COMPETENCY OPTIMIZING REVIEW (CORe) 5.

Nurse Hannah is caring for a young diabetic woman who

GUIDED NLE REVIEW is in her first trimester of pregnancy. As the pregnancy
continues Nurse Hannah should anticipate which change in
her medication needs?
DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION II
a. A decrease in the need for short-acting insulins
b. A steady increase in insulin requirements
SITUATION: Nursing Process always must be implemented
c. Oral hypoglycemic drugs will be given several times daily
with an awareness of the interrelationship, during
d. The variable pattern of insulin absorption throughout
childbearing, of the maternal and fetal needs and their
the pregnancy requires constant adjustment
manifestations. The nurse needs to keep in mind that
interventions for the mother may have an impact on the
6. As early as the 3rd week of intrauterine life, fetal blood
developing fetus and vice versa.
begins to exchange nutrients with the maternal circulation
across the chorionic villi. Fetal circulation differs from
1. Knowledge of sexual functioning is defined as the extent
extrauterine circulation in all but one of the following
of understanding conveyed about sexual development and
aspects:
responsible sexual practices. The following are specific
a. The blood that enters the lungs is oxygenated in fetal
indicators that suggest that this outcome has been
circulation while it is unoxygenated in an adult circulation
achieved except:
b. Fetal oxygen in the blood is derived from the placenta
a. Ability of the client to describe effective contraception
while in adult the oxygen is from the lungs
b. The client was able to describe the societal influences
c. The vein (carrying oxygenated blood) in the umbilicus of
on sexual behavior
the fetus carries blood away from the heart and the artery
c. The client was able to describe the inner sense of
(carrying unoxygenated blood) carries blood toward the
his/her identity
fetus. In an adult, it is the vein which carries unoxygenated
d. The client was able to describe measures to prevent
blood toward the heart and the arteries that carry
sexually transmitted diseases
oxygenated blood away from the heart
d. In fetal circulation, shunting of blood is present while in
2. To preserve the reproductive health of the woman and
an adult circulation, there is normally no shunting of
man, guidelines for safer sex practices were established.
blood.
Which of the following statements is not included?
a. The use of condoms is the best protection against
7. Maricar asks Nurse Sarah at what age of gestation is the
infection. Condoms are latex, use oil-based lubricant
product of conception prone to teratogenic insults to the
rather than
cardiovascular system?
water-based lubricant because it can weaken the rubber
a. 4th week b. 8th week
b. Be selective in choosing sexual partners
c. 12th week d. 16th week
c. For safer oral-vaginal sex, a condom split in two or a
plastic dental dam covering the mouth should be used to
8. Nurse Mian discusses the fetal circulation to the
protect against the exchange of body fluids
students. To check whether the student understands her
d. Use oil lubricants for anal penetration to keep bleeding
teaching she asks, “What is the fetal structure that carries
and condom resistance to a minimum
oxygenated blood from the umbilical cord to the inferior
vena cava”. The student correctly answers, “It is the:
3. A 22-year old woman has missed two of her regular
a. Ductus Venosus b. Ductus Arteriosus
menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms an early,
c. Pulmonary Artery d. Formane Ovale
intrauterine pregnancy. To determine her expected due
date, which of the following assessments is most
9. The day after a client has cesarean birth, the indwelling
important?
catheter is removed. The nurse can best evaluate that the
a. Date of her first menstrual period
client’s urinary function has returned to normal when:
c. Date of last normal menstrual period
a. Client’s urinalysis indicates no bacteria present
b. Date of sexual intercourse
b. Client has residual urine of 90 ml after voiding
d. Age of menarche
c. Client’s daily urinary output is at least 1000 ml
d. Client voids at least 300 ml four hours after catheter
4. A primigravid client asks Nurse Isabelle how the action
removal
of hormones during pregnancy affects her body. Nurse
Isabelle responds on the basis that hormones:
10. A nurse is working with a particular cultural group in
a. Raises resistance to insulin
which it is not uncommon for grandparents to live with
c. Prevents the liver from metabolizing glycogen
their married children and to assist with child rearing and
b. Blocks the release of insulin from the pancreas
discipline issues. This is an example of which of the
d. Enhances the conversion of food to glucose
following?
a. Blended family b. Traditional family
c. Two-career family d. Intragenerational family
11. Nurse Isabel is conducting a family assessment to a
pregnant client and asks the following question: "How, as
a family, do you deal with disappointments or stressful
changes that occur and affect the members of your
family?" The nurse is trying to identify:
a. Health beliefs c. Family coping mechanisms
b. Family communication patterns d. Potential family
problems
12. Regardless of whether someone is planning on
childbearing, everyone is wiser by being familiar with
reproductive anatomy and physiology and his or her own
body’s reproductive and sexual health. Which of the
following is true about the reproductive development?
a. Male and female reproductive systems arise from the
same embryonic origin
b. The sex of an individual is determined 10 weeks after
conception
c. If testosterone is not present at 5 weeks, the gonadal
tissue differentiates into ovaries
d. Estrogen influences the enlargement of the labia majora
and clitoris
13. During the secretory phase of menstrual cycle, the
glands of the uterine endometrium becomes corkscrew in
appearance and dilated with quantities of glycogen and
mucin. This activity is stimulated by which hormone?
a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Glycogen d. Prolactin
14. A client expresses concern about his son who is a
homosexual. He states, "Nag-aalala ako sa kanya, alam ko
sa impyerno ang tuloy nya.” In responding to this client,
the nurse should consider which of the following
important information?
a. Sexual development is genetically determined and not
affected by environment.
b. What constitutes normal sexual expression varies
among cultures and religions.
c. Normal sexuality is described as whatever behaviors
give pleasure and satisfaction to those adults involved.
d. Since alternative lifestyles are now so well accepted in
society, this parent should not feel so much concern.
15. The nurse working in a family planning clinic is aware
that oral contraceptives are not contraindicated for which
of the following patients?
a. A 30-year old woman who smokes more than 15
cigarettes a day
b. A 30-year old diabetic woman
c. A 10 week postpartum client who is not breastfeeding
d. A client who experiences migraine with aura
16. An Intrauterine device is being fitted to a client. The
nurse understands that IUD prevents pregnancy by:
a. Creating a sterile inflammatory process that prevents
implantation
b. Suppressing secretion of FSH and LH
c. Blocking the fallopian tube to prevent entry of the ovum
d. Killing the spermatozoa before they can enter the
cervix
17. The nurse will advise a pregnant client, who is
scheduled for amniocentesis, to perform which of the
following?
a. Increase the fluid intake to help aspirate more amniotic
fluid during the procedure
b. Lie in side lying-position to avoid supine hypotension
during the procedure
c. Ask the client to take a deep breath and hold it during
insertion of needle
d. Rest for 30 minutes after the procedure
18. A high-risk pregnant client will go through a non-stress
test. The result indicates a reactive non-stress test. The
client asks the nurse what it means. The nurse aptly replies
by saying:
a. “The fetus is receiving adequate oxygen”
b. “The fetal heart rate is decreasing, instead of increasing,
with every contraction”
c. “There is no fetal movement during stimulation”
d. “You are at risk for premature labor; the doctor may
prescribe tocolytic drug”
19. Which of the following common emotional reactions to
pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first
trimester?
a. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism c. Anxiety,
passivity, extroversion
b. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness d.
Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
20. Which of the following statements, if made by a
woman who is 12 weeks pregnant, would be essential for a
nurse
to further evaluate?
a. “I thought I wanted to be pregnant, but now I don’t
know”
b. “My husband is angry because I got pregnant”
c. “Being pregnant makes me feel very tried”
d. “I don’t want to get too fat while I’m pregnant”
21. Mrs. Selena complains of morning sickness during the
first trimester of pregnancy. A nurse would suggest that
she take which of the following measures to help alleviate
the symptoms?
a. Consume a clear liquid diet c. Eat foods that are low
in protein
b. Take prenatal vitamins with milk d. Avoid exposure to
noxious odors
22. Nurse Heart is caring for a woman who is admitted to
the hospital in active labor. What information is most
important for Nurse Heart to assess to avoid respiratory 29. Ectopic pregnancy is the second most frequent cause
complications during labor and delivery? of bleeding early in the pregnancy. It occurs more
a. Family history of lung disease c. Number of cigarettes frequently in the following women. Which is not included?
smoked daily a. Woman who smokes c. Woman who uses IUD’s
b. Food or drug allergies d. When the client last ate b. Woman who douches d. Woman who uses oral
contraceptives
23. Mrs. Pilapil is admitted to the hospital in labor. Vaginal
examination reveals that she is 8 cm dilated. At this point 30. Nurse Mara is caring for a client with suspected
in her labor, which of the following statements would the pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH). She expects to find
nurse expect her to make? which findings if PIH is present?
a. “I can’t decide what to name my baby” c. “Take your a. Edema, obesity, ketonuria c. Edema, proteinuria,
hand off my stomach when I have a contraction” hypertension
b. “It feels good to push with each contraction” d. “This b. Edema, tachycardia, ketonuria d. Hyportension,
isn’t as bad as I expected” edema, hyperalbunemia

24. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, 31. Because a woman who is confirmed to be at 30 weeks
with a uterus that is tender when palpated, remains gestation has sudden painless bright red vaginal bleeding,
unusually large, and not descending as normally expected. a nurse would suspect the woman is experiencing:
Which of the following should the nurse assess next? a. Abruption placenta b. An ectopic pregnancy
a. Lochia b. Breasts c. Incision d. Urine c. Placenta previa d. A molar pregnancy

25. Nurse Hannah is assessing a postpartum client whose 32. A woman who frequently abuses cocaine during
uterus is palpable 6 days after delivering the baby. Nurse pregnancy is at risk for developing which of the following
Hannah documents this as: complications?
a. An expected finding a. Incompetent cervix c. Gestational diabetes
b. Possible uterine atony b. Abruptio placenta d. Hyperremesis gravidarum
c. Abnormal finding that needs further assessment
d. Possible retained placenta 33. The nurse is planning for the care of a 30-year-old
26. A nurse observes a new mother breast feeding her primigravida with pre-gestational diabetes. What is the
newborn. Which of the following actions would indicate to most important factor affecting this client's pregnancy
a outcome?
nurse that the mother has a correct understanding of a. Mother's age.
breastfeeding techniques? c. Degree of glycemic control during pregnancy.
a. Cleansing the breast with soap and water prior to b. Amount of insulin required prenatally.
feeding the newborn d. Number of years since diabetes was diagnosed.
b. Scheduling the newborn to feed every six hours around 34. While caring to a postpartal client, nurse Hannah
the clock noticed an increase in her respirations and the client is
c. Initiating the newborn’s feeding on the same breast for complaining of chest pain. Nurse Hannah should first:
each feeding a. Notify the physician c. Obtain an order for
d. Placing the nipple and areola into the newborn’s mouth antianxiety
b. Assess vital signs d. Provide supportive care
27. A newborn who is being cared for in an open warming
unit has an axillary temperature of 96.2deg F (35.7 deg C). 35. The nurse is assessing Nancy who is now in her third
It is essential that the nurse take which of the following trimester with known maternal hypertenstion. She was
actions? scheduled to have her ultrasonography today. Based on
a. Wrap the newborn in a blanket c. Increase the heat- her health history, what could be the possible defect
control setting on the warming unit brought
b. Notify the parents of the findings d. Perform a heel about by her condition may be manifested by her fetus?
stick to check the capillary blood glucose a. Hypoglycemia b. Fetal lung maturity delays c. Small
for gestational age d. All of the above
28. Signs of imminent miscarriage are noted by Nurse
Hannah in a woman at 8 weeks’ gestation. Which of the 36. A client was admitted to the maternity unit with
following would be an appropriate medical management symptoms of preeclampsia. The nurse is concerned that
approach for this woman? the client
a. The woman will undergo sonogram c. Teach her the may be developing HELLP syndrome if which of the
need for bedrest for 2 weeks following are noted?
b. Prepare her for D&C d. Increase fluid intake a. Deep tendon reflex (4+) c. Decrease in AST
b. Decrease in platelet count d. Sudden increase in
weight
37. Oyo Hermosa, 24-year old, comes to the clinic because
she thinks she is pregnant. Which of the following is a
probable sign of pregnancy that the nurse would expect
the client to have?
a. Fetal heart tone
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Amenorrhea
d. Chadwick’s sign
38. A woman, 30 weeks gestation, is being discharged to
home care with a diagnosis of placenta previa. What
statement by the client indicates she understands her care
at home?
a. “As I get closer to my due date I will have to remain in
bed”
b. “I can continue with my office job because it’s mostly
sitting”
c. “My husband won’t be too happy with this ‘no sex’
order”
d. “I’m disappointed that will need a caesarean section”
39. Which nursing action should be included in the care of
the infant with caput succedaneum?
a. Aspiration of the trapped blood under the periosteum
c. Gentle rubbing in a circular motion to decrease size
b. Explanation to the parents about the cause/prognosis
d. Application of cold to reduce size
40. The nursery nurse carries a newborn baby into his
mother’s room. The mother states, “I think my baby’s
afraid of me, everytime I make a loud noise, he jumps.”
What should be the nurse’s initial action?
a. Encourage her not to be so nervous with her baby
b. Reassure her that this is normal reflexive reaction for
her baby
c. Take the baby back to the nursery for neurologic
evaluation
d. Wrap the baby more lightly in warm blankets
41. The nurse should refer the parents of an 8-month-old
child to a health care provider if the child is unable to do
which of the following?
a. Stand momentarily without holding onto furniture. c.
Stoop to recover an object.
b. Stand alone well for long period of time. d. Sit without
support for long periods of time.
42. A mother comes to the clinic complaining about her 7-
month-old son having colic. Nurse Hannah should not
include which teaching?
a. “I should avoid over feeding my child.”
b. "this discomfort is more common in infants who are
formula fed.”
c. “I should let my infant burp after every feeding.”
d. “I should try to place hot water bottle on my infant’s
abdomen for comfort.”
43. A baby undergoes surgery to correct an esophageal
atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula. Which nursing
diagnosis has the highest priority during the first 24 hours
postoperatively?
a. Ineffective airway clearance c. Interrupted breast-
feeding
b. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements d.
Hypothermia
44. It is now recommended that children with asthma who
are taking long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed
frequently because which of the following may develop?
a. Cough b. Osteoporosis c. Slowed growth
d. Cushing syndrome
45. Which of the following explains why iron-deficiency
anemia is common during toddlerhood?
a. Milk is a poor source of iron.
b. Iron cannot be stored during fetal development.
c. Fetal iron stores are depleted by age 1 month.
d. Dietary iron cannot be started until age 12 months.
46. A 6-month-old infant is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The
nurse should notify the practitioner and withhold the
medication if the apical pulse is less than which of the
following?
a. 60 b. 70 c. 90 to 110 d. 110 to 120
47. The nurse is discharging from the hospital a 7-month-
old who weighs 15 lb. The parents have put the child in the
back seat of the car with the car seat facing the front seat.
Upon seeing the parents’ action, what should the nurse
prioritize to do?
a. Ask the parents to wait while the nurse obtains the
correct car seat.
b. Complete the discharge with the child sitting facing the
front seat.
c. Give the parents a manual on proper car seat
placement.
d. Show the parents’ proper placement of the car seat
facing the back seat.
48. Which nursing intervention is appropriate when caring
for this child’s surgical incision one day after the cleft lip
repair?
a. Clean the incision only when serous exudates forms
b. Rub the incision gently with a sterile cotton-tipped swab
c. Rinse the incision with sterile water after feeding
d. Replace the Logan Bar carefully after cleaning the
incision
49. When taking a diet history from the mother of a 7-
year-old child with phenylketonuria, a report of an intake
of which of the following foods should cause the nurse to
become concerned?
a. Coke Zero b. Carrots c. Orange juice d. Bananas
50. A toddler who has been treated for a foreign body
aspiration begins to fuss and cry when the parents attempt
to leave the hospital for an hour. The parents will be
returning to take the toddler home. As the nurse tries to
take the child out of the crib, the child pushes the nurse
away. The nurse interprets this behavior as indicating
separation
anxiety involving which of the following?
a. Protest b. Despair c. Regression d. Detachment
51. Which of the following foods should the nurse
encourage the mother to offer to her child with iron
deficiency anemia?
a. Rice cereal, whole milk, and yellow vegetables c.
Macaroni, cheese, and ham
b. Potato, peas, and chicken d. Pudding, green
vegetables, and rice
52. The mother asks the nurse why her child’s hemoglobin
was normal at birth but now the child has S hemoglobin.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be
most appropriate?
a. “The placenta bars passage of the hemoglobin S from
the mother to the fetus.”
b. “The red bone marrow does not begin to produce
hemoglobin S until several months after birth.”
c. “Antibodies transmitted from you to the fetus provide
the newborn with temporary immunity.”
d. “The newborn has a high concentration of fetal
hemoglobin in the blood for some time after birth.”
53. The child was confirmed to have UTI and was confined
to the hospital. The father tells Nurse Joey, “My wife and I
are concerned because our child refuses to obey us
concerning the preventions of UTI. Our child refuses to
take her
medication unless we buy her a present. We don’t want to
use discipline because of the illness, but we’re worried
about the behavior.” Which response by the nurse is best?
a. “I sympathize with your difficulties, but just ignore the
behaviour for now.”
b. “I understand it’s hard to discipline a child who is ill, but
things need to be kept as normal as possible.”
c. “I understand that things are difficult for you right now,
but your child is ill and deserves a special treatment.”
d. “I understand your concern, but this type of behaviour
happens all the time, your child will get over it when
feeling better.”
SITUATION: CHN
54. Public health systems are operating within a context of
ongoing changes. Which of the following exerts a number
of pressures on the public health system?
a. Shifts in demographic and epidemiological trends in
diseases.
c. New technologies
b. Health reforms
d. All of the above
55. In response to above trends, the global community,
represented by UN General Assembly, decided to adopt a
common vision exemplified by the Millennium
Development Goal that includes:
i. eradicate extreme poverty and hunger v. improve
maternal health
ii. achieve universal primary education vi. combat HIV
iii. promote gender equality vii. ensure environmental
sustainability
iv. reduce child mortality viii. develop global partnership
a. i, ii, iii, iv b. v, vi, vii, viii c. i, iii, iv, vii, viii d. all of the
above
56. Nurse should remember which of the following as
essential in the achievement of the Millennium
Development Goal and stand as the major overarching
goal of poverty reduction?
a. Health b. Health-related c. Participation of all
members of society d. FOURmula one
57. Community Health Nursing is responsible to:
a. Individuals
c. Families
b. Local government units (LGU’s)
d. Individuals, families, population groups, community
58. What is the basic principle in Community Health
Nursing?
a. Promote a self-reliant community
b. Eradicate the immunizable diseases
c. Control of communicable diseases
d. Rehabilitation to the previous level of functioning the
clients
59. The goal of conceptual framework for Primary Health
Care (PHC) is:
a. 2020Health Promotion for all Filipinos by year 2020
b. Health services readily made available to the Filipinos in
the year 2020
c. To promote self-reliant community
d. Health for All Filipinos and Health in the hands of the
people by the year
60. What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care?
a. RA 9173 b. EO 2009 c. LOI 949 d. EO 51
61. Framework for implementation of Health Sector
Reform Agenda (HSRA) is:
a. Rationalization for Health c. Primary Health Care
(PHC)
b. National Objective for Health (NOH) d. Fourmula One
for Health (F1)
62. Nurse Isabelle will conduct teaching regarding Family
Planning Program. Which of the following statements is
true regarding family planning?
a. All contraceptives causes sterility c. Tubal ligation can
be irreversible
b. Some Family Planning methods causes abortion d.
Using contraceptive methods will result to loss of sexual
desire
63. Nurse Sinka, a community health nurse, motivates the
people to share their ideas on how to manage their
concerns during which phase of COPAR?
a. Pre-entry phase b. Entry phase c. Organization-building
phase d. Sustenance Phase
64. Upon entry to the community, the organizer can start
the following, except:
a. Social preparation b. Deepening social investigation c.
Core-group formation d. Community integration
65. Integration to the community is best done through:
a. House-to-house visits c. Visits to where people are
b. Participation in work setting d. Attending community
occasions
66. The delivery of basic health services was devolved to
the local government units. The legal basis for this is
embodied in:
a.RA 7610 b. EO 119 c. RA 7160 d. EO 226
67. The components of FHSIS are the following except:
a. Family treatment record b. Reporting forms c.
Target client listing d. Input forms
68. Alvira brought her 2-month old infant to the clinic for
immunization. She asks you when will her child can be
considered fully immunized. A child is said to be “Fully
Immunized Child” when a child receives:
a. One dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3
doses of HB and one dose of measles before a child’s first
birthday.
b. One dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 2
doses of HB and one dose of measles before a child’s first
birthday
c. One dose of BCG, 4 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 2
doses of HB and one dose of MMR before a child’s first
birthday
d. One dose of BCG, 3 doses of OPV, 3 doses of DPT, 3
doses of HB and one dose of measles before five years old.
69. The student nurse is investigating different types of
practice settings. In looking at community health nursing,
the
student recognizes that it:
a. Requires a Master’s degree to become a Public Health
Nurse
b. Is the same as public health nursing
c. Focuses on the incidence of disease
d. Includes direct care and services to subpopulations
70. There are different ways to look on health and illness.
When formulating a definition of “health,” a person should
consider that health, within its current definition, is:
a. The absence of disease c. A state of well being
involving the whole person
b. A function of the physiological state d. The ability to
pursue activities of daily living
71. When working as a community health nurse, the nurse
works to improve the health of:
a. Infants and preschool children c. Mothers and
children
b. Elderly clients in an aggregate d. The entire
community
72. There are three major roles of the Department of
Health as a national authority in health. Which one is not
included?
a. Decision-maker of people’s health c. Administrator of
specific services
b. Enabler and Capacity builder d. Leader in health
73. PHC is based on which of the following concept?
a. Empowerment of the private health care service
providers c. Effective provision of essential health
services
b. Partnership with the people d. All of the above
74. Type of nursing assessment whereby existing problems
of the family are determined:
a. First- level assessment c. On-going assessment
b. Second-level assessment d. Third-level assessment
75. Baby Monmon, 12 months old, did not receive his
scheduled measles vaccine at 9 months. Nurse Jaika
identifies categorize this health problem as:
a. Health threat b. Health deficit c. Stress points d.
Foreseeable crisis
76. It is the model that scientists have developed for
studying health problems. It can help students understand
infectious diseases and how they spread:
a. Epidemiology b. Vital statistics c. Epidemiologic
triangle d. Health education
77. Nurse Hannah had documented an unusually large
number of cases of measles in barangay Pito-pito from
January
to July. This is known as:
a. Endemic b. Sporadic c. Pandemic d. Epidemic
78. Isabel, a new public health nurse, is evaluating the
general health condition of Barangay Tralala. Which data
will be most helpful to Nurse Isabel?
a. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) c. Maternal Mortality
Rate (MMR)
b. Crude Death Rate (CDR) d. Crude Birth Rate (CBR)
79. It is a major component of the work information
sources developed by the Department of Health (DOH) to
better manage nationwide health service delivery:
a. Field health services and information system c. Public
health surveillance
b. Family treatment record d. Target client listing
80. A project launched by the DOH is the Project
Entreprenurse which encourages nurses not only to seek
but create jobs and engage in income augmentation
programs. The underlying concept of this project is based
on:
a. Bringing into awareness of nurses the opportunity for
wider horizon of the profession
b. Bringing primary health care to the community thru
home health care
c. The fulfillment of the DOH millennium developmental
goals for better health care services and healthy nation
d. Maximizing employment opportunities for the country’s
unemployed nurses
81. Mang Indoy, who is one of the attendees in your
seminar, asks you what can be done to prevent the spread
of a disease. Your appropriate response would be based
on the easiest link to break, which is:
a. Causative agent b. Reservoir c. Mode of transmission
d. Portal of entry
82. Which statement is not true about infection and
colonization?
a. Infection is the invasion and multiplication of
microorganisms in body tissue with cellular injury.
b. Colonization is the multiplication of microorganisms on
or within a host that does not result in cellular injury.
c. Colonies of microorganisms are incapable of ever
causing infection to the host.
d. There are two types of flora: resident and transient.
83. A client asks Nurse Hannah, “how can you say that a
disease is communicable?” Nurse Hannah correctly
respond
by saying that a disease is said to be communicable if:
a. It is capable of producing s secondary infection c. It is
transmitted directly from one person to another
b. It persists for a long period of time d. Lifestyle factors
contribute to the disease process
84. During an initial exposure to an antigen, the T cells
stimulate the production of B cells, which then produce
antibodies specific to the antigen. This process is
collectively referred to as:
a. Acquired immunity b. Humoral immunity c. Specific
immune defense d. Vaccination
85. Which action indicates a break in handwashing
technique?
a. Removing jewelry
b. Keeping hands and forearms in the down position when
washing
c. Rinsing with hands in the up position
d. Drying in the direction of fingers to wrists and forearms
86. An appropriate technique for Nurse Isabelle to
implement for the client on isolation precautions is to:
a. Double bag all disposable items and linens
b. Put another gown over the one worn if it has become
wet
c. Place specimen containers in plastic bags for transport
d. Hand items to be reused directly to a nurse standing
outside of the room
87. In taking the history of a client suspected of having
bacterial meningitis, which question is most important for
the nurse to ask?
a. “Do you live in a crowded residence?” c. “Have you
had any viral infections recently?”
b. “When was your last tetanus vaccination?” d. “Have
you traveled out of the country in the last month?”
88. The causative agent for tetanus is:
a. Bordetella b. Clostridium tetani c. Neisseria
Gonorrheae d. Enterobius vermicularis
89. The disease is caused by four species of protozoa. The
specie which is considered as the most serious malarial
infection is known as:
a. Plasmodium vivax b. Plasmodium falciparum c.
Plasmodium malariae d. Plasmodium ovale
90. For paucibacillary type of leprosy, after taking how
many months of doses of MDT, a person is considered
cured
and should be discharged at:
a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 10 months d. 12 months
91. As an RHU nurse, you are aware that the duration of
treatment for patient classified under category 1 with
tuberculosis meningitis or spinal disease with neurologic
complication is:
a. 9 months b. 7 months c. 8 months d. 4 months
92. The following statements do not represent the nature
of tuberculosis, except:
a. Diagnosis of TB is confirmed by a positive tuberculin
test, chest x-ray, and sputum culture
b. TB is essentially not an airborne disease
c. One negative sputum examination alone rules out active
or inactive TB infection
d. Reactivation of TB will not occur after being dormant for
5 years
93. Hepatitis A is a liver disease cause by the hepatitis A
virus. Lulu was concerned about the change in her skin
color
when she asks the nurse about the occurrence of this
symptoms. The nurse can best respond by saying:
a. The color change is due to the stimulation of the liver to
produce an excess quantity of bile
b. The color change is due to the increased destruction of
the red blood cells during the acute phase of the disease
c. The color change is due to the decreased prothrombin
levels which lead to the multiple site of spontaneous
bleeding
d. The color change is due to the inability of the liver to
remove normal amounts of bilirubin from the blood
ANSWER: D
94. The strategy being implemented by the DOH in the
fight against dengue is called:
a. The 4 “S” b. “Tapat Mo, Linis Mo” c. “Hithit-
Buga” d. “L.A.M.O.K puksa”
99. A correlation coefficient of –0.80 between the number
of hours studied for a test and the scores on the test
indicates that:
a. As the number of hours studied decreases, test scores
increase.
b. As the number of hours studied increases, test scores
increase.
c. There is a strong correlation between the number of
hours studied for a test and test scores.
d. The number of hours studied is correlated with test
scores.
100. Probability sampling involves:
a. The use of a random selection process c. Haphazardly
selecting names from a telephone book
b. Asking one subject to recommend three more d. The
use of sequential lists

95. Which of the following is true of the organism that

causes malaria?
a. It is transmitted by respiratory droplets. c. It causes
symptoms within 24 hours after transmission.
b. It is transmitted by sexual intercourse. d. It enters the
body and destroys red blood cells.

96. Dolor brought her 2-year-old daughter to the health

center because of 2 days cough and 3 days colds. On
assessment, the nurse counted the child’s respiration to be
56 cycle/minute. Based on IMCI, the following statements
are true and applicable:
A. The child has pneumonia C. Soothe the throat
and relieve cough with a safe remedy
B. The child has to be referred to the hospital immediately
D. The child can be treated at home
a. A, B, C b. A, C, D c. B, C d. C, D

97. Based on the IMCI guidelines, the following are safe

remedies to soothe the throat of the client. This does not
include:
a. Cough syrups c. Calamansi
b. Breastmilk especially to those exclusively breast fed d.
Tamarind

98. Which of the following findings indicate fast breathing?

a. Respiratory rate of 30 or more breaths for a 15 months
old child
b. Respiratory rate of 40 or more breaths for a 2 months
old child
c. Respiratory rate of 50 or more breaths for a 2 weeks old
infant
d. Respiratory rate of 60 or more breaths for a 6 weeks old
infant