(1103CJA101001240003) *1103CJA101001240003* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME JEE (Main)

TWT-2
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 07-07-2024

JEE(MAIN) : NURTURE (PHASE-1 & 2)

Time : 3.00 Hours Maximum Marks : 360

Q1
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in
OMR. For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet and OMR sheet (Side-1 & Side-

2) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on

ROTALIGIVNI EHT YB OS OD OT DETCURTSNI GNIEB TUOHTIW SLAES EHT KAERB TON OD

the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
4. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(a) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(b) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions. First 5 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone
any electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
9. Take g = 10 m/s 2 unless otherwise stated.
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

CAREER INSTITUTE Pvt. Ltd.Registered & Corporate Office : ‘SANKALP’, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota
(Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
Ph. : +91-744-3556677, +91-744-2757575| E-mail : info@allen.in| Website : www.allen.ac.in
07072024 Page 1/14
 PHYSICS

SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. pring is initially compresed by 5 cm (figure-1),

This section contains 20 questions. Each question then block is shifted by 15 cm from this position
has 4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice as shown in the figure-2. If spring constant is
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For 100 N/m & block is in equilibrium (figure-2)
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: find F :-
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is
selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. In the system shown in figure, the ground is
frictionless, the blocks have mass m and 2 m and
the string connecting them is massless. If you
accelerate the system to the right, as shown, the (A) 5N (B) 15N
tension is the same everywhere throughout the (C) 10N (D) 20N
string connecting the masses because
4. Initially spring is relaxed having spring constant
50 N/m. If blocks A and B are displaced by x1
and x2 such that x1 = 30 cm & x2 = 10 cm. If
(A) The string is massless
force applied by spring on A is F1 & on B is F2
(B) The ground is frictionless then:-
(C) The ratio of the masses is 2 : 1
(D) The acceleration of the system is non-zero.
2. A toy train consists of three identical
compartment A, B and C. It is being pulled by a
constant force F along C. The ratio of the
tensions in the string connecting AB and BC is :
(A) F1 = 15 N F2 = 5N
(A) 4 : 1
(B) F1 = 5N F2 = 15 N
(B) 1 : 3
(C) F1 = 20 N F2 = 20 N
(C) 1 : 1
(D) F1 = 15 F2 = 15
(D) 1: 2
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 5. In the system shown in the figure with ideal 7. In the figure shown, the acceleration of wedge is
massless strings, mA > mB > mC > mD. System is (Neglect friction)
in static equilibrium initially. If magnitudes of
acceleration of blocks A, B, C, D just after
cutting the thread DE are aA, aB, aC, aD, then :-

F F
(A) (B) m+M
M
F
(C) zero (D)
m
8. Figure shows a 5 kg ladder hanging from a string
that is connected with a ceiling and is having a
spring balance connected in between. A boy of
(A) aA > aB > aC > aD (B) aA = aB < aC = aD mass 25 kg is climbing up the ladder at
(C) aA < aB < aC < aD (D) aA = aD < aC = aB acceleration 1 m/s2. Assuming the spring balance
6. In the figure shows blocks are initially at rest on and the string to be massless and the spring to
the floor. Mark the correct statement : show a constant reading, the reading of the
spring balance is : (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(A) When applied force on pulley is 200 N the

normal reaction on block A is zero.
(B) When applied force is 400 N acceleration
of B is 10 m/s2
(C) When applied force is 240 N acceleration
of pulley is 2 m/s2 (A) 30 kg (B) 32.5 kg
(D) For a force F = 100 N, normal reaction on (C) 35 kg (D) 37.5 kg
B is zero.
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 9. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g 12. F–t, graph of a particle starts from rest is shown. At
moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching what time, linear momentum of the particle is
process is completed in 0.1 s., the force of the maximum :-
blow exerted by the ball on the hand of the
player is equal to-
(A) 150 N (B) 3 N
(C) 30 N (D) 300 N
10. A rod and triangular wedge are moving with
accelerations a and b as shown in figure. Then
the relation between a and b is : (A) t = 5 sec (B) t = 10 sec
(C) t = 15 sec (D) t = 20 sec
13. A weight W is supported by two cables as shown.
The tension in the cable making angle θ with
horizontal will be minimum, when the value of θ is

a a
(A) sin θ = (B) cos θ =
b b
a
(C) tan θ = (D) a=b
b
11. In the arrangement shown, the blocks of unequal
masses are held at rest. When released,
acceleration of the blocks is
(A) 0 (B) 30°
(C) 60° (D) None of these
14. In the system shown the pulleys are ideal and the
cords are inextensible (there is no friction anywhere)
(A) g/2.
(B) g.
(C) a value between zero and g.
(D) a value that could be greater than g.
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 17. In the arrangement shown, the pulley and the
(A) magnitude of acceleration of block A and B
strings are ideal. The acceleration of block B is –
will be same
(B) magnitude of acceleration of block B and
wedge C will be equal
(C) magnitude of acceleration of block A will be
greater than magnitude of acceleration of wedge C
(D) magnitude of acceleration of wedge C will be
greater than magnitude of acceleration of block B
(A) g/5 (B) g/2 (C) 2g/5 (D) 2g/3
15. In the given figure pullies and strings are ideal and
18. A book is lying on the table. What is the angle
system (man + plank) is in equilibrium. If man between the action of the book on the table and
applies a force F on string then choose the reaction of the table on the book ?
necessary condition for system to be in equilibrium.
Mass of man is m and mass of plank is M :-

(A) 0 rad (B) π /4 rad

(C) π /2 rad (D) π rad
19. The breaking strength of the string connecting
(M + m) g Mg
wall and block B is 175 N, find the maximum
(A) F= (B) F= magnitude of weight of block A for which the
5 5
M M
system will be stationary. The block B weighs
(C) m ≥ (D) m < 700 N (neglect friction) (g = 10 m/s2)
5 5
16. Two blocks of mass m = 2 kg and M = 5 kg are
in contact on a frictionless table. A horizontal
force F (= 35 N) is applied to m. Then the force
of contact between the block, is - (in Newton)

175 175√3
(A) N (B) N
√3 2
(A) 35 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 25 (C) 175√3 N (D) None of these
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 20. Four blocks of same mass connected by cords are 2. Two blocks A and B each of mass 1 kg are
pulled by force F on a smooth horizontal surface, connected by massless string as shown in figure.
Pulley is massless and all the surfaces are
as in figure. The tension T1, T2 and T3 will be :-
frictionless. If block A is pushed by force 20 N
as shown in figure then find acceleration (in
m/s2) of block B (g = 10 m/s2).
(A) T1 = F/4, T2 = 3F/2, T3 = F/4
(B) T1 = F/4, T2 = F/2, T3 = F/2
(C) T1 = 3F/4, T2 = F/2, T3 = F/4
(D) T1 = 3F/4, T2 = F/2, T3 = F/2
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks: 40)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have
to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 3. All the pulleys and strings in given system are
questions will be evaluated. massless and frictionless. If the system is released
The answer to each question is an Integer Value then find the relative acceleration of two blocks : (g
Type questions. = 10 m/s2)
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In
case of non-integer value, the answer should be
rounded off to the nearest Integer).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according
to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is
selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. A rope with mass m = 1 kg is hung from the
ceiling by its both ends and a weight with mass
M = 2 kg is attached to its centre. The tangent to 4. A block of weight 12 N is kept at rest on a
the rope at its either end forms angle α with the smooth slope by applying a horizontal force F as
ceiling. What is the angle β (in degree) between shown in the figure. Find the magnitude of the
the tangents to the rope at the weight ? Report force F.
β /10. (cot α = 2/3)

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 5. If system is in equilibrium mass of m1 is 15 kg.
Find mass (in kg) of m2.
6. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a
massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a
hook C while the other end is free. Maximum
tension that the rope can bear is 360N with what
value of minimum safe acceleration (in ms−2 )
can a monkey of 60 kg move down on the rope.
7. The block B moves to the right with a constant
velocity v0 as shown in the figure. The relative
velocity of body A with respect to body B is v0
k
then value of k is.
(assuming all pulleys and strings are ideal)
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8. Force F is applied on upper pulley. If F = 30t N
where t is time in second, find the time (in sec)
when m1 loses contact with floor.
9. In the setup shown, blocks of masses 3m and 2m
are placed on frictionless horizontal ground and
the free end P of the thread is being pulled by a
constant force F. Then the acceleration of the
aF
free end P is . Find a
m
10. A block of mass M is pulled along horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If
tension at the middle point of rope & force
applied by string on the block is in ratio 3 : 2
then find the value of M/m.
1103CJA101001240003
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 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. A pair of amphoteric oxides is

This section contains 20 questions. Each question (A) Al2O3, Li2O (B) BeO, BO3
has 4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice (C) BeO, MgO (D) BeO, ZnO
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: 6. Which of the following orders for electron
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. affinity is/are correct ?
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is (a) S > O < Se (b) Cl > F
selected. (c) S > O (d) O > S
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. (e) N > P (f) C > N
1. Which one of the following atoms has the lowest (A) a, b, c, e (B) a, b, c, f
electron affinity ? (C) b, c, d, e (D) b, c, f
(A) O (B) F 7. Which of the following oxide does not dissolve
(C) Cl (D) S in NaOH solution :-
2. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2, the correct (A) BeO (B) ZnO
order of acid strength is :- (C) Al2O3 (D) CaO
(A) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3 8. The increasing order of electron affinity of the
(B) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3 electronic configurations of element is :-
(C) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (I) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 (II) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(D) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2 (III) 1s2 2s2 2p5 (IV) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
3. The I.P.1, I.P.2. I.P.3, I.P.4 and I.P.5 of an (A) II < IV < III < I (B) I < II < III < IV
element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV
(C) I < III < II < IV (D) IV < III < II < I
respectively.
The element is likely to be :- 9. Correct order of covalent character of alkaline
earth metal chloride in
(A) Na (B) Si (C) F (D) Ca
(A) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2
4. In which of the following, the enthalpy change
corresponds to first ionization enthalpy ? (B) BeCl2 < CaCl2 < SrCl2 < MgCl2
(A) Na(g) → Na+(g) + e− (B) Mg(g) → Mg 2+ + 2e− (C) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > SrCl2

(C) Li(s) → Li+(g) + e− (D) +

K(s) → K(aq) + e−
(D) SrCl2 > BeCl2 > CaCl2 > Mg Cl2

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 10. Ionic conductances of hydrated M+ ions are in 14. An ionic compound A+ B – is most likely to be
the order – formed when -
(A) Li+ (aq) > Na+ (aq) > K+ (aq) > Rb+ (aq) > (A) Ionization energy of A is low
Cs+ (aq) (B) Electron affinity of B is high
(B) Li+ (aq) > Na+ (aq) < K+ (aq) < Rb+ (aq) < (C) Electron affinity of B is low
Cs+ (aq) (D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Li+ (aq) > Na+ (aq) > K+ (aq) > Rb+ (aq) < 15. Which of the following having highest
Cs+ (aq) magnitude of lattice energy ?
(D) Li+ (aq) < Na+ (aq) < K+ (aq) < Rb+ (aq) < (A) NaCl (B) KCl
Cs+ (aq) (C) NaBr (D) NaI
11. Which of the following order is incorrect ? 16. The formal charge of sulphur in H2SO4 and
(A) MCl < MCl2 < MCl3 → Ionic character phosphorus in H3PO4 respectively are:
(B) F – < Cl – < Br – < I – → Polarisibility (A) – 1, +1 (B) 0, 0

(C) Na+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3 → Polarising (C) +2, +1 (D) 0, +1
power 17. The correct order of decreasing lattice energy is
(D) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI → Covalent (A) CaO > MgBr2 > CsI
character (B) MgBr2 > CaO > CsI

12. The correct order of the thermal stability of (C) CsI > MgBr2 > CaO

carbonates. (D) CsI > CaO > MgBr2

(A) MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3 < SrCO3 18. Molecule showing exception to lewis octet rule
is
(B) BaCO3 < MgCO3 > SrCO3 < CaCO3
(A) H2O, NO−2 (B) CO2, IF
(C) MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(C) BCl3, XeF4 (D) PCl3, KCl
(D) CaCO3 < BaCO3 < MgCO3 > SrCO3
19. Which of the following species are hypervalent?
13. Formula of a metal oxide MO, formula of its (I) PCl5, (II) BF3,
phosphate will be (III) XeF2, (IV) CO32 –
(A) M3 (P O4 )2 (B) MP O4 (A) I, II, III (B) I, III
(C) M2 (P O4 )2 (D) M2 (P O4 )3 (C) III, IV (D) I, II

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 20. The intermolecular potential energy for the 2.
molecules A, B, C and D given below suggests
that :
3.
4.
5.
(A) D is more electronegative than other atoms
(B) A-D has the shortest bond length
6.
(C) A-B has the stiffest bond
(D) A – A has the largest bond enthalpy
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks: 40) 7.
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have
to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
8.
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a single digit integer
(i.e. 0 to 9, both inclusive).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according
to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical 9.
value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. How many oxides are neutral an given below 10.
CO, NO, N2O, BeO, V2O3, ZnO, CuO
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An element has successive ionisation energies in
the order of 60, 120, 600, 770, 890 kJ/mol. What
is the valency of the element?
How many of the following oxides are amphoteric
BeO, Al2 O3, SnO2, N2 O, NO, CO2, PbO2, Sb2
O3
The formal charge on central oxygen atom in
ozone is
The energy required to convert all atoms present
in 1.2 g magnesium to Mg2+ ions if IE1 and
IE2 of magnesium are 120 kJ mol – 1 and 240 kJ
mol – 1 respectively. (Write the answer as sum up
of all digits)
Find the number of ions having ionic radius
greater than Na+.
K+, Rb+, Mg+2, F – , O2 – , Al+3
The atomic number of element “Unnilquadium”
is X. The value of ( X − 4 ) is_______.
25
How many of the total number of processes
given below are endothermic?
(i) O → O− (ii) N → N −
(iii) Cl+ → Cl (iv) N → N +
(v) Ne → Ne+ (vi) P → P +
(vii) S → S + (viii) Se → Se−2
(ix) Be → Be+
How many of the following elements have EA
value more than 'O' atom.
S, Se, Te, Al, C, F, Cl
Find the total number of species where octet rule
is not applicable.
BrF5, SF6, IF7, CO, BeCl2, BF3, N2O
1103CJA101001240003
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 MATHEMATICS

SECTION-1 : (Maximum Marks: 80) 5. If tan(2x – 3y) tan(4y – x) = 1, x, y ∈ (0, π ),

2
This section contains 20 questions. Each question x+y
) is-
then the value of 2√3 tan(
has 4 options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice 6
Questions (MCQs) Only one option is correct. For (A) 2 √3 − 1
(B) 4 − 2 √3
each question, marks will be awarded as follows: 2
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. 4 √3 − 6 2 √3 − 3
(C) (D)
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is 2

selected. 6. If the equation cos4 θ + sin4 θ + λ = 0 has real

Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. solutions for θ , then possible integral value of λ
is :
1. If A + B + C = π, then
cos A cos B cos C (A) 0 (B) 1
+ +
sin B sin C sin A sin C sin A sin B (C) – 2 (D) – 1
(A) 1 (B) 3
7. The value of sin3 10o + sin3 50o − sin3 70o is equal
(C) – 1 (D) 2 to
2. If cos x + cos y + cos α = 0 and sin x + sin y + (A) 3 (B) 3
−
x+y 2 4
sin α = 0, then cot ( )=
2 (C) − 3 (D) 3
−
(A) sin α (B) cos α 4 8
8. 2
If sin x –(c – 1)sinx + 2c – 6 ≥ 0 for every x ∈
(C) cot α (D) 2 sin α R then the set of values of c is
–π – π
3. If < θ < , then (A) [2, ∞ ) (B) [4, ∞ )
2
∣ ∣
∣√ 1 − sin θ + √ 1 + sin θ ∣ is equal to : (C) ( – ∞ , – 2) (D) ( – ∞ , – 4]
∣ ∣
∣ 1 + sin θ 1 − sin θ ∣
9. The number of solutions of the equation sin3x +
(A) 2sec θ (B) – 2sec θ 3cosx = 2sin2x(sinx + cosx) in [0, 2 π ] is
θ θ (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
(C) 2sec (D) – sec
2 2
√3
10. In the interval [0, 5 π ] the equation logsin θ cos2 θ
4. 1
If sin x + sin y = , cos x + cos y = , = 2 has
2 2
m
cos(x + y) = , (m, n ∈ N), then m + n is - (A) no solution (B) six solutions
n
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4 (C) two solutions (D) five solutions

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 11. Let tan 155∘ − tan 115∘
17. If tan 25° = x, then is
1 + tan 155∘ tan 115∘
equal to
If T = ∑ cos 2 θ , then T + n(S) is equal
θ ∈S 1 − x2 1 + x2
(A) (B)
(A) 7 + √3 (B) 9 2x 2x
1 + x2 1 − x2
(C) 8 + √3 (D) 10 (C) (D)
1 − x2 1 + x2
12. If sin3 α + cos3 β + 6 sin α · cos β = 8, where α , 18. 13
πk
∏ tan( )
β ∈ [0, 2 π ] then number of ordered pairs ( α , β ) k=1
28
is equal to (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 5
(A) 0 (B) 1 19. The range of the expression E = sin4x + cos4x +
(C) 2 (D) 3 sin2x is
13. If 2tan2 x – 5 secx – 1 = 0 has 7 different roots (A)
1 3
[− , ] (B)
1
[− , 1]
in [0, n π ] , n ∈ N, then greatest value of n is 2 2 2
2 3 1 3 1
(C) [ , ] (D) [ , 1]
(A) 3 (B) 4 2 2 2
(C) 5 (D) 6 20. sin 80∘ + sin 162∘ + sin 118∘
The value of is -
2 cos 50∘ cos 9∘ cos 31∘
14. If 0 ≤ x < 2 π , then the number of real values of
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
x, which satisfy the equation cosx + cos2x +
cos3x + cos4x = 0, is :- SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks: 40)
(A) 9 (B) 3 This section contains 10 questions Candidates have
to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
(C) 5 (D) 7 questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
15. π ) + tan(x + 2 π ) = 3
If tan x + tan(x + , then The answer to each question is an Integer Value
3 3
number of solutions lie in (0, π ) is -
Type questions.
For each question, enter the correct integer value (In
(A) 2 (B) 3 case of non-integer value, the answer should be
rounded off to the nearest Integer).
(C) 4 (D) 5 Answer to each question will be evaluated according
16. The number of solution(s) of equation to the following marking scheme:
4cos θ cos2 θ cos3 θ = 1, 0 < θ < π are Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is
(A) 5 (B) 6 selected.
(C) 7 (D) 8 Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
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 3π π
then 4 cos2( 4 − 2 ) +
x
1. Number of solutions of the equation 3(sin3x – 6. If x ∈ (π, )
2
cos3x) – cos2x(2 + sin2x) = 0 in [0, 2 π ] is equal
√4sin4 x + sin2 2x is always equal to
to
2. Number of solution of the equation 7. If x = y cos 2 π = z cos
4π
, then xy + yz + zx =
3 3
9x 7x
cos ( 2
) + cos2 ( ) = 1 in (0, π ) is : 8. The value of the expression (2 sin2 91° – 1) (2
2 2
3. The value of sin2 92° – 1) .... (2 sin2 180° – 1) is equal to :
π π 7π 4π 9. The number of solutions of sin3xcosx + sin2x
sin2 + sin2 + sin2 + sin2 is
18 9 18 9
4. Number of natural values of m so that the cos2x + sinxcos3x = 1 in [0, 2 π ] is
10. 3
equation sin x − √3 cos x = 4m − 6 has a If cos(x − y) + cos(y − z) + cos(z − x) +
2
= 0,
4−m
solution for some x ∈ [0, 2 π ] is : then cos 3x + cos 3y + cos 3z + λ cos x cos y cos z = 0.
|λ|
√2 sin α 1 − cos 2 β The value of is equal to:
5. If =
1
and √ =
1 3
√1 + cos 2 α 7 2 √10
π
α , β ∈ ( , π ) then the value of |tan( α + 2 β )|
2
is -

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