Prelims Wallah

Test
Test-9 of 38
(Modern History Part 1)

TARGET 2024

SCAN HERE FOR TEST SERIES ACCESS


Prelims Wallah Test 2024
Test 9: Modern India Part I Test
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Alfonso de Albuquerque secured the
strategic port of Goa from the Marathas
in 1510 AD.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque is credited with
the abolition of sati in Goa.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. ‘He was a patron of science and technology.
He authored a military manual that elucidated
the workings of rockets. He supported the
French soldiers in setting up a Jacobin Club
in 1797, and he himself became a member of
the Jacobin Club and allowed others to
address him as Citizen.’
Who among the following personalities is
described in the paragraph above?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Tipu Sultan
(c) Mir Nizam Ali Khan
(d) Krishnaraja Wadiyar
3. Who among the following was the Governor
General of British India when Sindh was
incorporated into the British Empire?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Auckland
(d) Lord Ellenborough
4. Consider the following rivers:
1. Shyok River
2. Gilgit River
3. Kabul River
4. Zanskar River
1
How many of the above are the right bank
tributaries of the River Indus?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
5. With reference to the British expansionist
‘Policy of Ring-Fence’, consider the
following statements:
1. It was introduced by Lord Dalhousie to
defend the Company’s frontiers.
2. The states were assured of military
assistance against external aggression at
their own expense.
3. The policy of the subsidiary alliance was
an extension of the ring-fence system.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
6. Which one of the following was the outcome
of the Mughal siege of Hooghly in 1632 AD?
(a) The Portuguese successfully defended
Hooghly.
(b) The Mughals captured Hooghly, forcing
the Portuguese to flee.
(c) The Portuguese agreed to increase their
trade activities in the city.
(d) The Portuguese abandoned Hooghly
without a fight.
7. Which of the following statements are correct
with reference to the ‘chargesheet’ filed by a
police officer?
1. It is a public document under the
Evidence Act.
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2. It has been defined under the Criminal

Procedure Code. 10. ‘The adopted son could be the heir to his
Select the correct answer using the code foster father’s private property, but not the
given below: state; it was for the paramount power to
(a) 1 only decide whether to bestow the state on the
(b) 2 only adopted son or to annex it.’
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which one among the following British
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Policies is best described by the paragraph
given above?
8. Consider the following statements: (a) Subsidiary Alliance System
1. An economy in which resources are (b) Policy of Ring-Fence
extracted, used and then discarded as (c) Policy of Masterly Inactivity
waste is called a circular economy. (d) Doctrine of Lapse
2. A linear economy aims to keep resources
in use for as long as possible through 11. Consider the following cases in the Indian
strategies such as reusing, repairing and judicial history:
recycling. 1. Champakam Dorairajan vs State of
Which of the statements given above are Madras
incorrect? 2. Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
(a) 1 only 3. Golakhath vs State of Punjab
(b) 2 only How many of the above are closely related to
(c) Both 1 and 2 the evolution of the Basic structure doctrine
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 in India?
9. With reference to the British policy of (a) Only one
‘Subsidiary alliance’, consider the following (b) Only two
statements: (c) All three
1. The permanent stationing of a British (d) None
force within the territory of the Indian
state 12. Consider the following statements:
2. The payment of subsidies by Indian 1. The Marathas controlled a significant
rulers for the maintenance of British portion of India by the mid-18th century
forces. and received tributes from regions not
3. Indian Rulers could employ Europeans directly under their control.
(non-English) at their own discretion. 2. The Third Battle of Panipat in 1761
4. The Indian rulers cannot negotiate with resulted in a decisive defeat for the
any other Indian ruler without due Marathas, weakening their power.
consultation. 3. Bajirao II, the Peshwa, established a
How many of the above statements are confederacy of prominent Maratha chiefs
correct? to manage their expanding influence.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
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Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

13. With reference to the First Anglo-Afghan
War (1839-1842), consider the following
statements:
1. The British objective was to establish a
permanent barrier against incursions
from the north-west.
2. The British were successful in
consolidating their control over
Afghanistan.
3. Shah Shuja, enthroned by the British,
was accepted wholeheartedly by the
Afghans.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. In the backdrop of the First Anglo-Maratha
War (1775-82), consider the following
statements regarding the treaties and
alliances:
1. Raghunathrao ceded the territories of
Salsette and Bassein under the terms of
the Treaty of Surat.
2. The British Calcutta Council condemned
the Treaty of Surat.
3. Nana Phadnavis violated his treaty with
the Calcutta Council by granting the
French a port on the west coast.
15. Which one among the following was the
underlying reason behind the sack of
Hooghly by imperial Mughals in 1686?
(a) English engaging in the cruel slave trade
of Hindu and Muslim children.
(b) English missionary’s attempts for mass
religious conversions.
(c) Dispute over territorial boundaries.
(d) The English attempted to establish a
fortified settlement.
16. With reference to the advent of the British in
India, consider the following statements:
1. The Third Anglo-Mysore War concluded
with the Treaty of Seringapatam.
2. The Treaty of Salbai was signed between
the Peshwa and the English.
3. The end of the first Anglo-Sikh War
forced the Sikhs to sign the Treaty of
Amritsar.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
17. Which one of the following correctly
describes the provision framed for Tibet by
the Anglo-Russian Convention of 1907?
(a) The Convention prohibited any
negotiations with Tibet except through
mediation by the British government.
(b) China was the ultimate beneficiary of the
Convention, which prevented any
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negotiations with Tibet without the
involvement of the Chinese government.
(c) The Convention facilitated Russian
influence in Tibet, contrary to the
policies advocated by Lord Curzon.
(d) The Convention effectively barred both
China and Russia from any dealings with
Tibet, leaving Tibet independent.
18. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Anglo-Afghan Relations in
the early 19th century:
20. With reference to the resolution passed by the
1. Increased Russian influence in Persia
replaced British influence and prevented
the establishment of a new route by the
River Euphrates to India.
2. Lord Auckland's forward policy in India
aimed to protect the boundary of British
India from a possible Russian attack
through initiatives such as treaties or
annexation.
3. The Amir of Afghanistan, Dost
Mohammed, sought and received full
3. Shah Shuja was to recognise the claims
of Maharaja Ranjit Singh on Afghan
territories on the right bank of the Indus
River.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
House of Commons(England) in 1694
regarding trade in the East Indies, which one
among the following is correct?
(a) It granted all subjects of England equal
rights to trade in the East Indies.
(b) It gave the East India Company a
monopoly in trade with the East Indies.
(c) It regulated the activities of the East India
Company.
(d) It led to the formation of the Board of

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British assistance in recovering Peshawar Control of the East India Company.
from the Sikhs.

IN
Which of the statements given above are 21. Who among the following Mughal rulers was
correct? given the title of ‘Rangeela’ due to his

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(a) 1 and 2 only luxurious lifestyle?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Muhammad Shah
(b) Alamgir II
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.O
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Farrukhsiyar
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
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19. With respect to the Tripartite Treaty of 1838

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22. Who among the following introduced the

of the pre-independence era, consider the
‘Dual system of government’ in Bengal?
following statements:
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(a) Warren Hastings

1. The treaty stipulated that Shah Shuja was
(b) Arthur Wellesley
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to be reinstated on the Afghan throne

(c) Robert Clive
with the armed assistance of the Sikhs
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(d) Charles Cornwallis

and British financial support.
A

2. Shah Shuja was granted complete

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sovereignty over the Amirs of Sindh.

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23. Consider the following pairs of Mughal over the English due to superior
Emperors and the battles that occurred during ammunition and cannons.
their reigns: 2. Mahadji Scindia's brilliant leadership led
Mughal Emperor Asociated Battles to the entrapment of the English army in
1. Shah Alam II Battle of Plassey mountain passes and the subsequent
2. Alamgir II Battle of Buxar surrender at Wadgaon.
3. Muhammad Shah Battle of Karnal 3. The Treaty of Wadgaon compelled the
How many of the above pairs are correctly Marathas to relinquish the territories
matched? acquired by them since 1775.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above are
(b) Only two incorrect?
(c) All three (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
24. Consider the following statements about (d) 1, 2 and 3
Anglo-Tibetan Relations during Lord
Curzon's time in India: 26. With reference to the farmans granted by
1. Tibet was ruled by a government under Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar to the British,
the direct control of the Qing Dynasty of consider the following statements:
China. 1. In Bengal, the East India Company’s
2. The British were successful in imports and exports were exempted from
establishing friendly and commercial ties additional customs duties by payment of
with Tibet prior to the arrival of Lord an annual charge.

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Curzon. 2. The Company was allowed to rent more
3. The rapidly increasing influence of the land around Kolkata.

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French in Tibet was a major concern for 3. In Surat, the East India Company was
the British. exempted from the levy of all duties by

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4. Colonel Younghusband was charged to paying an annual charge of 5000 rupees.
lead a military expedition to Tibet by
Lord Curzon. N
4. Coins of the company minted in Bombay
were to have currency throughout the
.O
Which of the statements given above are Mughal Empire.
incorrect? Which of the statements given above are
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(a) 1 and 2 only correct?

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(b) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
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(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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25. With reference to the First Anglo-Maratha

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War (1775-82), consider the following

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statements:
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1. The Maratha army, despite having a

smaller number of soldiers, prevailed
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27. Consider the following statements: 30. With reference to the ‘regional kingdoms of
1. The Danes were the last European power India in the eighteenth century’, consider the
to establish a presence in India. following pairs:
2. The Danish East India Company is better Independent states Founders
known for missionary activities than 1. Awadh Asaf-Jah
trading activities. 2. Bengal Murshid Kuli Khan
Which of the statements given above are 3. Kerala Martanda Varma
correct? How many of the above pairs are correctly
(a) 1 only matched?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
(d) None
28. Consider the following statements:
1. Farrukhsiyar issued the farman granting 31. Consider the following statements regarding
East India Company the Diwani of the Treaty of Salbai:
Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. 1. Fateh Singh Gaekwad was allowed to
2. Rammohan Roy was conferred with the retain territories in Gujarat under the
title of 'Raja' by Bahadur Shah Zafar. Treaty of Salbai.
Which of the statements given above are 2. Under the Treaty of Salbai, the British
correct? agreed to return all the territories
(a) 1 only conquered since the Treaty of Purandhar
(b) 2 only to the Marathas.

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(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Haidar Ali was to be the mutual
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 guarantor for the proper observance of

IN
the terms of the treaty.
29. Consider the following: Which of the statements given above are

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1. Shifting allegiance of zamindars correct?
2. Rise of regional aspirations
3. Absence of a definite law of succession
(a) 1 and 2 only
N
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(b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above were the causes of
(c) 1 and 3 only
the decline of the Mughals?
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one
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(b) Only two

(c) All three
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(d) None
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32. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above are
the Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803- correct?
1805): (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Death of Peshwa Madhavrao (b) 2 and 3 only
Narayan preceded the Second Anglo- (c) 1 only
Maratha War. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Treaty of Purandhar compelled the
Marathas to accept the subsidiary 35. Which one of the following statements about
alliance system of the British. the First Carnatic War is incorrect?
Which of the statements given above are (a) It was an extension of the Anglo-French
incorrect? War in Europe.
(a) 1 only (b) It was triggered by the British seizure of
(b) 2 only French ships.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) It ended with the signing of the Treaty of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Aix-La-Chapelle.
(d) The French gained control of Madras as
33. Which of the following factors contributed to a result of the war.
the revival of the French presence in India in 36. With reference to the Second Anglo-Maratha
the early 18th century? War (1803-1805), consider the following
1. The stewardship of two able and wise pairs of rulers and the treaties that they
governors, Lenoir and Dumas. signed with the English:
2. Reorganisation of the French Company. Maratha Rulers Treaty Signed
3. The French possessions of Mauritius and 1. Peshwa : Treaty of Bassein

E
Reunion in the southern Indian Ocean. 2. Bhonsle : Treaty of Deogaon

IN
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Scindia : Treaty of Surji-Anjangaon
given below: 4. Holkar : Treaty of Rajpurghat

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(a) 1 and 2 only How many of the pairs given above are
(b) 2 and 3 only correctly matched?
(c) 2 only (a) Only one N
.O
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
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34. With reference to the ‘Ranjit Singh’, consider (d) All of the above
the following statements:
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1. He conquered Lahore in 1799 and 37. With reference to the trade in eighteenth-
Amritsar in 1802. century India, consider the following pairs:
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2. He imposed monopolies on the trade in Imported items Country of Origin

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salt and textiles from Kashmir. 1. Coffee Arabia

3. He acknowledged the British right over a 2. Tea and Silk China
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part of the territories of Sutlej. 3. Ivory Africa

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4. Dry fruits and rose water Tibet

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How many of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
38. Consider the following statements with
reference to the annexation of Upper Burma
by the British in 1885:
1. King Thibaw of Burma maintained
cordial relations with British merchants
in Rangoon and lower Burma.
2. The French were negotiating treaties
with Burma prior to the annexation of
Upper Burma.
3. Following the annexation, the British
faced no significant resistance in Burma.
4. Burma was separated from India in 1935
to weaken the link between Burmese
nationalists and the Indian National
Congress.
Which of the statements given above are
(d) It strengthened the Maratha Empire's
control over the Poona region.
40. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Anglo-Nepalese conflict in
India during British times:
1. The Gorkhas took control of Nepal in
1760, and they focussed on expansion
towards the north.
2. The Gorkhas captured Butwal and
Sheoraj in the tenure of Lord Hastings.
3. The Treaty of Sagauli ended the Anglo-
Nepalese War in 1816.
Which of the statements given above are
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
41. Consider the following statements:
1. The English became the supreme
European power in the Indian

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incorrect?
subcontinent after the Third Carnatic

IN
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
War.
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. The Third Carnatic War was won by the

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(c) 1 and 3 only British under General Count de Lally.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The Treaty of Paris restored to the French
N
some of their factories in India.
.O
39. With reference to the Treaty of Bassein, Which of the statements given above are
which one among the following was the correct?
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strategic significance of including Poona in (a) 3 only

the list of places where the English Company (b) 2 and 3 only
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had stationed troops? (c) 1 and 3 only

(a) It allowed the English Company to (d) 1, 2 and 3
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establish full political control over India.

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(b) It more evenly distributed English troops

across various regions for strategic
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mobility.
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(c) It granted the English Company

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complete authority over Maratha

territories.
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42. With reference to the history of India,
‘Chatuspathis or Tols’ refers to which one of
the following?
(a) Military training centres
(b) Ancient coins
(c) Ancient trade routes
(d) Centres of higher education
43. Which one of the following correctly
describes the Pindaris of early 19th-century
India?
(a) A cohesive group of Maratha warriors
known for their loyalty to the Maratha
rulers.
(b) A diverse group consisting of various
castes and classes, often serving as
mercenaries for Maratha armies.
(c) An elite force employed exclusively by
the British East India Company for
territorial expansion.
(d) A sect of religious ascetics who lived a
life of renunciation in the jungles of
India.
45. Which one of the following threats
compelled the East India Company to
organise the defence of the neighbouring
territory of Awadh for the protection of
Bengal during the tenure of Governor
General Warren Hastings?
(a) Invasion by the French
(b) Invasion by Afghans
(c) Dutch expansion
(d) Looming Russian Invasion
46. Who among the following captured Lahore
and defeated the Mughal army at the Battle of
Karnal in 1739?
(a) Ahmad Shah Abdali
(b) Mahmud of Ghazni
(c) Muhammad Ghori
(d) Nadir Shah
47. Consider the following statements regarding
Anglo Maratha wars:
1. The Maratha leaders, such as Bajirao II,
Daulatrao Scindia and Jaswantrao

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Holkar, were highly skilled and
44. With reference to the British conquest of coordinated effectively.

IN
Bengal, consider the following events: 2. The Maratha state had a strong and
1. Black Hole Tragedy. cohesive social structure well-suited to

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2. Siraj-ud-Daulah became the Dewan of withstand the English challenge.
Bengal.
3. Shifting of capital from Murshidabad to
3. The Marathas excelled in modern
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military techniques, including artillery
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Munger. and disciplined warfare.
Which one among the following is the correct Which of the statements given above are
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chronological sequence of the above events? correct?

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(a) 1-2-3 (a) 1 only

(b) 3-1-2 (b) 2 and 3 only
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(c) 2-1-3 (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3-2-1 (d) None of the above
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48. With reference to the events around the Battle
of Buxar, consider the following statements:
1. The combined armies of Shuja-ud-daula,
Mir Jafar and Shah Alam II were
defeated by the English forces.
2. The English were permitted duty-free
trade in Bengal, except for a duty of 2 per
cent on salt after the battle.
3. Hector Munro concluded the treaty of
Allahabad with the Nawab of Awadh.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
49. Consider the following statements with
reference to the stages of evolution of the
subsidiary alliance system in India during
colonial rule:
1. The Company promised that it would
maintain a fixed number of soldiers
under British officers for use by the
50. Consider the following statements:
1. Ahmad Shah Abdali was elected the
successor of Nadir Shah after his death in
1747.
2. Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated the
Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat in
1761.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
51. Which one among the following statements is
correct about ‘Pyche raja’ of Kottayam?
(a) He was appointed as a sovereign king of
Kottayam by the British in 1790.
(b) The Third Anglo-Mysore War resulted in
the recognition of Kottayam's
independence by the British.
(c) Pyche Raja led a mass resistance of the
peasants in 1793, utilising guerilla

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warfare tactics.
Indian State in lieu of a fixed sum of
(d) Pyche Raja’s ties with Tipu Sultan and

IN
money.
Hyder Ali were cordial throughout.
2. The demand for territorial cession from

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the Indian state in case of delayed
52. The term ‘T+1 settlement cycle’, frequently
payment.
3. The Company made a common cause
following contexts? N
seen in the news, is used in which of the
.O
with the Indian state taking the field with
(a) Genetic studies
its own soldiers and those of the state.
(b) Stock Markets
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4. The Company offered to help a friendly

(c) Information Technology (IT) sector
Indian state with its troops to fight any
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(d) Real Estate Sector

war the state might be engaged in.
Which one of the following represents the
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correct order of implementation of the above

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stages in the course of induction of an Indian

state in the subsidiary alliance system of the
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British?
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(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 3-2-4-1
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(c) 4-3-2-1
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(d) 4-3-1-2
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53. Which one of the following best describes the the boundaries of the Indian
institution of ‘Kaval’ of Tamil Nadu in the subcontinent.
early 18th century? 2. Sepoys were amenable to the new
(a) It was an institution established for restrictions, that were imposed on
spying on government officials. wearing caste marks.
(b) It was a hereditary village police with 3. The religious Hindu sepoys believed that
specified rights and responsibilities. crossing the seas caused a loss of caste.
(c) An institution which took care of How many of the statements given above are
compulsory conscription to the native correct?
army. (a) Only one
(d) An institution for managing the (b) Only two
administration of temple towns. (c) All three
(d) None
54. Which one of the following revolts against
the Colonial British Government is 57. With reference to the leaders of the Revolt of
associated with the ‘Kundara Proclamation’? 1857 and the main areas of their activity,
(a) Diwan Velu Thampi’s Revolt consider the following pairs:
(b) Paika Rebellion Leaders Area
(c) Poligar’s Revolt 1. Rani Laxmibai Jhansi
(d) The Kutch Rebellion 2. Tantia Tope Jagdishpur
3. NanaSaheb Delhi
55. Consider the following statements with 4. Begum Hazrat Mahal Awadh
reference to the “National Payments How many of the above pairs are correctly

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Corporation of India (NPCI)”: matched?
1. It is an umbrella organisation for (a) Only one

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operating retail payments and settlement (b) Only two
systems. (c) Only three

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2. It has been registered as a society under (d) All four
the societies registration act.
Which of the statements given above are N
58. With reference to ‘The Securities Appellate
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incorrect? Tribunal (SAT)’, consider the following
(a) 1 only statements:
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(b) 2 only 1. It is an executive body established under

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(c) Both 1 and 2 the orders passed by the Finance

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ministry.
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2. It hears and disposes of appeals against

56. With reference to the discontent among the the orders passed by the Insurance
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sepoys which sparked the revolt of 1857, Regulatory Development Authority of

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consider the following statements: India.

1. The General Service Enlistment Act of
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1856 mandated that all future recruits in

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the Bengal Army will serve only within

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Which of the statements given above are How many of the above were factors that led
correct? to the failure of the Revolt of 1857?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None

59. With reference to the ‘Monitoring the Illegal
Killing of Elephants (MIKE)’ Programme,
consider the following statements:
1. It was established under the Convention
on International Trade in Endangered
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES).
2. India has the largest number of sites
participating in the MIKE programme in
Asia.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither nor 2
62. With reference to Norovirus frequently seen
in the news, consider the following
statements:
1. Norovirus is the most active and
infectious during peak summers.
2. It can be prevented primarily through
hygiene and sanitation measures, as there
is no broadly effective vaccine available
for the disease caused by it.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

E
63. With reference to the history of Pre-
60. Consider the following freedom fighters: independence India, which one of the

IN
1. Byjonath Singh following correctly describes the underlying
2. Bhagoji Naik reason behind the ‘White Mutiny’?

L
3. Hare Krushna Mahatab (a) Discontent in Indian Sepoys directed
4. Govind Das
How many of the above freedom fighters N
against the administrative reforms post
1857.
.O
were associated with the Revolt of 1857? (b) The grievance of English soldiers that the
(a) Only one sepoys were let off easily after 1857.
L

(b) Only two (c) Resentment in white people living in

IA

(c) Only three India against the decision to extend

(d) All four paramountcy to native Indian rulers.
(d) Resentment of the Company’s British
R

61. Consider the following: soldiers against the decision to transfer

E

1. It was restricted to a limited territorial the allegiance of the three Presidency

T

area. Armies from the Company to the Queen.

2. The mutineers had a clear forward-
A

looking cohesive ideology.

M

3. All the big zamindars supported the

rebellion.
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64. Consider the following statements:
1. Brahmo Samaj believed that scriptures
should be interpreted rationally.
2. Disagreements only over inter-caste
marriages led to the split of Brahmo
Samaj in 1866.
3. Raja Rammohan Roy wanted to establish
a new religion.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
67. With reference to the aftermath of the Revolt
of 1857, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ issued in
1858 ended the era of British annexations
and expansions in India.
2. The new British military policy directed
every single unit to recruit soldiers from
diverse social backgrounds.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

65. Consider the following factors: 68. Consider the following:

1. The effects of the French Revolution
2. The effects of the Indian Renaissance
3. Reaction to the British Imperialist
policies in India
How many of the above were the reasons for
the growth of Indian nationalism during
India’s struggle for independence?
1. Indianisation of government service.
2. The right to join volunteer corps.
3. Reduction in maximum age for
appearing in the Indian Civil Service
exam.
How many of the above demands were made
by the political associations before the Indian

E
(a) Only one National Congress?
(b) Only two (a) Only one

IN
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three

L
(d) None
66. Consider the following statements with
reference to the ‘Blackbox’ of an Aeroplane: N
69. Mollem National Park is located in which one
.O
1. It records the data of all the major of the following states?
activities of an aeroplane during its (a) Kerala
L

flight. (b) Tamil Nadu

IA

2. It can provide information about the (c) Andhra Pradesh

altitude, fuel and cabin temperature (d) Goa
R

pertaining to the flight.

Which of the statements given above are
E

correct?
T

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
A

(c) Both 1 and 2

M

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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70. Which one of the following was the aim of How many of the statements given above are
the Ilbert Bill introduced in the Imperial correct?
Legislative Council of India? (a) Only one
(a) It sought to abolish judicial (b) Only two
disqualification based on race (c) All three
distinctions. (d) None
(b) It sought to reduce the maximum age
limit for the I.C.S. examination from 21 73. With reference to the Indian Association of
years to 19 years. Calcutta of pre-independence India, consider
(c) It sought to ban Indians from the following statements:
manufacturing, selling, or even carrying 1. It was founded by Surendranath Banerjea
a weapon without a license. and Ananda Mohan Bose.
(d) It was brought to control seditious 2. Its main aim was to promote the social,
writings in publications in Oriental religious and spiritual advancement of
languages. the people.
3. It merged into the Indian National
71. With reference to Shah Mal and his Congress in 1886.
contributions during the Revolt of 1857, How many of the statements given above are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. He spearheaded a movement across 84 (a) Only one
villages known as the ‘chaurasi desh’. (b) Only two
2. He resolved disputes and dispensed (c) All three
judgements, effectively turning his (d) None

E
bungalow into a 'hall of justice'.
3. Under Shah Mal's leadership, the locals 74. Consider the following statements regarding

IN
attacked and destroyed symbols of the Vaikom Satyagraha:
British rule. 1. The Kerala Provincial Congress

L
How many of the above statements are Committee led a procession defying the
correct?
(a) Only one N
unapproachability rule on the temple
roads.
.O
(b) Only two 2. It was supported by both the Savarnas
(c) All three and the Avarnas.
L

(d) None 3. Mannathu Padmanabha Pillai led a

IA

procession against untouchability during

72. Consider the following statements with the Satyagraha.
R

reference to the Padma awards: Which of the statements given above are
1. These awards are presented by the correct?
E

President of India. (a) 1 and 2 only

T

2. These awards are conferred on the (b) 2 and 3 only

recommendations of a Committee (c) 1 and 3 only
A

formed by the Prime Minister. (d) 1, 2 and 3

M

3. All government servants are eligible for

these Awards.
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75. Which one of the following temples is also 78. Consider the following pairs:
referred to as ‘White Pagoda’ due to its Associations Founder
distinctive white-painted walls? 1. Poona K.T. Telang
(a) Konark Sun Temple Sarvajanik
(b) Padmanabhaswamy Temple Sabha
(c) Lingaraj Temple 2. Bombay Mahadev Govind
(d) Jagannath Temple Presidency Ranade
Association
76. Which of the following factors contributed to 3. Madras M.
the desire for social reform in India in the Mahajan Veeraraghavachariar
19th century? Sabha
1. The impact of British rule on Indian How many of the above pairs are correctly
society and culture. matched?
2. Widespread mass movements and public (a) Only one
pressure for social reforms. (b) Only two
3. Indian society was caught in the web of (c) All three
religious superstitions and social (d) None
obscurantism.
Select the correct answer using the code 79. Consider the following statements with
given below: reference to the Indian fishery sector:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. India is the largest producer of fish in the
(b) 1 and 3 only world.
(c) 2 only 2. The share of inland fisheries in overall

E
(d) 1, 2 and 3 fish production has gradually increased

IN
over time.
77. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above are
reference to the Joint Parliamentary correct?

L
Committee of the Parliament of India: (a) 1 only
1. It has members from the ruling party
only.
(b) 2 only
N
.O
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The recommendations of the committee (d) Neither 1 nor 2
are binding on the government.
L

Which of the statements given above are 80. Consider the following countries:
IA

correct? 1. Denmark
(a) 1 only 2. Finland
R

(b) 2 only 3. Iceland

(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Norway
E

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Estonia

T
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How many of the above are part of the Nordic 84. Consider the following statements:
region? 1. The Lex Loci Act of 1850 provided the
(a) Only two Hindu converts to Christianity with the
(b) Only three right to inherit ancestral property.
(c) Only four 2. The opposition to the Lex Loci Act was a
(d) All five reflection of Indians' aspirations to
preserve their culture.
81. The socio-religious reform movements of the
Which of the statements given above are
19th century in India were deeply influenced
correct?
by which one of the following European
(a) 1 only
intellectual movements and trends?
(b) 2 only
(a) Romanticism
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Enlightenment
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Neo-Liberalism
(d) Postmodernism 85. Consider the following statements with
reference to the H - 1B visa frequently seen
82. Consider the following statements with in the news:
reference to the National Commission for 1. It is a non-immigrant work visa that
Scheduled Tribes (NCST): allows US employers to hire foreign
1. It was established through a workers for specialty jobs.
constitutional amendment act. 2. There is no annual cap on the number of
2. The term of office of the Chairperson of H-1B visas issued.
the commission is three years. Which of the statements given above are
3. The members of the commission are

E
correct?
appointed by the President of India. (a) 1 only

IN
How many of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
incorrect? (c) Both 1 and 2

L
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three N
86. The term ‘Dickinsonia’ recently seen in the
.O
(d) None news is used in the context of which one of
the following?
L

83. Consider the following associations (a) Fossil of an ancient organism

/organisations:
IA

(b) Close relative of Neanderthals

1. The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha (c) Stealth fighter aircraft of Russia
2. The Bengal British India Society (d) An artificially formed mineral
R

3. The East India Association

E

4. The Indian League 87. Who among the following played a key role
How many of the above were formed before in giving the Prarthana Samaj an all-India
T

the Indian National Congress? character?

A

(a) Only one (a) Keshab Chandra Sen

(b) Only two (b) Mahadeo Govind Ranade
M

(c) Only three (c) R.G. Bhandarkar

C

(d) All four (d) N.G. Chandavarkar

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88. Who among the following was one of the 92. Who among the following is considered a
founders of the School Society and Native pioneer in the movement to uplift the
School of Bombay, which was later renamed untouchable people and founded the Anarya
the Elphinstone Educational Institution? Dosh-Parihar Mandali?
(a) J.E.D. Bethune (a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
(b) Jagannath Shankarsheth (b) Kisan Faguji Bansod
(c) B.M. Malabari (c) Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (d) Sri Narayana Guru

89. Consider the following statements with 93. Consider the following statements with
reference to sickle cell anaemia: reference to the Marginal Cost of Funds
1. It is a genetic blood disorder that affects based Lending Rate (MCLR):
the production of red blood cells. 1. It is the minimum rate below which a
2. Red blood cells become rigid in this type bank cannot lend.
of blood disorder. 2. Under this, banks have the final authority
Which of the statements given above are to decide the interest rate they will offer
correct? to the borrowers.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
90. With reference to Balshastri Jambhekar, (d) Neither 1 nor 2

E
which one of the following is not correct?
(a) He started the newspaper Darpan in 94. Consider the following statements with

IN
1832. respect to Jyotirao Phule:
(b) He founded the Bombay Native General 1. He was given the title of Mahatma in

L
Library. 1888 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale.
(c) He was the first professor of Hindi at
Elphinston College.
2. He used the symbol of Hanuman as
N
opposed to the Brahmins’ symbol of
.O
(d) He started Udant Martand In 1826. Rama.
3. He published Kavyaphule, a work of
L

91. “He published Satyartha Prakash, which poetry written by him.

IA

advocated the principle of returning to Vedas. Which of the statements given above are
He also founded Arya Samaj and opposed the incorrect?
R

idea of Idol Worship, and advocated the idea (a) 1 and 2 only
of widow remarriage.” (b) 2 only
E

Who among the following personalities is (c) 3 only

T

best described in the paragraph given above? (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) Dayananda Saraswati
A

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

M

(c) Rajaram Mohan Roy

(d) Swami Vivekananda
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95. Consider the following statements with 98. With reference to the Brahmo Samaj, which
reference to the Global Quality Infrastructure one of the following is incorrect?
Index (GQII): (a) It was a monotheistic movement.
1. This program is an initiative of the (b) It rejected idolatry.
United Nations Development (c) It was opposed to the caste system.
Programme. (d) It believed in the infallibility of the
2. India is at the tenth position in the Vedas.
ranking for its overall quality
infrastructure system in this index in 99. Consider the following:
2021. 1. The delimitation of constituencies
Which of the statements given above are 2. The preparation of electoral rolls and the
correct? manner of filling seats
(a) 1 only 3. Qualifications and disqualifications for
(b) 2 only membership of both houses of parliament
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. The conduct of elections of both Houses
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of Parliament.
How many of the above provisions are dealt
96. Which of the following newspapers/ journals
with in the Representation of People Act
were not started by Dr. Babasaheb
1950?
Ambedkar?
(a) Only one
1. Mooknayak
(b) Only two
2. Bahishkrit Bharat
(c) Only three
3. Vital Vidhvasak
(d) All four
4. Kudi Arasu

E
Select the correct answer using the code
100. Consider the following statements with

IN
given below:
reference to the Domestic Violence Act,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2005:

L
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. The Protection officers under the
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
the Central government. N
Domestic Violence Act are appointed by
.O

97. Consider the following statements with 2. The Act covers physical, economic and
reference to the committee on parliamentary emotional violence under it.
L

privileges: Which of the statements given above are

IA

1. It functions as a semi-judicial committee. correct?

2. There are two separate committees of (a) 1 only
R

privileges, one each for the Lok Sabha (b) 2 only

E

and the Rajya Sabha. (c) Both 1 and 2

Which of the statements given above are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
T

correct?
A

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
M

(c) Both 1 and 2

C

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Prelims Wallah Test 2024

Test 9: Modern India Part I Test Synopsis
1. B 26. C 51. C 76. B

2. B 27. B 52. B 77. D

3. D 28. D 53. B 78. A

4. C 29. C 54. A 79. B

5. B 30. B 55. B 80. C

6. B 31. A 56. A 81. B

7. B 32. B 57. B 82. D

8. C 33. D 58. B 83. D

9. C 34. D 59. C 84. C

10. D 35. D 60. B 85. A

11. B 36. D 61. A 86. A

12. A 37. C 62. B 87. B

13. B 38. C 63. D 88. B

14. D 39. B 64. A 89. C

E
15. D 40. A 65. C 90. D

IN
16. C 41. C 66. C 91. A

17. B 42. D 67. A 92. L A

18. A 43. B 68. B 93. C

N

19. C 44. C 69. D 94. D

.O

20. A 45. B 70. A 95. B

L

21. A 46. D 71. C 96. C

IA

22. C 47. D 72. B 97. C

R

23. A 48. A 73. B 98. D

E

24. C 49. D 74. D 99. B

T

25. C 50. C 75. D 100. B

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1. Ans: B
Exp:
Alfonso de Albuquerque succeeded Almeida as
governor in India and consolidated the
Portuguese power in the East, securing for
Portugal the strategic control of the Indian
Ocean by establishing bases overlooking all the
entrances to the sea.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Albuquerque
acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in
1510 with ease. Goa was the first bit of Indian
territory occupied by the Europeans since the
time of Alexander the Great.
Statement 2 is correct: Sati was abolished in
Goa during the rule of Alfonso De
Albuquerque.
Other Features of Albuquerque’s Rule in
Goa:
• The Portuguese men who stayed back
in India were encouraged to take local
wives.
• These men Established themselves as
village landlords in Goa and often built
new roads and irrigation works.
• New crops like tobacco and cashew
nuts or better plantation varieties of
coconut were introduced.
Most of these Portuguese considered their new
settlements in India and not Portugal as their
home.
3. Ans: D
Exp:
The first Anglo-Afghan War (1839–42) was
never liked by the Amirs of Sindh; neither did
they like the presence of the British troops in
their region. However, under the Subsidiary
Alliance treaty, they had to pay for the war
expenses. Moreover, instead of being rewarded
for their services, they were charged
with hostility and disaffection against the
British government. Lord Ellenborough sent
Outram to Sindh to
negotiate a harsher new treaty. Furthermore, the
English intervened in a succession dispute
among the Amirs and retaliated with war when
the Amirs revolted. The entire Sindh
capitulated quickly and the Amirs were
captured and banished. Finally, under
Governor-General Lord Ellenborough,
Sindh was merged into the British Empire and
Charles Napier was appointed its first governor
in 1843.

E
2. Ans: B

IN
Exp:
Tipu Sultan was a great warrior (he was also
known as the ‘Tiger of Mysore’) and gave
L
maximum care to the raising and maintenance
N

of an efficient military force. He was a patron

of science and technology and is credited as
.O

the ‘pioneer of rocket technology’ in India. He

also wrote a military manual explaining the
operation of rockets. He was also a pioneer in
L

introducing sericulture to the Mysore State.

IA

Tipu was a great lover of democracy and a great

diplomat. He gave his support to the French
soldiers at Seringapatam in setting up a
R

Jacobin Club in 1797. He ordered a salute of

E

2,300 cannons and 500 rockets to celebrate the

4. Ans: C
occasion. Tipu himself became a member of
T

Exp:
the Jacobin Club and allowed himself to be
India has sought modification of the 62-year-
A

called Citizen Tipu. He planted the Tree of

old Indus Water Treaty (IWT) treaty that
Liberty at Seringapatam.
governs the sharing of waters of the Indus
M

system. The treaty was signed in 1960 between

the two countries and governs the sharing of
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waters of the Indus system of rivers. The
Treaty extends to the main rivers of the
Indus basin i.e. Sutlej, Beas, Ravi (Eastern
rivers) and Jhelum, Chenab and Indus
(Western rivers), including their tributaries
and sub-tributaries and other water bodies.
All the waters of the Eastern Rivers were
allocated to India for her unrestricted use, while
India is under obligation to let flow all the
waters of the Western Rivers, except for the
domestic, non-consumptive and other uses
permitted in the Treaty. India has sought
modification of the treaty in recent times.
Key Facts about the River Indus:
The Indus is a transboundary river of Asia and
a trans-Himalayan river of South and Central
Asia. The river rises in mountain springs
northeast of Mount Kailash in Western Tibet,
flows northwest through the disputed region of
Kashmir, bends sharply to the left after the
Nanga Parbat massif and flows south-by-
southwest through Pakistan before emptying
into the Arabian Sea near the port city of
Karachi.
Some of the right Bank tributaries of the
river Indus are:
• Shyok River.
• Hunza River.
• Gilgit River.
• Swat River.
• Kunar River.
• Kabul River.
The left bank tributaries of the Indus include the
Zanskar River, Suru River, Soan River,
Panjnad River and Ghaggar-Hakra River.
Figure: left and right bank tributaries of
the Indus River.
5. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Warren Hastings
followed a policy of ring-fence which aimed
at creating buffer zones to defend the
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Company’s frontiers. It was the policy of
defence of their neighbour’s frontiers for
safeguarding their own territories. This policy
of Warren Hastings was reflected in his war
against the Marathas and Mysore.
Statement 2 is correct: The states brought
under the ring-fence system were assured of
military assistance against external
aggression—but at their own expense. In
other words, these allies were required to
maintain subsidiary forces which were to be
organized, equipped and commanded by the
officers of the Company, who, in turn, were to
be paid by the rulers of these states.
Statement 3 is correct: Wellesley’s policy of
subsidiary alliance was, in fact, an extension
of the ring-fence system, which sought to
reduce the Indian states into a position of
dependence on the British government.
6. Ans: B
Exp:
An imperial farman(1579 AD) allowed the
Portuguese to settle down at Hooghly in Bengal
to carry on their trading activities. In the course
of time, they developed the area, which led to
the migration of the trade from Satgaon to
Hooghly. To consolidate their position:
• They monopolised salt manufacture.
• Built a custom house of their own.
• Strictly levied duty on tobacco.
E
However, they also started indulging in the
IN
cruel slave trade of Hindu and Muslim children,
who were raised as Christians. In the course of
their nefarious activities, they seized two slave
L
girls of Mumtaz Mahal, which sparked the
N
Mughal siege of Hooghly on June 24, 1632.
Bengal governor Qasim Khan was ordered by
.O
Shah Jahan to take action against the
Portuguese. The siege of Hooghly ended three
months later, with the Portuguese fleeing.
L
IA
7. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Recently, the
R
Supreme Court held that chargesheets are not
E
‘public documents’ and enabling their free
public access violates the provisions of the
T
Criminal Code of Procedure.
A
Statement 2 is correct: A chargesheet is
defined under Section 173 of the Criminal
M
Procedure Code. It is the final report
prepared by a police officer after completing

their investigation of a case. It contains details
of names, the nature of the information and
offences. A charge sheet must be filed against
the accused within a prescribed period of 60-90
days otherwise, the arrest is illegal, and the
accused is entitled to bail.
F.I.R: First Information Report (FIR) means
information recorded by an on-duty Police
officer given by an aggrieved citizen or any
other person about the commission of a
cognisable offence. This report can be made
either in writing or orally.
8. Ans: C
Exp:
The UNDP and Hindustan Unilever Limited
(HUL) have initiated an "Inclusive Circular
Economy" project to manage plastic waste
comprehensively. This project encourages
waste segregation at the source, establishes
Material Recovery Facilities (MRFs) for all
types of plastic waste and promotes the social
inclusion of informal waste collectors, known
as Safai Saathis, in India's waste management
sector.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Linear
economy, often called the take-make-waste
model, involves resource extraction to create
products that eventually become waste. This
type of economy creates a polluting system
causing global challenges like climate change
and biodiversity loss, as products and materials
move from raw material to waste without full
utilisation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The circular
economy is a model of production and
consumption, which involves sharing, leasing,
reusing, repairing, refurbishing and
recycling existing materials and products as
long as possible. In this way, the life cycle of
products is extended. When a product reaches
the end of its life, its materials are kept within
the economy wherever possible, thanks to
recycling. These can be productively used again
and again, thereby creating further value.
9. Ans: C
Exp:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The
subsidiary alliance system was used by Lord
Wellesley, who was governor general from
1798–1805, to build an empire in India. Under
the system, the allying Indian state’s ruler was
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compelled to accept the permanent stationing
of a British force within his territory and to
pay a subsidy for its maintenance.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Indian ruler had
to agree to the posting of a British resident in
his court. The Indian ruler could not employ
any European in his service without prior
consultation with the Company.
Statement 4 is correct: The Indian ruler
could not go to war or negotiate with any
other Indian ruler without consulting the
governor-general. In return for all this, the
British would defend the Indian ruler from their
enemies and adopt a policy of non-interference
in the internal matters of the allied state.
10. Ans: D
Exp:
The doctrine of Lapse stated that the
adopted son could be the heir to his foster
father’s private property, but not the state;
it was for the paramount power (the British) to
decide whether to bestow the state on the
adopted son or to annex it.
Though this policy is attributed to Lord
Dalhousie (1848–56), he was not its originator.
Some of the states annexed by the Doctrine of
Lapse were Satara (1848), Jhansi and Nagpur
(1854). The other small states included Jaitpur
(Bundelkhand), Sambalpur (Orissa) and Baghat
(Himachal Pradesh).
E
IN
11. Ans: B
Exp:
Recently, the Vice President criticized the
L
Supreme Court for using the Basic Structure
N
Doctrine to strike down constitutional
amendments by Parliament, such as the
.O
National Judicial Appointments Commission
(NJAC) Act.
The Doctrine of Basic Structure is a form of
L
judicial review that is used to test the legality of
IA
any legislation by the courts. The term ‘basic
structure’ is not defined in the constitution of
India. However, the Supreme Court, through its
R
various judgments and cases has shaped the
E
concept of the 'Basic structure of the
Constitution'.
T
Following are the cases through which the
A
doctrine of basic structure evolved:
• Shankari Prasad vs Union of India,
M
1951- This case dealt with the
amendability of Fundamental
 5

Rights. The Supreme Court ruled that the 12. Ans: A

Parliament can abridge or take away any Exp:
of the Fundamental Rights by enacting a
constitutional amendment act and such a
law will not be void under Article
13. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• Golaknath vs State of Punjab, 1967 -
This case was a turning point where the
Supreme Court held that fundamental
rights, once granted, could not be
abridged or taken away by constitutional
amendments. It laid the groundwork for
the Basic Structure Doctrine by
challenging Parliament's unlimited
power to amend the Constitution. Hence,
Option 3 is correct.
• Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan, 1965:
The case involved a challenge to the
validity of the Constitution (26 th
Amendment) Act, which abolished the
Statement 1 is correct: The Marathas
princely privileges and privy purses of
controlled a large part of India and
the rulers of the former princely states.
collected tributes from regions beyond their
The SC held that the Parliament can
direct control. By the middle of the
amend any part of the Constitution,
eighteenth century, they were already in the
including the Fundamental Rights.
court of the Mughals, playing the role of
• Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala,
kingmakers.
1973: The Supreme Court laid down a
Statement 2 is correct: The Third Battle of
new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ of
Panipat, fought in 1761, was a significant
the Constitution. It ruled that the
battle between the Marathas and Ahmad
Parliament cannot abridge or take away a
Shah Abdali's forces. It resulted in a
Fundamental Right that forms a part of

E
decisive victory for Abdali, weakening the
the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
Marathas' influence in North India and

IN
• Minerva Mills vs Union of India, 1980:
changing the dynamics of power in the
The Supreme Court ruled that Judicial
region.
Review is included in the Basic structure
L
Statement 3 is incorrect: Bajirao I, the
of the Constitution.
Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, formed a
N

Chamapakam Dorairajan vs State of

confederacy of influential Maratha chiefs
Madras case is related to the conflict between
to coordinate and consolidate their
.O

Fundamental rights and Directive principles of

expanding power in India. This
State Policy. This judgement led to the First
confederacy allowed each chief to govern
Amendment of the Constitution of India.
L

specific regions on behalf of the Maratha

Hence, Option 1 is incorrect.
king, Shahu, contributing to the Maratha
IA

Empire's growth and influence. The

Maratha families which gained prominence
R

were—(i) the Gaekwads of Baroda, (ii)

the Bhonsles of Nagpur, (iii) the Holkars
E

of Indore, (iv) the Sindhias of Gwalior

T

and (v) the Peshwa of Poona.

A

13. Ans: B
Exp:
M

Statement 1 is correct: The British aimed to

establish a permanent barrier against
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potential aggression from the north-western
region, which was one of the key objectives
of their forward policy in the First Anglo-
Afghan War(1839-42).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The English army
marched into Kabul (August 1839) after a
successful attack. Most of the tribes had already
been won over by bribes. Dost Mohammed
surrendered (1840), and Shah Shuja was made
the Amir of Afghanistan. As soon as the British
withdrew, the Afghans rose in rebellion, killing
the garrison commander in Kabul. The British
were compelled to sign a treaty (1841) with
the Afghan chiefs by which they agreed to
evacuate Afghanistan and restore Dost
Mohammed. Hence the British were unable
to consolidate their control over
Afghanistan.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Shah Shuja was
enthroned as the Amir of Afghanistan by the
British in 1840, but Shah Shuja was
unacceptable to the Afghans. The British, in
accordance with the treaty with Afghan chiefs,
recognized Dost Muhammad as the
independent ruler of Afghanistan later in 1842.
14. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Treaty of Surat
in 1775 led Raghunathrao to concede the
territories of Salsette and Bassein to the
English along with a portion of the revenues
from Surat and Bharuch districts. In return,
the British agreed to provide him with military
assistance, which ultimately escalated tensions
leading to the First Anglo-Maratha War.
Statement 2 is correct: The British Calcutta
Council condemned the Treaty of Surat and
sent Colonel Upton to Pune to annul it and
make a new treaty (Treaty of Purandhar,
1776) with the regency, renouncing Raghunath
and promising him a pension. Rejecting the
Treaty of Purandhar, the Bombay
government gave refuge to Raghunath Rao.
Statement 3 is correct: Nana Phadnavis
violated his treaty with the Calcutta Council by
granting a port to the French on the west coast
in 1777. This action led to English retaliation,
including the dispatch of force towards Pune.
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15. Ans: D
Exp:
Shah Shuja, the subahdar of Bengal, allowed
the English to trade in Bengal in return for an
annual payment of Rs 3,000 (in lieu of all
duties) in 1651. As a result, English factories
were established at Hooghly (1651) and other
places like Kasimbazar, Patna and Rajmahal.
However, inspite of the privileges granted by
the farmans, the Company’s business was often
obstructed by customs officers for payment of
tolls. In light of these conditions, the
Company wanted to have a fortified
settlement at Hooghly so that force could be
used when necessary. William Hedges, the first
agent and governor of the Company in Bengal,
appealed to Shaista Khan (the Mughal governor
of Bengal) in August 1682 for redressal of the
grievance, which was unheard. As a result,
hostilities broke out between the English and
the Mughals, culminating in the sack of
Hooghly by the imperial Mughals in October
1686.
16. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: In April 1790, Tipu
declared war against Travancore for the
restoration of his rights and the English sided
with Travancore (the third Anglo-Mysore
E
War). Tipu offered serious opposition, but the
IN
odds were against him. Consequently, he had
to pay heavily under the Treaty of
Seringapatam. Under this treaty of 1792, L
nearly half of the Mysorean territory was taken
N
over by the victors.
Statement 2 is correct: Scindia proposed a
.O
new treaty between the Peshwa and the
English and the Treaty of Salbai was signed in
May 1782; it was ratified by Hastings in June
L
1782 and by Phadnavis in February 1783. The
IA
treaty guaranteed peace between the two sides
for twenty years.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The end of the first
R
Anglo-Sikh War forced the Sikhs to sign a
E
humiliating Treaty of Lahore (March 8,
1846). The Jalandhar Doab (between the Beas
T
and the Sutlej) was annexed to the Company’s
A
dominions. A British resident was to be
established at Lahore under Henry Lawrence.
M
The Treaty of Amritsar (1809) was an
agreement between the British East India

Company (EIC) and Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
The Treaty of Amritsar checked one of the most
cherished ambitions of Ranjit Singh to extend
his rule over the entire Sikh nation by the
demarcation of the river Sutlej as the boundary
line between his dominions and the Companys’.
17. Ans: B
Exp:
The Anglo-Russian Convention of 1907
stipulated that negotiations of Tibet with the
English or the Russians could occur only
through the mediation of the Chinese
government. This arrangement favoured
China, ensuring its central role in Tibetan
Affairs. However, Lord Curzon's policy
towards Tibet safeguarded British interests and
thwarted Russian ambitions in Tibet.
18. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: In the early 19th
century, Russian influence in Persia
eclipsed British influence, disrupting a
British plan to establish a new trade route to
India via the River Euphrates. This and the
Treaty of Turkomanchai(1828) raised British
concerns about possible Russian Designs in
India.
Statement 2 is correct: Lord Auckland, who
became the Governor-General of India in
1836, advocated forward policy to secure
British Indian territories from possible Russian
Incursions. The policy provided for
protecting the borders of British India either
by concluding treaties with neighbouring
countries or annexing them completely.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Dost Mohammed,
the Amir of Afghanistan, sought a friendly
alliance with the British, but his request
hinged on British assistance in reclaiming
Peshawar from the Sikhs, which was
rejected by the Britishers.
19. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Tripartite Treaty
of 1838 between the Sikhs, British and Shah
Shuja (erstwhile Afghan ruler, deposed in
1809) mandated that Shah Shuja was to be
restored to the Afghan throne with the
armed assistance of the Sikhs, while the
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British were mainly responsible for
providing financial support.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Tripartite Treaty
mandated that Shah Shuja had to relinquish
his sovereign rights over the Amirs of Sindh
in return for a large sum of money.
Statement 3 is correct: The Treaty required
Shah Shuja to recognise Maharaja Ranjit
Singh's claims over Afghan territories on the
right bank of the River Indus.
20. Ans: A
Exp:
The Charter of 1600 granted the East India
Company the exclusive privilege of trading
East of the Cape of Good Hope for a period of
15 years which was later extended. So from the
very beginning, the Company was a strictly
closed corporation or a monopoly. No non-
member was allowed to trade with the East. As
a result, English manufacturers and those
merchants who could not secure a place in the
ranks of the Company carried on a vigorous
campaign against royal monopolies like the
East India Company. However, nothing
substantial was achieved by them, and the
Company’s monopoly continued.
A change of fortunes occurred in 1688 when
Parliament became supreme in England after
the Revolution of 1688, and in 1694, the House
of Commons passed a Resolution that “all
E
subjects of England have equal rights to
IN
trade in the East Indies unless prohibited by
Act of Parliament”.
As a result of this development, rivals of the old
L
East India Company founded another Company
N
known as the New Company, which was
granted a monopoly in trade by the parliament.
.O
The Old Company refused to part with its
profitable trade so easily and resisted by buying
large shares in the New Company. At the same
L
time, the servants of the old company in India
IA
did not allow the servants of the New Company
to carry on trade in India. Facing ruin as a
result of this mutual conflict, both companies
R
decided to join hands in 1702, and a new
E
company named ‘The Limited Company of
Merchants of England trading to the East
T
Indies’ was born in 1708.
A
M

21. Ans: A
Exp:
After the death of Mughal Emperor Rafi-ud-
Daula in 1719, Raushan Akhtar became the
choice of the Sayyid Brothers. Raushan Akhtar,
who came to be known as Emperor Muhammad
Shah, ruled till 1748 and was also given the
title of Rangeela due to his opulent lifestyle.
His reign is also known for:
1. Assassination of the Sayyid brothers by
Muhammad Shah with the help of
Nizam-ul-Mulk
2. Foundation of the independent state of
Hyderabad by Nizam-ul-Mulk in 1724.
3. Baji Rao I’s invasion of Delhi with a
small army of 500 horsemen in 1737.
4. Defeat and later imprisonment of
Muhammad Shah by Nadir Shah in the
Battle of Karnal in 1739.
5. Annexation of areas west of the Indus
into the Persian empire.
22. Ans: C
Exp:
Robert Clive was the first British Governor of
the Bengal Presidency in India, who has been
widely credited for laying the foundation of the
British East India Company (EIC) rule in
Bengal. He introduced the dual system of
government, i.e., the rule of the two—the
Company and the Nawab—in Bengal in
which both the diwani, i.e., collecting
revenues and nizamat, i.e., police and
judicial functions, came under the control of
the Company. The Company exercised diwani
rights as the diwan and the nizamat rights
through its right to nominate the deputy
subahdar. The Company acquired the Diwani
functions from the emperor and nizamat
functions from the subahdar of Bengal.
The system held a great advantage for the
Company as it left the appearance of authority
in the hands of puppet Indian ruler while
keeping the sovereign power in the hands of the
British. The Nawab was responsible for
maintaining peace and order, but he depended
both for funds and forces upon the Company.
This led to the ruin of the administration in
Bengal and a debacle for the people of Bengal.
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23. Ans: A
Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Shah Alam II
reign saw two decisive battles—the Third
Battle of Panipat (1761) and the Battle of
Buxar (1764). In 1765, according to the terms
of the Treaty of Allahabad (August 1765), he
was taken under the East India Company’s
protection and resided at Allahabad.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Alamgir II was
a son of Emperor Jahandar Shah. Ahmed Shah
Abdali, the Iranian invader, reached Delhi in
January 1757. During his reign, the Battle of
Plassey was fought in June 1757. Alamgir II
was assassinated.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: In 1739, Nadir
Shah defeated the Mughals in the Battle of
Karnal and later imprisoned Muhammad
Shah and annexed areas west of the Indus into
the Persian empire.
24. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: At the beginning of
the 20th century, Tibet was under the nominal
suzerainty of China and was ruled by a
theocracy of Buddhist monks (lamas)
Statement 2 is incorrect: The British efforts to
establish friendly and commercial relations
with Tibet had
not yielded any result by the time of Lord
E
Curzon arrived in India.
IN
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chinese
suzerainty over Tibet was ineffective, and
Russian (not the French) influence at Lhasa
L
was increasing. Reports during the tenure of
N
Lord Curzon of the time pointed towards the
supply of Russian arms and ammunition into
.O
Tibet.
Statement 4 is correct: Lord Curzon, alarmed
by increasing Russian influence in Tibet, sent a
L
small Gorkha contingent under Colonel
IA
Younghusband in order to compel Tibetans
to come to an agreement. The Tibetans
refused to negotiate, and Younghusband
R
pushed his way into Lhasa, forcing the Dalai
E
Lama to flee.
The Treaty of Lhasa concluded in 1904,
T
dictated future terms to the Tibetan Officials.
A
M

25. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The English and the
Maratha armies met on the outskirts of Pune.
Though the Maratha army had a larger
number of soldiers than the English, the
latter had highly superior ammunition and
cannons.
Statement 2 is correct: Mahadji Scindia's
strategic brilliance led to the English army
being lured into mountain passes near
Talegaon, where they were trapped from all
sides. He attacked the English supply base at
Khopali. As the English began to withdraw to
Talegaon, the Marathas attacked, forcing them
to retreat to the village of Wadgaon. Here, the
English army was surrounded on all sides by
the Marathas and cut off from food and water
supplies. The English surrendered in mid-
January 1779 and signed the Treaty of
Wadgaon that forced the Bombay government
to relinquish all territories acquired by the
English since 1775.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Treaty of
Wadgaon compelled the Bombay government
to relinquish all territories acquired by the
English since 1775.
26. Ans: C
Exp:
In 1715, John Surman led an English mission to
the court of the Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar
which secured three famous farmans regarded
as the Magna Carta of the Company. These
farmans granted the East India Company:
• In Bengal, the Company’s imports and
exports were exempted from additional
customs duties except for the annual
payment of 3,000 rupees as settled
earlier. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Company was permitted to issue
dastaks (passes) for the transportation
of such goods.
• The Company was permitted to rent
more lands around Calcutta. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
• In Surat, for an annual payment of
10,000 rupees, the East India Company
was exempted from the levy of all
duties. Hence, statement 3 is
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incorrect.
• It was decreed that the coins of the
Company minted at Bombay were to
have currency throughout the Mughal
Empire. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
27. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The French were
the last European power to establish a
presence in India. Compagnie des Indes
Orientales (French East India Company) was
founded during the reign of Louis XIV by the
king’s famous minister Colbert. In 1667,
Francois Caron, accompanied by Mercara a
Persian, headed an expedition to India and set
up a French factory in Surat. Mercara founded
another French factory in Masulipatnam in
1669 after obtaining a patent from the Sultan of
Golconda.
The Danish East India Company was
established in 1616, and in 1620 it founded a
factory at Tranquebar near Tanjore in
India.
Statement 2 is correct: The Danish East India
Company is better known for its missionary
activities than commerce.
28. Ans: D
Exp:
E
Statement 1 is incorrect: Shah Alam II
IN
issued a farman granting to the Company in
perpetuity the Diwani (the right to collect
revenue) of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. In L
1772, the Marathas took Shah Alam II to Delhi,
where he lived till 1803. In 1803, he again
N
accepted the protection of the English after the
.O
defeat of Daulat Rao Scindia by the English.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Akbar Shah II
(ruled 1806-37) gave the title of ‘Raja’ to
L
Rammohan Roy and also appointed him as
IA
Mughal ambassador in England. In 1835, the
East India Company discontinued calling itself
the subject of the Mughal emperor and stopped
R
issuing coins in his name.
Raja Rammohan Roy was also given the title
E
of "Father of Modern India" by Gopala
T
Krishna Gokhale.
Reference: Raja Rammohan Roy
A
M

29. Ans: C
Exp:
The major factors which contributed to the
downfall of the Mughal Empire are:
Shifting allegiance of zamindars: During the
reign of Aurangzeb itself, there was a marked
increase in the power and influence of the
zamindars. The biggest fallout of this was that
regional loyalties were encouraged. Many
local zamindars helped the nobility, the
other powerful class within the empire, to
take advantage of the weakness of the
Mughal empire and carve out independent
kingdoms for themselves. Hence, Option 1 is
correct.
Rise of regional aspirations: Aurangzeb’s
reign itself witnessed rebellions by regional
groups like the Jats, Sikhs and Marathas. They
defied the authority of the Mughal state in their
bid to create kingdoms of their own. They did
not succeed in their efforts initially, but they
influenced the future course of political
events in their respective regions and also
contributed later to the downfall of Mughals.
Hence, Option 2 is correct.
Absence of a definite law of succession: Due
to the absence of a definite law of succession,
there always occurred a war of succession; this
weakened the stability of the government
and fostered partisanship at the cost of
patriotism. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
30. Ans: B
Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The founder
of the independent principality of Awadh was
Saadat Khan, popularly known as Burhan-ul-
Mulk. He had joined in a conspiracy against the
Sayyid brothers, which resulted in him being
given an increased mansab. Later, driven out of
the court, he founded a new independent state.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Murshid Kuli
Khan was the founder of the independent
state of Bengal. He was a capable ruler and
made Bengal a prosperous state. He was
succeeded in 1727 by his son-in-law Shuja-ud-
din.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Martanda
Varma established an independent state of
Kerala with Travancore as his capital. He
extended the boundaries of his state from
Kanyakumari to Cochin. He made efforts to
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organise his army along the Western model and
adopted various measures to develop his state.
Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah had
appointed Mubariz Khan as a full-fledged
viceroy of the Deccan. KIlich Khan fought and
defeated Mubariz Khan, killing him in the
Battle of Shakr-kheda and assuming control of
the Deccan. He appointed himself Viceroy,
founded the House of Hyderabad and conferred
upon himself the title of Asaf Jah.
31. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Treaty of Salbai
(1782) stipulated that Fateh Singh Gaekwad
should remain in possession of the territory he
had before the war and continue to serve the
Peshwa as before.
Statement 2 is correct: The Treaty of Salbai
did stipulate that the British should return all
the territory they had conquered since the
Treaty of Purandhar (1776) to the Marathas,
which included Bassein.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Treaty of Salbai
did not establish Haidar Ali as the mutual
guarantor. Mahadji Scindia was mentioned as
the mutual guarantor for the proper observance
of the treaty's terms.
Other important provisions of the Treaty of
Salbai:
• Salsette should continue in the possession
E
of the English.
IN
• The English should not offer any further
support to Raghunathrao, and the Peshwa
should grant him a maintenance allowance.
L
• Haidar Ali should return all the territory
N
taken from the English and the Nawab of
Arcot.
.O
• The English shall continue to enjoy the
same privileges in trade as before.
• The Peshwa should not support any other
L
European nation.
IA
• The Peshwa and the English should
undertake that their several allies should
remain at peace with one another.
R
E
32. Ans: B
Exp:
T
Statement 1 is correct: After the death of
A
Peshwa Madhavrao Narayan in 1985, Bajirao
II, son of Raghunathrao, became the Peshwa
M
and Nana Phadnavis, a bitter foe of Bajirao II,
became the chief minister. The dissensions

among the Marathas provided the English with
an opportunity to intervene in Maratha affairs.
The death of Nana Phadnavis in 1800 gave the
British an added advantage.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Treaty of
Bassein (1802) compelled the Peshwa to accept
the Subsidiary Alliance system of the British.
Scindia and Bhonsle attempted to save
Maratha's independence. However, the well-
prepared and organised army of the English
under Arthur Wellesley defeated the
combined armies of Sindhia and Bhonsle and
coerced them to conclude separate subsidiary
treaties with the English.
33. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Lenoir and Dumas
were two able and wise governors of the French
Company who implemented a number of
reforms that helped to revive the company's
fortunes between 1720 and 1742.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1720, the French
company was reorganised as the ‘Perpetual
Company of the Indies’, which revived its
strength.
Statement 3 is correct: The French possession
of Mauritius and Reunion in the southern Indian
Ocean also backed the Company’s operations
in India. These islands provided the company
with bases from which to operate its ships and
trade with other European powers.
34. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Ranjit Singh brought
under control the area extending from the Sutlej
to the Jhelum. He used as his capital the great
trading city of Lahore. He conquered Lahore
in 1799 and Amritsar in 1802.
Statement 2 is correct: Having gained control
of the trade routes, he imposed monopolies on
the trade in salt, grain and textiles from
Kashmir to enhance his revenues. Using these
earnings, he built up an army of 40,000 cavalry
and infantry. By the year 1809, he was the
undisputed master of most of Punjab.
Statement 3 is correct: By the Treaty of
Amritsar with the British, Ranjit Singh
acknowledged the British right over the Cis-
Sutlej territories. The Cis-Sutlej states
included Patiala, Kaithal, Jind, Thanesar,
Faridkot and Malerkotla. Ranjit Singh proved
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to be an efficient administrator. His army was
partly serviced by mercenary Europeans.
Reference: NIOS Ranjit Singh
35. Ans: D
Exp:
The First Carnatic War was an extension of the
Anglo-French War in Europe which was caused
by the Austrian War of Succession. The English
navy under Barnet seized some French ships
provoking the French, who retaliated by seizing
Madras in 1746 with the help of the fleet from
Mauritius. The First Carnatic War ended in
1748 with the Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle,
which returned Madras to the English and
the French, in turn, got their territories in
North America.
Battle of St. Thome (in Madras), fought
between the French forces and the forces of
Anwaruddin, the Nawab of Carnatic, was an
E
important battle in the first Carnatic war. In the
IN
battle, a small French army under Captain
Paradise defeated the strong Indian army under
Mahfuz Khan at St. Thome on the banks L
of the River Adyar. This was an eye-opener
for the Europeans in India as it revealed that
N
even a small disciplined army could easily
.O
defeat a much larger Indian army.
L
36. Ans: D
Exp: During the Second Anglo-Maratha War
IA
(1803-1805), the Bhonsles, Scindias and
Holkars, prominent Maratha leaders, played
R
main roles in the conflict. The Bhonsle rulers
added strength to the alliance with their military
E
prowess and control over central territories.
Daulat Rao Scindia led Maratha forces into
T
battles against the British, including the Battle
A
of Assaye, although he faced a defeat. Despite
the arduous efforts of various Maratha
M
Confederacies, the British eventually emerged

victorious and concluded separate treaties with
the confederacies:
• Peshwa – Treaty of Bassein
(1802). Hence, Pair 1 is
correct.
• Bhonsle – Treaty of Deogaon
(1803). Hence, Pair 2 is
correct.
• Sindhia – Treaty of Surji-
Anjangaon (1803). Hence,
Pair 3 is correct.
• Holkar – Treaty of Rajpurghat
(1806). Hence, Pair 4 is
correct.
37. Ans: C
Exp:
India’s industrial and agricultural products
were in good demand in foreign markets in the
17th and 18th centuries. Hence, its exports
were more than its imports; trade was balanced
by the import of silver and gold. Various
countries and items mainly imported from them
are listed below:
• Persian Gulf Region—pearls, raw silk,
wool, dates, dried fruits and rose
water. Hence, Pair 4 is incorrect
• Arabia—coffee, gold, drugs and
honey. Hence, Pair 1 is correct
• China—tea, sugar, porcelain and silk.
Hence, Pair 2 is correct
• Africa—ivory and drugs. Hence,
Pair 3 is correct
• Tibet—gold, musk and woollen cloth.
Hence, Pair 4 is incorrect
• Europe— woollen cloth, copper, iron,
lead and paper.
38. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: King Thibaw of
Burma was hostile towards the British from
the very beginning of his reign. The British
merchants at Rangoon and lower Burma had
been complaining about the step-motherly
treatment by Thibaw.
Statement 2 is correct: King Thibaw had also
been negotiating commercial treaties with
the rival powers of France, Germany, and
Italy. The French also planned to lay a rail link
from Mandalay to the French territory at that
time.
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Statement 3 is incorrect: After the annexation
of Upper Burma, the British faced a strong
guerrilla uprising in the whole of Burma.
Statement 4 is correct: Burma was separated
from India in 1935 with a strategic motive of
weakening the link between Burmese
nationalists and the Indian National
Congress.
39. Ans: B
Exp:
The Treaty of Bassein, although signed by a
Peshwa with limited political authority, held
immense gains for the English Company.
Notably, it strategically benefited the English
by allowing them to station troops in
Maratha territory, including Poona. This
addition to their list of stationed troops in
places like Mysore, Hyderabad and
Lucknow ensured a more even distribution,
enabling quicker troop deployment in times
of need without significant delays. While the
treaty did not hand over India to the Company
outright, it was a significant step in that
direction, providing the Company with a strong
position to expand its areas of influence.
40. Ans: A
Exp:
E
The Gorkhas wrested control of Nepal from the
IN
successors of Ranjit Malla of Bhatgaon in 1760.
They started expanding their dominion beyond
the mountains. L
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Gorkhas found
N
it easier to expand in the southern direction, as
the north was well defended by the Chinese,
.O
not the other way around.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1801, the English
annexed Gorakhpur, which brought them in the
L
proximity of the Gorkhas. The Anglo-
IA
Nepalese conflict started due to Gorkha's
capture of Butwal and Sheoraj in the tenure
of Lord Hastings(1813-23).
R
Statement 3 is correct: The Treaty of
E
Sagauli, which ended the war between the
Gorkhas and the British in 1816, favoured the
T
British and compelled Nepal to accept a British
A
resident, concede the districts of Garhwal and
Kumaon and relinquish their claims on Terai.
M
Nepal also had to withdraw from Sikkim.

41. Ans: C
Exp:
In Europe, the Seven Years’ War with Britain
and France on the opposite sides started when
Austria wanted to recover Silesia in 1756.
The war spilled over to India, and in 1758 the
French army under Count de Lally captured
the English forts of St. David and
Vizianagaram. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
The English retaliated, inflicting heavy losses
on the French fleet under Admiral D’Ache at
Masulipatnam.
In the decisive Battle of Wandiwash of the
Third Carnatic War, General Eyre Coote of the
English routed the French army under Count
Thomas Arthur de Lally and took Bussy as a
prisoner on January 22, 1760.
The Third Carnatic War was decisive; although
the Treaty of Peace of Paris (1763) restored
to the French their factories in India, the
French political influence disappeared after the
war. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Afterwards, the French, like their Portuguese
and Dutch counterparts in India, confined
themselves to their small enclaves and to
commerce. The English became the supreme
European power in the Indian subcontinent
as the Dutch had already been defeated in the
Battle of Bidara (1759). Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
42. Ans: D
Exp:
Chatuspathis, or Tols as they were called in
Bihar and Bengal, were the centres of higher
education in the traditional Indian education
system. Some of the famous centres for
Sanskrit education were Kasi (Varanasi), Tirhut
(Mithila), Nadia and Utkala. Madrasahs were
the institutions of higher learning for Persian
and Arabic. Persian, being the court language,
was learnt by the Muslims as well as the
Hindus. Azimabad (Patna) was a famous
centre for Persian education. On the other hand,
Hindu and Muslim elementary schools were
called pathshalas and mastabas, respectively.
Elementary education though limited to
reading, writing and arithmetic, was
widespread.
The knowledge imparted in Higher Education
was confined to literature, law, religion,
philosophy and logic and excluded the study of
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physical and natural sciences, technology and
geography.
43. Ans: B
Exp:
The Pindaris were a diverse group made up of
various castes and classes, and they often
served as mercenaries for Maratha armies.
When the Marathas became weak, they resorted
to plundering neighbouring territories,
including those of the East India Company. The
British accused the Marathas of harbouring
and supporting the Pindaris, which served as
one of the pretexts for the third Anglo-Maratha
war. The Pindaris' disruptive activities and their
alleged shelter under Maratha authority
contributed to the outbreak of hostilities,
leading to a series of battles and the eventual
defeat of the Marathas. The Third Anglo-
Maratha War marked a turning point in Indian
history, as it further solidified the British
control over the subcontinent.
44. Ans: C
Exp:
In 1700, Murshid Quli Khan became the Dewan
of Bengal and ruled till his death in 1727. He
was succeeded by his son-in-law, Shuja-ud-din,
who ruled till 1739. After that, for a year (1739–
40), Sarfaraz Khan, an incapable son of Shuja-
ud-din, became the ruler; he was killed by
E
Alivardi Khan. Alivardi Khan died in April
IN
1756 and was succeeded by his grandson,
Siraj-ud-Daulah, the son of Alivardi’s
youngest daughter.
L
The rapid growth of Kolkata attracted the
N
attention of the nawab of Murshidabad, Siraj-
ud-Daulah, who attacked and conquered the
.O
city from the British in 1756. Most of the
British inhabitants escaped, but nearly
146(initial reports) of them were captured and
L
imprisoned in a narrow cell on June 20, 1956.
IA
Only 23 (initial reports) could survive their
internment, this incident went down in history
as the Black Hole tragedy.
R
Mir Jafar, who was made nawab after the Battle
E
of Plassey, was deposed in 1760. Mir Qasim
was placed on the throne by the British in the
T
hope that he would be able to meet their
A
financial demands. Mir Qasim was the most
capable nawab among the successors of
M
Alivardi Khan. After assuming power, Mir
Qasim shifted the capital from Murshidabad

to Munger in Bihar. The move was taken to
allow a safe distance from the Company at
Calcutta.
Reference: Kolkata- IGNOU
Indian Culture- Revolt of Mir Qasim
45. Ans: B
Exp:
Warren Hastings took charge as the
governor general at a critical juncture of
British rule when the British had to contend
with the powerful combination of the Marathas,
Mysore, and Hyderabad. He innovated the
policy of ring-fence to create buffer zones to
defend the Company’s frontiers from external
threats. Under the policy of ring-fence, the
frontiers of the neighbouring territory were
guarded to ensure the defence of the British
territory. Back then, the Afghan invaders and
the Marathas were the main threats to the
British territory in Bengal. To safeguard
against these, the British Company organised
the defence of the frontiers of Awadh on the
condition that the Nawab would bear the cost of
the defence. The defence of Awadh thus
ensured the defence of Bengal.
46. Ans: D
Exp:
Nadir Shah, the Persian emperor, attacked
India, conquering Lahore and defeating the
Mughal army of Muhammad Shah at
Karnal on February 13, 1739. Subsequently,
Muhammad Shah was captured and Delhi was
looted. An estimated seventy crore rupees,
along with the Peacock Throne and the
Kohinoor diamond, were arrogated from the
official treasury and rich noble’s safes.
Nadir Shah acquired the strategically important
Mughal territory to the west of the Indus,
including Kabul. Rendering, India once again
vulnerable to attacks from the north-west.
47. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Maratha leaders,
such as Bajirao II, Daulatrao Scindia and
Jaswantrao Holkar, were described as
"worthless and selfish leaders" who were not
a match for the English officials. They were
busy pursuing their own selfish agendas and
could never coordinate effectively and timely
against the British
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Statement 2 is incorrect: The Maratha state's
cohesion has been described as "artificial and
accidental" rather than strong and organic. It
has also been noted that there was no well-
thought-out organised programme for
communal improvement, spread of
education, or unification of the people in the
Maratha state, making it vulnerable when
facing a far more homogeneous and cohesive
power like the British.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Marathas
were known for personal prowess and
valour, they were considered inferior to the
English in various aspects of military
organisation, weapons, discipline and
leadership. The Marathas have also been
criticised for neglecting the importance of
artillery in warfare.
48. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The combined
armies of Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Awadh
and Shah Alam II were defeated by the
English forces under Major Hector Munro at
Buxar on October 22, 1764, in a closely
contested battle.
Statement 2 is correct: After the battle of
Buxar, Mir Jafar (who was made Nawab of
Bengal in 1763) handed over districts of
Midnapore, Burdwan and Chittagong to the
E
English for the maintenance of their army. The
IN
English were also permitted duty-free trade
in Bengal, except for a duty of 2 per cent on
salt.
L
Statement 3 is incorrect: Robert Clive, then
N
British Governor in Calcutta, concluded the
treaty of Allahabad with the Shuja-ud-Daula
.O
Nawab of Awadh, who was to pay fifty lakhs
rupees as war indemnity and was given back his
dominions. He entered into a defensive alliance
L
with the Company, Awadh, therefore, became,
IA
for the British, a buffer state against Afghan and
Maratha invasions. The British gave emperor
Shah Alam II possession of Kara and
R
Allahabad, while he granted them the Diwani of
E
Bengal, Bihar and Orissa in return for a regular
annual payment of twenty- six lakhs of rupees.
T
Reference: NIOS- Establishment of British
A
Rule
M

49. Ans: D
Exp:
The subsidiary alliance system was used by
Lord Wellesley (1798-1805) to build an empire
in India. Under the system, the allying Indian
state’s ruler was compelled to accept the
permanent stationing of a British force within
his territory and to pay a subsidy for its
maintenance. Other important terms and
conditions for the allying state were:
• The ruler/allying state had to agree to
the posting of a British resident in his
court.
• The ruler was forbidden from
employing any other European in his
service without prior consultation with
the British Company.
• He was not allowed to go to war or
negotiate a treaty with any other Indian
ruler without consultation with the
Governor General.
In lieu of all mentioned above, the Indian ruler
was to be defended by the British from external
aggression and a policy of non-interference in
the internal affairs of the Indian ruler was to be
followed by the British.
The system of subsidiary alliance was applied
in the following stages to an Indian Kingdom:
• First Stage: The Company offered
military assistance to a friendly
Indian state to help it with wars that
it was engaged in.
• Second Stage: The Company formed a
common cause with the friendly
Indian state, and both the state
forces and the British company
would be taken to the field together
for this cause.
• Third Stage: The Company promised
that it would maintain a fixed
number of soldiers under British
officers for use by the Indian State in
lieu of a fixed sum of money.
• Fourth Stage: The amount of money
fixed for the above service was kept so
high that the Indian state would find
itself unable to furnish the dues, and
when the Indian state failed to pay the
British Company timely, it was
compelled to concede territory to the
British as compensation.
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50. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Ahmad Shah Abdali
(or Ahmad Shah Durrani) was elected the
successor of Nadir Shah after the latter’s
death in 1747; he invaded India several times
between 1748 and 1767, harassing the Mughals
who tried to buy peace in 1751–52 by
conceding Punjab to him.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1757, Abdali
captured Delhi and left behind an Afghan
caretaker to watch over the Mughal emperor.
Before his return, Abdali recognised Alamgir II
as the Mughal emperor and the Rohilla chief,
Najib-ud-Daula, was appointed as Mir Bakhshi
of the empire. In 1758, Maratha chief
Raghunath Rao expelled Najib-ud-Daula from
Delhi and also captured Punjab. In 1759,
Ahmad Shah Abdali returned to India to extort
revenge from Marathas. In 1761, Abdali
defeated the Marathas in the Third Battle of
Panipat.
51. Ans: C
Exp:
Kerala Varma Pazhassi Raja, popularly known
as Kerala Simham (Lion of Kerala) or ‘Pyche
raja’, was the de facto head of Kottayam
(Cotiote) in the Malabar region. He not only
resisted Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan but also
E
fought against the British between 1793 and
IN
1805.
The Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790–92)
extended the British paramountcy over L
Kottayam in violation of an earlier
agreement of 1790 which had recognised
N
Kottayam as independent. The English
.O
appointed Vira Varma (the uncle of Pazhassi
Raja) as the Raja of Kottayam, who, in order
to meet the revenue target fixed by the British
L
Company, started levying exorbitant tax rates
IA
on the peasants. This led to a mass resistance
by the peasants under the leadership of
Pazhassi Raja in 1793, who used guerilla
R
warfare effectively; as a result, a peace treaty
was concluded in 1797. Later due to a conflict
E
over a dispute on Wayanad in 1800, Pazhassi
T
Raja led a large force of Nairs supplemented by
Mappilas and Pathans to insurgency. Pyche
A
Raja died in a gunfight at Mavila Todu near the
M
present-day Kerala-Karnataka border in 1805.

52. Ans: B
Exp:
The T+1 settlement cycle means that trade-
related settlements must be done within a
day, or 24 hours, of the completion of a
transaction. In the T+1 format, when an
investor sells a share, they receive the proceeds
within one day and the buyer receives the
shares in their demat account within the same
time frame.
Some of the benefits of T + 1 settlement are:
• Reducing the number of days for
settlement will help provide better
liquidity to investors and thereby
enhance trade and participation.
• It reduces the number of outstanding
unsettled trades at any point of time and
thus decreases the unsettled exposure
to the Clearing Corporation by 50 per
cent.
• The narrower the settlement cycle, the
narrower is the time window for a
counterparty insolvency/ bankruptcy to
impact the settlement of a trade.
• It will boost operational efficiency as
the rolling of funds and stocks will be
faster.
53. Ans: B
Exp:
Kaval, or ‘watch’, was an ancient institution of
Tamil Nadu. It was a hereditary village police
office with specified rights and responsibilities.
The Kaval system was an ancient and
indigenous system of policing in Tamilnadu.
The functionaries of this system were known as
Kavalkarars. Protecting the people and their
properties was the primary duty of the
Kavalkarars. Apart from this duty, watching
the movements of strangers, particularly during
festivals, and protecting the travellers were the
other responsibilities of the Kavalkarars. In
return for their services, they were paid by the
inhabitants either in cash or in kind, mostly the
latter. As the traditional custodians of the
village, they were bestowed with well-defined
rights and duties. The Kavalship was
hereditary. Most of the Kavalkarars were from
the martial communities of Tamilnadu.
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54. Ans: A
Exp:
The East India Company’s imposed harsh
conditions on the state of Travancore, after the
latter agreed to a subsidiary alliance agreement
during the tenure of Lord Wellesley in 1805.
The ruler was not unable to pay the subsidy and
The British resident of Travancore was
meddling in the internal affairs of the state. The
highhanded attitude of the Company forced the
Prime Minister (or Dalawa) Velu Thampi to
rise in revolt against the Company. In this
endeavour, he was assisted by the Nair troops.
Velu Thampi addressed a gathering of the
local populace calling them to arms against
the British in Kundara. As a result of the
Kundara Proclamation (as it was known
later), there was a large-scale revolt against
the British. A large military operation had to
be undertaken by British to restore peace. The
Maharaja of Travancore defected to the side of
the Company and Velu Thampi killed
himself to avoid capture, as a result the
rebellion died out.
55. Ans: B
Exp:
National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI) now permits NRIs with NRE (Non-
Resident External) or NRO (Non-Resident
Ordinary) accounts in 10 countries to use the
E
UPI platform with international mobile
IN
numbers. However, member banks must
comply with FEMA regulations and RBI
guidelines.
L
Statement 1 is correct: NPCI is an umbrella
N
organisation for operating retail payments
and settlement systems in India. It is an
.O
initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) under
the provisions of the Payment and Settlement
L
Systems Act, 2007, to create a robust Payment
IA
and Settlement Infrastructure in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has been
incorporated as a "Not for Profit Company
R
under the provisions of Section 25 of the
E
Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the
Companies Act 2013). NPCI aims to provide
T
infrastructure to the entire Banking system in
A
India for physical as well as electronic payment
and settlement systems.
M

56. Ans: A
Exp:
During 1850, the conditions of service in the
East India Company’s Army and cantonments
increasingly came into conflict with the
religious beliefs and prejudices of the sepoys.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The General Service
Enlistment Act of 1856 was passed by Lord
Canning's government, requiring all future
recruits to the Bengal Army to serve
anywhere as mandated by the government, not
just within India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The sepoys
interpreted restrictions on wearing caste and
sectarian marks as interference in their
religious affairs.
Statement 3 is correct: For the religious
Hindu of the time, crossing the seas meant a
loss of caste. Rumours of the proselytising
activities of the chaplains maintained at the
Company’s expense, were interpreted by Indian
sepoys as interference in their religious affairs.
57. Ans: B
Exp:
Rani Laxmibai gave tough resistance to the
invading forces during the siege of the fort of
Jhansi. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Tantia Tope a close associate of Nana Saheb,
fought alongside him in Kanpur; he also
accompanied Rani Laxmibai to Gwalior and
was adept in guerrilla tactics. Hence, pair 2 is
incorrectly matched.
Nana Sahib led the rebellion in Kanpur, not
Delhi. Nana Saheb was the adopted heir of Baji
Rao II. He joined the struggle as he was denied
the pension and honours on the ground that he
was not the natural-born heir of Baji Rao II.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
Begum Hazrat Mahal was the second wife of
Nawab of Awadh Wajid Ali Shah and the
regent of Awadh in 1857–1858. She took a
stand against the British after the annexation of
Awadh and decided to stay back in Lucknow
when the last Nawab of Awadh was sent into
exile. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
58. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Securities
Appellate Tribunal is a statutory and an
autonomous body established under the
provisions of Section 15K of the Securities
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and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Act,
1992 to hear and dispose of appeals against
orders passed by the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI) or by an adjudicating
officer under the Act; and to exercise
jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on
the Tribunal by or under this Act or any other
law for the time being in force.
Statement 2 is correct: SAT hears and
disposes of appeals against orders passed by
the Insurance Regulatory Development
Authority of India (IRDAI) under the
Insurance Act, 1938, General Insurance
Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972, and the
Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority Act, 1999 and the Rules and
Regulations framed thereunder.
59. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The MIKE
Programme was created through a
Resolution at the tenth Conference of the
Parties by the Convention on International
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
and Flora (CITES) in 1997. Among its core
responsibilities, the MIKE Programme aims to
enhance the capabilities of countries where
elephants reside. MIKE's data plays a crucial
role in informing global decisions concerning
the conservation of elephants in both Asia and
E
Africa.
IN
Statement 2 is correct: MIKE is an
international initiative focused on assessing
elephant mortality levels, trends and underlying
L
causes. There are currently 28 sites
N
participating in the MIKE programme in
Asia, distributed across 13 Countries. These
.O
include ten sites in India and two each in
Cambodia, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia,
Myanmar and Thailand. Additionally, there is
L
one site in Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Nepal,
IA
Sri Lanka and Vietnam.
The following are the 10 MIKE sites in
India:
R
1. Chirang Ripu in Assam
E
2. Dhang Patki in Assam
3. Eastern Dooars in West Bengal
T
4. Deomali in Arunachal Pradesh
A
5. Garo hill in Meghalaya
6. Mayurbhanj in Odisha
M
7. Mysore in karanatka
8. Nilgiri in Tamil Nadu

9. Shivalik in Uttrakhand
10. Wayanad in Kerala
60. Ans: B
Exp:
The Revolt of 1857, also known as the Indian
Rebellion of 1857 and the Sepoy Mutiny, was a
major uprising in India against the colonial rule
of the British East India Company.
Byjonath Singh belonged to the royal family
Porahat (Singhbhum) of West Singhbhum
district of present-day Jharkhand. He
participated actively during the revolt of
1857. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
Bhagoji Naik was a police officer under the
British government in Ahmadnagar district of
present-day Maharashtra. He was briefly
imprisoned in 1855, he organized the Bhils in
his village upon his acquittal, and during the
1857 uprising, Bhagoji Naik and Kajar Singh
Naik led over 7000 Bhils from south Nasik and
north Ahmadnagar against the British. Over
two years, they carried out depredations,
looting British treasuries and plundering in the
countryside while destroying postal lines and
offices. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
In 1930, The Salt Satyagraha Movement was
started in Odisha under the able leadership of
Hare Krushna Mahatab, the President of the
Utkal Pradesh Congress Committee. In the Puri
district, Nilakantha Das, Jagannath Rath and
Govind Das toured villages in an attempt to
mobilise people for Salt Satyagraha. Hence,
Options 3 and 4 are incorrect.
Reference: Amritmahotsav- Byjonath Singh
Bhagoji Naik- Amritmahotsav
Salt Satyagraha -Amrit Mahotsav.
61. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: One of the factors in
the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was its limited
territorial spread. Eastern, southern and
western parts of India remained more or less
unaffected by the revolt. Due to the lack of all-
India Character, the British found the revolt
easier to suppress.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The mutineers
lacked a clear forward-looking program,
coherent ideology and political perspective.
They represented diverse elements with varied
grievances, which ultimately weakened the
unity and strength of the revolt.
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Statement 3 is incorrect: Many big
zamindars acted against the revolt. In
Awadh, taluqdars backed off once promises of
land restitution were spelt out, showing that
many significant stakeholders did not support
or were easily placated, undermining the
revolt's strength.
Reference: THE REVOLT OF 1857
62. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Norovirus is a highly
contagious virus that is also sometimes
referred to as the ‘stomach flu’. Disease
outbreaks typically occur aboard cruise ships,
in nursing homes, dormitories and other closed
spaces. It is often referred to as the 'winter
vomiting bug' because it is highly contagious
and can cause symptoms like vomiting and
diarrhea, which are more common during the
winter months. It is a group of viruses that
leads to gastrointestinal illness.
Statement 2 is correct: The virus spreads
rapidly and can easily move from one infected
person to another through contaminated foods
and surfaces. The virus spreads through the
faecal-oral route. However, there is no specific
broadly effective vaccine for the disease.
Norovirus is primarily managed through
hygiene and sanitation measures, including
thorough handwashing, disinfection of surfaces
E
and practising good food handling and
IN
preparation techniques.
L
63. Ans: D
Exp:
N
The transfer of power from the British East
.O
India Company to the British Crown marked a
significant turning point in the history of
colonial India.
L
While this transition promised a more direct
IA
administrative system and paved the way for
new reforms, it also generated certain
grievances.
R
A section of European forces that served
under the Company were not pleased with
E
the requirement to shift their allegiance
T
from the Company, which was now defunct,
to the Queen in a manner akin to the British
A
Army. This displeasure led to what is known as
M
the White Mutiny.
The White Mutiny was seen as a potential threat
to the already precarious British position in

India with the potential of inciting renewed
rebellion among the ‘still excited population in
India’.
64. Ans: A
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Brahmo Samaj did
not believe in the infallibility of scriptures. It
believed that scriptures should be interpreted
rationally and that their teachings should be
reconciled with modern knowledge. They were
critical of certain Hindu scriptures and rituals.
While they did advocate for social reforms,
they did not necessarily oppose inter-caste
marriages.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The disagreements
only over inter-caste marriages did not lead
to the split leading to formation of Keshab
Chandra Sen's Brahmo Samaj of India and
Debendranath Tagore's Adi Brahmo Samaj
in 1866. The split was caused by a number of
factors, including differences in vision for the
future of the Brahmo Samaj. Keshab Chandra
Sen was more radical than Debendranath
Tagore and he advocated for a number of
changes to the Brahmo Samaj, including the
inclusion of teachings from other religions and
the liberalisation of social customs. Tagore did
not agree with these changes and he eventually
split from the Brahmo Samaj to form the Adi
Brahmo Samaj.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Raja Rammohan
Roy did not want to establish a new religion.
He wanted to reform Hinduism and free it from
superstitions and evil practices.
65. Ans: C
Exp:
The rise and growth of Indian nationalism has
been traditionally explained in terms of Indian
response to the stimulus generated by the
British Raj through the creation of new
institutions, new opportunities, resources, etc.
In other words, Indian nationalism grew partly
as a result of colonial policies and partly as a
reaction to colonial policies. In fact, it would be
more correct to see Indian nationalism as a
product of a mix of various factors:
• Worldwide upsurge of the concepts
of nationalism and the right of self-
determination initiated by the
French Revolution.
• Indian Renaissance and its effects
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• Offshoot of modernisation initiated by
the British in India.
• Strong reaction to British imperialist
policies in India.
66. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Black Box,
technically known as Flight Data Recorder,
is an instrument that records all the activities
of an aeroplane/ aircraft during its flight. An
aeroplane generally houses two black boxes,
one at the front and another on the back of the
aircraft. These record the information about a
flight and help reconstruct the events that lead
to an aircraft crash.
Statement 2 is correct: The Black Box has two
separate boxes:
• Flight Data Recorder:- This box can
contain information about direction,
altitude, fuel, speed, turbulence, cabin
temperature etc
• Cockpit Voice Recorder:- This box
records the sound of the aeroplane during
the last two hours. It records the sound of
the engine, emergency alarm, cabin and
cockpit in order to predict the conditions
of the plane before any accident occurrs.
Black boxes are not black. They are bright
yellow or orange. The bright colour is used to
assist in locating the boxes after an accident.
E
IN
67. Ans: A
Exp:
Post the Revolt of 1857, there was a significant
L
reshuffling in the administration and policies of
N
the British government in India. This
reshuffling aimed at better governance and
.O
mitigating chances of any further rebellions. In
the aftermath of the revolt and even before its
full suppression, the British Parliament, on
L
August 2, 1858, passed an act for the Better
IA
Government of India, declaring Queen Victoria
as the sovereign of British India.
Statement 1 is correct: As per the ‘Queen’s
R
Proclamation’ issued in 1858 and announced
E
by Lord Canning at a durbar in Allahabad,
the era of British annexations and expansion
T
in India was over. This proclamation
A
highlighted the intent of the British to respect
the dignity and rights of the native princes.
M
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the aftermath of
the revolt, the British military policy was

dominated by the idea of ‘division and
counterpoise’. They adopted the concept of
'divide and rule' with separate army units
based on recruitment from single caste,
community and region. The aim was not to
integrate but to maintain divisions so that a
united uprising like the Revolt of 1857 could
not happen again. Furthermore, the British
reduced the number of Indian soldiers while
increasing the number of European soldiers in
the army.
68. Ans: B
Exp:
The Indian National Congress was not the first
political organisation in the country. Most of
the political associations in the early half of the
19th century were dominated by wealthy and
aristocratic elements. They were local or
regional in character.
Through long petitions to the British
Parliament, most of them demanded:
• Administrative reforms,
• Association of Indians with the
administration, and
• Spread of education.
The political associations of the second half of
the 19th century came to be increasingly
dominated by the educated middle class—the
lawyers, journalists, doctors, teachers, etc.-and
they had a wider perspective and a larger
agenda.
The associations that were formed before the
Indian National Congress organised various
campaigns before the Indian National Congress
appeared on the scene. These campaigns were:
• For the imposition of import duty on
cotton (1875).
• For Indianisation of government
service (1878-79).
• Against Lytton’s Afghan adventure.
• Against Arms Act (1878)
• Against the Vernacular Press Act.
• For the Right to join volunteer corps
• Against exploitation of plantation
labour and against Inland Emigration
Act
• Support of Ilbert Bill
• For an All India Fund for Political
Agitation
• Against reduction in maximum age
for appearing in Indian Civil
Service.
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69. Ans: D
Exp:
Malabar Tree Toad was Found in Mollem
National Park and the Mhadei Wildlife
Sanctuary.
IUCN status of Malabar Tree Toad:
Endangered.
Mollem National Park is a 240 square
kilometre protected area located in the
Western Ghats of West India, in
Dharbandora taluk, Goa State, along the
eastern border with Karnataka. This area
was first known as Mollem Game Sanctuary. It
was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1969 and
renamed as Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary. It
contains several important temples dating to the
Kadambas of Goa and is home to waterfalls,
such as Dudhsagar Falls and Tambdi Falls. The
parkland is also home to a community of
nomadic buffalo herders known as the Dhangar.
River Mandovi flows through the National
Park.
E
IN
Map: Mollem National Park.
70. Ans: A L
Exp:
N
The Ilbert Bill was introduced to the Imperial
Legislative Council of India. This was done on
.O
9 February 1883. It aimed to govern the
jurisdiction of Magistrates or Sessions Judges
to try charges against European British subjects
L
if they were themselves not European.
IA
Ripon’s Government had sought to abolish
“judicial disqualification based on race
distinctions” and to give the Indian members
R
of the covenanted civil service the same powers
and rights as those enjoyed by their European
E
colleagues. In other words, the bill sought to
T
give senior Indian magistrates the authority to
adjudicate over matters involving British
A
subjects in India. Ripon had to modify the bill,
M
thus almost defeating the original purpose,
because of the stiff opposition from the
European community.

71. Ans: C
Exp:
The Revolt of 1857 saw participation not only
from soldiers and princes but also of the masses
and local leaders who played a crucial role in
intensifying the rebellion in various parts of
India.
Statement 1 is correct: Shah Mal, from
Pargana Baraut, Uttar Pradesh, effectively
organised the headmen and peasants of 84
villages, collectively referred to as "chaurasi
desh", urging them to rebel against British rule.
Statement 2 is correct: Shah Mal sent supplies
to the mutineers in Delhi, he also took a
proactive role in local governance. He made a
bungalow on the banks of the Yamuna his
headquarters, from where he resolved
disputes and dispensed judgements,
effectively turning it into a 'hall of justice'.
For a brief period, the people felt as though
British rule had ended and their own
governance had been established.
Statement 3 is correct: Under Shah Mal's
leadership, the locals attacked and destroyed
symbols of British rule, which included
bridges, roads and government buildings.
72. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Padma Awards were
instituted in 1954 and are announced every year
except for brief interruption(s) during the years
1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. The Awards
are announced on 26th January every year and
are presented by the President of India in an
Awards presentation Ceremony held at
Rashtrapati Bhavan. The awardees are
presented a Sanad (certificate) signed by the
President and a medallion.
Statement 2 is correct: The Padma Awards
are conferred on the recommendations made
by the Padma Awards Committee, which is
constituted by the Prime Minister every
year. The nomination process is open to the
public. Even self-nomination can be made. The
total number of awards to be given in a year,
excluding the posthumous awards and to
NRI/foreigners/OCIs, should not be more than
120. The award is given in three categories,
namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan
and Padma Shri.
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• Padma Vibhushan for ‘exceptional and
distinguished service;
• Padma Bhushan for ‘distinguished
service of a high order’; and
• Padma Shri is awarded for ‘distinguished
service’.
Statement 3 is incorrect: All persons without
distinction of race, occupation, position or sex
are eligible for these awards. There are some
exceptions too:
• Government servants, including those
working with PSUs, except doctors and
scientists, are not eligible for these
Awards.
• The award is normally not conferred
posthumously. However, in highly
deserving cases, the Government could
consider giving an award posthumously.
73. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Association
of Calcutta, also known as the Indian National
Association superseded the Indian League
and was founded in 1876 by younger
nationalists of Bengal led by Surendranath
Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose, who
were getting discontented with the conservative
and pro-landlord policies of the British Indian
Association.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian
E
Association was the most important of pre-
IN
congress associations and aimed to “promote
by every legitimate means the political,
intellectual and material advancement of the
L
people.” It protested against the reduction of
N
the age limit in 1877 for candidates of the
Indian Civil Service examination. The
.O
association demanded the simultaneous holding
of civil service examinations in England and
India and the Indianisation of higher
L
administrative posts.
IA
Statement 3 is correct: The association
sponsored an all-India conference which first
took place in Calcutta from December 28 to 30,
R
1883. More than a hundred delegates from
E
different parts of the country attended. So, in a
way, the association was a forerunner of the
T
Indian National Congress as an all-India
A
nationalist organisation. It later merged with
the Indian National Congress in 1886.
M

74. Ans: D
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Vaikom, a village in
Travancore, had a major temple there whose
four walls were surrounded by temple roads
which could not be used by avarnas like
Ezhavas and Pulayas. The Kerala Provincial
Congress Committee decided to use the weapon
of Satyagraha to fight untouchability, and a
movement was started at Vaikom by defying
the unapproachability rule by leading a
procession of savarnas (caste Hindus) and
avarnas on the temple roads on 30 March
1924.
Statement 2 is correct: The Vaikom
Satyagraha was a joint movement by
savarnas and avarnas to open temples and
public roads to all Hindus. The movement was
supported by a number of savarna
organisations, such as the Nair Service Society,
Na Samajam and Kerala Hindu Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: In November 1924,
Mannathu Padmanabha Pillai led a
procession of privileged caste members
against untouchability. It was called the
‘savarna jatha’. They walked 200 km from
Vaikom to Trivandrum, where they met the
Regent Queen with a memorial petition, signed
by thousands, asking the Regent Queen to open
the temple roads to everyone. A similar jatha of
privileged caste persons was led by M
Emperumal Naidu from Kottar in south
Travancore to Trivandrum to spread the word
about the Satyagraha.
Reference: Vaikom Satyagraha
75. Ans: D
Exp:
The Jagannath Temple at Puri is one of the most
revered Vaishnava sites of worship in India.
The shrine is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, his
elder brother Lord Balabhadra and his sister
Devi Subhadra.
It is one of the four sacred sites of the Char
Dham pilgrimage. The Jagannath Temple is
often referred to as the 'White Pagoda' of
India due to its distinctive white-painted
walls, which were coated to safeguard the
sculptures from the corrosive effects of the salty
sea air. Shri Jagannath Puri Temple was
constructed by a famous king of the Ganga
Dynasty, Ananta Varman Chodaganga.
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Fig: White Pagoda (The Jagannath Temple at
Puri)
76. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: British colonial rule
had a profound impact on Indian society and
culture. It introduced new ideas, education
systems, legal systems and administrative
practices that challenged traditional norms and
practices. This led to a desire for reform
among some sections of Indian society who
saw the need for change.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While there were
social reform movements in 19th-century India,
they were not necessarily mass movements.
These movements were initiated by a
relatively small group of reformers and
intellectuals who sought to address various
social issues.
E
Statement 3 is correct: Indian society in the
19th century was entrapped in a vicious web
IN
created by religious superstitions and social
obscurantism. Hinduism had become steeped
L
in magic and superstition. The priests exercised
an overwhelming and unhealthy influence on
N
the minds of the people.
Educated Indians disgusted by orthodoxy
.O
decided to challenge these practices and
promote rationality and modernity.
L
77. Ans: D
IA
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: A Joint
R
Parliamentary Committee is set up by the
Parliament for a special purpose like for the
E
detailed scrutiny of a subject or Bill. It has
T
members from both the Houses and from
both the ruling parties and the opposition. It
A
is dissolved after its term ends or its task has
been completed. The government can choose to
M
launch detailed investigations in an enquiry

based on what the JPC has said, but it can’t be
forced to do so.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A Joint
Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc
body. The recommendations of a JPC have
persuasive value, but they are not binding on
the government. However, the government is
required to report on the follow-up action taken
on the basis of the recommendations of the JPC.
The details regarding the membership and
subjects undertaken by the JPC are decided by
the Parliament.
78. Ans: A
Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Poona
Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in 1867 by
Mahadev Govind Ranade and others, with the
object of serving as a bridge between the
government and the people. The sabha
supported the Swadeshi movement, which
promoted the use of hand-spun khadi fabric.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Bombay
Presidency Association was started by
Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozeshah Mehta and
K.T. Telang in 1885. It was one of the first
political organisations in India to advocate for
increased self-government.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Madras
Mahajan Sabha was founded in 1884 by M.
Veeraraghavachariar, B. Subramania Aiyer
and P. Ananda Charlu. The Sabha has been
advocating for Indians' fundamental rights,
such as national freedom and other common
socioeconomic issues.
79. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: India is the third-
largest producer of fish in the world. India
has a long coastline and a large number of rivers
and lakes, which provide a habitat for a variety
of fish species. Fisheries are the primary source
of livelihood for several communities. The
Indian Blue Revolution has led to a major
improvement in the fishing and aquaculture
industries. The industries in this sector are
regarded as sunrise industries and are
anticipated to have a big impact on the Indian
economy.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian fisheries
and aquaculture sectors have become one of the
fastest growing agriculture allied sectors in the
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country. The share of inland fisheries and
aquaculture in overall fish production has
gradually increased over the last several
years. India has also become a top producer and
exporter of shrimp as a result of using
contemporary technologies. New areas, such as
salty and brackish waterways, reservoirs and
flood plains, are being used for profitable
aquacultures. Wastelands are being
transformed into wealthy lands.
Reference:
https://www.fisheriesindia.com/2023/
80. Ans: C
Exp:
The Nordic countries are ready to offer their
technologies and expertise to India as it moves
towards a green, digital and innovative future.
The Nordic region, also known as the Nordic
countries, is a geographical and cultural
region
E
in northern Europe that includes five
IN
countries: Denmark, Finland, Iceland,
Norway and Sweden. It also consists of
the Faroe Islands, Greenland and Aland. L
N
Estonia is not officially a Nordic country, but
it has many cultural, political, economic and
.O
historical ties with the Nordic countries,
especially Denmark and Norway.
L
IA
81. Ans: B
R
Exp:
E
The Enlightenment was a European intellectual
movement that emphasised reason, rationality
T
and the questioning of traditional authority and
practices. It encouraged critical thinking,
A
secularism and individual rights. These
M
Enlightenment ideas had a significant
impact on Indian reformers, who sought to
apply rationalism and scientific thinking to

challenge traditional social and religious
practices. Furthermore, industrialisation
brought new technologies, education and social
changes, which influenced the reform
movements in India to embrace modernity.
82. Ans: D
Exp:
NCST is functioning with less than 50% of its
sanctioned strength according to Ministry of
Tribal Affairs (MoTA) data presented in Lok
Sabha.
Statement 1 is correct: The National
Commission on Scheduled Tribes was
established by amending Article 338 and
inserting a new Article 338A in the
Constitution through the 89th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 2003. By this amendment,
the erstwhile National Commission for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was
replaced by two separate Commissions,
namely:
• The National Commission for
Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
• The National Commission for
Scheduled Tribe (NCST) w.e.f.
February 2004.
Statement 2 is correct: It consists of a
chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other
members. Their conditions of service and
tenure of office are determined by the
President. Under the Rules, they hold office for
a term of three years. The Chairperson has
been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister
and the Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of
State, and other Members have the rank of
Secretary to the Government of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Chairperson, a
Vice-Chairperson and 3 other Members of
the commission are appointed by the
President by warrant under his hand and
seal. The Chairperson, the Vice-Chairperson
and other Members shall not be eligible for
appointment for more than two terms.
83. Ans: D
Exp:
The Indian National Congress was not the first
political organisation in India. However, most
of the political associations in the early half of
the 19th century were dominated by wealthy
and aristocratic elements. Some of the
associations were:
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• The Bangabhasha Prakasika Sabha was
formed in 1836 by associates of Raja
Rammohan Roy. Hence, Option 1 is
correct.
• The Bengal British India Society was
founded in 1843 with the object of “the
collection and dissemination of
information relating to the actual condition
of the people of British India... and to
employ such other means of peaceful and
lawful character as may appear calculated
to secure the welfare, extend the just rights
and advance the interests of all classes of
our fellow subjects”. Hence, Option 2 is
correct.
• The East India Association was
organised by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866
in London to discuss the Indian question
and influence public men in England to
promote Indian welfare. Later, branches of
the association were started in prominent
Indian cities. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
• The Indian League was started in 1875
by Sisir Kumar Ghosh with the object of
“stimulating the sense of nationalism
amongst the people” and encouraging
political education. Hence, Option 4 is
correct.
84. Ans: C
Exp:
E
Statement 1 is correct: The Lex Loci Act of
IN
1850 was a British law that allowed Hindu
converts to Christianity to inherit ancestral
property. This was a significant reform, as it
L
overturned the traditional Hindu law of
N
inheritance, which did not allow converts to
inherit ancestral property.
.O
Statement 2 is correct: The opposition to the
Lex Loci Act was about cultural and social
concerns related to inheritance and traditional
L
practices. While there was certainly opposition
IA
to British political domination, the resistance
against the Lex Loci Act was rooted to an
extent in the desire for cultural preservation
R
amongst native Indians.
E
Reference: Bipan Chandra, INDIA’S
STRUGGLE FOR INDEPENDENCE
T
A
85. Ans: A
Exp:
M
Statement 1 is correct: The H-1B visa is a
non-immigrant work visa that allows US

employers to hire foreign workers for
speciality jobs that require a bachelor’s
degree. The intent of the H-1B provisions is to
help employers who cannot otherwise obtain
needed business skills and abilities from the
U.S. workforce by authorising the temporary
employment of qualified individuals who are
not otherwise authorized to work in the United
States. The law establishes certain standards in
order to protect similarly employed U.S.
workers from being adversely affected by the
employment of nonimmigrant workers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Under the H1B visa,
the duration of stay is three years, extendable to
six years, after which the visa holder can
reapply. The United States Citizenship and
Immigration Services (USCIS) issues an
annual limit/cap of new H-1B visas each
year. There exist congressionally mandated
caps limiting the number of H-1B visas that can
be issued each fiscal year, which is 65,000 visas
and an additional 20,000 set aside for those
graduating with master’s degrees or higher
from a U.S. college or university. An employer
must sponsor individuals for the visa.
86. Ans: A
Exp:
Dickinsonia is the name of an extinct genus
of soft-bodied, ancient organisms from the
Ediacaran biota. These organisms are
considered to be the first complex non-
photosynthesizing multicellular organisms to
exist on Earth during the late Precambrian
period. Dickinsonia fossils exhibit unique,
flattened and segmented body structures, but
their exact biological affinity and classification
remain a subject of scientific debate.
87. Ans: B
Exp:
Mahadeo Govind Ranade played a crucial
role in making the Prarthana Samaj a
nationwide movement and giving it an all-
India character. He joined the Prarthana
Samaj in 1870 and contributed significantly to
its popularity and work. His efforts were
instrumental in expanding the influence and
reach of the Prarthana Samaj beyond Bombay,
making it a movement with a broader national
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impact. Ranade's work was pivotal in
advancing the social and reformist aspects of
the Prarthana Samaj, emphasising social
reforms and addressing issues like caste,
women's education, widow remarriage and the
age of marriage.
88. Ans: B
Exp:
Jagannath Shankarsheth was a philanthropist
and social reformer who played a leading role
in promoting education in Maharashtra. He was
one of the founders of the School Society and
Native School of Bombay, which were later
renamed the Elphinstone Educational
Institution. He also provided accommodation
for a girls' school in Girgaum when Dr. Wilson,
a Scottish missionary, was unable to find a
suitable building.
Shankarsheth supported female education and
believed that it was essential for the progress of
society. He donated generously to support girls'
schools.
89. Ans: C
Exp:
Recently, the Finance Minister outlined that the
government will work in “mission mode” to
eliminate sickle cell anaemia by 2047.
Statement 1 is correct: Sickle cell anaemia is
a genetic blood disorder that affects the
E
production of red blood cells and
IN
haemoglobin (the protein in red blood cells
that carries oxygen throughout the body).
The complete “elimination” of this disorder is a
L
big challenge that requires major scientific
N
breakthroughs. The only cure comes in the form
of gene therapy and stem cell transplant - both
.O
costly and still in developmental stages.
Statement 2 is correct: People with sickle cell
anaemia have abnormal haemoglobin that
L
causes their red blood cells to become rigid
IA
and shaped like a crescent or sickle. These
abnormally shaped cells can get stuck in small
blood vessels, causing a variety of
R
complications.
E
90. Ans: D
T
Exp:
A
Balshastri Jambhekar was a pioneer of social
reform through journalism in Bombay. He
M
started the newspaper Darpan in 1832,
considered to be the first Marathi newspaper.

Jambhekar used the Darpan to awaken the
people to an awareness of social reforms, such
as widow remarriage, and to instil in the masses
a scientific approach to life. He also founded
the Bombay Native General Library and started
the Native Improvement Society. He was the
first professor of Hindi at Elphinstone College.
In 1840, he started Digdarshan, which
published articles on scientific subjects as well
as history.
Udant Martand was the first Hindi-language
newspaper published in India. It was started
on 30 May 1826 from Calcutta. It was
published every Tuesday by Pt. Jugal
Kishore Shukla.
91. Ans: A
Exp:
The Prime Minister paid tribute to Swami
Dayanand Saraswati on his 200th birth
anniversary.
Swami Dayananda Sarasvati founded the
Arya Samaj in 1875, championing the
supreme authority of the Vedas and initiating a
reform movement within traditional Hinduism.
The Arya Samaj also contributed greatly to the
reawakening of a spirit of Indian nationalism in
pre-Independence days. He opposed child
marriage and advocated the remarriage of
widows. His magnum opus, Satyarth
Prakash, emphasised the “return to Vedic
principles”. He gave the slogan of ‘ Go back to
the Vedas’. However, he was opposed to
idolatry, ritual and priesthood, particularly to
the prevalent caste practices and popular
Hinduism as preached by the Brahmins. The
use of Hindi in his writings and preachings
made his ideas accessible to the common
people of northern India. Arya Samaj tried to
inculcate the spirit of self-respect and self-
reliance among the people of India. It
prescribed a purificatory ceremony called
Suddhi for those Hindus who had been
converted to other religions like Islam and
Christianity. The DAV (Dayanand Anglo
Vedic) schools came into existence in 1886 to
realise the vision of Swami Dayanand
Saraswati.
92. Ans: A
Exp:
Gopal Baba Walangkar was born in a Dalit
family in Maharashtra. He faced discrimination
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and oppression throughout his life, which
motivated him to fight for the rights of Dalits.
He founded the Anarya Dosh-Parihar
Mandali to work for the social and economic
upliftment of Dalits. The organisation worked
to educate Dalits, promote self-help and fight
against caste-based discrimination.
Walangkar was also a prolific writer and
journalist. He wrote extensively on the issue of
caste and untouchability. He founded the
newspaper Vital Vidhvasak, which became a
leading voice of the Dalit movement.
93. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Marginal Cost of
Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) was
introduced on April 1, 2016, to determine
rates of interest for loans. It is the minimum
interest rate below which banks cannot lend.
The MCLR system superseded the previous
base rate mechanism in determining
commercial bank lending rates.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the MCLR
regime, banks decide on the interest rate
which they will offer to borrowers on the
basis of the marginal cost at which they get
funds, through borrowing from the RBI. MCLR
is closely linked to the actual deposit rates and
is calculated based on four components: the
marginal cost of funds, negative carry on
E
account of cash reserve ratio, operating costs
IN
and tenor premium.
94. Ans: D
L
Exp:
N
Statement 1 is incorrect: Jyotirao Phule was
given the title of Mahatma in 1888, but it was
.O
not by Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He received
this title from another prominent
Maharashtrian social reformer, Vithalrao
L
Krishnaji Vandekar. This title of "Mahatma"
IA
was a mark of recognition and respect for
Jyotirao Phule's significant contributions to
social reform, education and the upliftment of
R
marginalised communities in Maharashtra.
E
Statement 2 is incorrect: Jyotirao Phule used
the symbol of Rajah Bali, not Hanuman, as
T
opposed to the Brahmins’ symbol of Rama.
A
Rajah Bali was a mythical king who was
defeated by the god Vishnu. In Phule's
M
interpretation, Rajah Bali represented the
 27

oppressed castes who were defeated by the

Brahmins.
Statement 3 is incorrect: After Jyotirao
Phule's death in 1890, the Satya Shodhak Samaj
was weakened by internal divisions. Jyotirao
Phule's wife, Savitribai Phule, took over the
Satya Shodhak Samaj after his death and
continued to work for social reforms. Savitribai
Phule tried to revive the organisation, but she
died in 1897. It is Savitribai who wrote
poetry, and two of her collections are
Kavyaphule and Bavankashi Subodh
Ratnakar.

95. Ans: B
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Global Quality
Infrastructure Index (GQII) program is an
initiative of the independent consulting firms
Mesopartner and Analyticar to research and
disseminate data on Quality Infrastructure. The
GQII ranks the 184 economies in the world on
the basis of quality infrastructure (QI). It is
supported by Physikalisch-Technische
Bundesanstalt (PTB) and the Federal Ministry 96. Ans: C
for Economic Cooperation and Development Exp:
(BMZ), Germany. Babasaheb Ambedkar, a prominent Indian
Statement 2 is correct: The GQII measures the jurist, social reformer and the chief architect of
relative development of countries quality the Indian Constitution, founded several
infrastructure. It calculates a score for each newspapers during his lifetime to promote
country based on its position in the sub- social and political awareness among

E
rankings for metrology, standards and marginalised communities.

IN
accreditation. India’s overall QI system Mooknayak: This was one of the earliest
ranking continues to be in the Top 10 at the newspapers started by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
10th position, with the standardisation system "Mooknayak" translates to "The Leader of the
L
(under BIS) at 9th and the metrology system at Dumb”.
N

21st position in the world. Bahishkrit Bharat: Another important

newspaper founded by Dr. Ambedkar,
.O

"Bahishkrit Bharat" means "The Excluded

India." It was started in 1927.
Vital Vidhvasak: Gopal Baba Walangkar
L

became the first Dalit to launch a newspaper,

IA

the Vital Vidhvasak (Destroyer of Brahmanical

or Ceremonial Pollution).
Kudi Arasu: "Kudi Arasu" was founded by
R

Periyar E.V. Ramasamy, a prominent social

E

reformer from Tamil Nadu. Periyar was a

significant figure in the Dravidian movement
T

and a strong advocate for social justice and the

A

eradication of caste-based discrimination.

M

97. Ans: C
Exp:
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Recently, the Rajya Sabha Chairman directed
the Privileges Committee, to investigate the
“disorderly conduct” by 12 Opposition
Members of Parliament.
Statement 1 is correct: The functions of this
committee on parliamentary privileges are
semi-judicial in nature. It examines the cases
of breach of privileges of the House and its
members and recommends appropriate action.
The Committee of Privileges assesses
individual cases to determine if they involve a
breach of privilege and then provides
appropriate recommendations in its report.
Statement 2 is correct: There are two
separate committees of privileges, one each
for the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The
Lok Sabha committee has 15 members, while
the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members.
The reports of the Committee are presented to
both Houses from time to time by the Chairman
of the Committee or, in his absence, by any
member of the Committee.
98. Ans: D
Exp:
The Brahmo Samaj was a monotheistic reform
movement within Hinduism that was founded
by Raja Rammohan Roy in 1828. It rejected
idolatry, the caste system and other social evils.
The Brahmo Samaj also believed in the
importance of reason and individual
conscience, and it was open to the teachings of
other religions, including Christianity and
Islam.
The Brahmo Samaj did not believe in the
infallibility of the Vedas, the Hindu scriptures.
Instead, it believed that the Vedas should be
interpreted rationally and that their teachings
should be reconciled with modern knowledge.
Key beliefs of the Brahmo Samaj:
• Monotheism: The Brahmo Samaj
believed in one God, who is the creator
and preserver of the universe.
• Rejection of idolatry: The Brahmo
Samaj rejected the worship of idols and
images.
• Opposition to the caste system: The
Brahmo Samaj believed that all people
are equal in the eyes of God and that the
caste system is unjust and
discriminatory.
• Importance of reason and individual
conscience: The Brahmo Samaj
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28
believed that reason and individual
conscience should be used to interpret
the Vedas and other religious texts.
• Openness to other religions: The
Brahmo Samaj was open to the
teachings of other religions, including
Christianity and Islam.
99. Ans: B
Exp:
The Supreme Court refused to set aside a
provision in the election law that allows
candidates to contest polls from two
constituencies simultaneously.
Some provisions of the Representation of
People’s Act 1950 are as:
• Delimitation of constituencies.
Hence, Option 1 is correct
• The allocation of seats in the House of
the People and in the Legislative
Assemblies and Legislative Councils
of States.
• The preparation of electoral rolls
and the manner of filling seats.
Hence, Option 2 is correct
• The qualification of voters.
Some of the provisions of the Representation
of People’s Act 1951 are:
• Details about the structure of
administrative machinery for the
conduct of elections.
E
• Qualifications and disqualifications
IN
for membership of both the houses of
parliament. Hence, Option 3 is
incorrect
L
• Conduct of elections of the Houses of
N
Parliament and to the House or Houses
of the Legislature of each State. Hence,
.O
Option 4 is incorrect
• Corrupt practices and other offences at
or in connection with such elections
L
and the decision of doubts and disputes
IA
arising out of or in connection with
such elections.
R
100. Ans: B
E
Exp:
The Delhi High Court has stayed proceedings
T
under the Protection of Women against
A
Domestic Violence Act in a case where a man
moved a local court accusing his wife of
M
adultery. The Court took a prima facie view that
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protection under the Domestic Violence Act is

not available to the husband.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Protection Officer”
means an officer appointed by the State
Government (not the Central Government)
under the Domestic Violence Act, 2005.

Some Provisions of the Domestic Violence Act

are:
• Qualifications and Experience of
Protection Officers: Protection
Officers are appointed by the State
Government who must be preferably
women as far as possible and shall
possess requisite qualifications and
experience as may be prescribed under
the Act.
• Protection Officers have to assist the
Magistrate in order to discharge their
duties in accordance with the Act.
• Rights of Victims: Police officers are
required to inform the victim about her
rights to make an application for
receiving relief by way of a protection
order, order for monetary relief, custody
order, residence order, compensation
order, etc.
Statement 2 is correct: The Domestic
Violence Act, of 2005, covers various forms of
violence. Physical abuse, sexual abuse,

E
verbal abuse, emotional abuse, as well as
economic abuse are covered under this

IN
Act. It provides protection and legal remedies
to victims who may be experiencing any of L
these types of violence in a domestic
relationship. There is also a Provision of Shelter
N

Homes under the act.

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