Science

Name : Aike Khit Paing

Class : OL 21
Date : 11.12..2023

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This test consists of 40 questions.

Use the following information for Questions 1 and 2.

This figure shows how the two leading causes of death have changed between 1950 and 2014.

1. According to the figure and the given information, which of the following is a true statement?
(A) Cancer is now the leading cause of death.
(B) The number of deaths due to heart disease has more than doubled since 1950.
(C) Although heart disease is still the leading cause of death, the number of deaths due to
cancer has increased steadily since 1950.
(D) The number of deaths via cancer was approximately the same in 2014 as it was in 1960.

2. By approximately what percent did the number of deaths due to cancer increase since 1950?
(A) 0%
(B) 50%
(C) 100%
(D) 200%

3. Use the following information for Question3.

Sometimes, as different species evolve, they adapt in similar ways to their environment. This
occasionally results in different animals developing different body parts that perform the same
function, even though they may look very different from each other. These body parts are known as
analogous structures.

Which of the following are analogous structures?

(A) the hive of a bee colony and the ant hill of an ant colony
(B) the wing of an eagle and the wing of a bee
(C) the foot of a baby and the foot of an adult

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 (D) the tail of a fish and the stomach of a cow
4. Use the following information for Question 4.
Evolutionary fitness is determined by how much an individual contributes to the gene pool of the next
generation. The more living offspring an individual produces, the fitter that individual is.

According to this definition, which of the following individuals is currently the fittest?

(A) A childless man who can bench press over 400 pounds and run a marathon in less than 3 hours.
(B) A 29-year-old woman who has four healthy children.
(C) A 59-year-old woman with diabetes who has had six miscarriages but has five children.
(D) A healthy 5-year-old child who has never been sick.

Use the following information for Questions 5 through 8.

A pharmaceutical company was testing out a new drug that was intended to lower blood pressure in
diabetic patients. Two groups of volunteers were assembled. Group 1 consisted of 200 men, whereas
Group 2 consisted of 200 women. All of the trial’s participants were diabetics between the ages of 20
and 50 with similar lifestyles, diet, and general health. Group 2 was given the trial drug, while Group 1
was given a sugar pill as a placebo (fake pill).

5. Which of the following is true about the experimental drug trial?

(A) Both groups were control groups.
(B) Both groups were experimental groups.
(C) Group 2 was the experimental group, and Group 1 was the control group.
(D) Group 1 was the experimental group, and Group 2 was the control group.

6. If the results of the experiment showed no change in the blood pressure for the members of
either group, what conclusion can be made?
(A) The drug does not lower blood pressure in either men or women.
(B) The drug does not lower blood pressure in men.
(C) The drug does not lower blood pressure in women.
(D) The drug may lower blood pressure in men.

7. Which of the following could lead to an error in this experiment? (A) One of the groups was not
given any real medication.
(B) All of the participants had diabetes.
(C) There were too many participants in each group.
(D) The members of the experimental group and the control group were not similar enough.

8. How could the design of the experiment be improved to eliminate this potential source of error?
(A) Give the members of both groups the medication.
(B) Choose only participants who do not have diabetes.
(C) Reduce the number of participants in each group to 20 each.
(D) Swap 100 of the males from Group 1 with 100 of the females from Group 2.

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Questions 9 through 12 are based on the following information.
Pea plants produce two types of seeds: round seeds or wrinkled seeds. A gardener cross-breeds two
pea plants and draws a Punnett square (shown in the figure below) where (R) represents the dominant
allele for round seeds and (r) represents the allele for wrinkly seeds. The outside of the square displays
the genes of the parents, whereas the inside of the square shows the genes of the potential offspring.

9. What is the probability that their offspring will have wrinkled seeds?
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%

10. Based on the given Punnett square, which of the following is a true statement?
(A) Both parent plants are homozygous.
(B) Both parent plants are heterozygous.
(C) One parent plant is heterozygous, and the other is homozygous.
(D) Neither parent plant is heterozygous or homozygous.

11. If the gardener cross-breeds two pea plants that have wrinkly seeds, what is the probability that
their offspring will have round seeds?
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%

12. If the gardener cross-breeds two pea plants that are heterozygous, what is the probability that
their offspring will have round seeds?
(A) 0%
(B) 25%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%

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13. A parasite is an organism that relies on another organism, called the host, to survive. The
parasite always causes harm to the host organism. Which of the following is an example of a
parasite?

(A) humming birds that drink nectar from flowers and spread the pollen from one flower to
another
(B) natural bacteria in the human intestines that produce vitamin K
(C) a dog that relies on its owner for food and shelter
(D) a hookworm that lives in the intestines of a human and drinks blood, depriving the human
of nutrients

14. Use the following information for Questions 14.

The graph shows how the concentration (amount per unit volume) changes with time. What
information can be obtained from the data?

(A) The amount of reactant does not change with time

(B) The amount of product is decreasing
(C) The amount of reactant first decreases and then stays constant.
(D) After 500 seconds, all of the reactant is used.

15. The following table shows the pH of several substances.

Which of the substances is/are acidic?

(A) water
(B) baking soda
(C) vinegar and baking soda
(D) lime juice and vinegar

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Use the following information for Questions 16 through 19.

The following graph shows how the solubility of three different substances in water varies as the
temperature of the water varies. Substances A and B are gases. Substance C is a solid.

16. What is the solubility of substance B at 20 degrees Celsius?

(A) 0.5 grams per liter
(B) 1.0 grams per liter
(C) 1.5 grams per liter
(D) 2.0 grams per liter

17. Based upon the graph, as the temperature of the water increases, the solubility of
(A) both gases and solids appear to increase.
(B) both gases and solids appear to decrease.
(C) gases appear to increase, but the solubility of solids appears to decrease.
(D) gases appear to decrease, but the solubility of solids appears to increase.

18. Which change of state occurs when a liquid is cooled and the particles lose energy and stop
moving?

(A) liquefaction
(B) solidification
(C) evaporation
(D) condensation

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19. The table gives the arrangement of in the atoms of four different element. Which element does
not form an ionic compound with chlorine?

20. DNA, made up of nucleotides, is responsible for:

(A) providing food for the cell
(B) transporting water
(C) genetic coding of traits
(D) digestion

Use the following information for Questions 21 through 23.

During a chemical reaction, the reactants are changed into the products. The following graph shows the
potential energy stored in the chemical bonds at various stages of the reaction.

21. Which of the following statements correctly interprets the graph?

(A) The kinetic energy is initially high.
(B) The amount of potential energy drops midway through the reaction.
(C) The products have less potential energy than the reactants.
(D) The products have more potential energy than the reactants.

22. What type of reaction is this?

(A) endothermic reaction
(B) exothermic reaction
(C) fission reaction
(D) fusion reaction

23. How does a catalyst speed up the reaction?

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 (A) It decreases the activation energy, making it easier for the reactants to turn into products.
(B) It increases the activation energy, making it harder for the reactants to turn into products.
(C) It increases the activation energy, making it easier for the products to turn back into
reactants.
(D) It makes the reaction go backward.

24. The Earth’s magnetic field is caused by the rotation of the liquid magma around the Earth’s iron
core. Over the years, changes in this /rotation have caused the Earth’s magnetic North Pole to
shift position from its earliest recorded position in northern Canada to its current position today.

What can you infer from this information?

(A) Earth’s magnetic core is shifting toward the plant’s surface.
(B) All magnets are made of iron.
(C) Earth’s magnetic poles are at different locations than the geographic poles.
(D) A compass will no longer be affected by the Earth’s magnetic field.

25. What is the main genetic advantage that sexual reproduction has over asexual reproduction?
(A) Sexual reproduction produces a greater variety of offspring.
(B) Sexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to each other.
(C) Sexual reproduction results in more offspring per parent.
(D) Sexual reproduction is easier to accomplish.

26. Which of the following would you use to best view the features of the moon’s surface?
(A) an electron microscope
(B) a lens with a short focal length
(C) a telescope
(D) the naked eye

Use the following information for Questions 27 through 31.

There were three finalists in a soapbox car race. Contestant 1 built his car out of aluminum, Contestant
2 built his car from steel, and Contestant 3 built his car from wood. Each car was the same size. The
contestants all started from rest at the top of a hill that is 20 meters higher than the finish line at the
bottom of the hill.

If friction and air resistance are ignored, the conservation of energy states that the loss in potential
energy equals the gain in kinetic energy (motion energy).

In order to calculate each contestant’s potential energy and gained kinetic energy, the mass of each
car, the mass of each driver, and the final velocity reached by each contestant were recorded in this
table.

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27. Which material is the heaviest?
(A) wood
(B) steel
(C) aluminum
(D) The materials all weigh the same.

28. Which contestant had the most potential energy at the beginning of the race?
(A) Contestant 1
(B) Contestant 2
(C) Contestant 3
(D) Each contestant began with the same potential energy.

29. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) Contestant 3 has the greatest ratio of car mass to driver mass, and Contestant 2 has the
smallest ratio of car mass to driver mass.
(B) Contestant 1 has the greatest ratio of car mass to driver mass, and Contestant 3 has the
smallest ratio of car mass to driver mass.
(C) Contestant 2 has the greatest ratio of car mass to driver mass, and Contestant 1 has the
smallest ratio of car mass to driver mass.
(D) Contestant 2 has the greatest ratio of car mass to driver mass, and Contestant 3 has the
smallest ratio of car mass to driver mass.

30. What is the gained kinetic energy of Contestant 1 at the end of the race?
(A) 60 J
(B) 600 J
(C) 6,000 J
(D) 12,000 J

31. Which of the following is a true statement?

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 (A) The car driven by Contestant 1 was the most efficient because it converted more of its
kinetic energy into potential energy.
(B) The car driven by Contestant 1 was the most efficient because it converted more of its
potential energy into kinetic energy.
(C) The car driven by Contestant 2 was the most efficient because it converted more of its
kinetic energy into potential energy.
(D) The car driven by Contestant 3 was the most efficient because it converted more of its
potential energy into kinetic energy.

32. A rocket of total mass M is travelling at a speed v. The engine of the rocket is fired and fuel is
used up. The mass of the rocket decreases to M / 2 and its speed increases to 2v. What happens
to the kinetic energy of the rocket?
(A) it doubles
(B) it halves
(C) it increases by a factor of four
(D) it stays the same

Use the following information for Questions 33 through 38.

The nucleus of an atom consists of protons (which are positively charged) and neutrons (which are
neutral). The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of protons. Each element has a unique
atomic number. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus is known as the atomic
mass number.

Atoms also contain electrons, which are found in energy shells that surround the nucleus of the atom.
Because the number of electrons (which are negatively charged) is equal to the number of positively
charged protons, the atom has zero charge.

The first energy shell holds a maximum of 2 electrons. The second energy shell can hold a maximum of
8 electrons. The number of electrons found in the outermost shell is known as the number of valence
electrons. Only the valance electrons are involved in chemical reactions.

The atomic structures of three elements, sodium (Na), hydrogen (H), and fluorine (F), are shown in the
following table.

33. What is the atomic number of fluorine?

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 (A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 19
(D) 28

34. What is the atomic mass number of sodium?

(A) 11
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 34

35. A scientist is trying to determine the identity of an unknown element whose atoms contain 9
protons, 9 electrons, and 12 neutrons. Which of the following correctly determines the element’s
identity and gives the appropriate reasoning behind the determination?
(A) sodium, because the atom contains 12 neutrons
(B) fluorine, because the atom contains 9 electrons
(C) hydrogen, because the atom contains the same number of electrons and protons
(D) fluorine, because the atom contains 9 protons

36. Which element has the same value for its atomic number and atomic mass number?
(A) sodium
(B) hydrogen
(C) fluorine
(D) No element has the same value for its atomic number and atomic mass number.

37. Which of the following is a true statement?

(A) Sodium contains 1 valence electron, whereas fluorine contains 7 valence electrons.
(B) Sodium contains 11 valence electrons, whereas fluorine contains 9 valence electrons.
(C) Sodium contains 1 valence electron, whereas fluorine contains 9 valence electrons.
(D) Sodium contains 9 valence electrons, whereas fluorine contains 7 valence electrons.

38. What will happen if a sodium atom loses an electron?

(A) Its charge would become negative.
(B) Its charge would become positive.
(C) Its charge would remain neutral.
(D) The charge is impossible to determine without further information.

39. Use the following information for Questions 39.

According to scientists, the sun has existed for 4.6 billion years. The sun produces energy by a nuclear
conversion of hydrogen into helium.

When hydrogen runs out, according to this theory, the sun will expand, engulfing Earth and other
planets. Not to worry—the expansion will not affect us, since the sun has enough hydrogen for another
4.6 billion years. When it expands, the sun will become what is called a red giant star. In another 500

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million years, the sun will shrink to the current size of the Earth and will be called a white dwarf,
cooling down for several billion years. According to the passage, the sun will eventually

(A) expand and then shrink.

(B) shrink and then expand
(C) shrink and then run out of helium.
(D) expand because it ran out of helium.

40. According to the graph, in which atmospheric layers does temperature decrease as altitude
increases?

(A) mesosphere and exosphere

(B) troposphere and thermosphere
(C) stratosphere and thermosphere
(D) troposphere and mesosphere

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