NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Apr-24) 8527521718

Physics - Section A 5 In the following figures, there is a triangle of glass

in the air. Which figure best shows the refracted ray of
1 What is the ratio of the frequency of a simple light?
pendulum on the Earth to that of an identical pendulum
on the Moon?
(The force of gravity is six times weaker on the Moon 1. 2.
than on the Earth).
1. 36 : 1
2. 6 : 1
3. √6 : 1
4. 1 : 1
3. 4.
2 The equivalent resistance of the following circuit
(in ohms) is equal to x

7
. What is the value of x?

6 A piece of soft iron is placed within the coils of a

solenoid, the current through the solenoid being
sufficiently large so that the iron is completely
magnetised. If the current is increased further the
magnetic field within the iron will:
1. remain constant
2. increase slightly
3. increase proportionately with the current
1. 14 4. decrease
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16
7 Consider the following statements.
A body is in translational equilibrium if the net force
A:
3 Among the following numerical values, which one on it is zero.
has three significant figures? A body is in rotational equilibrium if the net torque
B:
1. 0.300 about any point is zero.
2. 30.30 Choose the correct statements:
3. 0.030 1. (A) only
4. 3.033 2. (B) only
3. both (A) and (B)
4 When a nucleus undergoes α-decay, 4. neither (A) nor (B)
1. the atomic number increases
2. the mass number decreases 8 A NAND and a NOR gate are connected in series,
3. the proton number increases as follows:
4. the neutron number increases

The output Y is equal to:

1. A AND B
2. A OR B
3. A NAND B
4. A NOR B

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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9 A uniform circular loop is connected to the 12 Two small pipes are inserted into a water tank, and
terminals of a battery. The net magnetic field at the the depths of water d1 and d2 are in the ratio
centre of the loop is: d : d = 1 : 4.1 2

1.
μ0 i
2.
μ0 i
(θ) (2π − θ)
4πR 4πR
The cross-sections of the pipes '1' and '2' are A1 , A2 ,
μ0 i
3.
2π−θ
( ) 4. zero A1 4
2R 2π where = . The volume flowing per second
A2 1

through the pipes are V 1, V2 . The ratio V 1 /V2

equals:
10 The mutual inductance between the two circuits can 1
1.
be determined by simply letting a current i flow through 2

one circuit and finding the flux of the magnetic field 2. 1

4
through the second circuit: ϕ = M i , where M is
2 12 1 12 2

the mutual inductance. Using this method, or otherwise 3. 1

determine the mutual inductance (M ) between a long 4. 4

straight wire, and a small coplanar loop of the area A, 1

located at a distance l from the wire. The value of M is:

μ0 l μ0 A
13 Two long parallel wires carrying currents I and I 1 2

1. 2π
2. 2πl give a magnetic field of 3 G at a point exactly mid-way
3.
μ0 l
3

4.
μ0 A
2
between the two wires. When one of the currents is
4πA 2πl
3
reversed, the field becomes 5 G. The ratio of the large
current to the smaller one is:
11 The upper end of a wire of length 2 m and radius 2 1. 2 2.
4

mm is clamped. The lower end is twisted through an 3

3.
3

angle of 45 . The angle of shear is:

∘
2
4. 4

1. 0.09 ∘

2. 0.045 14 The gravitational force between two objects:

∘

3. 0.9
∘

occurs only when the objects have very different

4. 4.5
∘
1.
masses
2. is greater on the more massive of the two objects
3. is not an attractive force
increases in magnitude as the two objects approach
4.
each other

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

15 The ammeter, which is connected in the circuit, 18 A metallic sphere (A) is charged to a potential of
gives a reading of 0.99 A; the internal resistance of the 12 V and then placed in contact with an identical
ammeter being 0.1 Ω. The correct reading uncharged metallic sphere (B); the two spheres are
(approximately), had the ammeter been ideal, would be: separated. The process is repeated: the first sphere (A)
is again charged to 12 V and placed in contact with
sphere B. The final potential of B is (after it is
separated):
1. 6 V
2. 12 V
3. 9 V
4. 18 V

19 One mole of rigid diatomic gas performs a work of

Q
when heat Q is supplied to it. The molar heat
1. 1 A
5

capacity of the gas during this transformation is:

2. 11 A
1.
15
2.
5
R R
3. 2.01 A 8 8

4. 10 A 3.
25
R 4.
5
R
8 7

16 A particle is projected at an angle of with the

∘
30
20 A sinusoidal waveform whose displacement is given
ground at a speed of 40 m/s. The speed of the particle
by:
after two seconds is: (use g = 10 m/s2) x t
y(x, t) = (5 mm) sin 2π( + )
1. 20√2 m/s 2 m 0.01 s

2. 20√3 m/s propagates along the x-axis. The wavelength of the

3. 20 m/s waveform is:
4. 10√3 m/s 1.
2π
2. 1
m 2
m 2

17 A calorimeter contains 100 g water, and its initial 3.

2
m 4. 2 m
2π
temperature is 50 C, as measured by a sensitive
∘

thermometer. 100 g of another liquid B, having half the 21 Given below are two statements:
specific heat of water, is added to it and the system is
allowed to come to equilibrium. Assume no loss of heat Within a glass slab, a double-convex air
in the process and ignore the thermal capacity of the Statement I: bubble is formed. This air bubble
calorimeter. The final temperature is found to be 50 C. ∘ behaves like a converging lens.
The initial temperature, of the liquid B, is: The refractive index of air is more than
Statement II:
1. 25 C
∘
the refractive index of glass.
2. 50 C
∘

3. 100 C∘
1. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
4. 75 C
∘

2. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

22 A block of mass m is released from rest and falls to

the ground in time t. The average power due to gravity
acting on it is:
1. mg t 2

1
2. mg t
2

2
1
3. mg t
2

4. 2mg 2
t

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

23 Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the 25 Two identical particles, each having mass m, are
correct match from the given choices. moving toward each other with velocities 2v and v. The
Column-I Column-II velocity of their centre-of-mass will be:
Root mean square speed of gas 1. v
A. P. 1 2
¯
¯¯

molecules 3
nmv
2. 2v
3.v

2
B. Pressure exerted by an ideal gas Q. √ 3RT

M 4. zero
C. Average kinetic energy of a molecule R.
5
RT
2
26 An elevator moving up is decelerating at m/s2.1
Total internal energy of 1 mole of a
D. S. 3
kB T Then, the apparent weight of a 50 kg man, on a
diatomic gas 2

Codes: weighing machine, will be: (Take g = 10 m/s2)

1. A - R, B - Q, C - P, D - S
2. A - R, B - P, C - S, D - Q
3. A - Q, B - R, C - S, D - P
4. A - Q, B - P, C - S, D - R

24 A book (mass = 4 kg) is hanging by a string

connected to a rope at point B. One end of the rope is
connected to the wall at point A, and the other end is
pulled by a person at point C with a tension T . The rope 1. 55 kg 2. 45 kg
from A to B is 1.5 m long and horizontal, while the rope 3. 40 kg 4. none of the above
from B to C makes an angle 30 with the horizontal.
∘

See figure, in which we take counter-clockwise to be 27 Which of the following electromagnetic waves has
positive and use g = 10 m/s2 if required. the highest energy?
1. X-rays
2. Infrared
3. Microwaves
4. radio waves

What is the torque due to the weight of the book about

point B?
1. −60 N-m
2. −30 N-m
3. 0 N-m
4. 60 N-m

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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28 An ideal gas is taken from state A to state B along 30 Light of wavelength 4000 A˚ is incident on a metal
two different paths: whose work function is 2.0 eV. The fastest photo-
(i) the direct isothermal path AB. electrons emitted have an energy of:
the path ACB, where AC is isochoric and CB is (Take hc = 12400 eV-A ˚
)
(ii) 1. 0.5 eV
isobaric.
These paths are shown on the standard P − V indicator 2. 3.1 eV
diagram. The temperature at C is 300 K. 3. 1.1 eV
4. 2 eV

31 From the velocity-time -

(v t) plot shown in the
figure, what is the distance travelled by the particle
during the first 40 s?

The temperature of the gas at B is:

1. 300 K 2. 600 K
300 K
3. (300 K) ln 2 4.
ln 2

29 Which of the following graphs correctly represents 1. zero

the variation of charge, q and energy stored, U in a 2. 100 m
capacitor? 3. 150 m
4. 200 m

32 A tuning fork vibrates at a frequency of 256 Hz.

What would be the minimum length of a closed organ
1 2.
pipe that resonates with the tuning fork?
(take the speed of sound in air = 360 ms-1)
1. 35.1 cm
2. 38.1 cm
3. 70.2 cm
4. 82.2 cm

3. 4.

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

33 A simple pendulum consists of a bob of mass m

35 The repulsive force on two equal charges which are
attached to a suspension point O by means of a light separated in vacuum by a distance of 1 km is 9 kN. The
string of length l. It is set oscillating, as shown in the magnitude of each charge is:
figure. The tension in the string, when the bob is at its 1. 2 C
lowest point, is (i.e. at B): 2. 1 C
3. 0.9 C
4. 0.3 C

Physics - Section B
36 In the circuit shown in the figure, the two diodes
D1 , D2 are considered to be ideal.

1. mg
mg
2.
2

3. less than mg
4. greater than mg

34 Two blocks A & B of equal masses are connected If a positive voltage is applied at A and B then the
by means of a light string passing over a smooth voltage at C will be:
pulley: block A being held on a smooth horizontal 1. positive
plane, while B hangs vertically. The system is released 2. negative
from rest. The speed of the block B, after it falls through 3. zero
2
20 cm, is: (Take g = 10 m/s ) 4. oscillatory

1. 1 m/s
2. 2 m/s
3. √2 m/s
1
4. m/s
√2

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

37 Light waves ˚
(λ = 5000 A) are incident onto the 39 Three identical charges (q each) are placed at the
double-slit in Young's double slit experiment. The three vertices A, B, C of an equilateral triangle of side
separation of the two slits is 0.1 mm, and the slit-screen a. Let O be the centre (centroid) of the triangle ABC
distance is 50 cm. The central maximum is formed at the and O be the reflection of O in BC. The electric field at
′

location where the 10th maximum should have been O, due to any one of the charges, is E. The net field at
formed, had the incident beam been normal to the plane O , due to all the three charges, is:
′

of the slits. The angle (θ), made by the beam with the
normal, is:

1. 0.1 radian
2. 0.05 radian 1. 2E 2.
3E

3. 0.1 degree 2

4E 5E
4. 0.05 degree 3. 4.
3 4

38 A block of wood of mass 5 kg floats on water. A 40 For the given, LCR series circuit: X = 130 Ω,
L

small block of lead of mass 3 kg is added on top of the

X = 80 Ω and R = 80 Ω. The value of the power
wooden block and the wooden block is completely factor of the circuit is:
C

submerged. The force exerted by water on the wooden

block is: (Take g = 10 m/s )
2

1. 50 N
2. 30 N
3. 20 N
4. 80 N

√54
1. 9

2.
8

√89

3.
8

13

4. 7

41 A ray of light falling onto a hemispherical mirror,

gets reflected 3 times and emerges antiparallel (i.e.,
opposite to the incoming direction). The angle of
incidence of the ray, on the mirror, is:
1. 90 ∘

2. 60 ∘

3. 45 ∘

4. 30 ∘

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

42 A man walks in the rain, where the raindrops are 45 Given below are two statements:
falling vertically down at a constant speed of 4 m/s The ratio R /T , where R is the radius
3 2

relative to ground. Let the relative velocity of a droplet of the orbit and T is the time period in
with respect to man be v and let it make an angle θ
r r Assertion (A): the orbit of a satellite of the earth,
with the vertical. Then: depends only on the mass of the earth,
1. v = 4 cos θ m/s
r r and not on that of the satellite.
2. v = 4 sin θ m/s
r r
This can be easily concluded by the
3. v = 4 sec θ m/s
r r
application of Newton's law of
4. v = 4 cosecθ m/s
r r
Reason (R): gravitation together with Newton's laws
of motion to the motion of the satellite
43 Light having a wavelength of ˚
11000 A is incident in orbit.
onto a Si-wafer, where the band-gap is 1.1 eV. Take the
value of h = 12430 eV-A/ ˚
c (for this problem). If the Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
light is absorbed, then: 1.
explanation of (A).
1. electron-hole pairs will be produced Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
2. no electron-hole pairs can be produced explanation of (A).
3. electrons will be emitted 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. holes will be emitted 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

44 A block of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 46 Consider the digital logic circuit shown in the
3 m/s undergoes a collision with a second block of mass diagram.
2 kg, at rest. After the collision, the two blocks move

together.

The impulse delivered to the 2 kg block, in the collision, If C is TRUE, then the output Y is:
is: 1. TRUE
1. 3 N-s 2. FALSE
2. 5 N-s 3. A AND B
3. 2 N-s 4. A OR B
4. 1 N-s
th
47 The radius of the orbit corresponding to the 4

excited state in Li -ion is:

++

(where a is the radius of the first orbit in the hydrogen

0

atom)
1. a
25
0
3

2. a
16
0
3

3. 25a 0

4. 12a 0

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

48 Two parallel, smooth, horizontal conducting rails Chemistry - Section A

are laid at a distance 2 m apart. The rails are connected
by a 100 Ω resistance. A conducting rod XY is slid 51 Which species among the following exhibits the
smoothly over the rails, making electrical contact and
highest electron affinity?
moving with a constant velocity of 10 m/s. A uniform –
magnetic field (B) of 10 T acts vertically downward, 1. F
−2

into the plane. 2. O–

3. O
4. Na

52 Given a system: A(s) ⇌ 2B(g) + 3C(g).

If the concentration of C at eqilibrium is increased by a

factor 2, it will cause the eqilibrium concentration of B
to change to:
1. two times of its original value
2. one half of its original value
3. 2√2 times of its original value
4.
1
times of its original value
The emf acting across the rod XY is: 2√2

1. 1 V
2. 2 V 53 The number of possible geometrical isomers for the
3. 0.1 V square planar complex [Pd(py)(Cl)(Br) (NH )] is: 3

4. 0.2 V (py = pyridine)

1. 2
49 The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron 2. 4
accelerated through a potential difference V equals the 3. 5
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the ground state 4. 3
of the hydrogen atom. The value of V is:
1. 13.6 volt 54 The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water
2. 27.2 volt and ethyl alcohol is less than that of the theoretical value
3. 10.2 volt of a water and alcohol mixture. Hence, the mixture
4. 6.8 volt shows:
1. That solution is highly saturated
50 Two identical masses are connected by a spring of 2. Positive deviation from Raoult's law
spring constant k, and the individual masses are 3. Negative deviation from Raoult's law
observed to undergo SHM with their centre of mass 4. Nothing can be inferred
remaining at rest. The amplitude of oscillation of one of
the masses is A. The total energy of oscillation is: 55 The complex among the following that exhibits a
spin-only magnetic moment of 2.82 B.M. is:
1. Ni(CO)4
2. [NiCl4]2-
3. Ni(PPh3)4
4. [Ni(CN)4]2-
1
1. kA
2
2. kA
2

3. 2kA
2
4. 4kA
2

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Apr-24) 8527521718

56 60 During an electrolysis experiment, if a 100 mA

Assertion Both sulfur dioxide and chlorine serve as current is passed through a solution of AgNO3 for 30
(A): bleaching agents. minutes, how many coulombs of electricity will be
Reason (R): Both are reducing agents. consumed?
1. 108 C
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 2. 18000 C
1. 3. 180 C
explanation of (A).
4. 3000 C
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
61 Which of the following species has the highest
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
number of unpaired electrons?
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
1. Fe2+
3+
57 The molar conductivity of a solution of 2. Fe
3+
AgNO3 (considering the given data for this solution) at 3. Co
298 K is: 4. Co2+
(a) Concentration: 0.5 mol/dm3
62 What is the product formed when n-heptane is
(b) Electrolytic conductivity: 5.76×10–3 S cm–1
heated with a mixture of Cr2O3 and Al2O3 at 600°C?
1. 2.88 S cm2/mol 2. 11.52 S cm2/mol
1. Cyclohexane 2. Cyclohexene
3. 0.086 S cm2/mol 4. 28.8 S cm2/mol 3. Benzene 4. Toluene

58 For a non-stoichiometric reaction 2A + B → C

+D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three
separate experiments, all at 298 K.
Initial rate of
63 According to molecular orbital theory, arrange the
nitrogen species in each list in ascending order of bond
order:
1. N < N < N
− 2−

Initial Initial formation of C 2

2
2

Concentration (A) Concentration (B) 2. N 2−

< N < N
−

(mol L-1 S-1)

2
2 2

3. N < N
2 < N
2− −

0.1 M 0.1 M 1. 2 × 10
−3 2 2

4. N < N
−
< N
2−
2

0.1 M 0.2 M −3 2 2
1. 2 × 10

0.2 M 0.1 M 2. 4 × 10
−3
64 What substance is produced when potassium
The rate law for the formation of C is: dichromate (K2Cr2O7) is added to ethanol (C2H5OH) in
1. d[C]/dt = k[ A][B] an acidic solution?
2. d[C]/dt = k[ A]2[B] 1. C H 2. CH COOH
2 6 3

3. d[C]/dt = k[ A][B]2 3. K C H O +
2 4. C H OC H
5
−
2 5 2 5
4. d[C]/dt = k[ A]
65 Which of the following pairs share both
59 Which species among the following has the largest
isoelectronicity and isostructural characteristics?
ionic radius? − −2 −
NO , CO , ClO , SO3
1. S 2− 3 3 3

2. Cl− 1. NO , CO −

3 3
−2

3. K +
2. SO , NO
3
−

4. Ca 2+
3. ClO , CO −

3
−2

4. CO , ClO −2

3
−

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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66 If a first-order reaction reaches 60% completion 71 The IUPAC name of the given compound is:
within 60 minutes, approximately how much time would
it take for the same reaction to reach 50% completion?
(log 4=0.60, log 5=0.69)
1. 50 min
2. 45 min
3. 60 min 1. Ethanoic propanoic anhydride
4. 30 min 2. Propanoic ethanoic anhydride
3. 1-Ethanoyloxypropanone
67 The monochlorinated products (excluding stereo- 4. 3-Ethanoyloxypropan-3-one
isomers) obtained from the reaction is:
72
-
Assertion (A): [Fe(EDTA)] complex is octahedral in
shape.
Reason (R): EDTA is a hexadentate ligand.

1. 4 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
2. 5 explanation of (A).
3. 6 Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
4. 7 explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
68 What is the work done when one mole of an ideal 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
gas undergoes isothermal expansion from an initial
pressure of 10 atm to a final pressure of 1 atm at a 73 Fluorine is a strong oxidising agent because:
constant temperature of 300 K? (Gas constant = 2 calorie
1. it has several isotopes
)
2. it is very small and has 7 electrons in valency shell
1. 938.8 cal
3. its valency is one
2. 1138.8 cal
4. it is the first member of the halogen series
3. 1381.8 cal
4. 1581.8 cal
74 A mixture contains 1 mole of volatile liquid A
69 The energy of the second Bohr orbit in the H atom ( P
∘

A
and 3 moles of volatile liquid B
= 100 mm H g )

= 80 mm H g ). If solution behaves ideally, the

0
( P
is –3.41 eV. The energy of the second Bohr orbit of He+ B

total vapour pressure of the distillate is:

ion would be:
1. 85 mm Hg
1. –0.85 eV
2. 95 mm Hg
2. –13.6 eV
3. 90 mm Hg
3. –1.70 eV
4. 92 mm Hg
4. –6.82 eV

70 How many molecules among the following exhibit 75 The incorrect statement regarding ammonia is:
a non-zero dipole moment? 1. Ammonia is a colorless gas with a pungent odor.
BeF2 , BF3 , H2 O, N H3 , H Cl, CCl4 2. Ammonia is used for the manufacture of nitric acid.
1. 4 As a weak base, it precipitates the hydroxides of
3.
2. 6 many metals from their salt solutions.
3. 0 Ammonia molecule is trigonal planar with the
4. 3 4.
nitrogen atom at the apex.

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 NEET Level Test (07- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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76 What is the molar solubility of aluminum hydroxide 81 What is the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50
(Al(OH)3) in a 0.2 M sodium hydroxide (NaOH) mL of water with 50 mL of a 1×10-3 M barium
solution? (Given: solubility product of Al(OH)3 is 2.4 × hydroxide solution?
1. 3.0
10–24)
2. 3.3
1. 3 × 10–22 3. 11.0
2. 3 × 10–19 4. 11.7
3. 12 × 10–21
4. 12 × 10–22 82 Among the following compounds, which one is a
transition metal with an oxidation number of zero?
77 Which lanthanide among the following readily 1. [Fe(H O) ] (OH) 2 3 2

forms stable divalent ions? 2. [Co(NH ) ] Cl 3

6
2

1. Tb 3. [Ni(CO) ] 4

2. Dy 4. [Pt (C H ) Cl ]
2 4 3

3. Er
4. Eu
78 Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form
H2 O containing 5.93% and
respectively. This data illustrates:
1. Law of conversation of mass
2. Law of constant proportion
83 The azimuthal quantum number characterizes:
1. e/m ratio of electron
H 2 O2 and
2. Spin of electron
11.2% hydrogen, 3. Angular momentum of the electron
4. Magnetic momentum of the electron
84 For the POion, what are the formal charges on
3−

3. Law of reciprocal proportion each oxygen atom and the bond order of the P-O bond,
4. Law of multiple proportions respectively?
1. -0.75, 0.6
79 How much oxygen gas (O2) at standard temperature 2. -0.75, 1.0
(0°C) and pressure (1 atm) is required to completely 3. -0.75, 1.25
combust 1 liter of propane gas (C3H8) under the same 4. -3.1, 1.25
conditions?
1. 7L 85 The incorrect statement among the following is:
2. 6L 1. Ti (NO ) is a colourless compound.
3 4
3. 5L +
2. [Cu (NCCH ) ] BF is a colourless compound. −

4. 10L 3 4 4

3. [Cr (NH ) ] 3 Cl‐ is a coloured compound..

3+

3 6

80 Which of the following options correctly describes 4. K [VF ] is a colourless compound.

3 6

the free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic

conditions? C
hemistry ection -S B
1. q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, W = 0
2. q = 0, ΔT = 0, W = 0 86 Pink colour of acidified KM nO is decolourised 4

3. q = 0, ΔT < 0, W ≠ 0
but there is no evolution of any gas. This may happen
4. q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, W = 0
with the compound containing the following acid radical
(s):
1. SO 2. N O
2− −

3 2

3. S
2−
4. All of the above

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87 Oxalic acid can be distinguished from tartaric acid 91 Among the following hormones, which one contains
by: iodine?
1. NaHCO3 1. Insulin
2. Ammonical silver nitrate 2. Testosterone
3. Litmus paper 3. Adrenaline
4. Phenolphthalein 4. Thyroxine

88 What is the structure of the dibromo product 92

obtained when propanoic acid reacts with Br2 in the Assertion Molecules that are not superimposable on
presence of phosphorus (Br2/P)? (A): their mirror images are considered chiral.
Reason
All chiral molecules have a chiral centre.
(R):
1. 2.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
3. 4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
89 Which halide among the following exhibits the
highest reactivity in an SN1 reaction? 93 When phenol is reacted with chloroform and an
1. sec-Butyl chloride alkali like NaOH, the compound formed is
2. tert-Butyl chloride salicylaldehyde. If we use pyrene in place of chloroform,
3. n-Butyl chloride the product obtained is:
4. Allyl chloride 1. salicylaldehyde
2. phenolphthalein
90 Given the following reaction: 3. salicylic acid
4. cyclohexanol

94 The reagent required to convert acetamide into

methyl amine is :
1. NaOH/ Br2
The structure of the major product is: 2. Sodalime
3. Hot conc. H2SO4
1. 4. PCl5

2.

3.

4.

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95 For the given reactions, 100 Among the following options, which diazonium
salt would be the most stable?
1. CH N X3
+

2
−

2. C H N X
6 5
+

2
−

3. CH CH N X
3 2
+

2
−

4. C H CH N X
6 5 2
+

2
−

Biology I - Section A
The formula for z would be: 101 Primary productivity in most ecosystems is
1. CH≡CH directly the result of:
2. CHI3 1. Photosynthesis 2. Respiration
3. Ph-COONa 3. Herbivory 4. Carnivory
4. CH2=CH2
102 Nodules on the roots of leguminous plants are
96 The number of OH groups present in one molecule formed by the symbiotic association of:
of maltose is : 1. Rhizobium 2. Azospirillum
1. 11 3. Azotobacter 4. Frankia
2. 10
3. 9 103 A scientifically sound estimate made by Robert
4. 8 May places the global biodiversity at about:
1. 2.1 million 2. 7 million
97 Given below are four statements about thiol anion
3. 15 million 4. 50 million
(RS ) and alkoxy anion (RO ). The correct statement
⊝ ⊝

among the following is:

1. RS is less basic but more nucleophilic than RO
⊝ ⊝ 104 Which of the following alcoholic drinks is
2. RS is more basic and more nucleophilic than RO
⊝ ⊝
naturally fermented and produced without distillation?
3. RS is more basic but less nucleophilic than RO
⊝ ⊝
1. Wine 2. Whisky
4. RS is less basic and less nucleophilic than RO
⊝ ⊝
3. Rum 4. Brandy

98 What is the product when NaBr and concentrated 105 A root like holdfast, a stem like stipe and a leaf like
H2SO4 are heated together? frond constitutes the plant body in case of
1. HOBr 1. Rhodophyceae 2. Chlorophyceae
2. HBr 3. Phaeophyceae 4. Ferns
3. Br 2

4. H BrO 3
106 If oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs in a
99 Given the following sequence of reactions: sewage treatment plant is reduced:
H2 Na CH3 I
1. the rate of degradation of organic matter slows down
CH3CHO →(A)→(B)−−→(C) the center of flocs becomes anoxic, causing death of
Pd 2.
Product (C) is: bacteria and eventually breakage of flocs.
1. Alcohol the flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria
3.
2. Ether would grow around flocs.
3. Alkene 4. Protozoa would grow in large numbers.
4. None of the above

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107 The site for BamH I in pBR322 is located within 113 Sweet potato and potato are examples of:
the: 1. Homology
1. Ori 2. Analogy
2. Gene for resistance to ampicillin 3. Vestigial organs
3. Gene for resistance to tetracycline 4. Atavism
4. Repressor of primer gene
114 Stem is modified into a fleshy cylindrical structure
108 The ability of plants to follow different pathways in:
in response to environment or phases of life to form 1. Euphorbia 2. Pistia
different kinds of structures is called: 3. Citrus 4. Bougainvillea
1. Plasticity
2. Pleiotropy
115 In 1969, who proposed the five kingdom
3. Heterophylly
4. Heteromorphic alternation of generation classification for living organisms?
1. R.H. Whittaker 2. C.Linnaeus
109 Which of the following will not be true for the 3. A. Roxberg 4. Virchow
members of Rhodophyceae?
1. Chlorophyll a, d, and Phycoerythrin are present. 116 Epigynous flowers are not seen in:
2. Stored food is Floridean starch. 1. Ray florets of sunflower
Cell wall is cellulosic, having pectin and polysulphate 2. Guava
3. 3. Cucumber
esters.
4. Mustard
Flagellar number and position of insertions is two
4.
unequal and lateral, respectively.
117 The term ‘systematics’ refers to:
110 Which of the following ‘suffix’ used for units of 1. Identification and study of organ systems of plants
and animals
classification in plants indicates a taxonomic category of
‘order’? 2. Identification and preservation of plants and animals
1. – Ales 3. Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationship
2. – Onae 4. Study of habitats of organisms and their classification
3. – Aceae
4. – Ae 118 Inulins, produced by many types of plants, are a
group of naturally occurring
111 What is the number of NADH molecules produced 1. polysaccharides
during the metabolic conversion of one molecule of 2. glycerolipids
glucose to two molecules of pyruvic acid by glycolytic 3. phospholipids
pathway? 4. proteins
1. 1
2. 2 119 Chasmogamous flowers can undergo autogamy
3. 3 provided:
4. 4 1. Pollen matures before maturity of ovule
2. Ovules mature before maturity of pollen
112 A sclerenchymatous hypodermis, a large number of 3. Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
scattered vascular bundles, and water-containing cavities 4. Both anther and stigma are of different lengths
present within the vascular bundles are anatomical
features of
1. monocot stem 2. dicot stem
3. monocot root 4. dicot root

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120 If two organisms with genotype AaBb [assume 127 Glycolysis is found in
independent assortment and complete dominance] are 1. Only plant cells
crossed, what percent of offspring are expected to be 2. Only animal cells
homozygous dominant for A gene? 3. Only eukaryotic cells
1. 56.25% 4. Almost all cells
2. 25%
3. 18.75% 128 Which plant growth regulator is also called the
4. 12.5% ‘stress’ hormone?
1. Ethylene 2. Gas
121 The correct chronological sequence of events in 3. Abscisic acid 4. Cytokinins
fungal sexual cycle [beginning earliest] will be:
1. Karyogamy, Plasmogamy and Meiosis
129 Which of the following, if used in Avery, Macleod
2. Meiosis, Plasmogamy and Karyogamy
3. Plasmogamy, Karyogamy and Meiosis and McCarty experiment, will affect transformation?
4. Meiosis, Karyogamy and Plasmogamy 1. RNase
2. DNase
122 Select the pair representing true homologous 3. Protease
4. Lipase
structures in the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass:
1. Coleorhiza and coleoptile
130 Which component of the cell envelope of a
2. Coleoptile and scutellum
3. Cotyledons and scutellum bacterial cell provides structural support to prevent the
4. Hypocotyl and radicle bacterium from bursting or collapsing?
1. Slime layer of glycocalyx
123 Which of the following is not a stop terminator 2. Capsule of glycocalyx
3. Cell wall
RNA codon? 4. Cell membrane
1. UAA
2. UAG
131 The weed, Calotropis, prevents herbivory by
3. UGA
4. UGG producing:
1. Cardiac glycosides 2. Strychnine
124 Who was the scientist to first hypothesize that 3. Quinine 4. Caffeine
oxygen evolved by green plants comes from water and
not from carbon dioxide? 132 In China Rose:
1. Engelmann 2. Robin Hill A: Aestivation is called as twisted
3. van Niel 4. von Sachs B: Stamens are monadelphous
C: Placentation is axile.
125 When chromatin is observed under electron 1. Only A and B are correct.
2. Only A and C are correct.
microscope, which of the following appears as ‘beads on 3. Only B and C are correct.
string’ structure? 4. A, B, and C are correct.
1. Nucleosome
2. Solenoid
133 In RNAi, silencing of a gene is achieved by:
3. Filament
4. Supercoiled filament 1. Prevention of the transcription
2. Prevention of the translation of the transcript
126 The peak absorption of the reaction center 3. Post translational cleaving of protein
chlorophyll a in PSI and PSII respectively is: 4. Methylation of DNA
1. 680 nm and 700 nm
2. 680 nm and 450 nm
3. 450 nm and 700 nm
4. 700 nm and 680 nm

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134 Guard cells: 139 Carotenoid pigments like carotene and

I: Lack chloroplasts. xanthophylls:
II: Are dumb-bell shaped in grasses. I: are present on chromoplasts.
1. Only I is correct II: are not lipid soluble.
2. Only II is correct 1. Only I is correct
3. Both I and II are correct 2. Only II is correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. Both I and II are correct
135 Which phase of the prophase I of meiosis I is 4. Both I and II are incorrect
recognized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal Regarding the anatomy of a dicot root, the term
complex and the tendency of the recombined 140
homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate stele should not include:
from each other except at the sites of crossovers? 1. Endodermis
1. Zygotene 2. Pericycle
2. Pachytene 3. Vascular bundles
3. Diplotene 4. Pith
4. Diakinesis
141 All living organisms, past , present and future, are
Biology I - Section B linked to one another as:
1. They have common genetic material of the same type
136 Consider the given two statements: 2.
They share common genetic material but to varying
degrees
Statement Species inventories are more complete in
I: temperate than in tropical countries. 3. All have common cellular organization
Statement Temperate countries, in general, have more 4. All can make their own food by similar metabolism
II: biodiversity than the tropical countries.
142 What happens when both glucose and lactose are
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct available to E.coli?
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 1. cyclic AMP is high, so transcription occurs
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct the lac repressor binds with lactose, and transcription
2.
occurs
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
RNA polymerase is able to bind to the operator so
3.
transcription occurs
137 In prokaryotes,
4. transcription is turned off
Ribosomes are made of two subunits, 50S and 30S,
1.
which, when present together, form 70S ribosomes.
143 RNA is the genetic material in:
Ribosomes are made of two subunits, 50S and 30S,
2. I: Tobacco Mosaic Virus
which, when present together, form 80S ribosomes.
II: QB Bacteriophage
Ribosomes are made of two subunits, 60S and 40S, 1. Only I
3.
which, when present together, form 70S ribosomes. 2. Only II
Ribosomes are made of two subunits, 50S and 30S, 3. Both I and II
4.
which, when present together, form 80S ribosomes. 4. Neither I nor II

138 In the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is

converted to Acetyl-CoA. During this metabolic
conversion, what happens to pyruvic acid?
1. It gets oxidized.
2. It gets reduced.
3. It gets isomerized.
4. It is broken down into carbon dioxide.

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144 Consider the given two statements: 148 In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,
Lichen is a stable symbiotic association A: A dikaryophase is seen in the sexual cycle.
Statement B: Mycelium is branched and septate.
between a fungus and algae and/or
I: 1. Only A is correct.
cyanobacteria.
Statement Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship 2. Only B is correct.
II: between a fungus and a plant's root system. 3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Both A and B are incorrect.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
149 Genes A, B, C, and D are linked. The distances
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
between the genes are:
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
Relationship Map Unit
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
D-A 11
D-B 7
145 Consider the two statements.
D–C 22
Gymnosperms lack albuminous cells and
Statement I: B–C 15
sieve cells.
A-B 4
Statement Gymnosperms have sieve tubes and
II: companion cells. What is the order of the genes on the chromosome?
1. D B A C
1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. D B C A
2. Only Statement II is correct.
2. D C B A
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4. A B C D
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

146 Consider the given two statements: 150 Regarding decomposition:

Statement I: Anaerobiosis speeds up decomposition.
Statement Dry weight is a more accurate way to
I: measure biomass. Statement Warm and moist conditions favor
II: decomposition.
Wet weight can vary based on the species'
Statement
environmental and physiological
II: 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
conditions.
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect Biology II - Section A
147 Consider the given two statements. 151 Taq polymerase is a:
In gymnosperms, the megasporangium 1. Thermostable DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Statement develops into a multicellular female 2. Thermostable DNA dependent DNA polymerase
I: gametophyte that bears two or more 3. Reverse transcriptase
archegonia.
4. Thermolabile DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Statement In gymnosperms, archegonia are the female
II: sex organs.
152 A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
1. Only Statement I is correct.
2. Only Statement II is correct. damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased
3. Both Statement I and Statement I are correct. will be:
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 1. Emphysema
2. Asthma
3. Tuberculosis
4. Common cold

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153 The H Zone in a sarcomere is: 161 The largest constituent of seminal plasma are the
1. a band where only actin molecules are found secretions of:
2. a band where only myosin molecules are found 1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate gland
3. an attachment point for actin molecules
3. Urethra
4. an attachment point for myosin molecules 4. Bulbourethral gland

154 In 1990, the first clinical gene therapy trial was 162 Which of the following diseases are spread through
done for the treatment of: contaminated food and water?
1. AIDS A: Ascariasis
2. Leukaemia B: Filariasis
3. Sickle cell anaemia C: Malaria
4. ADA deficiency D. Amoebiasis
1. A and B 2. C and D
155 A non-glandular skin will be seen in both: 3. A and D 4. B and C
1. Snake and Frog
2. Chameleon and Turtle
163 Antivenom, also called as antivenin, used in snake
3. Frog and Pigeon
4. Crocodile and Tiger bite cases provides protection, as it contains:
1. Antigens of snake venom
156 Which group of vertebrates appears to be more 2. Antibiotics
3. Antibodies against toxins in snake venom
vulnerable to extinction? 4. Enzymes
1. Fishes 2. Mammals
3. Amphibians 4. Birds 164 Which group of enzymes catalyze the chemical
reaction where there is linking together of two
157 Which of the following was the first primate to compounds?
consistently use tools like stone weapons? 1. Lyases
1. Neanderthals 2. Transferases
2. Australopithecus 3. Isomerases
3. Homo habilis 4. Ligases
4. Homo sapiens
165 The definitive diagnosis of a cancer is usually
158 Sickle cell trait makes a person: possible by:
1. more prone to severe malaria 1. MRI
2. more prone to severe typhoid 2. CT scan
3. less prone to severe malaria 3. Histopathology
4. less prone to severe typhoid 4. Blood tests

159 The number of ova, a mature female frog can lay at 166 To convert a fungal cell into a protoplast, which of
a time, may reach up to the following enzymes must be used first?
1. 20 2. 500 1. Cellulase 2. Lysozyme
3. 1000 4. 3000 3. DNase 4. Chitinase

160 Which of the following surgical procedures is used 167 Dark melanic peppered moths will be common:
as a contraceptive method? 1. in an unpolluted forest
1. Ovariectomy 2. Hysterectomy 2. in a polluted forest
3. Vasectomy 4. Castration 3. in a formerly polluted forest that has been cleaned up
in an unpolluted forest established as a result of
4.
primary xerarch succession

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168 If you observe the embryos of reptiles, birds, and 174 For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies
mammals during their early stages of development, they of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The
look very similar. The correct inference from this expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing
observation will be that reptiles, birds, and mammals: organisms is likely to be
1. have a common ancestor 1. 42% 2. 49%
2. live in the same types of environments 3. 9% 4. 58%
3. are no longer undergoing evolution
4. have gotten rid of all their vestigial structures 175 The deficiency of which of the following ions is
most likely to adversely affect the process of blood
169 Which of the following drugs acts through its clotting?
receptors located in the brain and the gastrointestinal 1. Calcium 2. Iron
tract and can be used as a strong analgesic in severe pain 3. Sodium 4. Potassium
conditions?
1. Morphine 2. Cannabinoid 176 ELISA works on the principle of:
3. Cocaine 4. Atropine 1. Anamnestic response
2. Antigen-antibody interaction
170 Exophthalmos is an important clinical sign seen in 3. Complementary probe hybridization
a person suffering from: 4. Culture of microbe in a nutrient medium
1. Excess of thyroid hormones
177 The deficiency of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
2. Deficiency of thyroid hormones
can lead to:
3. Excess of adrenal hormones 1. Diabetes mellitus
4. Deficiency of adrenal hormones 2. Diabetes insipidus
3. Pituitary diabetes
171 Which part of the nephron reabsorbs the greatest 4. Adrenal diabetes
amount of filtrate?
1. the proximal convoluted tubule 178 What type of levels of protein structure would be
2. the distal convoluted tubule seen only in proteins which are an assembly of more
3. the loop of Henle than one polypeptide chain or subunits?
4. the collecting duct 1. Primary
2. Secondary
172 What is haemozoin? 3. Tertiary
1. A precursor of hemoglobin 4. Quaternary
2. A toxin released from Streptococcus infected cells
179 In evolutionary terms, variations due to mutations
A waste product of the parasite Plasmodium, also
3. are:
known as "malaria pigment"
1. random and directionless
4. A toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells
2. random and directional
3. small and directional
173 Which of the following cells is not likely to be 4. random, small and directional
found in a section of areolar tissue?
1. Macrophage 2. Fibroblast 180 Which hormone acts on Sertoli cells to stimulate
3. Mast cell 4. Chondrocyte the secretion of some factors that help in the process of
spermiogenesis?
1. LH 2. Progesterone
3. FSH 4. Estrogen

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181 Identify the incorrectly matched pair: Biology II - Section B

Type of synovial joint Example
1. Pivot Between atlas and axis 186 The thyroid gland:
2. Gliding or plane Between adjacent vertebrae is composed of two lobes interconnected with a thin
I:
3. Saddle Base of thumb flap of connective tissue called isthmus.
4. Hinge Knee II: is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
III: is located in the mediastinum ventral to aorta.
182 Which cells are collared flagellated cells found in 1. Only I and II are correct
sponges? 2. Only I and III are correct
1. Choanocytes 3. Only II and III are correct
2. Interstitial cells 4. I, II and III are correct
3. Gastrodermal cells
4. Nematocytes 187 Most common circulating antibodies in body fluids
belong to the class:
183 Of the given two statements: 1. IgA 2. IgE
Arteries are the large, thick-walled vessels that carry 3. IgM 4. IgG
I:
the blood away from the heart.
II:
The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood 188 Male Condoms:
from the right ventricle to the lungs. a: are effective barriers for insemination
1. Only I is correct b: do not interfere with coital act
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct c: help in reducing the risk of STDs
4. Both I and II are incorrect 1. only a and b are correct
2. only a and c are correct
184 Consider the given two statements: 3. only b and c are correct
4. a, b and c are correct
Inspiration can occur if there is a negative
Assertion
pressure in the lungs with respect to 189 A long term immunity is not provided by:
(A):
atmospheric pressure.
A: Naturally acquired active immunity
Reason The thoracic chamber is an airtight B: Artificially acquired active immunity
(R): chamber. C: Artificially acquired passive immunity
1. Only B and C
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains 2. A, B and C
1.
(A) 3. Only A and B
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 4. Only C
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False 190 Consider the two statements:
4. (A) is False, (R) is True Statement ADH makes the collecting duct more
I: permeable to water.
185 An ootid is formed as a result of: Statement
Aldosterone is produced by the
1. Mitosis in oogonia hypothalamus in response to high levels of
II:
2. Meiosis I in primary oocyte sodium ions in the blood.
3. Meiosis II in secondary oocyte
4. Mitosis in polar body 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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191 Viviparity is considered to be a more evolved 196 The axoplasm inside the axon contains:
reproductive strategy than other because: I: low concentration of K+
laying eggs is energetically more expensive than II: high concentration of negatively charged proteins
1.
viviparity
III: high concentration of Na+
2. the young ones are protected by a thick shell
a more controlled and protected environment for the 1. Only I and III
3. developing embryos can 2. I, II and III
lead to higher survival rates 3. Only II
4. Only I and II
4. the embryo takes a long time to develop
197 Which of the following animals is not an
192 The first genetically modified food approved for Echinoderm?
commercial sale was the: 1. Sea Lily 2. Sea Urchin
1. Flavr Savr tomato
2. Aqua Salmon 3. Sea Cucumber 4. Sea Hare
3. Bt Brinjal
4. Golden rice 198 Progesterone:
converts the endometrium to its secretory stage to
I:
193 The ability of hemoglobin to carry increased prepare the uterus for implantation.
amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the deoxygenated II: decreases contractility of the uterine smooth muscle.
state as opposed to the oxygenated state is explained by: 1. Only I is correct
1. Haldane effect 2. Only II is correct
2. Bohr effect 3. Both I and II are correct
3. Herring Breuer reflex 4. Both I and II are incorrect
4. Henry’s law
199 How many of the given statements are true?
194 Consider the given two statements: Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always
A:
The non-template strand of DNA is undergo meiotic cell division
Assertion(A):
called the coding strand. Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell
B:
This is the strand that is used by division
Reason(R): convention when presenting a DNA Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes and
C:
sequence. undergo second meiotic division
D: Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 1. 1
1.
explains (A) 2. 2
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly 3. 3
2.
explain (A) 4. 4
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is False

195 How many of the given statements are correct?

Cnidaria and ctenophora are radially symmetrical
1.
organisms.
2. Platyhelminthes are acoelomates.
3. Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates.
4. Annelida are true coelomates.
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

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200 Consider the given two statements:

Those who are better fit in an
Assertion (A): environment, leave more progeny than
others.
The fitness, according to Darwin, refers
Reason(R): ultimately and only to reproductive
fitness.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly

1.
explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly
2.
explain (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. (A) is False, (R) is False

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