Full Length Test 5 Explanation

Q. Answer Explanation
No.
1 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The passage primarily discusses autism spectrum disorder, and the nature and
characteristics associated with it.
With regard to the same, option B describes the central idea of the passage
most appropriately, and is therefore, the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect as the needs of individuals are not constant and evolve
over their life’s time.
Option C is incorrect as people affected with ASD are not completely
independent, and their quality of life is affected by the level of support provided
by multiple social actors.
Option D is incorrect as ASD significantly alters the choices of life of
individuals and they are dependent on other stakeholders.

2 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around snakebites as a neglected
tropical disease, which mostly effects people from poor and rural backgrounds,
because of which there is not much effort put into addressing the issue. The
case of Assam has been taken in the passage.
Statement one is correct as it can be clearly inferred from the passage.
Statement two is incorrect as snakebites are neglected because it affects
marginalised communities mostly, and affluent populations are not affected by
it.
Therefore, A is the correct answer.

3 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around the disparity in the ownership
of land by women in India, despite them being the majority of the agricultural
labour force. Ownership of land brings positive change in their decision-making
abilities and other social factors associated with it.
Option C is the correct answer as it best describes the gendered nature of the
issue of land ownership.
Option A is incorrect as it is out of context in terms of the central idea
presented.
Option B is incorrect as group farming is one of the methods that may
address the issue of farm productivity, however, it is not the only factor.

4 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
P can complete 1/p of the task in a day.
Q can complete 1/q of the task in a day.
Therefore in 2 days P can complete 2/p of the task and 5/p in 5 days
Now, if P starts, they finish the task in 11 days exactly

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 P starts and work for 2 days i.e. Day 1 and 2
Then Q will work for Day 3 and 4
Again P will work for Day 5 and 6, Q will work for day 7 and 8.
P will work for Day 9 and Day 10 and Q will work for day 11
So P worked for Day 1, 2, 5, 6, 9, 10 i.e. 6 days
Q worked for Day 3, 4, 7, 8 and 11 i.e. 5 days
Therefore P will complete 6/p task in 6 days and Q will complete 6/q task in 6
days.
6/p + 5/q = 1.......(i)
If Q starts, they take half a day more than 11.
The Q will work for day 1, 2, 5, 6, 9 and 10
Therefore total days = 6 days
The P will work for day 3, 4, 7, 8, 11 and a half day of day 12
Therefore total days = 5.5 days
Together they work = 5.5/p + 6/q = 1 .....(ii)
By solving the equation (i) and (ii)
q = 17 days and p = 8.5 days
Working together P and Q will complete the task = 1/17 + 1/8.5 = 3/17 task
in a day
Thus they will complete the task in 17/3 days
Hence option (d) is correct

5 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Let the cost price be p and Selling price be q
Given that,
P doubles the selling price despite the cost price remains same
2q - p.....(i)
P realizes that the profit have tripled
So, 3(q - p).......(ii)
Profit = selling price - cost price
Thus from equation (i) and (ii)
3(q - p) = 2q - p......(iii)
By solving the equation (iii)
q = 2p......(iv)
Original profit = Rs. (q - p)
From equation (iv)
2p - p = Rs. p is the original profit
Profit % = (Profit/cost price) x 100
= (p/p) x 100
= 100 %
Hence option (a) is correct

6 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Let's assume moneylender had Rs. 100 initially
Given that,
Moneylender charges 60% and gives 25% as to recovery agents
So, for the 1st year he earns
100 + 60% of 100 = Rs. 160

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 Rs.160 - 25% of 160 = Rs. 120
For second year he earns
120 + 60% of 120 = Rs 192
Rs 192 - 25% of 192 = Rs. 192 - 48 = Rs. 144
For third year he earns
144 + 60% of 144 = Rs. 230.4
Rs.230.4 - 25% of Rs. 230.4 = Rs. 230.4 - 57.6 = Rs. 172.8
Now,
At the beginning of the 4th year he had Rs.50000 to invest
So, if 172.8-----> Rs.50000
Thus the amount given to recovery agents on the second year = (48 x
50000)/172.8
= Approx Rs. 13890
Hence option (d) is correct

7 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
Two digit or more digit numbers needs to formed from the given digits 1, 2, 3, 4,
5, 6, and 7
So, two numbers can be chosen from the given digits in 7C2 ways. However,
there is only one way of arranging them in ascending order
Thus the remaining numbers can be chosen and arranged in ascending order
by
7C2 + 7C3 + 7C4 + 7C5 +7C6 + 7C7

The sum of nC0 + nC2 + nC3 +....... nCn-1 + nCn = 2n

So, the sum of 7C2 + 7C3 + 7C4 + 7C5 +7C6 + 7C7 = 27 - 7C0 - 7C1 = 128 - 1 - 7 = 120
digits

8 c Answer: (c)
Solution:
Given that,
The number of ways selecting one card from P and one from Q = 50C1 x 5C1 =
250 ways
Now, if the card taken from Q's bag shows 1, then 1 will divide all the numbers
on P's card. Hence, the number of ways = 50
2nd number card
If the card taken from Q's bag shows 2, then the remainder will be either 0 or 1.
Hence, the number of ways = 50
3rd Number card
If the card taken from Q's bag shows 3, then the remainder will be 0, 1 or 2.
Hence, the number of ways = 50
4th Number card
If the card taken from Q's bag shows 4, then the remainder will be 0, 1, 2 or 3.
However, the remainder 3 card will be rejected i.e. of form 4n + 3
So, the number of cards with remainder 3 = [(47 - 3)/4] + 1 = 12
Thus total number = 50 - 12 = 38
5th Number card
If the card taken from Q's bag shows 5, then the remainder will be 0, 1, 2, 3 or
4. However, the remainder 3 and 4 card will be rejected i.e. of form 5n + 3 and

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 5n + 4
Total numbers of form 5n + 3 = [(49 - 4)/5] + 1 = 9
Total numbers of form 5n + 4 = [(48 - 3)/5] + 1 = 9
The numbers left = 50 - 9 - 9 = 32
Therefore the total probability = (50 + 50 + 50 + 38 + 32)/250 = 220/250 =
0.88
Hence statement (c) is correct

9 b Explanation: Represent all three numbers in ones, tens and hundreds form like 100x+10y+z and
so on for the other two three -digit values. Add all three equations then we get 111(x+y+z), So
statement I is wrong as it is divided by 111 and its factor 37. Statement II is true.

10 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
Race is of 20kms
P, Q and R are running at uniform speed
So, P beats Q by 2kms
Thus when P reached 20km Q has reached only 18km
Similarly Q beats R by 2km, thus when Q reached 20km R has reached 18kms
Therefore by simple ratio concept,
If P reached 20km, Q has reached 18kms and if Q has reached 18kms, R has
reached
(18 x 18)/20 = 16.2kms
Thus when P runs 20kms , R runs 16.2kms
So, R lags behind by P = (20 - 16.2)km = 3.8km = 3800 meters
Hence option (b) is correct

11 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The passage primarily discusses the issue of private service aggregators
influencing the decision-making abilities of online consumers by taking the
means of fake online reviews, unfair digital means etc, and how the government
department is trying to address the same.
Statement 1 is correct as is clearly evident and explicitly mentioned in the
passage.
Statement 2 is correct as ECommerce platforms, by using unfair means, a
skewing or influencing the decision-making ability of consumers.
Both statements are correct. Therefore, C is the correct answer.

12 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The passage centrally revolves around the issue of micronutrient deficiencies,
especially amongst women and children in the humanitarian context. With
regard to the same, effective policies and guidelines is the need of the hour,
incorporating regional and global best practices, with effective evaluation and
feedback mechanisms to address the same.
Option B is the correct answer and best describes the answer to the question.
Option A is incorrect as there is no mention of ‘local and traditional remedies’

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 in the passage.
Option C is incorrect as there is no mention of ‘mixed approach’ or ‘local best
practices’ in the passage.

13 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
Statement one is incorrect as the statement is contrary to what is mentioned
in the passage, as platinum-based catalysts are being widely used despite their
limitations of high cost, slow reaction rate etc
Statement two is correct as hydrogen is the end product that is caused by
breaking up water molecule into hydrogen and oxygen.
The question asks to find incorrect statements as answer.
Therefore, A is the connect answer.

14 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Let the distance be 2d
Given that P's speed during onward journey is 50km/r
Thus, total time taken for onward journey is 2d/50 or d/25 ......(i)
While return journey P drove the car halfway journey at the speed of 20km/hr
So time taken for halfway journey = d/20
Another halfway journey took 5kms more, so time taken = (d + 5)/45
Total time taken during return journey = d/20 + (d + 5)/45........(ii)
Return journey took 30 minutes more (1/2 hrs) than onward journey
d/25 + 1/2 = d/20 + d/45 + 1/9.......(iii)
By solving the equation (iii) the value of d
d = 12.1km
Therefore the total distance travelled = 2d + d + d + 5 = 24.2 + 12.1 + 12.1 + 5 =
53.4km
Now,
Statement I: The total distance travelled by P is more than 50km
the total distance travelled by P = 2d + d + d + 5 = 24.2 + 12.1 + 12.1 + 5 =
53.4km
Hence statement I is correct
Statement II: The total time taken for onward journey is more than 30 minutes.
total time taken for onward journey is 2d/50 or d/25
d = 12.1
So, 12.1/25 = 0.48hr or 29 minutes
Hence statement II is incorrect

15 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
Cube side 6 cm sliced into 1cm3 = 6 x 6 x 6 = 216 cubes
In each side of the larger cube, the smaller cubes on the edges will have more
than one of their sides painted.
Therefore, the cubes which are not on the edge of the larger cube and that lie
on the facing sides of the larger cube will have exactly one side painted.
In each face of the larger cube, there will be 6 x 6 = 36 cubes.
Of these, the cubes on the outer rows will be on the edge. 20 such cubes exist

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 on each face.
If we count out the two outer rows on either side of a face of the cube, there will
be 4 x 4 = 16 cubes which are not on the edge in each face of the cube.
Therefore, there will be 16 cubes of one face will have exactly one of their sides
painted.
In total, there will be 16 x 6 = 96 such cubes will have exactly one of their sides
painted.
Hence option (a) is correct

16 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
The maximum value of 1st digit is 3 and the 4th digit is the smallest
Also 0 is neither positive or negative integer. So digits cannot be 0
Thus there are following possibilities:
First digit Fourth digit
3 2
3 1
2 1
Also, if Tarun divides the second digit by the third digit, he gets the first digit
Thus, there are following cases:
1st Case: If the First digit is 3
The second digit is 3 times the 3rd digit
Therefore the possible pairs are (3, 1), (6, 2), (9, 3)
2nd case: If the First digit is 2
The second digit is 2 times the 3rd digit
Therefore the possible pairs are (2, 1), (4, 2), (8, 4) and (6, 3)
However, all digits are distinct, thus only the pairs of (6, 2), (8, 4) and (6, 3) can
form digits
First digit Second digit Third Fourth
digit digit
3 6 2 1
2 6 3 1
2 8 4 1
Therefore, there are only 3 possible combinations
Hence option (b) is correct

17 c Answer: (c)
Solution:
Let the speed of Raghav's in still water be 'R' kmph.
Let the speed of the Speed Boat in still water be 'B' kmph.
Let the speed of the stream be 'x' kmph.
Given that,
One minute after Raghav leaves from point P, a speedboat starts from point P to
go to point Q.
Also, It crosses Raghav's boat after 4 minutes.
Therefore, the time taken by speedboat and Raghav's boat during upstream
travel are 4 minutes and 5 minutes respectively.

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 Thus the speeds are in ratio 5 : 4
(B - x)/(R - x) = 5/4......(i)
Now,
Statement I: The speed of the speedboat in still water is 60 km/hour.
From equation (i) and speed of speedboat is 60 km/hr
(60 - x)/(R - x) = 5/4.......(ii)
However, there are to variables R and x. Therefore, statement I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II: Raghav takes 5 hours to reach point Q from point P.
Raghav's speed of the boat = 60/5 = 12km/hr
R - x = 12km/hr
Thus from equation (i)
(B - x)/12 = 5/4.....(iii)
Thus, statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement I and II
(60 - x)/12 = 5/4....(iv)
x = 45km/hr
Thus Raghav's speed = R - x = 12
R - 45 = 12
R = 57km/hr (Raghav's speed on still water)
Hence, Statement I and Statement II together are required to answer the
Question.

18 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Let the number of matches played be p
Given that,
Playing and winning n more matches the percentage increases from 50 to 60
Thus the equation formed is
0.5p + n = 0.6 x (p + n)......(i)
By solving (i) we get
p = 4n.....(ii)
If 20 more matches are played then the winning percentage increases from 60
to 70
Thus the equation formed is :
0.5p + n + 20 = 0.7 x (20 + p + n).....(iii)
Substituting equation (ii) in (iii) i.e. p = 4n
0.5 x (4n) + n + 20 = 14 + 0.7 x (4n) + 0.7n
3n + 20 = 14 + 3.5n
n = 12....(iv)
Thus the number of matches played initially are
p = 4n = 4 x 12 = 48 matches
Hence option (b) is correct

19 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
There are 49 equal squares of 1cm2 each on square canvas measuring 49 cm2.
The two adjacent squares can be adjacent in the same row or the same column.

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 In the same row, there can be 6 sets of adjacent pairs of squares.
Since there are 7 rows, It can be done in 7 × 6 ways.
Similarly, there will be 7 × 6 ways of painting vertically adjacent squares.
So, totally there will be 2 x 7 x 6 = 84 ways of adjacent pairs of squares.
Also, 49 squares 2 squares can be selected randomly = 49C2 = (49 x 48)/(2 x 1) =
1176 ways
The probability that two painted squares have a common side = 84/1176 =
1/14
Hence option (a) is correct

20 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
P and Q have invested the same amount
Let the amount be p
The investment of P reduces by 50% and the investment by Q reduces in A.P
P (reduces by Q (reduces in
50%) A.P)
Investments P p
1st Month p/2 p - 18000
2nd Month p/4 p - (2 x 18000)
3rd Month p/8 p - (3 x 18000)
4th Month p/16 p - (4 x 18000)
5th Month p/32 p - (5 x 18000)
6th Month p/64 p - (6 x 18000)

If they had withdrawn their respective amounts at the end of the fourth month,
the ratio of their amounts would have been the same as the ratio after the sixth
month.
(p/16)/[ p - (4 x 18000)] = p/64/[p - (6 x 18000)]
4/[ p - (4 x 18000)] = 1/ [p - (6 x 18000)]
4p - 4 x (108 x 1000) = p - 72000
3p = (432 - 72) x 1000
3p = 360 x 1000
p = 120000
Thus P and Q invested Rs. 120000
Hence option (d) is correct

21 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
The average of nine numbers is 82
The sum of 9 numbers = 82 x 9 = 738
The average of the first five numbers is 78
The sum of 5 numbers = 78 x 5 = 390
The next three is 80
The sum of next three numbers = 80 x 3 = 240
The value of 9th number = 738 - (390 + 240) = 108

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 9th number = 108
10th number = 108 + 5 = 113
Now,
Statement I: The ninth number is exactly divisible by 6
108/6 = 18
Hence statement I is correct
Statement II: The tenth number is exactly divisible by 3
113/3 = 2 as remainder
Thus it is not exactly divisible by 3
Hence statement II is incorrect
Statement III: The sum of ninth and tenth number is exactly divisible by 7
108 + 113 = 221
221/2 = 1 as remainder
Thus sum is not exactly divisible by 2
Hence statement III is incorrect

22 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around human existence based on
commonality, and the cultivation of that commonality and like-mindedness by
having shared beliefs, ideas, aspirations etc. Apart from physical proximity, it is
crucial to be like-minded.
Option B is the correct answer as it best describes the crux of the passage.
Option A is incorrect as physical participation is not the only way to reflect
like-mindedness.
Option C is incorrect as it is not possible to cultivate similar attitude by being
emotionally distant.
Option D is incorrect as it has no relevance to the central idea of the passage.

23 d Ans. (d)

Explanation:

The central theme of the passage revolves around the discussion of the
interdisciplinary nature of the study of Criminology within the larger realm of
social sciences. With regard to the same, the question asks to identify incorrect
statement out of the given options.

All the statements are correct. Therefore, D is the correct answer.

Option A is correct as is clearly evident in the following lines- “Criminology is

internally diverse, being subdivided into several competing and overlapping
schools of thought.”
Option B is correct and is mentioned in the passage- “Most of the empirical
analysis of inter-personal violence in the social sciences now takes place in the
field of criminology.”
Option C is correct- “Most of the empirical analysis of inter-personal violence
in the social sciences now takes place in the field of criminology… and within a
relatively segregated field of ‘violence against women.’”

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 24 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around the provisions of IT Act for
regulation of online content with regard to privacy, obscenity, child sexual
abuse etc.
Statement one is correct as is explicitly mentioned in the passage.
Statement two is incorrect as protection under the ‘safe harbour’ provision is
conditional and non-discretionary.
Statement three is correct as is explicitly mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, by elimination, C is the correct answer.

25 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
Let the number of people be X
Original cost of x number of people = Rs. 600X
The cost remains the same = Rs. 600X
If 10 more people are added then the cost would reduce from Rs 600 to Rs.550
So,
550 x (X +10) = 600X
X = 110 = total number of people initially
The original cost = 600 x 110 = Rs. 66000
If increased by 10 = 66000/120 = Rs 550 per head
Now,
Statement I: The cost per head will reduce by 15% from the original cost, if
further 5 more people join the group.
So from 120 people if 5 more people joins then the number of people = 125
Cost per head = 66000/ 125 = Rs. 528
Change in % from original cost = 600 - 528 = 72
72
x 100 = 12%
600
Hence statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: The number of people must be doubled from the original people in
1
order to reduce the cost per head by 4 th from the original cost.
If number of people doubled from the original people = 110 x 2 = 220
The cost per head = 66000/220 = 300
300/600 = 1/2
Thus the cost will reduce to 50% or 1/2 of the original cost
Hence statement II is incorrect.

26 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
P > Q,
P x Q = 2241......(i)
P2 + Q2 = 7618.......(ii)
(P + Q)2 = P2 + Q2 + 2 (P x Q)

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 = 7618 + 4482 = 12100
(P + Q)2 = 12100
P + Q = 110.....(iii)
From equation (i) and (iii) we get
P = 83 and Q = 27, as P > Q
Now,
Statement I: The pair (P, Q) are co-prime numbers.
(83, 27) are co-prime numbers as their HCF is 1
Hence statement I is correct
P−Q
Statement II: The value of 2 is a prime number
83−27
2
= 56/2 = 28
28 is not a prime number
Hence statement II is incorrect
Statement III: The value of (P + Q)3 have 3 trailing zeros.
(110)3 = (11 x 10)3 = (11)3 x (10)3 = Thus it have 3 trailing zeros = 1331000
Hence statement III is correct

27 a Solution:
Given that,
Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 notes ratio = 9 : 8.....(i)
Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 notes ratio = 7 : 6.......(ii)
Multiplying 7 and 8 in equation (i) and (ii)
the ratio becomes
63 : 56 and 56 : 48
Thus the ratio of Rs. 2, Rs. 5, and Rs. 10 are 68 : 56 : 48
Let the ratio be a
Number of Rs. 2 notes = 63a
Number of Rs. 5 notes = 56a
Number of Rs. 10 notes = 48a
Total Rs bag contains = 6202
So,
63a x 2 + 56a x 5 + 48a x 10 = 6202
126a + 280a + 480a =6202
886a = 6202
a=7
Thus,
Number of Rs. 2 notes = 63 x 7 = 441
Number of Rs. 5 notes = 56 x 7 = 392
Number of Rs. 10 notes = 48 x 7 = 336
Now,
Statement I: There are total odd number of Rs. 2 notes.
Number of Rs. 2 notes = 63 x 7 = 441
Hence, Statement I is correct
Statement II: Rs. 5 notes are 48 more than Rs. 10 notes
Number of Rs. 5 notes = 56 x 7 = 392
Number of Rs. 10 notes = 48 x 7 = 336
392 -336 = 56
Hence, Statement II is incorrect
Statement III: Rs. 10 notes are 25% of total number of notes.

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 Total number of notes = 441 + 392 + 336 = 1169
Number of Rs. 10 notes = 48 x 7 = 336
(336/1163) x 100 = 28.74%
Hence, Statement III is incorrect
Statement IV: The total amount of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 notes combined is more
than 80% of the total amount in the bag.
Number of Rs. 5 notes = 56 x 7 = 392
Amount = 392 x 5 = Rs. 1960
Number of Rs. 10 notes = 48 x 7 = 336
Amount = 336 x 10 = Rs. 3360
Total amount = Rs. 6202
The total amount of Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 notes combined = 1960 + 3360 = Rs.
5320
(5320/6202) x 100 = 85.77 %
Hence, Statement IV is correct

28 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
P2 - 13P + 42 =0
By solving we get,
P = 6 and 7
Now,
Statement I: The values of (P3 - P2) can be even and odd both.
When P = 6
(63 - 62) = 180
When P = 7
(73 - 72) = 294
Thus both the values are even
Hence, statement I is incorrect
Statement II: The values of (P2 + 2) cannot be a prime number.
When P = 6
(62 + 2) = 38
When P = 7
(72 + 2) = 51
Thus both values have more than 2 factors and are not prime numbers
Hence, statement II is correct

29 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
PQRS -PSRQ = 792......(i)
The digits can be written in the form
1000P + 100Q + 10R + S - ( 1000P + 100S + 10R + Q) = 792......(ii)
By solving equation (ii) we get
99Q - 99S = 792
Q-S=8
The possible pairs of Q and S is only (1, 9)
Now,
Statement I: The difference between the second and the last digit is 6.

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 Q-S=8
Hence, Statement I is incorrect
Statement II: The sum of the second and the last digit is a two digit number.
The possible pair of Q and S is only (1, 9).
Thus the sum is 9 + 1 = 10
Hence, Statement II is correct

30 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
3, 3 + P, 13... series are in AP
so
a2 - a1 = a3 - a2
3 + P - 3 = 13 - 3 - P
2P = 10
P=5
Thus series becomes
3, 8, 13, 18, 23 ......
Now,
Statement I: The value of (4 x P) is equal to the 5th term in the series.
4 x 5 = 20
5th term = 23
Hence statement I is incorrect
Statement II: The 5th term is a prime number.
5th term of the series = 23
23 is a prime number
Hence statement II is correct

31 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
K=P+1
Thus equation formed
(6 x P) - 8 = 4 x (P + 1)
6P - 4P = 12
P = 6 and K = 7
Now,
Statement I: The value of (K2 - P2) is equal to R, where R is a odd prime
number.
72 - 62 = 13
Thus, R = 13 which is an odd prime number
Hence statement I is correct
Statement II: The value of (P + K) is exactly divisible by 3.
(P + K) = (6 + 7) = 13
13 is not exactly divisible by 3 as it is a prime number
Hence statement II is incorrect

32 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:

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 Central idea of the passage revolves around caste-based discrimination and the
lack of “messing” or mutual interaction amongst people belonging to different
caste, which creates exclusion and prohibition.
Statement 1 is correct as is clearly mentioned in the passage in the following
line- “In spite of the newness of the point, we must say that Mr. Nesfield has
mistaken the effect for the cause… this absence of messing with outsiders is
not due to positive prohibition, but is a natural result of Caste, i.e.,
exclusiveness.”
Statement 2 is incorrect as it is exactly opposite of the first statement.
Therefore, A is the correct answer.

33 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
Option A is the correct answer as it correctly describes the problem
associated with understanding the thickness of the glaciers accurately.
Option B is incorrect as subglacial over-deepening of basins and valleys due
to glacial erosion has led to formation of three lakes.
Option C is incorrect as it is contrary to what is mentioned in the passage. It
is not the most accurate way.
Option D is incorrect as it is contrary to what is mentioned in the passage.
“very few studies” have been carried out.

34 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The passage primarily talks about the predominance of theology in scientific
issues, despite its outreach significantly declining. The theological dogmas still
predominate issues such as abortion, birth control, etc.
Option C is the correct answer as it best describes the central argument of
the passage.
Options A and B are incorrect as they are contrary to the central argument
given in the passage.
Option D is incorrect as Darwinism caused significant shift, which is
contrary to what is given in the point.

35 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
Simple interest rate = R%
Time period = 10 years
Let principle amount be Rs.100
So, 11 times the amount will be 1100
Interest earned = 1100 - 100 = Rs. 1000
1000 = (100 x 10 x R)/100
R = 100% per annum
Now,
Statement I: The amount will be 16 times of the original amount in 8 years if
R% is compounded annually.
Let the principle amount = Rs. 100
Final amount will be 16 times = Rs. 1600
Rate of interest R% =100%

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 Time = T years
100
1600 = 100 x { 1 + 100 }T
16 = ( 1 + 1 )T
16 = (2)T
T = 4 years.
Hence statement I is incorrect
Statement II: The value of R in percentage terms is less than 80%.
R = 100% per annum
Hence statement II is incorrect

36 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
Difference between two numbers = 2425
Let the smaller number be X
So forming the equation
X + 2425 = 8X + 45
7X = 2380
X = 340
Thus the larger number = 2425 + 340 = 2765
Now,
Statement I: If X is the smaller number, then the value of (X + 1) is a prime
number.
Smaller number X + 1 = 340 + 1 = 341
341 is not a prime number as 341 is divisible by 11 and 31
Hence statement I is incorrect
Statement II: If K is the larger number, then the value of K is exactly divisible
by 7.
K = 2765
K/7 = 2765/7 = 395
Hence statement II is correct

37 b Answer: (b)
Solution :

A number of the form PPQQ has to be a multiple of 11.

Thus, it is the square of either 11 or multiples of 11 but not more than 99
Thus,
882 = 7744 is in the form of PPQQ. This is the only solution possible.
So, P = 7 and Q= 4

Statement I: The value of (P2 - Q2) is a even number.

(P2 - Q2) = (72 - 42)= 33, which is an odd number.
Hence statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: The value of (P + Q) is an odd number.
(P + Q) = (7 + 4) = 11 which is an odd number.
Hence statement II is correct.
Statement III: The pairs (P, Q) are co-prime numbers.
(P, Q) = (7, 4) has HCF 1. Therefore they are co-prime numbers.

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 Hence statement III is correct.

38 a Answer: (a)
Solution :

Solving the expression W x V % Y - Z we get,

W x V means W is Husband of V that means W and V are couples.
V % Y means V is mother of Y and also W is father of Y
Y - Z means Y is brother of Z and Y and Z are siblings. Also, Y is son of W
and V and Y and Z are children's of W and V
Now considering the statements,
Statement I: Z is son of W and V.
Y and Z are children's of W and V as determined above, where Y is son of W
and V and brother of Z. However, Z is male or female cannot be determined.
Therefore Z can be daughter and Son both.
Hence statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: There are exactly two females in the family.
V is a female as V is mother of Y but we cannot determine Z.
Hence statement II is incorrect.
Statement III: There is only one couple in the family.
Y and Z are siblings and W and V are husband and Wife so W and V are
only couples
Hence statement III is correct.

39 c Answer: (c)
Solution:
Given that, X and Y are the numbers whose product is 1430 and the difference
is 29
Let the difference between the numbers be D, product of the numbers be P and
Sum of the numbers be S
So, the formula is
P = (S2 - D2) / 4
1430 x 4 = S2 - 292
5720 = S2 - 841
S2 = 6561
S = 81
So, X - Y = 29......(i)
and X + Y = 81......(ii)
Adding equation (i) from (ii)
2X = 110
X = 55 and Y = 26
Now,
Statement I: The value of (X2 - Y2) is exactly divisible by 9.
(81) x (29) = 2349
2349/9 = 261
Hence statement I is correct
Statement II: The sum X and Y is a perfect square.
X + Y = 81 and 81 is a perfect square of 9.
Hence statement II is correct

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 40 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
N is the square root of the closest perfect square to 280
The closest square roots are 289 and 256
280 + 9 and 280 - 24
so the closest is 289 which is perfect square of 17
Thus the value of N = 17
Now,
Statement I: The value of N is exactly divisible by 6.
17 is not divisible by any number except 1 and 17
Hence statement I is incorrect
Statement III: The value of (N + 2, N) are twin prime numbers.
N + 2 = 19
So, values are 17 and 19
Thus the values are twin primes as the numbers are prime numbers and their
difference is 2
Hence statement II is correct

41 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,
Motorbike leaves Point P at 2pm and moves towards point Q with a uniform
speed
Car leaves Point Q at 3pm and move towards Point P with a uniform speed
twice of motorbike
Both meet at 4: 40 pm
Also motor bike has travelled 184kms
Let the uniform speed be X
Time taken by bike = 2pm to 4:40pm = 160 minutes = 160/60 = 8/3 hrs
Time taken by car = 3pm to 4:40 pm = 100 minutes = 5/3 hrs
Now,
8/3 x X = 184.......(i)
5/3 x 2X = ?
From equation (i)
X = 69km/hr
5/3 x (2 x 69) = 230 km
Thus total distance = 184 + 230 = 414 km
Hence option (b) is correct

42 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
The passage primarily talks about the relationship between a dominant and a
servant nation under different conditions, which determines the need for
independence for the latter.
Option A is the correct answer as it best describes this relationship.
Option B is incorrect because independence for servient nation is not always a
positive outcome, and may be detrimental for it.

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 Option C is incorrect as cutting the knot between the two may not always be
detrimental, which is dependent on internal factors of the servient nation.
Option D is incorrect as the dominant nation’s influence is not always
detrimental since it may provide safety and stability to the servient nation.

43 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The passage primarily discusses the issue of regular flooding in the coastal
deltaic region of Bengal, and the cyclones that cause massive livelihoods losses
every year. The instances of destructive cyclonic storms have increased over the
years.
Statement one is incorrect as loss of livelihood due to floods and cyclones is
considered to be significant.
Statement two is incorrect as is mentions- the sole cause.
Statement three is correct as is evident from the first sentence of the passage.
Therefore, by elimination, B is the correct answer.

44 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around the popularity of irsfluences,
including micro-influencers globally, and the case in India is no different.
Brands are now more forthcoming to promote their goods and services through
marketing influencers.
Option C is the correct answer as it is the only option that correctly describes
what is mentioned in the message.
Option A is incorrect as influencer marketing industry is rapidly growing in
India too.
Option B is incorrect as influencer marketing is yet to become mainstream.
It is almost there as per the passage.
Option D is incorrect as there is no mention of fake reviews and
recommendations in the passage.

45 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The passage is self-explanatory.
Statement one is correct as clearly evident in the lines- “This superhero from
nature, which shields the rocks from further weathering, could help in the
design of similar bio-inspired products and raw materials for the paint and
pigment industries.”
Statement two is correct as is evident in the line- “Interactions between
minerals and microbes present in rocks in arid regions result in a super hero
called rock varnish- an orange-yellow to black coating found on exposed rock
surfaces in these areas.”
Therefore, C is the correct answer.

46 a Answer: (a)
Explanation: Numbers leaving a remainder of 4 when divided by 7: 4, 11, 18,

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 25, 32, 39, 46, 53 60, 67, ...Numbers leaving a remainder of 9 when divided by
11: 9, 20, 31, 42, 53, 64, .....here 53 is common in the sequence. The common
difference of the first sequence is 7 and that of the second sequence is 11.
Elements common to both the sequences will have a common difference that is
the LCM of 7 and 11. So 77 is the LCM of 7 and 11. Every 77th number after 53
will be a term common to both the series .So, the terms that are common to
both the arithmetic sequences can be expressed as 77k + 53. Because we are
interested in the first 1000 natural numbers, k will take values from 0 to 12.
i.e., a total of 13 values. Option A is correct.

47 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
'La Sa Co' means 'She is good'
From statement I:
'Ni Sa Po' means 'All are good'
'La Sa Co' means 'She is good'
Therefore 'Sa' means "good"
Hence statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From statement II:
'La Ma Co' means 'She is honest'
'La Sa Co' means 'She is good'
Therefore La and Co means 'She is' and Sa means 'good'
Hence statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

48 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
From statement I: B earns more than A and D but less than only C.
B > A, B > D and B < C
Therefore,
C > B > A > D or C > B > D > A
Hence statement I alone is insufficient to answer the question.
From statement II:
A earns more than D who earns less than E.
A > D and E > D
Therefore
A > E > D or E > A > D
Hence statement II alone is insufficient to answer the question.
Together Statement I and II
C > B > E > A > D or C > B > A > E > D
Therefore, either of E or A can be second least.
Hence Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer
the Question.

49 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
Given that,

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 P > Q and S > R
From statement I: R is younger than P
R can be elder than Q and S can be Elder than P
Hence statement I alone is insufficient to answer the question.
From statement II: S is younger than Q
P > Q, S > R and Q > S
Therefore,
P>Q>S>R
Thus R is the youngest
Hence statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

50 a Answer: (a)
Solution:
Given that,
From statement I: The first Monday of that month fell on 6th.
So, 6th, 13th, 20th and 27th was Monday
Thus Last Monday was on 27th of the given month
Hence statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From statement II: The last day of the month was Friday
As we don’t know number of days in the given month so we cannot find last
Monday will fall on which date
Hence statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

51 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
P is brother of Q
From statement I:
Q is sister of R, which means Q is female
Therefore Q is also sister of P
Hence statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
From statement II: R is husband of Q
Therefore Q is female
Thus Q is sister of P
Hence statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

52 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
From statement I:
Leap year has 366 days
February has 29 days in a leap year = 28 days + 1 extra day
4 weeks have 4 Mondays
Thus an extra day can be a Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday,
Saturday or Sunday
Thus the probability is 1/7
Hence statement I is incorrect.
Statement II:
January have 31 days

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 3 extra days
Thus the probability of having 5 Monday's is 3/7
Hence statement II is correct.

53 d Ans. (d)
Explanation:
The passage primarily talks about the potential of generating AI to transform
consumer experiences, provided it does not encroach upon the privacy and
protection of stakeholders involved. Towards this, frameworks must be
established with the participation of various stakeholders in order to ensure
protection.
Option D is the correct answer as it best describes the central concern
regarding generative AI.
Option A is incorrect as unrestricted usage has negative connotation
according to the passage.
Option B is incorrect because it is the responsibility of both regulatory bodies
with inputs from AI developers.
Option C is incorrect as balance cannot be overlooked under any
circumstances.

54 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The central theme of the passage revolves around achieving digital resilience in
school education in India, which was hampered during the Covid pandemic due
to lack of adequate technological and digital platforms, leading to lack of access
to education of students across all regions.
Statement one is correct as is clearly evident from the passage, and is also
explicitly mentioned in the last sentence of the passage.
Statement two is incorrect as the assumption that global educational
platforms want to enter Indian market cannot be established as it is completely
out of context based on the given passage.
The question asks to choose incorrect statements as answer.
Therefore, B is the correct answer.

55 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The passage primarily talks about drylands and related agricultural outcomes
which, apart from climatic vulnerabilities, affect the livelihood of local
communities. There are various non-climatic social factors which lead to
vulnerability in terms of accessibility and approach.
Option B is the correct answer as it most appropriately describes the central
argument of the passage.
Options A and C are incorrect even though it may seem to be correct on its
own. The statements are data insufficient and do not represent the main
argument of the passage.

56 d Ans. (d)
Explanation:

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 Statement one is correct as the passage clearly mentions that livelihood of
local communities is affected by unseasonal climatic vulnerabilities.
Statement two is correct as social determinants such as caste and
community affect one’s access to resources, types of livelihoods, and therefore,
the related vulnerabilities.
Statement three is correct as social structure, such as groups that are “better
off and more resilient” have the likelihood of practising resource-intensive
practises which are detrimental to the environment.
The question asks to choose incorrect statements as answer. Since all the
statements are correct, D is the correct answer.

57 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
Option C is the correct answer as it best describes the logical and rational
conclusion that can be made.
Option A is incorrect as there is a provision to import inputs as means of
replenishment.
Option B is incorrect as AA scheme is only for import of inputs for goods that
are exclusively going to be exported and does not include domestic sales.
Option D is incorrect as GST Council is not mentioned in the passage. It is
SION which determines the quantity of input to be imported.

58 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around the Advanced Authorization
Scheme, which is detailed in the chapter 4 of FTP, which regulates the import of
inputs for production of goods meant to be exported. The passage also talks
about the exemption on import duties and provisions for local procurement etc.
Statement one is incorrect as input goods can be imported before the
production of goods destined for exports begins.
Statement two is correct as is explicitly mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, B is the correct answer.

59 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
Given that,
Number of person for laptops = 75
Number of person for I pads = 55
Number of persons for both = 15
Total number of person survey's taken = 75 + 55 - 15 = 115 person
Hence option (d) is correct

60 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
From statement I:
Village C is to the South of village A and village C is to the west of village B.
A

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 C B

Thus from figure A is northwest of B

Hence statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question
From statement II: Village D is to the East of village A and village D is to the
North of village B.

A D

B
Thus from figure A is northwest of B
Hence statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question

61 b Answer: (b)
Solution:
From statement I: Q went to market two days after T.
Possible options for T - Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday.
Hence statement I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II:
P went to market on the second day of the week and two days before T.
So, P went to market on Tuesday which means T went to market on Thursday.
Hence statement Il alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From statement III:
R went to market just before T and immediately after S.
Possible options for T-Wednesday, Thursday, Friday and Saturday.
Hence statement III alone is not sufficient.

62 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
From statement I:
U>P>R
However, the position of Q, S and T cannot be determined
Hence statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
From statement II: No lecture after lecture Q.
So lecture Q is at end hours
Hence statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
Combining statement I and II
The position of S and T cannot be determined
Hence Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer
the Question.

63 c Answer: (c)
Solution:
From statement I:
A can purchase house either in October or November

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 Hence statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement II: A has not purchased a house in October
Except October it can be any month
Hence statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement III:
A has purchased a house in that month which has 30 days.
Hence statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
From statement I and II:
A has purchased house in the month of November
From statement I and III:
A has purchased house in the month of November as October is of 31 days
Hence, either statement II or Statement III along with Statement I are
sufficient to answer the question.

64 c Answer: (c)
Explanation: 38 × 38 = 1444 so C-B = 4-1=3

65 c Answer: (c)
Explanation:
29 × 31= 899 so A is 2 and B is 9 hence (B - A)= 9-2=7

66 d Answer: (d)
Solution:
XYXYX can be expressed in the form of:
XYXYY= 100000X + 10000Y + 1000X + 100Y + 10X + Y
XYXYXY = (100000X + 1000X + 10X) + (10000Y + 100Y + Y)
XYXYXY = 101010X + 10101Y
XYXYXY= 10101(10X) + 10101(Y)
XYXYXY=10101 x [10X + Y]
Prime factors of 10101 are 3 x 7 x 13 x 37
XYXYXY= 3 * 7 * 13 * 37 (10X+Y)
XYXYXY is divisible by 3, 7, 13 & 37.

67 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
The passage centrally focuses on the importance of efficient and accessible
public transport system globally, with increasing shift being made towards
collective and healthier, non-motorised transportation system post-pandemic.
Option A is the correct answer as it most logically describes the central
argument of the passage.
Option B is incorrect as walking and cycling does not address the issues of
road facilities, which is a major concern.
Option C is incorrect as the divide between Global North and Global South is
not diminished. Rather, it is starkly noticeable.

68 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
Statement one is incorrect as the urban transportation system is not
uniformly efficient across the world, with pronounced divide between global

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 north and global south.
Statement two is incorrect as the passage says, ‘almost half of the population’
which means not a majority, does not have access to efficient transportation
system.
Options C and D are correct as are explicitly mentioned in the passage.
Therefore, B is the correct answer.

69 c Ans. (c)
Explanation:
The passage revolves around adoption of long-term planning of cities for
addressing the challenges sustainably in the long run. Towards this, local
governments are crucial stakeholders to address migration and displacement
challenges, and contribute to positive growth of cities.
Option C is the correct answer as it best describes the central argument of
the passage.
Option A is incorrect and is contrary to the central argument of the passage.
Cities should move away from traditional planning.
Option B is incorrect as it is contrary to what is mentioned in the message.
Local governments are significant in driving transformative shifts.
Option D is incorrect as initiatives should be taken by local governments, and
central planning with the help of external agencies is not advisable.

70 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
Statement one is correct as it is clearly evident in the first half of the passage-
“cities must focus on incorporating long-term strategies and future-oriented
perspectives in their decision-making processes. Adopting this anticipatory
mentality enables cities to effectively navigate upcoming uncertainties.”
Statement two is incorrect as “autonomy” is not mentioned in the paragraph.
Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.

71 b Ans. (b)
Explanation:
The central idea of the passage revolves around food fortification with essential
micronutrients, including vitamins and minerals, which are essential for the
overall healthy development of our bodies.
The question asks to identify incorrect statement amongst the given options.
Option B is the correct answer as the passage explicitly mentions that
consumer awareness is an essential component of achieving shift to healthier
diets.
Options A, C and D are correct as is explicitly mentioned and evident in the
passage.

72 a Ans. (a)
Explanation:
Statement one is correct as consumer awareness and education regarding
nutritional content is important.
Statement two is incorrect as this statement overlooks fortification.
Therefore, A is the correct answer.

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 73 d Answer d
Explanation: None is correct. Any number with form XYZXYZ is always
divisible by 7, 11 and 13. While any number with form XYXY is always divisible
by 101.

74 d Explanation

350 =(35)10 =(243)10

440 =(44)10=(256)10
530 =(53)10 =(125)10
620 = (62)10 = (36)10.

So Option D is correct.

75 a Explanation: Here 18 pairs of 666666= 108 times

So remaining 666 would be divided by 37 and we get R=0. Note- If any number
repeats six times like 111111, 222222 it is completely divisible by 37.

76 c answer C
Explanation: The four digit even numbers will be of form: 1100, 1122, 1144 …
1188, 2200, 2222, 2244 … 9900, 9922,9944,9966,9988
Their sum ‘S’ will be (1100+1100+22+1100+44+1100+66+1100+88) +
(2200+2200+22+2200+44+) …. + (9900+9900+22+9900+44……)
S=1100*5+(22+44+66+88)+2200*5+(22+44+66+88)….+9900*5+(22+44+66+88)...

S=5*1100(1+2+3+…9)+9(22+44+66+88) S=5*1100*9*10/2 + 9*11*20...

S=5*1100*9*10/2 + 9*11*20 .
Total number of numbers are 9*5=45 .’. Mean will be S/45 = 5*1100+44=5544.
Hence Option C is correct.

77 a Answer A
Solution: Option a is correct.
7(5244)/400=7(4^1311)/400=24011311/400=11311= 1 by using remainder theorem.

78 b Answer… (b)
Solution: We can write it as
550 (1 x 2 x 3 x 4…………………………………… x 49 x 50)
550 (50!)
To find number of zeros we first find
Maximum power of 2 in 50!

[50/2]+[50/22]+[50/23]+[50/24]+[50/25]+…..= 25 + 12 + 6 + 3 +1= 47 and

Maximum power of 5 in 50! Is [50/5]+[50/52]+[50/53]+…..= 10 + 2= 12.

Thus maximum power of 5 present in given expression is 62 and maximum

power of 2 present in given expression is 47. Hence number of zeros will be 47.

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 79 c Answer c
Solution: Option d is correct. Here in this series the last value is 210 which we
get if we use {n(n+1)}/2. If we put n=20 we get 210. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Sum of the terms in the ‘last group’ i.e. (191^2+ 192^2+ ……….210^2) = (1^2 +
…………210^2)- (1^2 + …….190^2) = 804670. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
Sum of all terms except last group i.e. (1^2 + …………210^2)- 804670 =
2304415 So statement 3 is correct.

80 c Solution: Option c is correct.

(666666666666…………………….99 times)/37
16 pairs of 666666 = 96 times. Now only 666 is remaining which has to be
divided by 37 then we get 0 as remainder. Concept used if any number is
written 6 times like 666666 then it will exactly divisible by 7,11,13,37.

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