CSAT Comprehensive Test 5 (15.02.

2024)
Test Code: RCA24CSAT05
Explanation

Q.1)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage argues that the reliance on technology has led to a detachment from reality and a
desensitization to life. The crux of the passage, however, is that the true importance of tangible
experiences has been lost in a world where technology reigns supreme. The passage argues that people
have become so reliant on digital devices that they have forgotten the value of experiencing life in a
tangible way. And it also explains what are the harms of losing touch with tangible experiences. Hence
option a is correct.
The passage explains how reliance on technology is not good as it is leading to people forgetting the
importance of tangible experience, so this is one aspect being discussed, but not the crux. Hence option b
is incorrect.
The passage mentions the plight of individuals who are reliant on technology, so this again is one aspect
being mentioned in the passage , but not the crux. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage states that due to losing touch with tangible experience, humans might become digital
ghosts, so this again is one aspect about tangible experience being mentioned, this is not the crux. Hence
option d is incorrect.

Q.2)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage discusses that use of offshore bank accounts to avoid paying taxes is prevalent among high
net worth individuals. So statement 1 is a plausible suggestion. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The passage nowhere mentions that existing guidelines are ineffective. So statement 2 is incorrect.
Anti fraud detection teams are a good initiative but all international financial transactions can’t be
monitored, as this is not practical, hence statement 3 is incorrect.
The passage states that ‘Absence of any international accord makes it even more difficult’, so multilateral
treaties (accord) can be practical step, hence statement 4 is correct.

Q.3)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Though option a is a good suggestion to counter criminalisation of politics, but it’s nowhere implicitly or
explicitly hinted in the passage. Hence option a is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘the criminalisation of politics is “facilitated” by weak or ineffective
institutions of governance, so strengthening democratic institutions and processes is a good way to
combat criminalisation of politics but not the most important, as this “facilitates” the criminalisation of
politics, not the root cause of it, hence option b is incorrect.
The passage again states that criminalisation of politics is facilitated by weak or ineffective institutions of
governance including civil society organisations. So, option c is again one of the ways out to deal with it,
but not the best, hence option c is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘At its “core”, criminalisation of politics involves the infiltration of criminal
elements into the political process, so banning the entry of criminal elements will be the best way out.
Hence option d is correct.

Q.4)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage begins that this law is a subject of controversy, how it is being misused and ends that it is a
necessary measure, hence the central idea being conveyed is that it is a necessary evil to maintain law
and order, hence option a is correct.
Option b is an idea being conveyed in the passage to minimise the misuse of preventive detention law as
this again can’t prevent the misuse, so it is not the central idea, hence option b is incorrect.
The passage states that ‘it has often been misused to target political opponents and dissenters’. So,
Option c is again an idea being conveyed but not the central idea. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘The use of preventive detention has raised significant challenges for India's
legal system, particularly around issues of accountability and transparency’. So, Option d is a suggestion
being conveyed, but not the central idea, hence option d is incorrect.

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Number of friends who ordered coffee n(C) = 31
Number of friends who ordered Redbull n(R) = 32
Number of friends who ordered Soup n(S) = 36
Number of friends who ordered coffee and Redbull n(C∩R) = 9
Number of friends who ordered coffee and soup n(C∩S) = 12
Number of friends who ordered Redbull and soup n(C∩R) = 15
Number of friends who ordered Redbull, soup and coffee n(C∩R∩S) = 5
Persons who had only coffee can be obtained by subtracting those who ordered coffee and Redbull, and
those who ordered coffee and soup and adding those who ordered all three.
Number of persons who had only coffee = n(C) - n(C∩S) - n(C∩R) + n(C∩R∩S) = 31-9-12+5 = 15

Q.6)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Given, Aman is twice as old as Barun,
We need to find the age difference between Barun and Chetan,
Barun - Chetan =?
Let's represent Aman by A, Barun as B and Chetan as C
A = 2B—------(1)
Statement-1 : Four years ago, Aman was twice as old as Chetan is now.
A-4 = 2C
Put value of A from equation (1)
2B-4=2C
B-C = 2
age difference between Barun and Chetan is 2 years.
Hence statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
Statement-2: Aman is 8 years older than Chetan.
A = 8+ C
Using Equation (1)
2B = 8+C
From this we can't find out B-C
Hence Statement-2 alone is insufficient to answer the Question.
Q.7)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Let the number of blue pebbles be B and the number of red pebbles be R.
Statement-1: m times the number of blue pebbles and m times the number of red pebbles is equal to 2
times m.
mB + mR = 2m
m(B+R) =2m
We need to find B+R,
But here since we don't know the value of m, we can't say the value of B+R,
Because if m is zero, then both sides will become zero, but at that point, number of blue pebbles and red
pebbles can't be zero.
Hence Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question.
Using Statement-2 : 5 times the number of blue pebbles and 5 times the number of red pebbles is 10.
5B + 5R = 10
5(B+R) = 10, (B+R) = 2
Sum of blue pebbles and red pebbles is 2.
Hence Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

Q.8)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Given, Rate per chocolate = Rs 1.3
Rate per biscuit = Rs 1.5
Statement-1: The average price for the items sold during that hour was Rs 1.42
Using Allegation and mixture principle:
Category 1————- difference1———-Average ————difference2—————category 2
Chocolates_______ (1.42-1.3) _________1.42__________ (1.5-1.42) ________ biscuit
Difference 1 = Difference between rate of chocolate and average rate = (1.42-1.3) = .12————-(1)
Difference 2= Difference between rate of biscuit and average rate = (1.5-1.42) = 0.08—————-(2)
The ratio of Difference 1 to Difference 2 = .12/0.8 = 3:2
The ratio of Difference is the inverse ratio of quantity.
The ratio of quantity = 2:3
Hence ratio of chocolates sold to biscuits sold = 2:3
Statement-2 : The total price for all items sold during that hour was Rs 14.2
Let number of chocolates sold be C
Number of biscuits sold be B
1.3C + 1.5 B = 14.2
13C + 15 B = 142——-(1)
We need to see combinations of C and B which will fulfil such equation,
So, for C = 4 and B = 6 equation (1) will be true,
ratio of chocolates sold to biscuits sold = 4/6 = 2:3
Hence from this also we can find out the ratio of chocolates sold to biscuits sold = 2:3
Thus, both statements are alone sufficient to answer the Question.

Q.9)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Given : Raju receives a bonus of 3% of the sales that he does in a month.
Statement-1 : The sales done by Raju in September is Rs 245,000 more than his bonus.
Sales (S) = Bonus + 245,000
Bonus is 3% of the sales.
S= 3%S +2,45,000
S=.03S+2,45,000
.97S =245,000
S = Rs 252,577
Sales done in September = Rs 252,577
Statement-2: The selling price of the sales done in September is 125% of the original purchase price of Rs
225,000
Original purchase price = Rs 225,000
Selling price is 125% of Rs 225,000
Selling price = (125/100)x 225,000 = Rs 281,250
The sales done in September is Rs 281,250
Hence both Statements are alone sufficient to answer the Question.

Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

The base of the jumbling up is 1st letter’s index divided by 2, second letter’s index divided by 3, third letter
index divided by 2, fourth letter index divided by 3, fifth letter index divided by 2, sixth letter index
divided by 3.
For DFHLNO
D(4/2)= B, F(6/3) = B , H(8/2) = D, L(12/3) = D , N(14/2) = G, O(15/3) = E
For FIJLNR,
F(6/2)=C, I(9/3)=C, J(10/2)=E, L(12/3) =D, N(14/2) = G, R(18/3) = F
For BUTXZL
B(2/2) =A, U(21/3)= G, T(20/2) = J, X(24/3)= H, Z(26/2)=M, L(12/3)=D
AGJHMD

Q.11)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The critical message conveyed by the passage is that although exploring a dense jungle can be dangerous
and challenging, it can also be a rewarding experience filled with beauty and valuable knowledge. The
author emphasizes the sense of trepidation and danger in exploring unfamiliar places, but also highlights
the solace found in the jungle's beauty and the valuable knowledge shared by the indigenous tribes.
Hence option a is correct.
The passage states that ‘The vibrant colors of the flora and fauna were a sight to behold, and the sounds
of the creatures that called the jungle home were like a symphony to my ears’, so this is one of the
message being conveyed about the nature’s beauty, but not the most critical message. Hence option b is
incorrect.
The passage states that he also encountered indigenous tribes who welcomed him with open arms,
sharing their knowledge of the jungle and its secrets. It was a humbling experience, realizing how much
he had yet to learn. So, this again is one aspect of his journey being discussed, but not the central idea.
Hence option c is incorrect.
The author's determination to uncover the secrets hidden within the jungle's heart serves as a reminder
of the importance of perseverance and passion in the pursuit of knowledge. Hence option d is a message
being conveyed, but not the most critical message. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.12)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage does mention the impact of piracy on the economy, but we can’t conclude that it is the
worst. Hence option a is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘The situation has been compounded by the lack of a strong naval presence in
the area’. Strong naval presence is highly recommended by international forums, as this would act as a
deterrent for the pirates. Hence option b is correct.
The passage states that ‘Ships transiting the region often carry hazardous materials and a hijacked vessel
can pose a risk to the marine ecosystem’, so this is an aspect of piracy being mentioned. But not the
critical message. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage states that ‘Lack of intelligence with the governments about movements of pirates in the sea
is a hindrance in apprehending pirates.’, so this is one message being conveyed, but not the most critical
message. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.13)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that there is a lack of access to modern technology, which assumes that there is a
dearth of contemporary technology in the textile sector. Hence statement 1 is a valid assumption.
The passage states that due to decline in export, concerns have been raised about competitiveness of this
sector. But then it mentions the factors which have led to decline. And raising concern does it mean that
it is the reason, hence statement 2 is invalid assumption.
The passage states that lack of modernisation in the production process is the reason for decline in
export, but in statement 3, it just writes export, which implies General export. Hence statement 3 is an
invalid assumption.
The passage mentions that the COVID-19 pandemic has further exacerbated the situation, with
disruptions in global supply chains and a decline in demand for non-essential goods. So this assumes that
textile is a non essential good. Hence statement 4 is a valid assumption.

Q.14)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘The rugged and forested terrain of the region has made it difficult for security
forces to track down and apprehend insurgent groups as they are inept to deal with it’, so this assumes
that training in jungle war tactics is needed to defeat the insurgents. Hence statement 1 is a valid
assumption.
The passage mentions that ‘the ethnic and linguistic diversity of the region has made it challenging for
security forces to build trust with local communities and gather intelligence’, so this assumes that if there
is homogenous language and ethnicity, trust can be gained. Hence statement 2 is a valid assumption.
The passage states that ‘porous borders of the region allows insurgent groups to seek sanctuary in
neighboring countries such as Myanmar, Bangladesh, and Bhutan’, but this doesnot imply that these
countries provide them safe sanctuaries, it’s due to Porus borders that they end up being used like that.
Hence statement 3 is an invalid assumption.
The passage does mention about the violence being used by the insurgents and they are creating a sense
of fear, but they don’t state that whether it’s to threaten the government. Hence statement 4 is an invalid
assumption.

Q.15)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
We need to find the amount to be paid for 15 minutes, then we can conclude whether the child enjoyed
the ride for more than 15 minutes or not.
Given : The cost of the ride was Rs 75 for the first three minutes and Rs 20 for each additional minute
after the first three minutes.
Amount to be paid for 15 minutes = Rs 75 (for first three minutes) + Rs (20x12) [for next 12 minutes] =
Rs 315
Statement-1 : The child paid less than Rs 416.
But from this we don’t know how much exactly he paid, so there are chances that he paid less than Rs315.
So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement-2: The child paid more than Rs335.
From this we know that the child certainly enjoyed the ride for more than 15 minutes.
Hence Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

Q.16)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
There are two sequence in the above given expression:
0, 4, 18, 48, 100, 180
0, 8, 54, 192, 500, 720
The first sequence is of the pattern (n^3-n^2), where n begins from 1.
1^3-1^2 = 0
2^3-2^2=4
3^3-3^2=18
4^3-4^2=48
5^3-5^2=100
6^3-6^2=180
In this sequence all terms are correct.
Now the second sequence is: n^4-n^3, n starts from 1.
1^4-1^3=0
2^4-2^3=8
3^4-3^3=54
4^4-4^3=192
5^4-5^3=500
6^4-6^3=1080, which is incorrect in the given expression.
So, 720 in the given expression will be replaced with 1080.

Q.17)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The numbers in the First column are 2, 3, and 5 (All three numbers are prime numbers)
Based on the first column, If we draw the same pattern in column 2, it should be 7, 11, and 13
but the numbers in the second column are 7, 1, 3, which is nothing but units digit of the prime number,
With above logic the next three prime numbers will be 17, 19, 23 so based on the above logic, the numbers
in column 3 should be 7, 9, 3
So the missing number is 3.
Now let's see the alphabet. If we locate the position of the letter in reverse order, these alphabets are at
positions 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, and 19 (Which are nothing but corresponding prime numbers explained above)

Q.18)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Sequence 1 follows the rule of : (n^4-n^2)/3, n begins from 2 in sequence-1.
(2^4-2^2)/3=4
(3^4-3^2)/3=24
(4^4-4^2)/3=80
(5^4-5^2)/3=200
(6^4-6^2)/3=420
(7^4-7^2)/3=784
Sequence-2 follows the same pattern, and here the n begins with 7.
A= (8^4-8^2)/3=1344
B = (9^4-9^2)/3= 2160
So, C will be (10^4-10^2)/3 = 3300

Q.19)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The spinning wheel has numbers from 1 to 200, so Total number of possible outcome is n(S) = 200
She wins a Talking Timtoy if the wheel stops on a number which is multiple of 10. Let such numbers be
denoted as n(T)
n(T) = 20, that is {10,20,30,40,50,60,70,80,90,100,………….200}
Probability of getting Talking Timtoy is n(T)/n(S)= 20/200 = 1/10
So, statement 1 is correct.
If the number on which the wheel stops is a prime number more than 100 but less than 150, then she wins
a Barbie doll.
Let such number be denoted as n(B) = 10 that is {101, 103,107,109,113,127,131,137,139,149}
The probability that Rita wins a Barbie doll is n(B)/n(S) = 10/200 = 1/20.
Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q.20)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The ratio are (1/15):(1/21):(1/35)
Multiplying this by LCM of 15,21,35 (735) to simplify the ratio.
(1/15)x735 : (1/21)x735: (1/35)x735 = 49:35:21
So, Ram received the highest share, his share is {49/(49+35+21)}x525,000 =245,000

Q.21)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage does not highlight that the structure of WTO is completely
outdated. It rather says that, “While the institutional architecture of the WTO has expanded, it has
struggled to keep pace with the proliferation of issues that are placed on its agenda, in particular, those
that fall outside the ambit of traditional trade negotiations.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that the crisis of the WTO is not resolvable. In
fact, the passage highlights the paradoxical situation of the WTO being seen as both a beacon of
multilateralism and an institution in crisis, indicating that there is room for resolution and improvement.

Q.22)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that the Vijayanagara Empire's political economy was marked by a complex set of
power relations wherein patronage networks and land grants played a crucial role in maintaining social
order and political stability.

Q.23)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage highlights that the poverty of nations in Asia is a complex and multifaceted problem that is
deeply rooted in the social, economic, and political structures of these societies. It also mentions that the
legacy of colonialism has left a lasting imprint on the region, creating a legacy of underdevelopment and
inequality that continues to be felt today. This suggests that the impact of colonialism is still present and
that it has contributed to the current state of poverty in nations in Asia.

Q.24)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage suggests that in the post-historical period, art and philosophy will
be replaced by economic calculation, technical problem-solving, environmental concerns, and consumer
demands. This implies that art and philosophy may not be necessary for economic calculation.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage clearly outlines that people remembering history i.e. in the nostalgia
of history may create conflict. It is clearly given in the lines, “I can feel in myself, and see in others around
me, a powerful nostalgia for the time when history existed. Such nostalgia, in fact, will continue to fuel
competition and conflict even in the post-historical world for some time to come.”

Q.25)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statements:
1) If a person owns a car, they must have a driver's license.
2) If a person has a driver's license, they must be at least 18 years old.
3) John owns a car.
From statement 3, we know that John owns a car. According to statement 1, if a person owns a car, they
must have a driver's license.
Therefore, we can conclude that John has a driver's license.
Now that we know John has a driver's license,
we can refer to statement 2, which says that if a person has a driver's license, they must be at least 18
years old.
Since John has a driver's license, we can conclude that John is at least 18 years old.
Conclusions:
1) John is at least 18 years old. (True)
2) John does not have a driver's license. (False)
3) John has a driver's license. (True)

Q.26)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Let’s assume the daughter’s age is x.
Since the mother’s age is twice the daughter’s age, the mother’s age is 2x.
The father is 1 year older than the mother, so his age is 2x +1
The son is 3 years older than the daughter, so his age is x +3
The sum of all their ages is 100 years.
so, we can write an equation:
 x + 2x + (2x + 1) + (x + 3) = 100
 6x+4 = 100
 6x = 96
Solving this equation, we get x = 16.
So, the son’s age is x+3 = 19

Q.27)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
If the mirror is placed vertically on the right side of the image, then the top and bottom of the image
remain unchanged, whereas the left and right of the image interchange.
Thus the right answer would as followed:
Q.28)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
We can draw the following diagram from the given info:

We can see that the shortest distant between Home and the Hospital is 20 m

Q.29)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement-1: If z2 - z is divisible by 4,
then z(z-1) is divisible by 4.
Since z and (z-1) are consecutive integers, one of them must be even (divisible by 2).
Therefore, their product must be divisible by 2*2 = 4
This statement implies that z is either even or odd.
If z is even, then (z+3) is odd and not divisible by 4.
If z is odd, then (z+3) is even, but we still cannot confirm if it is divisible by 4.
So, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question.
Statement-2: If the square of (z+3) is divisible by 4, then (z+3)2 is divisible by 4.
This implies that (z+3) is even, as the square of an odd number is always odd, and the square of an even
number is always even and divisible by 4.
However, we still cannot confirm if (z+3) is divisible by 4.
So, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question.
Combining both statements, we know that z(z-1) is divisible by 4 and (z+3)2 is divisible by 4. However, we
still cannot confirm if (z+3) is divisible by 4.
Thus, both Statement-1 and Statement-2 combined are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q.30)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

We can draw the following diagram from the given info and following the cardinal directions, we can see
Akashdeep is facing West right now:
Q.31)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage highlights several challenges in India's healthcare system, including inadequate funding,
limited access to healthcare services, and a shortage of healthcare professionals. These challenges have
contributed to poor health outcomes for many Indians, with high rates of mortality and morbidity from
infectious and non-communicable diseases. The passage also mentions significant disparities in health
outcomes across different regions and socio-economic groups, which suggests that the healthcare
system is not providing equitable access to healthcare services.

Q.32)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage mentions that the emergence of the Jharkhand movement
reflected a growing sense of frustration and marginalization among Adivasi communities who had long
been excluded from the benefits of development and democracy. However, the passage does not suggest
that there is resistance in Adivasi communities to join the mainstream. The passage instead highlights the
movement's demand for greater control over the region's resources and development priorities.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the movement has faced a range of challenges, including the co-option of
its leadership by mainstream political parties, and the ongoing impact of neoliberal economic policies on
the region's social and environmental fabric, the passage does not imply that these challenges are
insurmountable.

Q.33)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The study of the state of being in its whole is the subject matter of philosophy. The passage states that
philosophy is an ontological inquiry into the meaning of being, and it seeks to uncover the fundamental
structures that underlie our experience of the world. It is not concerned with objects or entities in
isolation, but with the Being of beings as a whole. The passage further explains that engaging in
philosophical inquiry involves questioning the meaning of Being itself and exploring the ways in which
our existence is intertwined with the existence of the world around us.

Q.34)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage clearly states that the existing social relations between the two sexes, which is the legal
subordination of one sex to the other, is not only wrong but also a hindrance to human improvement. The
author argues that it should be replaced by a principle of perfect equality.

Q.35)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
We need to find a common multiple for a set of numbers, i.e., LCM of the numbers.
This is followed by division with the smallest four-digit number and addition of the remainder.
LCM of 6, 7, and 9 = 126
Smallest four-digit number = 1000
Smallest four-digit number that is exactly divisible by 126 = 1008 (126 × 8 = 1008)
Smallest four-digit number that would leave remainder 4 when divided by 126 = 1008 + 4 = 1012
The smallest four-digit number that would leave remainder 4 when divided by 6, 7, and 9 is 1012.

Q.36)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct
A number is said to be divisible by 9, only and if its sum of digits is divisible by 9.
Calculation:
1+1+1+Y+0+5=8
Minimum 1 should be added to make this number divisible by 9.
= 1 + 1 + 1 + 1+ 0 + 5 = 9
(8 + 1 = 9)
Y=1
The correct answer is 1.

Q.37)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
We first need to identify the first and last 4-digit numbers that are divisible by 8.
The smallest 4-digit number is 1000, and the largest 4-digit number is 9999.
The smallest 4-digit number divisible by 8 is = 1008.
The largest 4-digit number divisible by 8 is = 9992.
Now we have an arithmetic progression with the first term a = 1008, the last term l = 9992, and a common
difference d = 8.
To find the number of terms in this progression, we can use the formula:
n = ((l - a) / d) + 1
n = ((9992 - 1008) / 8) + 1
n = (8984 / 8) + 1
n = 1123 + 1
n = 1124
So, there are 1124 four-digit numbers that are exactly divisible by 8

Q.38)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
x1/3 = y1/4
⇒LCM of 3, 4=12
=> (x1/3 )12 = (y1/4)12
=> x4 = y3
=> ( x4)5 = (y3)5
=> x20 = y15

Q.39)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Given Total number of students = 68
Number of students participated only in Debate = 34
Number of students participated in both Quiz and Debate = 8
If every student of the class has participated in at least one of these two competitions.
Number of students participated only in Quiz = Total number of students - (Number of students
participated only in Debate + Number of students participated in both Debate and Quiz)
Number of students participated only in Quiz = 68 - (34 + 8)
Number of students participated only in Quiz = 68 - 42 = 26

Number of students participated in quiz = Number of students participated only in Quiz

+ Number of students participated in both Quiz and Debate
Number of students participated in quiz = 26 + 8 = 34

Q.40)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
We can draw the following diagram from the given info:

Conclusion I. Some bottle are not spoon -> True as the bottle which is cup can never be spoon. Hence,
Some bottle are not spoon is true.
Conclusion Il. Some bottle is cup -> True as Some bottle are glass and all glass are cup. so, some bottle
are cup is true.

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage states that recent research has suggested that personal value and emotions play a much
larger role in decision making. So, this is one side of the argument being discussed, but not what the
passage sums up to. Hence option a is incorrect.
The passage mentions that ‘Going forward the approach most likely to be valued is an amalgam of
dialectics and one’s own belief system’, so the passage sums up to ‘The combination of rational analysis
and consideration of personal values is the best way to make decisions.’, hence option b is correct.
The last line of the passage suggests that an amalgam of both rationale and values is the way ahead, so it
infers that interplay between rational analysis and emotional values is to be recognized. Thus, just by
recognizing emotions only long term decisions cannot be made. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage discusses that values should have a role in decision making, but alignment with goal is not
mentioned. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.42)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that ‘This process can destroy deep-sea habitats,’ so the passage discusses “deep
sea habitats”, not in general habitats. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The passage states that the existence of endemic species is endangered, but this does it imply that they
will become extinct. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The passage mentions that deep sea mining is disrupting feeding and reproductive behaviors. So, it
implies that they are exhibiting reproductive disorientation. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q.43)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage mentions that ‘The deep sea is still relatively unknown and poorly understood’, so this infers
that There is not adequate information about the deep seafloor. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The passage mentions about the mining process, it does not discuss about whether deep sea mining
industry is well equipped or not. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The passage states that it can have severe impacts on the broader climate system, so it assumes that
Deep sea mining can have adverse impacts on climate change. So this is one of the challenges. Hence
statement 3 is correct.

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Total profit = 14% of cash outflow = 14% of Rs 120 crore = Rs 16.8 crore.
The green team’s share in profit = {3/(1+2+3)}x16.8 = Rs 8.4 crore
Tax deduction = 8.4x(30/100)= 2.52 crore
Profit of Green team = Rs(8.4-2.52)= Rs 5.9 crore

Q.45)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
1895 is not a leap year. So it will have 1 odd day.
Since 1896 is a leap year, it will add 2 odd days.
Similarly, 1887, 1898, 1899, 1900 will add 1,1,1,1 odd days.
Now the total number of odd days add up to 7.
So, the next year 1901 will have the same calendar as 1895.

Q.46)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Let the number of marbles chosen by Ram is r and that chosen by Shyam is s
Statement-1: The difference between the square of number of marbles chosen by Ram and the square of
number of marbles chosen by Shyam is 101.
r^2 - s^2 = 101
(r+s) (r- s) = 101
But 101 is a prime number and can’t be written as a product of two numbers unless one of the numbers is
1 and the other is 101 itself.
Hence (r+s) = 101 and (r- s) = 1
This is possible for only two value of r and s, when r= 51 and s = 50
So now the number of marbles chosen by Ram is 51 and that chosen by Shyam is 50
So, the sum of the squares of the number of marbles chosen by Ram and the square of the number of
marbles chosen by Shyam = (51)^2 + (50)^2 = 5101
Hence Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement 2: The difference between the number of marbles chosen by Ram and Shyam is unity.
So, r-s = 1
Given, the number of marbles is a positive integer.
From this we can’t get the value of r^2+s^2
Hence Statement 2 alone is insufficient to answer the question.

Q.47)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement-1: Derek is heavier than Andy and Cyrus.
Derek > Andy, Derek>Cyrus ——(1)
This gives no information about Bob and Ellen, so who is the heaviest we can’t conclude.
Statement-1 alone is insufficient to answer the Question.
Statement-2: Bob is lighter than Ellen but heavier than Derek.
Bob<Ellen, Bob>Derek
Ellen>Bob>Derek——(2)
But again, here information about Andy and Cyrus is not given, so who is the heaviest we can’t conclude.
Statement-2 alone is insufficient to answer the Question.
Using both the statements, equation (1) and (2)
Derek > Andy, Derek>Cyrus
Ellen> Bob >Derek
Using above both⇒ Ellen> Bob >Derek > (Andy, Cyrus)
So, Ellen is the heaviest.
Hence both statements are required to answer the Question.

Q.48)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Dev pays Rs 2145 to Chetan and Chetan earns 10% profit on it. —— (1)
Chetan’s purchase(cost) price was 2145x100/(100+10) = Rs 1950 —- (2)
Chetan’s profit is ⅓ of Barun’s profit.
Barun’s rate of profit is 3 times that of Chetan’s. So, from equation (1), Barun’s rate of profit is 30%
Barun sells it to Chetan at 30% of profit. —— (3)
Barun’s cost price(B) + 30% of profit = Chetan’s cost price = 1950
Bx (100+30)/100= 1950
B = Rs 1500
Aman’s profit is 5/3 of Barun’s rate of profit.
From equation (3),
Aman’s rate of profit is 5/3 x(30) = 50%
Thus, Aman’s cost price(A) + 50% profit = Barun’s cost price = Rs 1500
Ax(100+50)/100 = 1500
A= Rs 1000
Aman bought it for Rs 1000.

Q.49)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Given, their investment amounts are denoted by a,b and c respectively. The median value of their
investment is (a+11). Implies b= a+11———-(1)
We have to find the least possible value of Dev’s investment, that is the least possible value of c.
Average of their investment is 20.
Total investment is 20x 3=60
a+b+c = 60———-(2)
Using equation (1)
a+ (a+11)+ c = 60
2a+c = 49
Investment of Aman is less than or equal to that of Shweta. Investment of Shweta is less than or equal to
Dev.
That is a\<b\<c
Theoretically the least possible value of c is when c=b.
And given b=a+11, so c=a+11
Putting this in equation (2)
a+a+11+a+11 = 60 ⇒ a =12.66
Given, all the investments are integer values. Hence this value is not possible.
Now let’s increment c by 1, let c be (b+1)i.e. a+12
Put it in equation (2)
a+a+11+a+12 = 60
3a = 37, again a is not an integer, hence not possible.
Now take c=b+2 i.e. a+13
Put it in equation (2)
a+a+11+a+13 = 60
a= 12, b=23, c=25
The least value of c which satisfies the above condition is c equals to 25.
So, the least possible value of Dev’s investment is Rs 25

Q.50)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Step 1: Movie C is to be released at the fifth. Movie B should be released immediately before movie C and
their release can’t be separated by tea break, so movie B will be at 4th place.
Step 2: Movie D will be released either at first or at last. Movie F is scheduled to be released immediately
after D. So, D has to be at 1st place. And F will be at 2nd place
Sequence Movie

1 D

2 F

Tea break Tea break

4 B

5 C
 6

There are two movies left A, E but we didn’t have any specific information about others. So which movie
got released at the end can’t be known.

Q.51)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage states that ‘the role of traditional institutions in society is being called into question.’, but
this does not assume that they have lost their relevance. Hence statement 1 is invalid assumption.
The passage mentions one of the arguments against one of the traditional institutions is that they
prioritize the interests of the wealthy over the needs of the working class. Implies it assumes that
working class needs should not be disregarded. Hence statement 2 is a valid assumption.
The passage again mentions one of the arguments against one of the traditional institutions is that they
may be biased against marginalized groups. So, this assumes that discrimination against marginalized
groups is not just. Hence statement 3 is a valid assumption.
The passage discusses that ‘prioritizing rote memorization and standardized testing over critical thinking
and creativity, can stifle innovation and thus limit individual potential’, which means stifling innovation
limits individual potential, direct relation between critical thinking and maximizing individuals potential is
not inferred to. Hence statement 4 is an invalid assumption.

Q.52)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The passage in the first half describes the beauty of serene nature, and it writes that even amidst this
idyllic scene, there was an undercurrent of darkness that threatened to consume all. This is an aspect of
contrast of serenity and darkness being discussed, but this is not the central idea. Hence option a is
incorrect.
The passage describes a serene moment but also acknowledges the existence of darkness born out of
negative emotions such as hatred, fear, ignorance, and intolerance. It highlights the importance of
knowledge and understanding in overcoming this darkness and bringing about a new, brighter future.
The central idea of the passage is the power of hope and understanding to overcome hatred and fear,
which is expressed in the final sentence: "But even in the darkest of moments, there was always a glimmer
of hope, a spark of light that could ignite the flames of change and set the world ablaze with a new,
brighter future." Hence option b is correct.
The passage does mention about the darkness around us, so this is one aspect being discussed but this is
not the central idea. Hence option c is incorrect.
The passage mentions that there lurked a darkness that threatened to consume all. So, option d again is
one aspect of darkness being discussed, but this is not the central idea. Hence option d is incorrect.

Q.53)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Two-digit numbers; The two digits can be 4 and 7: Two possibilities are 47 and 74.
Three-digit numbers: The three digits can be 1, 4, and 7: 3! Or 6 possibilities.
We cannot have three digits as (2, 2, 7) as the digits have to be distinct.
We cannot have numbers with 4 digits or more without repeating the digits.
So, there are total 8 numbers.
Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
43 participants from Central School : let there be G girls.
The number of girls versus girls matches in Central School is 153, let’s suppose there are n girls
C(n,2) = 153 ⇒ n(n-1)/2=153
⇒ n(n-1) = 306 ⇒ n =18
So, there are 18 girls in Central School and (43-18) = 25 boys in central school. ——— (1)
The number of boys versus boys matches in DAV School is 276.
Let m be the number of boys in DAV School.
C(m,2) is the number of matches between boys and boys of DAV School.
m(m-1)/2 = 276,
m(m-1) = 552, m = 24
So, there are 24 boys in DAV school and The number of girls in DAV school = 51-24=27 girls—-(2)
Number of matches boys play against girls = (number of boys of Central School x number of girls of
central school) + (number of boys of DAV School x number of girls of DAV school)
Given, there is no inter school match.
Number of matches boys play against girls= (25x18)+(24x27) = 1098

Q.55)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
1.) c is the arithmetic mean of a and b => c lies in between a and b. And it lies exactly in between the two
terms. As in, the number of terms between a and c should be equal to the number of terms between b and
c.
a, c, b could be the
1st 2nd and 3rd terms respectively or
1st, 3rd and 5th respectively, or
2nd, 3rd, 4th respectively, or
3rd, 4th, 5th respectively.
The terms could also be the other way around. As in, b, c, a could be the 1st 2nd and 3rd terms
respectively, or the 1st, 3rd and 5th respectively, and so on. This is a very simple but very powerful idea.
2.) Now, d is the arithmetic mean of b and c. => d lies between b and c. Using statements I and II we can
say that a, c, b have to be 1st, 3rd and 5th or 5th, 3rd, and 1st as there is an element between b and c also.
So, c is the third term. a and b are 1st and 5th in some order.
b ___ c ___ a or a ___ c ___ b
d is the arithmetic mean of b and c.
Possible arrangements are:
b d c e a or a e c d b
The question is "Which of the given statements are true?"
Hence the answer is "1 and 2 only".
Option a is the correct answer.

Q.56)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Let the three persons be W, M, F
Situation 1: If one person gets no rasgulla, then the 7 rasgullas must be distributed such that each of the
other two get at least one rasgulla.
This can be done as (6,1) and (5,2) and (4,3) ways and their rearrangements.
Case 1: one person getting 6 rasgullas , second one 1 rasgulla. This can be done in C(7,6) ways
Case 2: One person getting 5 rasgullas, second one 2 rasgullas. This can be done in C(7,5) ways
Case 3: one person getting 4 rasgullas, second one 3 rasgullas. This can be done in C(7,4) ways
The case 1, case 2 and case 3 can be rearranged in 3! , that is 6 Ways.
So for situation 1, total number of ways = C(7,6)xC(7,5)xC(7,4)x3! = 378 ways
Situation 2: if two people get no rasgulla.
These 2 persons can be chosen in C(3,2) = 3 ways.
So the number of ways in which he can distribute the rasgulla if one or two of them must get no objects =
378+3 = 381 ways

Q.57)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Let the number of tickets sold by Hansraj airline is x and that sold by Alpine airline is y.
Given, x is two digit positive integer.
The number of tickets sold by Alpine airline (y) is twice the tens place of the number of tickets sold by
Hansraj airlines (x)
Statement-1 : The number of tickets sold by Hansraj airline (x) is greater than 20 but less than 30.
20<x<30
Implies x lies between 21 to 29.
So, the tens place is 2.
The number of tickets sold by Alpine airline (y) is twice the tens place of the number of tickets sold by
Hansraj airlines (x)
y= 2x2 = 4,
We need to check : Is the number of tickets sold by Alpine airline (y) greater than ⅙ of the number of
tickets sold by Hansraj airline (x) ?
y>x/6 ⇒6y>x
For y=4, 6y = 24, which will be greater for x=21,22,23
But for x=25,26,27,28,29 this will not hold true.
Hence statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Using statement 2: The number of tickets sold by Alpine airline is 10
That is y = 10——(1)
so the tens place of number of tickets sold for Hansraj airline (x) is 10/2 =5
Implies x varies from 50 to 59
50< x < 59
We need to check : Is the number of tickets sold by Alpine airline (y) greater than ⅙ of the number of
tickets sold by Hansraj airline (x) ?
y>x/6 ⇒6y>x
For the highest value of x = 59 and equation (1), y> x/6,
Hence statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.58)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
25200= 7x 3x3x2x2x2x2x5x5 = 7x(3^2)x(2^4)x(5^2)
The value of n will depend on which number of 7s and number of 5s is lower in 50!
Number of 7s in 50! = 49(7x7), 42(7x6), 35(5x7), 28(4x7), 21(3x7), 14(2x7),7⇒ { picking only those terms which
have 7 in it}
⇒ total eight 7s
Number of 5s in 50! = 50(5x5x2), 45(9x5), 40(5x8),35(5x7), 30(6x5), 25(5x5), 20(5x4), 15(5x3),10(5x2), 5(1x5) ⇒
picking only those terms which have 5 in it, ⇒ total twelve 5s
Number of 5^2 = 12/2 = 6
So, the number of (5^2) is more than the number of 7s.
Hence the maximum value of n for which 50! is perfectly divisible by 25200^n is 6.

Q.59)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Case 1: Either all three specific friends go, so in this case the remaining 7 friends can be chosen from (25-3
=22 ) in C(22,7) ways = 22!/{(22-7)!x7!}= 170544
Case 2: Either none of them will go, so in this case the ten friends to go on dance floor will be chosen in
C(22,10) ways = 22!/{(22-10)!x10!}= 646646 ways
Total number of ways in which these ten people to go on dance floor can be chosen is 170544+646646=
817190 ways

Q.60)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Use the statement- Some rabbits Are monkeys. From this statement, we can draw image one and image
two.
From the statement- All monkeys are camels, we draw image three.
From the statement, some camels are wolves, we draw images four and five.
From image one and three, the final image which we make is clear that certainly some rabbits are not
wolves and certainly some monkeys are not wolves. Hence neither of the conclusion follows
Q.61)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The given passage mentions that achieving UHC requires a nuanced
understanding of the complex interactions between health systems, socioeconomic factors, and political
contexts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that public financing is the ultimate solution for
achieving UHC. The passage suggests that limited resources and competing demands necessitate trade-
offs between the comprehensiveness of benefits packages and the financial sustainability of health
systems.

Q.62)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage clearly mention that the G-20 functions as a heterarchical network, in which power and
influence are distributed across the member states. However, some member states possess
disproportionate power and influence relative to others, and this power asymmetry can undermine the
legitimacy of the forum and hinder its ability to achieve collective action. It is the most logical and
rational inference as the passage essentially talks about the power distribution among the members of G-
20 and its impact on its functioning.

Q.63)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Let's use variables to represent the number of each colour house:
R for red, B for blue, and Y for yellow. We know that R + B + Y = 27.
 R = B - 1 (For every red house, there's one fewer blue house)
 Y = R - 1 (For every yellow house, there's one fewer red house)
We can solve this system using substitution:
 First, solve the second equation for B
 B=R+1
Now, substitute this expression for B in the first equation:
R + (R + 1) + Y = 27
Since Y = R - 1, substitute this expression for Y:
 2R + (R - 1) + 1 = 27
 3R = 27
R=9
Now, find the values of B and Y using the values of R:
 B = R + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
Y=R-1=9-1=8
Thus,
Y= 8
B= 10
R= 9

Q.64)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Let's assume that the length of the wire is 100 units.
According to the problem, the longer piece is 60% of the length of the wire, which is:
Length of longer piece = 60% of 100 = 60 units
Length of shorter piece = Length of wire - Length of a longer piece
Length of shorter piece = 100 - 60 = 40 units
The difference in length between the two pieces is:
Difference = 60 - 40 = 20 units
To find the percentage by which the longer wire is longer than the shorter piece, we can use the
following formula:
Percentage increase = ((Difference / Length of shorter piece) x 100)
Using this formula, we get:
Percentage increase = ((20 / 40) x 100) = 50%
Therefore, the longer piece is 50% longer than the shorter piece.

Q.65)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
the price of petrol for the first car = x rupees per liter
the price of petrol for the second car = y rupees per liter
the total cost of petrol for the trip = ₹10550.
So as per the given info:
75x + 55y = 10550.
Second, we know that the price of petrol for the first car was ₹2 more per liter than the price of petrol for
the second car.
This means that x = y + 2.
Now we can use these two equations to solve for x and y.
Substituting y + 2 for x in the first equation,
we get: 75(y + 2) + 55y = 10550.
Solving for y, we find that y = 80. Since x = y + 2, we find that x = 82

Q.66)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Original expression: 56 ÷ (18 – 8 × 4) + 27 × 3 - 14 × 2
As per the given info:
The modified expression would be
56 × (18 + 8 ÷ 4) - 72 ÷ 3 + 14 ÷ 7
We can solve this,
 56 × 20 - 72 ÷ 3 + 14 ÷ 7
 1120 - 24 + 2
 1096 + 2 = 1098
Q.67)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
For the watch to show the correct time, it takes 12 hours.
If 6 minutes is gained in 1 hour,
then 12 hours or 720 minutes will be gained in 120 hours or 5 days.
So the correct time will be shown by the watch next at 6 : 00 AM Friday.
Hence, the correct answer is 6 : 00 AM Friday.

Q.68)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Let the number of families with exactly one, two, and three boys be represented by the variables x, y, and
z respectively.
From the given information, we can write four equations:
x + y + z = 100
x = y + 20
z = y/2
z = 100 - x - y
Substituting the values of x and z from the second and third equations into the fourth equation gives us:
(y/2) = 100 - (y + 20) - y
Solving for y gives us:
y = 32
Substituting this value of y into the second and third equations gives us:
x = 52, z = 16
So, there are 52 families with exactly one boy, 32 families with exactly two boys, 16 families with exactly
three boys.
The total number of boys in the village is therefore:
(1 * x) + (2 * y) + (3 * z)
= (1 * 52) + (2 * 32) + (3 * 16)
= 164.

Q.69)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Let the weights of Amit, Balraj, Chetan, and Deepak be represented by the variables A, B, C, and D
respectively. From the given information, we can write two equations:
(A + B + C)/3 = 60------------ 1st Equation
And (B + C + D)/3 = 70
Multiplying both sides of the first equation by 3 and then adding D to both sides gives us:
A + B + C + D = 180 + D
Since the average weight of all four friends is 65 kg, we can write another equation:
(A + B + C + D)/4 = 65
Multiplying both sides by 4 gives us:
A + B + C + D = 260
Substituting the value of A + B + C + D from the first equation into this equation gives us:
180 + D = 260
Solving for D, we find that Deepak’s weight is 80 kg.
Q.70)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pipe A and B together can fill the tank in 3 hours.
So, their combined work rate = 1/3 of the tank per hour (filling)
Pipe C can empty the tank in 6 hours.
So, its work rate = 1/6 of the tank per hour (emptying).
Since Pipe C is emptying the tank,
we subtract its work rate from the combined work rate of Pipe A and B.
Net work rate = (1/3) - (1/6)
= (2/6) - (1/6)
= 1/6 of the tank per hour (filling)
If the network rate is 1/6 of the tank per hour
then the time it takes to fill the empty tank = 6 hours

Q.71)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The passage emphasizes the importance of the study of animal behavior in understanding the natural
world and the impact that humans have on it. This is conveyed in the following line: "Through the study of
animal behavior, we can gain a deeper understanding of the complex relationships that exist within the
natural world and the impact that humans have on these relationships."

Q.72)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Statement 1 is correct: It is stated clearly in the passage that "The axioms, definitions, and rules of
inference are all set down by humans." The author acknowledges that these fundamental principles of
mathematics are created by humans and not discovered in the natural world.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage mentions the existence of formalists, who reject the idea of an
independent mathematical universe. The passage states, "there are some mathematicians who do not
accept the idea of an independent mathematical universe. They are called formalists, and they believe that
mathematics is nothing but the study of symbols and rules for manipulating those symbols." This suggests
that there are differing views among mathematicians regarding the nature of mathematical concepts and
their relationship to the physical world.

Q.73)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The passage suggests that mathematical theorems and proofs seem to acquire a life of their own,
independent of their human creators, and that even when humans understand a theorem completely,
they often have the eerie feeling that it somehow existed "out there" in the universe of mathematical
concepts, just waiting to be discovered, rather than having been invented by human thought. Therefore,
it can be inferred that mathematical concepts and principles have an inherent truth that exists
independently of human understanding or interpretation.
Q.74)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The passage highlights the growing concern over the impact of plastic products on the environment and
the push for alternatives. However, it also notes that the manufacturing and disposal of these alternatives
have environmental impacts, and therefore the most effective solution is to reduce the overall use of
single-use plastic products. Therefore, the most logical conclusion that can be drawn from this passage is
that the most effective solution for reducing plastic waste is to reduce the overall use of single-use plastic
products.

Q.75)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

Required possibilities are:

Case I: All faces of same colour
Two possibilities are there,
1 – All Black
2 – All white
Case II: Any two faces are of the same colour and the remaining 4 faces are of the other colour.
1) 2 adjacent faces black or white, and the remaining 4 faces are white or black (2 cases).
2) 2 opposite faces are black or white, and the remaining 4 faces are white or black correspondingly (2
cases).
Case III: 3 sides are black and the other 3 sides are white.
1) The 3 white-coloured faces are adjacent to one another (2 cases).
2) Two of the three white-coloured faces are opposite to each other (2 cases).
Case IV: Exactly one face is painted black or white (2 cases).
Total number of cases: - 10 cases

Q.76)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Let’s assume that Suman does 100 units of work in 2 days,
So, Raman does 100 units of work in 3 days.
Implies units of work Suman does in 1 day = 100/2 = 50 units——— (1)
Units of work Raman does in 1 day = 100/3 units —————————- (2)
Given, Raman can do as much work in 4 days as much Aman can do in 5 days.
So, units of work which Raman can do in 4 days =(100/3)x 4 = 400/3 units = the units of work which
Aman can do in 5 days.
So, Aman can do 400/3 units in 5 days.
Hence in 1 day, Aman can do 400/15 units = 80/3 units ——————-(3)
So, now the number of units of work by all three in one day = [(50+(100/3)+(80/3)] = 110 units per day.
Given, it takes 20 days to complete a piece of work.
Hence the unit of work was = 110x 20 = 2200 units of work
Given Speed of work of Raman from equation 2 is 100/3 units per day.
So, using unitary method, the time taken to complete 2200 units of work 2200/(100/3) = 66 days.

Q.77)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
A student is a cyclist but not a runner if and only if their identification number is divisible by 6 but not
divisible by 8.
There are 33 numbers between 1 and 200 that are divisible by 6.
The least common multiple of 6 and 8 is 24, so a student is both a cyclist and a runner if and only if their
identification number is divisible by 24.
There are 8 numbers between 1 and 200 that are divisible by 24.
So, the number of students who are cyclist but not runners is 33 - 8 = 25.

Q.78)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
We need to look at the pattern followed by 78 , 56, 97 when they are raised to high powers.
For 78, the unit digit for’ raised powers’ are as follows:
78^1 = 8. 78^5 = 8
78^2 = 4. 78^6 = 4
78^3 = 2. 78^7 = 2
78^4 = 6. 78^8 = 6
78^(5562) = 78^(4x1390) x 78^2 = 78^(4n+2) = 78^4n x 78^2 = 6x 4 = 24, hence unit digit is 4 here.——(1)
Similarly, the unit digit for ‘raised powers’ of 56 are as follows:
56^1= 6
56^2 = 6
56^3 = 6
Implies 56 raised to the power n will yield 6 as unit digit. ———- (2)
Now, unit digit for ‘raised power’ of 97:
97^1 = 7
97^2 = 9
97^3 = 3
97^4 = 1
97^1250 = 97^(4x312) x 97^2 = 97^(4n+2) = 97^4n x 97^2 = 1 x9 = 9———-(3)
Hence the unit digit for the given expression is, unit digit of 4x 6 x 9 —->6

Q.79)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Since Meera has no brothers, she is her father’s only daughter.
So, the Husband of Meera’s father’s daughter — is Meera’s husband.
Thus, Meera’s husband is the girl’s father or the girl is Meera’s daughter.
The relationship between Meera and the Girl’s father (Meera’s husband) and mother (Meera’s
mother-in-law) is Daughter-in-law.
Q.80)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Shobhita will fail even if she fails in 1 subject or 2 subjects or 3 subjects or 4 subjects or 5 subjects or 6
subjects.
Total number of subjects = 6
Number of ways in which she will fail in one subject = C(6,1)
Number of ways in which she will fail in two subjects = C(6,2)
Number of ways in which she will fail in three subjects = C(6,3)
Number of ways in which she will fail in four subjects = C(6,4)
Number of ways in which she will fail in five subjects = C(6,5)
Number of ways in which she will fail in six subjects = C(6,6)
If she fails in either of the subjects, she will not pass the NEET exam. Hence the sum of all the above will
give the number of ways in which she can feel the NEET exam.
Number of ways in which Shobhita can fail the NEET exam = C(6,1) +C(6,2)+C(6,3)+C(6,4) +C(6,5)+C(6,6)
= 6!/(5!x1!) + 6!/(4!x2!) + 6!/(3!x3!) + 6!/(2!x4!) + 6!/(1!x5!) + 6!/(6!x0!)
= 63 ways