3 DOCUMENTE- pag 1-19, 19-23, 23-34

1. Which of the following is reassuring for fetal wellbeing?

A. Maternal depiction of fetal movements

B. Acceleration discovered on CTG

C. Fetal heart rate auscultation with fetuscope (120-138/min)

2. What duration of time of the following inabilities of the fetus to accelerate its heart rate
without maternal sedation is ominous? :/ huh?

A. 30 minutes

B. 80 minutes ??wtf

C. 20 minutes

3. The prognosis significance of FHR changes is increased by:

A. combining several patterns

B. maternal depiction of fetal active movements

C. duration of evaluation?

4. For the diagnosis of a cervical lesion, the most accurate method for the diagnosis is:

A. colposcopy
B. direct biopsy - eu zic asta andi- pag 429 carte asta zic si eu (clara) ca e metoda de dg,nu de
screening

C. cone biopsy

D. cervico-vaginal smear

5. Your 25 years old patient is pregnant at 36 weeks gestation. She has an acute UTI.
Which of the following medication is contraindicated?

A. ampicillin

B. nitrofuranroin

C. TMP-SMX trimetroprim sulfometoxazol nu dai dupa S32

D. cephalexin

E. amoxicillin\calvulonate

6. During normal pregnancy we can find the following changes in the mother with an
exception:
A. Increased Hematocrit -hematocrit e scazut prin dilutie.

B. Hypotension

C. Post-meal plasma glucose level increase

D. Increase of mother heart rate

7. Which of the following statement is false?

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin is a glycoprotein synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblast from

the first days after fertilization (5-8).

B. βhCG can be detected in the serum by radioimmunoassay (for the β subunit) within 10 days
of conception and monitorised for pregnancy normal development.

C. hCG is a marker for preeclampsia when assayed with maternal mid trimester total rennin,
inhibin A and AFP.- nu renina, ci estradiol matern total

D. Effects of hCG in pregnancy are to maintain the corpus luteum’s secretion of estrogen and
progesterone until 20 weeks when the placenta sufficiently developed take over all steroid
production

8. Which is the abnormal change during pregnancy regarding uterine vascularization? (?)

A. The spiral arteries are going near the surface of the decidua

B. At the end of the first trimester, the spiral arteries from the placental zone are de-spiraled

C. After the 20th week of gestation in these vessels takes place a proliferation of muscle cells

D. Reduction of elastin and andrenergic nerve density in walls, resulting in their recalibration
and distensibility

9. Which is the best examination for cervical dilation assessment in preterm birth?

A. Abdominal sonographic measurement of cervical dilation and effacement ar fi trebuit eco

transvaginal

B. Digital examination -posibil sa fie asta

C. Transperineal cervical sonography

10. When to avoid preterm labor?

A. Prior to 35 weeks
B. Prior to 38 weeks- cam asta e definitia nasterii premature -24-38 sapt

C. Prior to 29 weeks

11. Which of the following statements is false? Glucocorticoids:

A. Reduce respiratory distress by 50%

B. Reduce neonatal mortality by 50%-pt ca e 30

C. Are recommended prior to 35 weeks gestation-deci se recomanda si inainte si dupa 35 s

reduce riscul de deces neonatal cu 31%, de sindrom de detresă

„respiratorie (RDS) cu 44% şi de hemoragie intraventriculară (IVH) cu 46%;

12. For the diagnosis of prolonged pregnancy, are useful the following, except:

A. Placental degree of maturation

B. Assessment of fetal intrauterine development

C. First day of last menstrual period

D. Cervix length curs. Aprecierea colului matern- “copt”, pregătit pentru travaliu sau
nepregătit, “necopt. in orice caz acest raspuns e cel mai plauzibil sa fie fals.

13. Risk factors for Endometrial cancer, with one exception:

A. Obesity, diabetes, hypertension

B. Administration of unopposed estrogen, tamoxifen

C. Nulliparity

D. Use of oral contraceptives -e factor protector

14. The following situation: Tumoral cervix, Hydronephrosis depicted by genital and
general assessment is for stage _IIIB_ of cervical cancer.

15. Risk factor for Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases are with one exception:

A. Number of sexual partners

B. Introduction of intrauterine devices

C. Vaginal douching

D. Use of oral contraceptives

E. Previous episodes of PID

16. Which is considered the most frequent involved mechanism in PID?

A. Canalicular mechanism

B. Non-canalicular mechanism (lymphatic)

C. Mechanism of contiguity-posibil sa fie asta

net- It is typically an ascending infection, spreading from the lower genital tract.

carte-endocervixul și ascensionează către endometru, trompele uterine şi peritoneu prin

contiguitate, pe cale sanguină sau limfatică Cred ca inseamna “canalicular” asta si contiguitate
inseamna ca ai un focar/abces ceva fix langa organele genitale si de acolo vin germenii, nu
ascensioneaza de la vagin in sus

17. Which of the following sexual transmitted diseases is less symptomatic?

A. Chlamydia trachomatis-mereu incognito

B. Neisseria Gonorrhea

C. Bacteroides Fragilis

18. Please define “Pearl index”. Pearl index is a numerical measure of the effectivity of
contraceptive method. Namely, the number of pregnancies using the contraceptive per
women-years.

No. of unwanted pregnancies/100 yrs of use of a given contraceptive

method= Failure Rate of a contraception method
19. Therapeutic effects of combined oral contraceptives are with one exception:

A. Reducing dysfunctional uterine bleeding-

B. Reducing dysmenorrhea- clar bun

C. Reducing premenstrual syndrome- clar bun,

D. Decrease female androgenicity-clar bun,Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) reduce levels

of androgen, especially testosterone (T), by inhibiting ovarian and adrenal androgen
TRATAMENT HIRSUTISM+androgenizare carte-> dai COCda

20. Which of the following drugs must be avoided in women who take COC?

A. Folic acid- -e permis The vitamins and birth control won't interact and will be just as
effective as if you were taking each medication separately.

B. Ciprofloxacin- e permis

C. Indomethacin- prin eliminare asta trb sa fie

21. The following classifications of myoma can be found, with one exception:

A. Submucous

B. Subserous

C. Subhepatic

D. Subendometrial

E. Intramural

22. Main symptom of myoma is represented by:

A. Bleeding

B. Compression of organs in the vicinity

C. Pain

D. Tumor mass

E. All the above

23. True (T) or False (F) ?

- Clinical exam and CT are better than MRI in detection and localizations of myomas F

- Hysteroscopy may be used as a diagnostic and interventional tool in small subserous myomas
F

- Clinical exam and transvaginal US are important in diagnosis & attitude of uterine myomas T

- The treatment of myoma complicated with bleeding is always surgical. “Watchful waiting” and
“expectant management” are too old concepts to be used in the modern management of uterine
leiomyomas. F

24. Isoimmunization in pregnancy:

A. Is a common disorder for any pregnancy no matter of other associated pathology

B. Is induced by pregnancy and the mother is severe affected as a consequence

C. Appears only in Rh and in blood group incompatibility

D. The condition for Rh immunization is mother with negative Rh (dd) and Father with positive
Rh (Dd\DD)

E. It is usually a complication of the first pregnancy

25. Administration of anti-D antibodies:

A. Is a cure for already produced Isoimmunization

B. Is a prevention for the immune contact and Isoimmunization disease

C. Is contraindicated during pregnancy

D. Is contraindicated for any bleeding during pregnancy for any woman with negative Rh

E. Is administered 2 or 3 times regularly, during the first trimester

26. The treatment for stress urinary incontinence needs:

A. Surgery

B. Medication

C. Absorbent products

D. Urethral catheterization

27. The loss of urine in urge incontinence is due to:

A. Increased intra abdominal pressure

B. Uninhibited contraction of Detrusor muscle

C. neurological impairment

D. Sphincter deficiency

28. Following statement about genital prolapsed are true except one:
A. The main cause is the damage to the pelvic anatomic support- e bine (carte: Principala cauză
a acestei patologii este sarcina şi naşterea, în special naşterea vaginală şi/sau instrumentală
(forceps).

B. Menopause represents a favoring factor-e bine

C. The preferred surgical approach is the abdominal route-FALS,trb transvaginal

Which surgery is best for vaginal prolapse?

Colporrhaphy—Used to treat prolapse of the anterior (front) wall of the vagina and
prolapse of the posterior (back) wall of the vagina. This type of surgery is performed
through the vagina.

D. Genital prolapse is often associated with urinary bladder prolapse

29. The engagement diameter of the fetal head in occiput presentation is:

A. 9.5cm

B. 10.5cm

C. 8.5cm

D. 12cm

30. The next statements on normal internal pelvimetry are false, except one:

A. the innominate lines are followed in their anterior ¾

B. we must encounter false promontorium

C. one can’t reach the promontorium

D. one can’t reach the scaro-iliac joint

31. One of the following is not true when considering a fetus in occiput presentation:
A. it is a longitudinal lie

B. the landmark on the fetal head is the bregma

C. engagement diameter measures 9.5cm

D. this is the most common presentation

32. In case of pregnancy, the first to become positive is:

A. the clinical examination

B. the rise in basal temperature

C. βhCG test

D. perception of active fetal movements

33. In case of twin pregnancy the most relevant for the prognosis is:

A. maternal age

B. gestational age

C. zygotism

D. chorionicity

E. familial history of twinning

Pentru o dispensarizare corectă este esenţială precizarea cât mai precoce (în trimestrul 1) a

zigoticităţii şi corlonicității sarcinii gemelare.-carte

Sracina monozigotică este efectul unui eveniment teratogen şi este grevată de multiple

complicaţii.
- Sarcina dizigotică este expresia unei variaţii individuale fiziologice sau induse
hormonal.

34. The first trimester morphologic scan should be preformed:

A. between 9 and 14 weeks

B. before 14 weeks

C. between 11 and 13+6 weeks-corect

D. between 6 and 13+6 weeks

35. A 24 year old women was in a car accident and is to the emergency room. At the ER a
chest x-ray is performed. It is later discovered that she is 10 weeks pregnant. Which of
the following is the most appropriate approach to the patient? The fetus has received 50
rads.

A. either chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis is advisable to check for chromosomal

abnormalities

B. at 10 weeks, the fetus is particularly susceptible to derangements in the central nervous

system

C. the fetus has received less than the assumed threshold for radiation damage

D. the risk for the fetus to develop leukemia as a child is raised

36. one of the following is not included in the DD of fever during pregnancy:

A. pyelonephritis

B. gestational diabetes mellitus-n-are treaba

C. listeriosis

D. CMV respiratory infection

37. A 37 years old woman seeks medical attention for pain in the right iliac fossa and
temperature 37.4°c. The patient reports an appendectomy and absence of menses for 12
weeks. Which of the following procedures should not be asked?

A. βhCG test
B. urine cultures

C. IV uretero pyelography- nu faci in suspiciune obstructie

D. full blood count

38. A 65 years old woman presents with a pelvic tumor of 7/7cm in a latero-uterine
position. Which is the first in the DD?

A. Uterine fibroma =leiomiom=fibrom

B. Endometrioma

C. Tubal abscess

D. Gastric cancer (Kruckenberg?)

39. Which of the following is not suggestive of ectopic pregnancy?

A. vaginal bleeding

B. tachycardia

C. hypotension

D. breast engorgement=> asta inseamna dupa nastere cand ai lapte-hehe

E. uterine enlargement
40. Which of the following makes the positive diagnostic test for ectopic pregnancy?

A. a latero-uterine mass on US

good job

B. a βhCG rise of less than 50% in 48 hours- intr-adevar nu creste asa mult ca la o s
normala ,dar nu zice nicaieri de asa valoare- zice ca se dubleaza in primele 5 sapt odata la 2
zile- ddddaaar diagnostic pozitiv e prin ECO ca nu vezi fatu in uteru masii

C. tachycardia and hypotension

D. presence of blood in culdocentesis

41. A pregnant woman who is 7 weeks from her LMP comes to the office for her first
prenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy ended in a missed abortion in the first trimester.
The patient is therefore very anxious about the well being of the pregnancy. Which of the
following will allow you to best document fetal heart function?

A. regular stethoscope

B. fetoscope

C. special fetal Doppler equipment

D. transvaginal sonogram- sa vezi calumea

E. transabdominal pelvic sonogram

42. A 27 years old at 29 weeks gestation, G2P1, is evaluated for Rh Isoimmunization. She
presents for her OB visit. Fundal height is noted to be 33cm. An US reveals fetal ascites
and pericardial effusion. Which of the following can be another finding in fetal hydrops?
A. Oligohydramnios -ar trb polihidramnios

B. Hydrocephalus-asta apare in infectia cu toxoplasma

C. Hydronephrosis

D. Subcutaneous edema

E. Over distended fetal bladder

43. One of the following is not true when considering a fetus in breech =pelvin
presentation

A. It is a longitudinal lie

B. The landmark of presentation is bregma

C. The engagement diameter measures the bi-trochanterian diameter

44. The ovarian artery comes directly from:

A. External iliac artery

B. Internal iliac artery

C. Common iliac artery

D. Uterine artery

E. Aorta :)

45. The characteristics of uterine contractions are the following except one:

A. painful

B. involuntary

C. are associated with amniotic fluid loss

D. progressive in intensity and frequency

46. Labor periods are the following with one exception:

A. dilatation

B. fetal delivery

C. placental delivery

D. post partum hemorrhage

47. Cardinal movements of labor are the following with one exception: angajare,
coborare, degajare

A. Engagement

B. Descent

C. Synclitism

D. Expulsion

48. On pelvic examination of a patient in labor at 34 weeks, the cervix is noted to be 6cm
dilated, completely effaced with the fetal nose and mouth palate. The chin is pointing to
the maternal left scaro-iliac joint. This is an example of which of the following?

A. Transverse lie

B. Facial posterior

C. Occiput transverse position

D. Brow presentation

E. Vertex presentation

49. A patient comes to your office with her LMP 4 weeks ago. She denies any symptoms
such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency or breast tenderness. She thinks she may be
pregnant since she did not have her period yet. She is very anxious to find out because
she has a history of ectopic pregnancy and she wants to be sure to get an early prenatal
care. Which of the following actions is most appropriate at this time?
A. No action is needed since she is asymptomatic, has not missed her period and cannot be
pregnant.

B. Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test

C. Listen to fetal heart tones by Doppler equipment

D. Perform abdominal US

E. Perform bimanual pelvic examination to assess uterine size

50. An 18 year old G2P1 with her first day of her LMP on May 7 th presents to her first OB
visit at 10 weeks what is this patient estimated time of delivery?

A. January 10th of the next year

B. February 14th of the next year -da

C. December 10th of the same year

D. December 14th of the same year

E. December 21st of the same year

51. Clinical presentation of abruption placentae includes the following with the
exception:

A. increased uterine tonus -> uter de lemn

B. absence of pain-asta era la previa

C. bleeding

D. fetal heart beat changes

52. The clinical presentation of Brandl-Frommel syndrome(uterine rupture) includes the

following with the exception:

A. hyperkinesias

B. onset during sleep

C. vaginal bleeding

D. low abdominal pain

E. anxiety

53. Gestational hypertension complication are the following with an exception:

A. placenta prevail- asta e de la inceput se face asa

B. HELLP syndrome

C. eclampsia

D. abruption placentae

54. The phases of eclamptic attack are the following with one exception: (eclampise-
convulsii tonico-clonice ce pot duce la coma)

A. somnolence

B. tonic convulsions

C. clonic convulsions

D. coma

55. Which diameter is not assessed in internal pelvimery?

A. Biischiatic diameter

B. Promonto-retropubian diameter

C. Bisciatic diameter -asa e

56. Deflected presentation are the following except one:

A. Bregmatic presentation

B. Asynclitic presentation

C. Brow presentation

D. Face presentation
57. A 29yo Caucasian primigravidas is in her 20th week of gestation with twins. She found
out today on her routine US that she is carrying two boys. In this case, which of the
following is true?

A. The twins must be monozygotic since they are both boys

B. If the division of these twins occurred after formation of the embryonic disc, the twins must be
conjoined- corect

C. She has a higher incidence if having monozygotic twins since she is Caucasian

D. If the US showed two separate placentas, the twins must be dizygotic

E. Twinning causes no appreciable increase in maternal morbidity and mortality

58. A 38 years old women presents complaining of a 2 year history of heavy menstrual
flow lasting for 9 days, with occasional episodes of soaking her clothes and bed with
menstrual blood. Her menses are occurring every 32 days. She denies any bleeding
between menses. The rest of her history is notable for hypertension controlled with
diuretic.

A. Obtain a coagulation profile- probabil

B. Obtain a pregnancy test

C. Perform an endometrial biopsy

D. Obtain a pelvic US
E. Obtain a TSH level

59. The following prenatal tests indicate fetal toxoplasma gondii infection:

A. maternal serum antibodies to Toxoplasma IgG positive and Toxo IgM positive

B. maternal serum antibodies to Toxoplasma IgG positive and Toxo IgM negative

C. fetal serum antibodies Toxoplasma IgG positive and Toxo IgM negative

D. Positive Toxo PCR in amniotic fluid

60. A 22 year old G1P0 presents to your clinic for follow up of evacuation of a complete
hydatiform mole. She is asymptomatic and her examination is normal. Which of the
following would be an indication to start a single agent chemotherapy?

A. rise in hCG titers, after 8 weeks following evacuation

B. a plateau of hCG titers for 1 week

C. return of hCG titers to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation

D. appearance of liver metastasis

E. appearance of brain metastasis

In most successful human pregnancies, the conceptus implants:

a) 6 to 9 days after ovulation-ziua 7 apare si stigma in chiloti

b) 8 to 10 days after ovulation

c) 8 to 11 days after ovulation

Which of the following sexual transmitted infections is less symptomatic:

a) Genital Mycoplasma

b) Chlamydia trachomatis

c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

d) Bacteroides fragilis
—----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1.Normal labor duration in a pregnant woman:

A.5 hours in primiparous and 3 hours in multiparous.

B.20 hours in primiparous and maximum 14 hours in multiparous.

C.10 hours in primiparous and 5 hours in multiparous.

D.7 hours in primiparous and 3 hours in multiparous.

E.12 hours in primiparous and 3 hours in multiparous.

2.An LF/CA (abdominal circumference?) ratio > 23.5 is suggestive for the diagnosis of:(nu am
gasit in carte)

A.Premature birth.

B.Assymetric uterine growth restriction.

C.Symmetric uterine growth restriction.

D.Gestational diabetes.

E.Early term birth.

3.How is the aspect of the amniotic fluid in a complete dilation/ expulsion in a pelvic
presentation without fetal suffering?

A.Bloody amniotic fluid.

B.Fetid green amniotic fluid.

C.Dark green amniotic fluid.

D.Yellow amniotic fluid.

E.Clear amniotic fluid with casseous vernix particles.

4.Benign mammary abnormalities associated to mammary inovulation include the following

anatomo-clinical entities, except:

A.Mammary microcysts.
B.Ductal ectasis/ectazia.

5.(I think it’s about cervical cancer staging or hysterectomy & lymphadenectomy since II A
means advanced non invasive ?)

A.Stage I AI.

B.Stage I A II.

C.Stage I BI.

D.Stage I B II.

E. Stage II A.

6.The most frequently met histopathologic form of uterine body cancer:

A.Muciod Carcinoma.

B.Endometrial adenocarcinoma.-da

C.Clear cell carcinoma.

D.Papillary serous carcinoma.

E.Squamous carcinoma.

7.Non-invasive prenatal tests for chromosomal abnormalities include the following procedures
except:

A.Double test.

B.Fetal morphology echography during the first trimester.

C.Triple test.

D.Amniocenthesis.-da, este invaziv

E.Detecting fetal cells or DNA in maternal blood.

8.At what age must the Babes Papanicolou test be done and at which intervals should it be
reapted?

A.After 25 y.o. at an interval of 5 years.

B.18-65 y.o. at an interval of 3 years, if the last 3 annual results were normal.

C.Until menopause at an interval of 3 years if the last 3 annual results were normal.

9.

10.Which of the following do you consider a tumor marker for non-mucinous epithelial tumors?

A.CEA.

B.CA 19-9.

C.CA 125.-da

D.hCG and Afp.

E.LDH.

11.The following are characteristics of a benign endometrioid tumor except:

A.Cystic tumor.

B.Dimensions frequently > 20 cm.-evident fals

C.Bilateral in 30% of cases.

D.Viscous chocolaty content.

E.Small dimensions, an average of 5 cm.

12.Acording to the Phelan criteria, the volume of amniotic fluid is considered normal when the
value obtained through the sum of the heights of the deepest pockets of amniotic fluid of the 4
quadrants is:

A.0-5 cm.

B.8.1 – 18cm.

C.5.1 – 8cm.

D.18.1 – 25cm.

E.>25cm.
13.

14.About abortion and consent?

A.

B.

C.At 32-34 weeks of gestation

D.The informed consent of the family is requested.

E.The pregnant mother’s request is taken into consideration and her informed consent.

15.Hypermenorheea represents:

A.Shortening of the menstrual cycle under 21 days.

B.Prolongation of the intermenstrual duration.

C. A quantitative excess of menstrual blood loss produced

D.Regular and normal intervals.

E.Diminishing of the quanitity of blood loss.

F.A hemorrhage originating at the uterus between 2 consecutive menstrual cycles.

16.Which of the following affirmations is false about endometriosis:

A.It is given by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterine cavity.

B.Adenomyosis is given by the presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterine wall.

C.Symptomps include: secondary dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, menorrhagia, infertility

D.?

E.?
—------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
—------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
—------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWERS

1. Hydramnios (polyhydramnios) is defined according to the Chamberlain semi-quantitative

method when the vertical diameter of the largest pocket of amniotic fluid is:
1. 2-8 cm
2. 5-8 cm
3. Over 8 cm
4. 1-2 cm
5. Over 5 cm

1. According to the Chamberlain semi-quantitative method, the vertical diameter of the

largest pocket of amniotic fluid below 1 cm signifies:
1. Polyhydramnios
2. Hydramnios
3. Normal amniotic fluid value
4. Oligoamnios
5. Ideal value of amniotic fluid for term vaginal delivery

1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for fetal death in utero?
1. Severe gestational arterial HTN
2. Abruptio placentae
3. Gestational DM
4. Severe intrauterine growth restriction
5. Breech presentation

1. Which of the following does NOT represent abnormal placental adherence

1. Placenta accreta
2. Marginal placenta praevia
3. Placenta increta
4. Placenta percreta
5. Central placenta praevia + accreta

1. Stage IV A of cervical cancer corresponds to:

1. Brain metastasis
2. Rectal or bladder invasion
3. Liver metastasis
4. Invasion of the third lateral side of the parameters and of the pelvic excavation
 5. Invasion of lower third of the vagina

1. Treatment of cervical cancer associated with pregnancy does not depend on:
1. Pregnancy age
2. Patient’s wish
3. Stage of neoplasia
4. Patient age
5. Tumoral extension

1. CIN 3 cervical lesions involve:deci e 4 sau 5, dar nu am gasit nicaieri

1. Moderate dysplastic lesion
2. Mild dysplastic lesions
3. Basal membrane invasion
4. Koilocytes presence in the superficial third of cervical epithelium
5. Koilocytes presence in the basal third of cervical epithelium

1. Which of the following is a major obstetrical misconduct in birth assistance in breech

presentation?
1. Artificial rupture of membranes at 7-8 cm dilation
 2. Using Bracht technique
3. Installing an oxytocin infusion during expulsion
4. Bracht maneuver after the release of inferior angle of fetal scapula
5. Performing an episiotomy

1. The neglected transverse presentation does not involve:

1. Ruptured membranes
2. Fetal death in utero
3. Transverse presentation
4. An upper limb falling through the vagina
5. Performing emergency C-section

1. Which of the following does NOT require emergency C-section?

1. Central placenta praevia with massive bleeding in 36(?) weeks of gestation
2. Recurrent eclampsia seizures in a 31 weeks gestation pregnant woman with a
BP of 190/120 mmHg (refractory to treatment)
3. Breech presentation at onset of labor
4. Severe intrauterine growth restriction and a fetal HR of 62 bpm
5. Neglected transverse presentation at 32 weeks
1. Fetal head descent (as a distinct process of birth mechanics of a term fetus) is
accompanied by (all correct):
1. External rotation
2. Restitution
3. Head flexion
4. Internal rotation
5. Head extension

1. Which of the following is a definite dystocic presentation in the birth of a term fetus?
1. Frontal presentation
2. Bregmatic presentation
3. Breech presentation
4. Facial presentation
5. Cranial presentation

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the treatment of breast cancer:

1. Hormone therapy
2. Chemotherapy
3. Radiotherapy
4. Extended total lymphadeno-colpohysterectomy with bilateral annexectomy
5. Radical mastectomy
6.

1. Which of the following is part of the treatment of cervical cancer: ??

1. Radiotherapy
2. Hormone therapy
3. Chemotherapy
4. Radical - histerectomie
5. ? unreadable
1. Which of the following characterizes partially central placenta praevia?
1. It covers the entire internal cervical os
2. It does not cover the entire cervical os but is inserted less than 2 cm away from it
3. It may cause severe vaginal bleeding
4. Never causes severe vaginal bleeding
5. Always associated with abruptio placentae

1. A pregnant woman with two previous C-sections is NOT at risk for:

1. Uterine rupture
2. Placenta praevia
3. Placenta accreta, percreta and increta
4. Placenta praevia + accreta
5. Eclampsia

1. Which of the following characterizes the left oblique diameter of the pelvic inlet?
1. Located between the posterior surface of the pubic symphysis and the
promontory
2. Between the left iliopectineal eminence and the right sacroiliac joint
3. Between the right iliopectineal eminence and the left sacroiliac joint
4. Located between the middle of the arcuate lines
5. Between the bilateral iliopectineal eminences

Notes on this question:

Oblique diameters:

Right oblique diameter =12 cm

from the right sacroiliac joint to the left iliopectineal eminence.

Left oblique diameter = 12.5 cm

from the left sacroiliac joint to the right iliopectineal eminence.

 1. The most common fetal presentation at delivery is:
1. Complete breech presentation
2. Incomplete breech presentation
3. Frontal presentation
4. Bregmatic presentation
5. Flexed cranial presentation

1. Cervical CIS (carcinoma in situ) involves:

1. Mild cervical dysplasia
2. Severe cervical dysplasia
3. Moderate cervical dysplasia
4. Stage I cervical cancer

CIS = carcinomul in situ (Stadiul 0 al cancerului cervico- vaginai)

ONLY SINGLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is the tumor marker for non-mucosal epithelial tumors?
1. CEA
2. CA-19-9
3. CA-125
4. hCG and alpha-fetoprotein
5. LDH
2. The most important risk factor for cervical cancer is:
1. Late (tardive) menopause
2. Premature menarche
3. HPV infection
4. HSV II infection

1. Benign endometrial tumors are characterized by the following, except one:

1. Cystic tumor
2. Dimensions are frequently over 20 cm
3. Bilateral in 30% of cases
4. Viscous content
5. Small size, on average 5 cm

1. What is the value of the fetal biparietal diameter in a term fetus?

 1. 13 cm
2. 12 cm
3. 10,5 cm
4. 10 cm (9,5 trb)
5. 11,5 cm

1. Which of the following is a risk factor for abruptio placentae?

1. Gestational arterial HTN
2. Scarred uterus
3. History of C-section
4. History of C-section in the last year
5. Personal history of placenta praevia
1. Which of the following does NOT suggest abruptio placentae?
1. Low quantity bleeding, dark blood– este sg maro dureroasa
2. Increased uterine tone
3. Normal uterine tone- e tonus crescut
4. Acute fetal distress
5. Placental hematoma on US

1. Scarred uterus following C-section is a risk factor for:

1. Abruptio placentae (premature separation of normally implanted placenta)
2. Uterine rupture
3. Cervical cancer
4. Umbilical cord around fetal neck
5. Uterine corpus cancer

1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for uterine corpus cancer:
1. HPV
2. Tardive menopause
3. Premature menarche
4. Obesity
5. Family predisposition (genetics)
1. Which of the following is a defining criterion for HELLP syndrome?
1. BP > 150/100 mmHg
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Proteinuria > 300 mg / 24 hr
4. Proteinuria > 2g / 24 hr
5. Ruptured membranes

1. The presence of endometrial tissue within the myometrium defines:

1. Acute endometriosis
2. Chronic endometriosis
3. Pelvic (?) endometriosis
4. Adenomyosis
5. ? unreadable

1. Which of the following is a defining criterion for preeclampsia?

1. Proteinuria > 300 mg/24hr
2. Intact membranes
3. Ruptured membranes
4. Seizures
5. BP > 150/100 mmHg

1. Which of the following is a defining criterion for gestational HTN?

1. Systolic BP > 150
2. Diastolic BP > 100
3. Proteinuria > 300 mg/24hr- preeclampsie
4. BP returns to normal within 12 weeks after birth
5. Proteinuria > 2g / 24 hr

1. Which of the following is considered a maternal complication of gestational HTN

1. Intrauterine growth restriction
2. Perinatal fetal death
3. DIC
4. Rupture of membranes
5. Gestational DM
 1. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for gestational HTN
1. Obesity
2. Black race
3. Age > 35 years
4. Pregestational DM
5. Uterus with previous scar

1. The combined first trimester test (Down Sd screening) is performed between the
following pregnancy periods:
1. 11 weeks - 13 weeks
2. 11 weeks - 13 weeks and 6 days
3. 10 weeks - 13 weeks and 6 days
4. 16 weeks - 18 weeks and 6 days
5. 12 weeks - 18 weeks

1. The drug of choice to prevent eclamptic seizures is:

1. Nifedipine
2. Hydralazine
3. Magnesium sulfate
4. Dopegyt (= methyldopa)
5. O2 therapy

ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS BY USING THIS KEY:

A if 1 and 3 are correct

B if 2 and 4 are correct

C if 1,2,3 are correct

D if all answers correct

E if all answers false

1. Which of the following are possible complications of uterine fibroids? C
1. Torsion
2. Ureteral compression
3. Anemia
4. Involution

1. Which of the following may cause bleeding during the last trimester of pregnancy? C
1. Abruptio placentae
2. Placenta praevia
3. Uterine rupture
4. Extrauterine pregnancy

1. Which of the following are variants of placenta praevia? A

1. Central placenta praevia
2. Fundal placenta praevia
3. Marginal placenta praevia
4. Partially marginal placenta praevia

1. What are considered risk factors for placenta praevia? B

1. Nulliparity
2. Multiparity
3. Maternal age 25-30 years
4. Scarred uterus following C-section
1. What ultrasound markers are analyzed in the scan between 11 weeks - 13 weeks and 6
days? A
1. Nuchal translucency thickness (NT)
2. Biparietal diameter (BPD) - Trim 2
3. Presence of nasal bone
4. Femoral length (FR)- Trim 2

1. Which of the following can be causes of female infertility? C

1. Ovulatory dysfunction
2. Tubal obstruction
3. Endometriosis
 4. Azoospermia - asta e masculina

1. The following conditions may cause female infertility: D (all true)

1. Pituitary adenoma
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Anorexia

1. The Rotterdam criteria for PCOS diagnosis include: C

1. > 12 ovarian follicles or ovarian volume > 10
2. Oligoovulation or anovulation
3. Clinical or biochemical signs of androgenism
4. Female infertility

1. Which of the following characterize uterine fibroids? E (all false)

1. May have ovarian localization
2. Are benign tumors that, as a rule, grow explosively at menopause
3. Are malignant cervical tumors
4. Always require surgery

1. Which are risk factors for premature delivery? (D)

1. Uterine hypoplasia
2. Uterine malformations
3. Strep B cervicovaginal infection
4. Twin pregnancy
2. What serum levels are measured in the so-called triple test (biochemical screening in the
second trimester)? (C)
1. Alpha-fetoprotein
2. beta-hCG
3. Estriol
4. Progesterone
1. Uterine scar following C-section is a risk factor for: D (all true)
1. Placenta accreta
2. Placenta praevia
3. Uterine rupture
4. Placenta praevia and abnormal adherence

1. Which of the following may occur in abruptio placentae? D (all true)

1. Vaginal bleeding
2. Fetal distress
3. In utero fetal death
4. Uterine hypertonia

1. DIC may complicate (do they mean, may be a consequence of?): D

1. Abruptio placentae
2. Severe gestational HTN
3. Uterine rupture with hemorrhagic shock
4. Utero-placental apoplexy

1. In uterine fibromatosis, hysterectomy may be achieved by: C

1. Abdominal route
2. Laparoscopic route
3. Vaginal route
4. Laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectom-> ce naiba vrea sa
zica? Faci laparo sa scoti apoi uteru prin vagin? dda parca a pov
profu,dar nush daca “ectomie” gen doar fribrom”ectomie” ok
atunci! am inteles mai discutam cerem sfaturi=)) okeeee <3

1. Premature birth implies the birth of a conception product with gestational age: A
1. > 24 weeks (live fetus in Romania) but < 36 weeks and 6 days
 2. > 26 weeks (dead fetus in Romania) but < 36 weeks and 6 days
3. > 20 weeks and 1 day but < 36 weeks and 6 days (in USA and
some EU countries)
4. Less than 20 weeks

1. The following genital infections are considered risk factors for premature delivery: C
1. Ureaplasma urealyticum
2. Mycoplasma hominis
3. Gardnerella vaginalis
4. Candida albicans

1. Which of the following are considered premature birth risk factors? D (all true)
1. Uterine malformation
2. Genital infection
3. Personal history of premature birth
4. Pregnancy obtained by assisted repro methods

1. The anatomical site of endometriosis (?) could be: D

1. Peritoneal
2. Rectovaginal
3. Bowel
4. Ovarian
 1. Which of the following are NOT part of the clinical picture of endometriosis? (E) - toate
“false”
1. Dyspareunia
2. Infertility
3. Secondary dysmenorrhea
4. Menstrual disorders

Endometrioza-clinic