 15 (c) 10 (d) 20
(viii) The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the members of _________.
(a) General Assembly (c) The Trusteeship Council
(b) International Court of Justice (d) The Secretariat
94
(ix) The Treaty of Versailles mandated Germany to pay a war reparation of __________.
(a) 35 billion dollars (c) 33 billion dollars
(b) 40 billion dollars (d) 50 million pounds
(x) Which of these countries was not part of the Berlin-Rome –Tokyo Axis?
(a) Germany (b) Italy (c) Japan (d) France
Part-II
Section-A (Attempt any one question from this Section)
Question 2.
The executive power of the Indian Union is vested in the President of India. In this context, answer the
following questions:
(i) Give any two reasons for the indirect election of the President. [2]
(ii) Mention any two discretionary powers of the President. [2]
(iii) Mention any three legislative powers of the President. [3]
(iv) Name the three kinds of emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President. [3]
Question 3.
The Supreme Court is the head of the entire system of judiciary. In this context, answer the following
questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the judge of the Supreme Court. [2]
(ii) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? What is their term of office? [2]
(iii) Mention any three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [3]
(iv) Why is the Supreme Court called the Court of Record? [3]
Section-B (Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the First World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the two alliances formed in Europe during the First World War. [2]
(ii) Name the two countries which came under dictatorship after the First World War. Name the dictators.
[2]
(iii) Explain the Sarajevo Crisis. [3]
(iv) Mention any three ways in which the Treaty of Versailles benefited France. [3]
Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:
(i) Which organization does this emblem represent? Where is its head quarters ? [2]
(ii) Mention any two objectives of this organisation. [2]
(iii) Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. [3]
(iv) What is the composition of the Security Council? [3]
Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of UNICEF and UNESCO. [2]
1 Sample Paper
History & Civics
Questions
Part-I (Attempt all questions from this Part)
Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question,
write the correct answer only.)
(i) __________ is a only a nominal executive in a parliamentary system of government.
(a) Vice President (c) Prime Minister
(b) President (d) Governor
(ii) Disputes, if any, about the election of president heard and decided by:
(a) Supreme Court (c) Prime Minister
(b) High Court (d) none of these
(iii) To be elected as President of India, a person must be at least___________ years of age.
(a) 35 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 40
(iv) The Vice President occupies the ___________ highest office in the country.
(a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth
(v) The Chief Justice and any other judges of the Supreme Court shall hold office till they attain the age of
____________ years.
(a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 65 (d) 50
(vi) The first world war caused an ________ crisis in various nations of the world.
(a) cultural (b) political (c) social (d) economic
(vii) Fascism served as a model of dictatorial regime to the nazi movement in __________ .
(a) France (b) Germany (c) Britain (d) Italy
(viii) The Treaty of Versailles based on which motive____________.
(a) Cooperation (c) Division of Italy
(b) Maintaining world peace (d) Ideology conflicts
(ix) The UN flag was adopted on __________.
(a) 22 October, 1943 (c) 20 October, 1947
(b) 23 October, 1945 (d) 25 October, 1945
(x) Which country surrendered to Germany in Second World War?
(a) Britain (b) Italy (c) Japan (d) Poland
Part-II
Section-A (Attempt any one question from this Section)
Question 2.
The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. In this
context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention the formation of council of minister.
100
(ii) How prime minister appointed?

(iii) Mention any three function and powers of the Prime Minister.
(iv) Give any three distinction between council of ministers and cabinet.
Question 3.
The High Court occupies the top position in the Judicial Administration of the state. In this context,
answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the Judge of the High Court.
(ii) Who appoints the Judges of the High Court? What is their term of office?
(iii) State the difference between Court of the District Judge and the Sessions Court?
(iv) What do you understand by Lok Adalat’s and give any two advantages of Lok Adalat?
Section-B (Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the Second World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the two countries which declared the war against Germany.
(ii) Write down two factor that led to the failure of league of nation.
(iii) How did the rise of Fascism and Nazism lead to World War II?
(iv) Mention any three causes that led to Second World War?
Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:
(i) What the above picture depicts?

(ii) In November 1950,The General Assembly increased its power through a resolution called?
(iii) Mention any three objectives of United Nation.
(iv) Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining peace.
Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of WHO and where it headquarters.
(ii) How did the UNICEF come into existence and to what purpose?
(iii) What efforts has the UNICEF made for education and improvement of sanitation?
(iv) Explain how non-Alignment is neither neutrality, nor neutralisation, nor non-commitment.
Answers
Part-I
Answer 1.
(i) (b) President
Explanation :
All the executive power is vested by President and executive actions are taken in his name.
Geography
Maximum Marks: 40
Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
Questions
Question 1. [10]
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:
2 Sample Paper
Geography
Questions
Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:
(i) Satpura Range (vi) The Region of Alluvial soil in Northern India
(ii) Konkan coast (vii) Direction of North East Monsoons
(iii) River Narmada (viii) Delhi
(iv) Gulf of Khambhat (ix) An Area of dense population in Southern India
(v) Mumbai High (x) Yamuna
142
Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this Section)
Question 2.
(i) (a) Why is iron ore called the back bone of our modern industry?
(b) Name the largest copper producing state of India.
(ii) Give two advantages of nonconventional resources over conventional resources.
(iii) With reference to the Hirakud project answer the following questions :
(a) On which river is it located ?
(b) Name any two states benefitted by Hirakud project.
(iv) (a) State two advantages of using solar power.
(b) Why are conventional sources of energy considered as fund resources?
Question 3.
(i) State two problems of Indian agriculture.
(ii) (a) Name two crops grown during the Kharif season in India.
(b) What are zayad crops?
(iii) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following questions :
(a) State the temperature and rainfall condition required for rice cultivation?
(b) Name the soil found suitable for its growth.
(c) Why is transplantation considered as a popular method of rice cultivation?
(iv) (a) Name the largest producer of cotton in India.
(b) What is ratooning?
(c) Why are rolling hill slopes preferred for tea cultivation?
Question 4.
(i) Write two differences between large scale and small scale industries giving suitable examples for each
from India.
(ii) State two importance of agro based industries in India with suitable examples.
(iii) With reference to the ‘Tata Iron and Steel Plant’ answer the following questions:
(a) State the location of the plant.
(b) Name the coal fields associated with this plant.
(c) Name two important products of this steel plant.
(iv) (a) State two importance of the electronic industry in India.
(b) Why is the petrochemical industries considered as `sunrise’ industry?
Question 5.
(i) State two advantages of railways.
(ii) Name the four metropolitan cities connected by the golden quadrilateral.
(iii) Mention three benefits of the North-South and the East-West corridor.
(iv) State any three disadvantages of roadways.
Question 6.
(i) What is meant by the term waste management?
(ii) Why is composting considered as a safe method of waste disposal?
(iii) State three suitable examples of how waste is reused in India.
(iv) State three advantages of segregation.
Mathematics
Maximum Marks: 40
Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B.
Questions
Question 1. [10]

(i) The point (3,0) is invariant under reflection in:
(a) the origin (b) x-axis (c) y-axis (d) both x and y axes
(ii) In the given figure, AB is a diameter of the circle with centre ‘O’. If ∠COB = 55°, then the value of x is:
55°
x
B
C
(a) 27.5° (b) 55° (c) 110° (d) 125°
(iii) If a rectangular sheet having dimensions 22 cm x 11 cm is rolled along its shorter side to form a cylinder.
Then the curved surface area of the cylinder so formed is:
(a) 968 cm2 (b) 424 cm2 (c) 121 cm2 (d) 242 cm2
(iv) If the vertices of a triangle are (1,3), (2, - 4) and (-3, 1). Then the co-ordinate of its centroid is:
(a) (0, 0) (b) (0, 1) (c) (1, 0) (d) (1, 1)
(v) tan q ´ 1 - sin 2 q is equal to:
(a) cos q (b) sin q (c) tan q (d) cot q
(vi) The median class for the given distribution is:
Class Interval 1–5 6 – 10 11–15 16 –20
Cumulative Frequency 2 6 11 18
(a) 1 – 5 (b) 6 – 10 (c) 11 – 15 (d) 11 – 20
3 Sample Paper
Mathematics
Questions

Question 1.
(i) The centroid of a triangle whose angular points are (4, – 3), (5, 6) and (3, – 3) respectively is:
(a) (0, 5) (b) (4, 0) (c) (3, – 3) (d) None of these
(ii) AB and CD be the diameters of a circle with centre O. If ∠CAB = 30°, find the value of x.
C
30°
A B
O x
D
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
(iii) If the base radius of two cylinders are in the ratio 4 : 5 and their heights are in the ratio 5 : 2, then the
ratio of their volume is:
(a) 8 : 5 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 5 : 8
(iv) If the height of a tower and distance from the foot of the tower to a point is increased by 30%, then the
elevation angle on the top of the tower:
(a) Increases (c) Remains unchanged
(b) Decreases (d) Can’t say
(v) For a symmetrical distribution, which condition meets correctly:
(a) Mean = Mode < Median (c) Mean > Mode > Median
(b) Mean = Mode = Median (d) Mean = Median + Mode

(vi) Which of the following is not a form of probability?
2 1 (c) 25% (d) 0.27
(a) (b) −
3 7
(vii) Determine the slope (m) and y-intercept (c) of the following line: 3y = 3 x + 6.
1 1
(a) m = 3 ,c= (c) m = ,c=2
3 3

1
(b) m = ,c= 3 (d) m = 1, c = –1
3
(viii) The ratio of the base radii of two right circular cones of the same height is 2 : 1. Find the ratio of their
volumes.
Mathematics Sample Paper - 3
203
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 4 : 1

tan 2 q
(ix) Evaluate: 1 + :
1 + sec q
(a) sin θ (b) cos θ (c) sec θ (d) tan θ

(x) Find the value of p, if:

Average = 42, Sfx = 16p + 40 and Sf = 20.
(a) 30 (b) 40 (c) 50 (d) 70
Section B (Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 2.
p2 − 1 .
(i) If sec A + tan A = p, show that : sin A =
p2 + 1
(ii) The coordinates of two point A and B are (– 3, 3) and (2, – 7) respectively. P is a point on the line
segment AB such that AP : PB = 2 : 3. Find the coordinates of P without using square paper.
(iii) The table shows the distribution of the scores obtained by 120 shooters in a shooting competition. Use
a graph sheet and draw an ogive for the distribution.
Scores 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50 50 – 60 60 – 70 70 – 80 80 – 90 90 – 100
No. of shooters 5 9 16 22 26 18 11 6 4 3
Use your ogive to estimate the following:

(a) The median,
(b) The inter-quartile range,
(c) The number of shooters who obtained a score of more than 75%.
(iv) A game of numbers has cards marked with 11, 12, 13,........., 40. A card is drawn at random. Find the
probability that the number on the card drawn is:
(a) A perfect square, (b) Divisible by 7.
Question 3.
(i) In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, ∠BAD = 75° and chord BC = chord CD.
Find: (a) ∠BOC, (b) ∠OBD
75°
1 − sin A
(ii) Prove that : = (sec A – tan A)2.
1 + sin A
(iii) Find the equation of the line parallel to line 3x + 2y = 8 and passing through the point (0, 1).
(iv) Draw a histogram from the following frequency distribution and find the mode.
Class 0–5 5 – 10 10 – 15 15 – 20 20 – 25 25 – 30
Frequency 2 5 18 14 8 5
Physics
Maximum Marks: 40
Attemp all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B.
Questions
Question 1.
(i) endulums A, B, C and D are tied to a flexible string PQ and are at rest. Pendulum C is disturbed.
P
Which of the following statements is true? [1]
(a) Only pendulum C will start vibrating.

(b) P
endulums A, B, and D will also start vibrating but A and D will vibrate with the maximum
amplitude.
(c) Pendulums A, B, and D will also start vibrating.
(d) Vibrations of pendulum C are forced vibrations.
(ii) Which of the following is not a characteristic of parallel combination of resistors? [1]
(a) If one resistor is fused, the circuit does not become open.
1 1 1 1
(b) The total resistance R is given by the formula = + + .....
R R1 R 2 R 3
(c) The total resistance becomes less than the least resistor, present in the combination.
(d) The current through each resistor always remains the same.
4 Sample Paper
Physics
Questions
Question 1.
(i) Safe limit of level of sound for hearing is:

(a) 20 to 100 dB (c) 50 to 100 dB
(b) 40 to 120 dB (d) 0 to 80 dB
(ii) The slope of the graph showing the variation of potential difference V on X-axis and current I on Y axis
gives:
(a) Resistivity (b) Inductance (c) Resistance (d) Conductance
(iii) The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which generates a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 W is:

(a) 5 W (b) 10 W (c) 0.5 W (d) 50 W
(iv) A positively charged alpha particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by magnetic
field. The direction of magnetic field is:

(a) towards south (c) downward
(b) towards east (d) upward
(v) When amplitude of sound wave decreases, its:

(a) Pitch decreases (c) Pitch increases
(b) Loudness decreases (d) Loudness increases
(vi) Which of the following substances has the largest specific heat ?

(a) Turpentine (b) Kerosene (c) Water (d) Glycerine
(vii) Which of the following is mass independent quantity?

(a) Specific heat capacity (c) Weight
(b) Heat capacity (d) Both (a) and (c)
270
(viii) A rectangular coil ABCD is placed between the pole pieces of a horse-shoe magnet as shown in figure:
Choose the incorrect option from the following.

(a) Current in the coil is in direction DCBA
(b) On arm BC no force acts
(c) On arm CD, force is outwards perpendicular to the plane of the coil.
(d) None of these
(ix) A beaker had 100 g of water at temperature 90°C. Another 600 g of water at temperature 20°C is poured
into the beaker later on. After mixing, the temperature of the water will be.

(a) 45°C (b) 20°C (c) 30°C (d) 50°C
(x) The amount of heat energy contained in a body depends upon which of the following.

(a) Mass of the body. (c) Material properties of the body.
(b) Temperature of the body. (d) All of these
Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) A current carrying conductor PQ lies in the plane of the paper as shown in figure.
(a) Find the direction of the magnetic fields produced at the points A and B.
(b) If r1 > r2, then where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?
(ii) (a) What do you understand by shriller sound ?
(b) How does loudness of sound is affected by amplitude?
(iii) The diagram given below shows a plot of temperature verus time, showing the changes in the state of
ice on heating (not to scale). Answer the questions as follows.
1 Sample Paper
Chemistry
Questions
Question 1.
(i) The IUPAC name of Acetylene is :
(a) Propane (b) Propyne (c) Ethene (d) Ethyne
(ii) Aluminium powder is used in thermite welding because:
(a) it is a strong reducing agent. (c) it is corrosion resistant.
(b) it is a strong oxidising agent. (d) it is a good conductor of heat.
(iii) An aqueous solution of HCl gas is named:
(a) Aqua fortis (c) Oil of vitriol
(b) Aqua regia (d) Muriatic acid
(iv) Which of the following can be used as a drying agent for ammonia?
(a) CaO (b) H2SO4 (c) P2O5 (d) CaCl2
(v) Rearrange the following steps involved in the contact process for the manufacturing of H2SO4.
(i) Production of sulphur trioxide (ii) Addition of water to H2S2O7
(iii) Production of sulphur dioxide (iv) Production of oleum
(v) Purification of gases
(a) (i), (v), (iii), (iv), (ii) (c) (v), (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(b) (iii), (v), (i), (iv), (ii) (d) (iii), (i), (v), (iv), (ii)
(vi) Compounds having the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms are called:
(a) Isotope (b) Isobar (c) Isomers (d) None of these
(vii) Liquor ammonia fortis is:
(a) Unsaturated solution of ammonia in water
(b) Saturated solution of ammonia in water
(c) Saturated solution of ammonia in alcohol
(d) Unsaturated solution of ammonia in alcohol
(viii) What are the constituent elements of duralumin?
(a) Al, Cu, Mg (c) Al, Cu, Mg and Mn
(b) Al and Mg (d) Al, Cu and Mn
(ix) The arrangement of the round bottom flask in the fountain experiment is:
(a) Inverted position (c) Facing 90° to left
(b) Erect position (d) Facing 90° to right
(x) When sulphuric acid is added to sodium carbonate, brisk effervesence is produced which is due to :
(a) Evolution of H2S gas (c) Evolution of CO2 gas
(b) Evolution of Cl2 gas (d) Evolution of O2 gas
296
Section-B
Question 2.
(i) Define:
(a) Isomerism (b) Ore
(ii) Name the compound formed when:
(a) Copper turnings are heated with conc. H2SO4.
(b) A mixture of ammonia and oxygen are passed over heated platinum at 800°C.
(iii) Draw the structural diagram of:
(a) Ethanol (c) 2, 3-Dimethyl butane
(b) Methanoic acid
(iv) Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
CCl
(a) CH2 = CH2 + Cl2
4
(Solvent)
(b) SO3 + H2SO4 →
(Conc.)
(c) 2NH3 + 3CuO →

Question 3.
(i) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Identify the gas Y.

(b) What property of gas Y does this experiment demonstrate?
(ii) State the following:
(a) Name one lead compound that can be used to oxidise HCl to chlorine.
(b) The compound added to pure alumina to lower the fusion temperature during the electrolytic
reduction of alumina.
(iii) State the observation for the following, when:
(a) Hydrogen chloride gas comes in contact with ammonia solution.
(b) Ammonia is passed through yellow lead oxide.
(c) Action of nitric acid on limestone.
(iv) Write balanced equation for the following conversions:
(a) Potassium sulphate from potassium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.
(b) Methyl chloride from methane
(c) Carbonic acid from carbon and concentrated nitric acid.
Question 4.
(i) State the relevant reason for the following:
(a) During the extraction of aluminium, cryolite and fluorspar are added to alumina. Why?
(b) Why in construction work alloy duralumin is used rather than aluminium?
Biology
Maximum Marks: 40
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writting the answers.
Questions
Question 1.
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not
copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) A muscular wall is absent in:
(a) Capillary (b) Vein (c) Venule (d) Arteriole
(ii) The outermost layer of meninges:
(a) Piamater (c) Grey matter
(b) Arachnoid layer (d) Duramater
(iii) Tear gland is also called:
(a) Gastric gland (c) Salivary gland
(b) Lacrimal gland (d) Sebaceous gland
(iv) Which one of the following is not a simple reflex?
(a) Coughing (c) Eating
(b) Blinking (d) Swallowing
(v) Loop of Henle lies in:
(a) Medulla (b) Cortex (c) Pelvis (d) Ureter
(vi) The pigment that gives colour to urine:
(a) Haemoglobin (c) Urochrome
(b) Chlorophyll (d) Melanin
(vii) The number of spinal nerves in human:
(a) 12 pairs (c) 31 pairs
(b) 23 pairs (d) 10 pairs
(viii) The mineral element needed for the functioning of the Thyroid gland:
(a) Sodium (b) Potassium (c) Magnesium (d) Iodine
5 Sample Paper
Biology
Questions
Question 1.

Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do
not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which of the following is not an excretory organ in human?
(a) Lungs (b) Kidney (c) Mouth (d) Sweat glands.
(ii) Organ of Balancing of sound is:
(a) Peripheral vestibular system (c) Tympanic membrane
(b) Acoustic meatus (d) Eustachian tube
(iii) White blood cells are also called:
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Leukocytes (c) Thrombocytes (d) Monocytes
(iv) Natural Reflex is:
(a) Voluntary reflex (c) Inborn reflex
(b) Experimental reflex (d) Differs in different individuals
(v) When lens of eye becomes foggy it cause:
(a) Astigmatism (c) Cataract
(b) Glaucoma (d) Amblyopia
(vi) Which hormone promote the release of carbohydrate, fats and protein in human body?
(a) Androgen (b) Calcitonin (c) Thymopoietin (d) Cortisol
(vii) The range of blood platelets count in normal adult is:
(a) 200,000 to 450,000 per cu. mm (c) 250,000 to 400,000 per cu. mm
(b) 250,000 to 450,000 per cu. mm (d) 200,000 to 400,000 per cu. mm
(viii) Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus are together known as:
(a) Proximal capsule (c) Secondary capsule
(b) Malpighian capsule (d) None of these
(ix) Regulation of blood supply in muscle is function of which hormone:
(a) Oxytocin (b) Thyroxine (c) Adrenaline (d) Insulin
(x) White matter mainly composed of:
(a) Myelinated Dendrites (c) Myelinated Axons
(b) Myelinated Nerve cell bodies (d) Unmyelinated Axons
Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) Name the organ which produce urea. What is osmoregulation?
(ii) Who discovered ABO blood group and Rh factor?
364
(iii) Given below is the diagram of an excretary system. Label the parts numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
(iv) Briefly describe chambers of heart.

Question 3.
(i) Which neurotransmitters are used to communicate within the autonomic nervous system?
(ii) Which hormone is secreted by pancreas?
(iii) Differentiate between Motor nerve and sensory nerve.
(iv) Draw labeled diagram of human brain with atleast 6 labels.
Question 4.
(i) What is insulin and how is it produced?
(ii) What is fibrin? Describe its functions.
(iii) Draw well labeled diagram of artery and veins. (At least 3 level).
(iv) Describe term dialysis and reason of doing dialysis.
Question 5.
(i) Differentiate between exocrine gland and endocrine gland.
(ii) Describe the functions of semi-circular canal, Utriculus and saccules.
(iii) Explain the figures:
(iv) Describe conditional reflex.

Question 6.
(i) Write the full form of:
(a) LH (b) GH
(ii) Describe the function of :
(a) Macula: .......................... (b) Cochlea: .........................
(iii) Briefly define Blood pressure.
(iv) Fill in the blank:
Source gland cells Hormone produce
Beta cells of Islets of Langerhans (a)...............................................
(b)....................................................... Thyroxine
(c)....................................................... Growth hormone
Computer Applications
Maximum Marks: 50
Questions
Question 1. [10]
(i) When primitive data type is converted to its corresponding object of its class, it is called as ___________.
(a) Boxing (c) Unboxing
(b) Explicit type conversion (d) Implicit type conversion
(ii) State the value of y after the following is executed:
char x=’7’;
y= Character.isLetter(x);
(a) false (b) 7 (c) true (d) ‘7’
(iii) Give the output of the following string methods:
“MISSISSIPPI”.indexOf(‘S’)+ “MISSISSIPPI”.lastIndexOf(‘I’)
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 11
(iv) Corresponding wrapper class of int data type is __________.
(a) integer (b) INTEGER (c) Int (d) Integer
(v) Variable that is declared with in the body of a method is termed as:
(a) Instance variable (c) Local variable
(b) class variable (d) Argument variable
(vi) Identify the correct array declaration statement.
(a) int a[10]; (c) int arr[i]=10;
(b) int a[]=new int[10]; (d) int a[10]=new int[];
(vii) A variable that is bounded to the object itself is called as:
(a) Instance variable (c) Local variable
(b) class variable (d) Argument variable
Physical Education
Maximum Marks: 50
Answer questions from any two games you have studied.
Each game is divided into two Sections, SECTION A and SECTION B.
Attempt all questions from SECTION A and any two questions from SECTION B of the two games that you have studied.
Questions
CRICKET
Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write
the correct answer only.) [5]
(i) Where did the game of cricket originate?
(a) India (c) West Indies
(b) Australia (d) England
(ii) What is the full form of ICC?
(a) International Conference on Communications
(b) International Commerce Centre
(c) International Cricket Council
(d) Indian Cricket Control
(iii) The term used when a batsman is dismissed without scoring any run:
(a) Duck (b) Over (c) Bye (d) Leg bye
(iv) What is the total width of the pitched stumps?
(a) 9 inches. (22.8 cm) (c) 38 inches. (96.5 cm)
(b) 28 inches. (71.1 cm) (d) 22 yards. (20.12 m)
(v) What is the distance between a bowling crease and a popping crease?
(a) 10 feet. (3.04 m) (c) 22 yards. (20.12 m)
(b) 4 feet. (1.22 m) (d) 12 ft (3.66 m)
Economics
Maximum Marks: 40
Questions
Question 1.
(Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question write
the correct answer only.) [10]
(i) Inflation means_______rise in price.
(a) Continuous (c) No
(b) Sustainable (d) High
(ii) The debt which yields income to the government is called as:
(a) Gross (c) Unproductive
(b) Productive (d) Internal
(iii) Capital expenditure is_______in nature.
(a) Non-recurring (c) Simple
(b) Recurring (d) Complex
(iv) Public Distribution system is a_______measure of government to protect the consumers.
(a) Administrative (c) Collateral
(b) Technical (d) Demonstrative
(v) Under Right to Information any citizen of India may request information from a_______authority.
(a) Public (c) Personal
(b) Private (d) Professional
(vi) Public debt whose principal amount is not refunded by the government is:
(a) Redeemable debt (c) Social
(b) Irredeemable debt (d) Public
Economic Applications
Maximum Marks: 50
Questions
Question 1. [10]
write the correct answer only)
(i) Which of these is the apex bank of the Indian Banking System?
(a) State Bank of India (c) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Central Bank of India (d) Canara Bank
(ii) SLR stands for:
(a) Statutory Limit Rationing (c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(b) Standard Liquid Requirement (d) Standard Limit Rationing
(iii) The policy of converting public ownership of an asset to private ownership is ____________.
(a) Nationalization (c) Globalization
(b) Liberalization (d) Privatization
(iv) Which of these is generally a short term loan?
(a) Cash credit (b) Home loans (c) Overdraft (d) Car loans
(v) Which of the following is a selective/qualitative method of credit control?
(a) Bank Rate (c) Open Market Operations
(b) Cash Credit Ratio (d) Moral suasion
(vi) Identify the type of taxation shown in the figure below:
T
Rate of tax
T
Tax Base
(a) Progressive taxation (c) Proportional taxation
(b) Regressive taxation (d) Degressive taxation
Commercial Studies
Maximum Marks: 40
Questions
Question 1. [10]
(i) The __________ budget contains an estimate of the total volume of production week wise, month wise
and product wise.
(a) Production (b) Purchase (c) Cash (d) Sales
(ii) _________ market consists of all organizations, institutions and instruments that provide long term
funds.
(a) Money (b) Goods (c) Capital (d) Services
(iii) The capital of the company is divided into equal parts called_________.
(a) Debentures (b) Shares (c) Deposits (d) Funds
(iv) The __________ selection tests seek to measure a candidate’s capacity to learn particular skills and test
his potential abilities.
(a) Personality (b) Dexterity (c) Trade (d) Aptitude
(v) __________ is a positive process which creates a pool of candidates.
(a) Recruitment (c) Training
(b) Selection (d) Development
(vi) The __________ function of the Central bank involves settling of claims of Commercial banks through
a process of book entries.
(a) Monopoly of note issue (c) Clearing house
(b) Government’s bank (d) Developmental
(vii) __________ shares do not carry voting rights.
(a) Equity (c) Debentures
(b) Preference (d) Public deposits
Maximum Marks: 50
Questions
Question 1. [10]
(i) Income and Expenditure account is a __________ account.
(a) Nominal (b) Real (c) Personal (d) Recurring
(ii) __________ is a revolving credit arrangement.
(a) Overdraft (c) Cash credit
(b) Discounting of Bills (d) Loans and Advances
(iii) Job Evaluation is one of the __________ functions of Human Resource Department.
(a) Procurement (c) Training
(b) Development (d) Compensation
(iv) __________ is a negative process.
(a) Education (b) Selection (c) Training (d) Recruitment
(v) ___________ is one of the elements of Public Relation.
(a) Sympathy (c) Monologue
(b) Human relation (d) Media relation
(vi) Consumer education benefits __________ by increasing sales.
(a) Businesses (c) Region
(b) People (d) Environment
(vii) Deliberate mixing of low quality, undesirable, inedible and even toxic materials in food items is
known as __________.
(a) Food Pollution (c) Food adulteration
(b) Mixing of food items (d) Quality degradation
(viii) __________ is the first stage in hiring.
(a) Selection (b) Recruitment (c) Development (d) Training
1 Sample Paper
Questions
Question 1.
(i) Receipts and Payments account is a __________ account.
(a) Nominal (c) Personal
(b) Real (d) Recurring
(ii) There are _____________parties to a cheque.
(a) 3 (c) 2
(b) 4 (d) None of these
(iii) Job Analysis is one of the __________ functions of Human Resource Department.
(a) Procurement (c) Training
(b) Development (d) Compensation
(iv) __________ is the first stage in hiring.
(a) Recruitment (c) Training
(b) Selection (d) None of these
(v) The publics of business organisations are___________________.
(a) Employees (c) Consumers
(b) Stockholders (d) All of these
(vi) Consumer education benefits __________ by improving the quality of life.
(a) Businesses (c) Consumers
(b) People (d) Environment
(vii) _____________Dal causes paralysis of the legs known as lathyrism.
(a) Kesari (c) Arhar
(b) Moong (d) None of these
(viii) __________ is a purposeful exchange of ideas and information between two or more persons.
(a) Selection (c) Interview
(b) Recruitment (d) None of these
(ix) Income and Expenditure Account is prepared in the same manner in which the _______________
Account is prepared.
(a) Receipts and Payment Account (c) Cash book
(b) Profit and Loss Account (d) Trial balance account
(x) ____________is prepared from cash vouchers.
(a) Cash Book (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Receipts and Payment Account (d) None of these
Home Science
Maximum Marks: 50
Questions
Question 1. [10]
(i) Shelf life means:
(a) No spoilage of food
(b) deterioration of food after a short period of time
(c) preservation of food
(d) adulteration of food
(ii) .........................fibres are also called wash and wear fabrics.
(a) cotton (c) synthetic
(b) silk (d) wool
(iii) In West Bengal the glove puppet is called:
(a) Kathputli (c) Sutoputul
(b) Benerputul (d) Pavakoothu
(iv) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a:
(a) health insurance scheme
(b) productive income generating scheme
(c) financial scheme accessing to bank accounts and pensions
(d) a scheme to safeguard the health of women and children
(v) The method applied in washing of woollen clothes is:
(a) washing by friction
(b) kneading and squeezing method
(c) washing by suction washer
(d) wet cleaning

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FOR

For 2022 Examination

Fully Solved New Specimen

■ Hindi ■ Computer Applications

PRINTED AT : Upkar Printing Unit, Agra

Sample Paper 1 17 Sample Paper 1 136

Sample Paper 2 23 Sample Paper 2 141

English-II Sample Paper 5 229

Specimen Question Paper 67

Sample Paper 5 404 Sample Paper 1 533

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Section-B (Attempt any two questions from this Section)

(ii) How prime minister appointed?

Section-B (Attempt any two questions from this Section)

(i) What the above picture depicts?

Section-A (Attempt all questions)

Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Section-A (Attempt all questions)

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 4 : 1

(a) sin θ (b) cos θ (c) sec θ (d) tan θ

Section B (Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Use your ogive to estimate the following:

(a) Only pendulum C will start vibrating.

Choose the incorrect option from the following.

Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this section)

(c) 2NH3 + 3CuO →

(a) Identify the gas Y.

Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this section)

(iv) Briefly describe chambers of heart.

(iv) Describe conditional reflex.

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Sample Paper 1 17 Sample Paper 1 136

Sample Paper 2 23 Sample Paper 2 141

English-II Sample Paper 5 229

Specimen Question Paper 67

Sample Paper 5 404 Sample Paper 1 533

Section-A (Attempt all questions)

Section-A (Attempt all questions)

Section-B (Attempt any three questions from this section)