Aaditya Gupta Classes- Entrepreneurship Development Mcqs

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Entrepreneurship Development (ED) MCQs
1 applied the word entrepreneur to business for the first time.

A. robert owen
B. joseph schumpeter
C. richard cantillon
D. max weber
2 is the drive to achieve a goal.

A. motivation
B. need for achievement
C. competency
D. none of these
3 entrepreneurs are extremely task oriented.

A. technical
B. fabian
C. induced
D. business
4 entrepreneurs neither introduce new changes nor adopt new methods innovated
by others.
A. technical
B. fabian
C. induced
D. business
5. The term intrapreneur was coined by …………………………. .

A. robert owen
D. gifford Pinchot
6. According to Schumpeter, Is the most important function of a modern entrepreneur.

A. innovation,
B. invention,
C. skill,
D. creativity.
7. Knowledge + Skill + Traits = ………………………………..

A. innovation.
B. competency.
C. skill.
D. creativity.
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8. Social attitude is one of the important problems of a ............................ Entrepreneur.
A. drone.
B. business.
C. women.
D. adoptive.
9. The capacity to develop new ideas, concepts and processes is known as :

A. innovation,
B. invention,
C. skill,
D. creativity.
10. Which of the following risks is borne by the entrepreneur:

A. financial risks,
B. personal risks,
C. psychological risks,
D. all of these
11. The entrepreneur who does not change the method of production already introduced is:
A. drone entrepreneur,
B. fabian entrepreneur,
C. classical entrepreneur,
D. none of these.
12. Person who works within an organization and having entrepreneurial capabilities is:
A. entrepreneur,
B. intrapreneur,
C. manager,
D. chief executive.
13. Who introduced the term intrapreneur:

A. schumpeter,
B. peter drucker,
C. david mcclelland,
D. gifford pinchot 111.
14. A micro enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs.
……………………
A. 25 lakhs
B. 50 lakhs
C. 1 crore
D. 10 lakhs
15. A small enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery is more than
Rs…………………. But does not exceed Rs………………….. .
A. 10 lakhs / 2 crores
B. 25 lakhs /5crores
C. 5 crores/ 10 crores
D. 2 crores/5 crores
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16. A medium enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery ismore than Rs
……………………. But does not exceed Rs ………………….. .
17. A micro enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed
Rs…………………….. .
A. 25 lakhs
B. 50 lakhs
C. 1 crore
D. 10 lakhs
18. A small enterprise is one in which the investment in plants and machinery ismore than Rs
……………. But does not exceed Rs …………………… .
19. A medium enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery ismore than Rs
……………… but does not exceed Rs……………………. ..
C. crores/ 10 crores
20 Units provide inputs to other industries.

A. export
B. small
C. ancillary
D. none of these
21 Registration helps the entrepreneur to take necessary steps to bring

industrial units into existence.
A. provisional
B. permanent
C. both of these
D. none of these
22. The MSME Development Act came into force in ………………….

A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2010
D. 2001
23. Capital investment subsidy was introduced in ………………………………….

A. 1973
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1970
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24 Is the financial and promotional assistance provided by the Govt. to the

industries for boosting up industrial development in all regions particularly in backward areas.
A. seed capital
B. incentive
C. subsidy
D. none of these
25 is the place where the required facilities and factory accommodation

are provided by the government to the entrepreneurs to establish their industries there.
A. industry
B. industrial estate
C. company
D. none of these
26. The initial capital that is required to obtain loans from the financial institutions is called
……………
A. seed capital
B. incentive
C. subsidy
D. none of these
27. Under the single roof of the .......................... all the services and support required by small and
village entrepreneurs are provided.
A. ksidc
B. kitco
C. dic
D. kinfra
28. KITCO was set up in………………………

A. 1973
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1970
29 ........................... offers comprehensive consultancy services to MSMEs in Kerala.

A. ksidc
B. kitco
C. dic
D. kinfra
30. A micro manufacturing enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does
not exceed…………………….
A. rs. 5 lakhs.
B. rs. 10 lakhs.
C. rs.20 lakhs.
D. none of these.
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31. A micro service is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does notexceed………..
A. rs. 5 lakhs.
B. rs.10 lakhs.
C. rs 25 lakhs.
D. none of these.
32. A small service enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not
exceed…………………….
A. rs. 25 lakhs.
B. 1 crore.
C. 2 crores.
D. none of these.
33. The investment in plant and machinery in ancillary units should not exceed………
A. rs.25 lakhs.
B. 2 crores.
C. 5 crores.
D. 10 crores.
34. A single lump sum which is given by a govt. to an entrepreneur to cover the cost is known
as…….
A. subsidy.
B. concession.
C. bounties.
D. none of these.
35. A bonus or financial aid which is given by a govt. to an industry to help it compete with other
units in home market or in a foreign market is known as……
A. subsidy.
B. concession.
C. bounties.
D. none of these.
36. Single window scheme is instituted through…………………………

A. idbi.
B. sidco.
C. kfc.
D. dic.
37. The advance given to cover the finance requirement during the time lag betweenthe
sanctioning and disbursement of term loan by financial institutions is known as…………..
A. soft loan.
B. seed capital.
C. capital subsidy.
D. bridge loan.
38. The MSME Development Act came into force in the year……………………………….
A. 2005.
B. 2006.
C. 2007.
D. none of these.
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39. Offering single window clearance facility is the most fascinating feature of ………
A. ksidc
B. kitco
C. dic
D. kinfra
40. KINFRA was setup in …………………….

A. 2000
B. 1993
C. 1996
D. 1999
41. Techno crafts is assistance is provided by………………………..

A. kfc
B. kitco
C. ksidc
D. kinfra
42 Is a National level apex organization of young entrepreneurs

A. naye
B. tco
C. sido
D. nsic
43 provides consultancy services to small and medium enterprises atreasonable

cost
A. naye
B. tco
C. sido
D. nsic
44. KITCO was established in ………………

A. 1970
B. 1973
C. 1972
D. 1975
45 ........................ is an area where applied research on high tech projects is conducted

A. step
B. swot
C. epst
D. none of these
46. Which of these is not a state level promotional institutions

A. kitco
B. ksidc
C. niesbud
D. sidco
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47. The Head Office of KINFRA is located at………………………

A. thiruvananthapuram
B. kozhikode
C. ernakulum
D. Kannur
48 refers to any investment opportunity which is to be exploited for profit.

A. product
B. project
C. share
D. none of these
49 the process of collection, compilation and analysis of economic data for

the purpose of finding out possible opportunities for investment.
A. project screening
B. project appraisal
C. project identification
D. none
50. The process of evaluating the project ideas with a view to select the best and promising idea
after eliminating the unprofitable ideas is called ...........................Of the project ideas.
A. screening
B. appraisal
C. identification
D. none
51. After screening the ideas, they are translated into project………………………………….
A. portfolio
B. profiles
C. proposal
D. none
52. SWOT stands for strength, weakness, opportunity, and ………………………………..

A. treat
B. threat
C. tort
D. none
53. Project formulation means ..................................... Study.

A. profitability
B. liquidity
C. feasibility
D. viability
54 Analysis is primarily concerned with the identification, quantification and

evaluation of project resources.
A. network
B. financial
C. techno-economic
D. input
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55 analysis is done to ascertain financial viability of a project.

A. network
B. financial
C. techno-economic
D. input
56 technology refers to that technology which is suitable to local, economic,

social and cultural conditions.
A. indigenous
B. imported
C. advanced
D. appropriate
57. The term .................................. refers to the plan for a particular type of building,arrangement
of machinery and equipment and provision of facilitation in the building.
A. factory building
B. factory design
C. factory layout
D. factory premises
58 Analysis is one of the most popular techniques used for planning, scheduling,
monitoring and co-ordinating projects comprising a number of activities.
A. network
B. financial
C. techno-economic
D. input
59 is the difference between sales and variable cost.

A. margin of safety
B. fixed cost
C. contribution
D. profit
60 is a network technique of scheduling and controlling the project where

activity times cannot be precisely estimated.
A. pert
B. cpm
C. bep
D. swot
61 analysis is a technique commonly used to assess expected product profitability.

A. pert
B. cpm
C. bep
D. swot
62. A series of related activities which result in some product or service is called……
A. event
B. task
C. network
D. slack
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63 ......................... represents the activities and events of a project in a logical sequence.

A. network diagram
B. project graph
C. arrow diagram
D. all of these
64. The element of job to be completed in a specific time is known as……………………….

A. event
B. activity
C. network
D. slack
65 ........................ represents the start and end of an activity.

A. event
B. activity
C. network
D. slack
66. Node represents…………………………

A. slack
B. activity
C. network
D. event
67 ...... is the unbroken chain of activities from start event to end event in thenetwork diagram.
A. slack
B. activity
C. network
D. path
68. Critical path is the longest .............................. in the network

A. slack
B. activity
C. event
D. path
69. Activities lying on the critical path are known as… ......................activities.
A. critical
B. preceding
C. succeeding
D. concurrent
70 ............... are activities that must be completed immediately prior to the start ofanother
activity.
A. critical
B. preceding
C. succeeding
D. concurrent
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71. Activities that cannot be started until one or more of other activities are completed but
immediately follow are called…………………..
A. critical
B. preceding
C. succeeding
D. concurrent
72. Activities that can be accomplished simultaneously are called.............. activities.

A. critical
B. preceding
C. succeeding
D. concurrent
73 .......................is the earliest time an activity can begin

A. eft
B. lst
C. lft
D. est
74. The sum of earliest start time and estimated time to perform the project is called……..
A. eft
B. lst
C. lft
D. est
75. The latest possible time an activity can finish without delaying the project is called…….
A. eft
B. lst
C. lft
D. est
76. Difference between latest finish time and estimated time to perform the projectis called………..
A. eft
B. lst
C. lft
D. est
77 is the difference between the actual sales and break even sales.
A. margin of safety
B. fixed cost
C. contribution
D. profit
78 study is a systematic method adopted to find out the possibility and

practicability of starting a project.
A. profitability
B. liquidity
C. feasibility
D. viability
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79. Which of the following is not a phase in the project life cycle:
A. pre- investment phase.
B. construction phase.
C. normalization phase.
D. growth phase.
80. Which of the following is a technique of project identification:

A. desk research.
B. sensitivity analysis.
C. cvp analysis.
D. none of these.
81. Decision regarding factory design is part of :

A. network analysis.
B. financial analysis.
C. technical analysis.
D. social cost benefit analysis.
82. Which of the following is not a network technique :

A. cpm.
B. pert.
C. swot.
D. lob.
83. Shortest possible time to complete an activity is ………………………

A. pessimistic time
B. optimistic time
C. most likely time
D. none of these
84. Maximum possible time to complete an activity is ………………………

A. pessimistic time
B. optimistic time
C. most likely time
D. none of these
85. Estimated time required in normal conditions complete an activity is ………………

A. pessimistic time
B. optimistic time
C. most likely time
D. none of these
86 shows the changes in assets, liabilities and net worth between two balance sheet dates.
A. cash flow
B. fund flow
C. ratio
D. breakeven
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87 shows movement of cash into and out of the firm and its net effect on balance sheet.
A. cash flow
B. fund flow
C. ratio
D. breakeven
88. Which of the following is not a technique of financial analysis:

A. ratio analysis.
B. risk analysis.
C. cash flow analysis.
D. fund flow analysis.
89. Mathematical relationship between two figures taken from financial statements is called……….
A. cash flow
B. fund flow
C. ratio
D. breakeven
90 is an equilibrium point.
A. cash flow
B. fund flow
C. ratio
D. breakeven
91 is described as bread earning point.

A. cash flow
B. fund flow
C. ratio
D. breakeven
92 ratio establishes relationship between contribution margin and total sales.

A. p/v
B. current
C. profitability
D. none
93. Contribution margin ratio is better known as……………..

A. p/v
B. current
C. profitability
D. none
94 ....................Is also known as marginal profit ratio

A. p/v
B. current
C. profitability
D. none
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95. Raising capital from multiple sources is known as…………………….

A. venture capital
B. layered financing
C. deferred credit
D. lease financing
96. Giving capital to enterprise that has risk and adventure is called………………………
A. venture capital
C. deferred credit
D. lease financing
97. Arrangement where payments to suppliers are made in agreed instalments over a specified
period of time at some agreed rate of interest on the outstanding balance.
A. venture capital
C. deferred credit
D. lease financing
98 ........ is a contract between the owner and user of the asset to use the asset for a consideration.
A. venture capital
C. deferred credit
D. lease financing
99. Project appraisal is the process of estimating the costs and benefits of a projectto arrive at the
………………………decision.
A. investment
B. profitability
C. liquidity
D. none of these
100. Project appraisal is usually done by a................................ Institution.

A. marketing
B. financial
C. production
D. none of these
101. Profitability index is also known as ................................... ratio

A. roi
B. benefit- cost
C. debt-equity
D. none
102. Payback period and ARR methods are …………………..

A. traditional
B. discounting
C. modern
D. none
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103. NPV, PI and ........................... are the three discounted cash flow techniques.
A. arr
B. irr
C. ntv
D. urgency
104. Original investment is divided by constant cash ............................ to get payback period.
A. inflows
B. outflows
C. balance
D. both (a)and (b)
105 ...................... is also called trial and error Method.

A. arr
B. irr
C. ntv
D. urgency
106. The discount rate at which present value of cash inflows equals to the present value of cash
outflows is called …………………..
A. arr
B. irr
C. ntv
D. urgency
107. Project… ............................ is done after the project is implemented.

A. management
B. appraisal
C. evaluation
D. none
108. The main object of project appraisal is:

A. to find whether the project is technically feasible.
B. to ascertain whether the project is financially feasible.
C. to decide whether to accept or reject a project.
D. to know whether the project is eco-friendly.
109. Project appraisal is done by:

A. government.
B. financial institution only.
C. entrepreneur only.
D. both financial institution and entrepreneur.
110. Which one is not an element of project appraisal:

A. technical feasibility.
B. network analysis.
C. economical viability.
D. commercial viability.
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111. The discount rate must be determined in advance for the :

A. payback period.
B. time adjusted rate of return method.
C. irr
D. npv method.
112. Which one of the following is not a discounted cash flow technique:
A. arr
B. irr
C. npv
D. pi
113. The difference between the total present value of a stream of cash flows of a given rate of
discount and the initial capital outlay is known as the :
A. irr.
B. arr.
C. npv.
D. net profit.
114. The scientific technique of evaluation of capital expenditure decisions include the following
except:
A. npv.
B. pi.
C. irr.
D. payback period.
115. Profitability index shows benefits from the proposal in :

A. absolute terms.
B. relative terms.
C. both of the above.
D. none of these.
116. For discounted cash flow methods, the discount rate used is:
A. fixed arbitrarily
B. equivalent to bank rate.
C. equivalent to firm’s average cost of capital.
D. equivalent to final rate of dividend.
117. The process of measuring the progress and performance of a project is called:
A. project appraisal.
B. project evaluation.
C. project control.
D. project audit.
118. The excess of the present value over the cost of the project is ……………………..
A. irr
B. arr
C. npv
D. ntv
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119. In case of mutually exclusive projects, the project with ................. PI is to be selected.
A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
120. In independent projects, accept a project if it’s NPV is………………………..

A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
121. Under Net Terminal Value Method, accept a project if it’s NTV is……………………
A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
122. Under Net Terminal Value Method, reject a project if it’s NTV is ................... (a)higher (b)lower
(c)negative (d)positive125) Accept a project if it’s IRR is ..................when compared to desired
minimum
A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
123. Reject a project if it’s IRR is ................. when compared to desired minimum
A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
124 report is a document wherein all the details obtained from technical
analysis, financial analysis, profitability analysis etc. are put together.
A. feasibility
B. project
C. both
D. none
125 Is an essential document for procuring assistance from financial institutions

and for fulfilling other formalities for the implementation of the project.
A. feasibility
B. project
C. progress
D. none
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126. Department of industries and commerce formulated a scheme to set up .................. To

inculcate entrepreneurial culture amongst youth.
A. ed clubs
B. youth clubs
C. lion clubs
D. none
127. The scheme of ED Clubs will be implemented by ………………..

A. business incubators.
B. industrial estates.
C. dic.
D. none of these.
128. A grant of ............ Will be given to each ED club by the department of Commerce and industry.
A. 20000
B. 15000
C. 18000
D. 12000
129. A .............................. Is an organization designed and success of entrepreneurial companies

through an array of business support resources and services.
C. dic.
D. none of these.
130 ................................ Skill refers to the ability to conceive new ideas and products.
A. diagnostic
B. conceptual
C. technical
D. human relation
131. The skill to handle people and to influence their behaviour is known as ……………
A. diagnostic
B. conceptual
C. technical
D. human relation
132 ............... Skill refers to the ability to understand problems from visible symptoms.
A. diagnostic
B. conceptual
C. technical
D. human relation
133. Ability to use techniques, procedures and tools of a specific field is called…………
A. diagnostic
B. conceptual
C. technical
D. human relation
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134. Entrepreneurship development is slow in Kerala because:

A. natural resources are limited.
B. poor quality of man power.
C. instable govt.
D. none of these.
135. The minimum numbers to form an ED club is:

A. 20.
B. 25.
C. 50.
D. none of these.
136. Which one of the following is not a function of ED club:

A. organic workshop.
B. interaction with promotional agencies.
C. provide infrastructure.
D. organic industrial visits.
137. Which of the following provides services and advices to start up firms:
C. dic.
D. none of these.
138 analysis is concerned with identification of project demand potential and

selection of optimal technology:
A. techno-economic
B. network
C. financial
D. social cost-benefit
139 Analysis is concerned with the development of detailed workplan of the

project and its time profile:
A. techno-economic
B. network
C. financial
140 Analysis involves estimation of project costs and revenues and fundsrequired for
the project:
A. techno-economic
B. network
C. financial
141 analysis aims at analyzing the real contribution of an investment project

towards welfare of country as a whole;
A. techno-economic
B. network
C. financial
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142 Helps to take investment decision:

A. techno-economic
B. technical
C. financial
D. pre-investment appraisal
143 Analysis is carried out to ascertain technical soundness of the project:

A. techno-economic
B. technical
C. financial
D. pre-investment appraisal
144 Refers to manner in which a company’s inputs are transferred into output
process:
A. process
B. method
C. technology
D. method
145 Give right to use patented technology and get related know-how on mutually
agreed basis:
A. technology licensing.
B. purchase of technology.
C. joint venture.
D. indigenous technology.
146. There is no need for technological support from the seller in ……………………………
C. joint venture.
D. indigenous technology
147. The supplier may participate technically as well as financially in a .................... arrangement.
C. joint venture.
148. Technology developed within a country is called …………………………….

C. joint venture.
149 Refers to the volume that can be manufactured during a given period:
A. plant capacity.
B. plant location.
C. plant layout.
D. process layout.
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150 Refers to the board area where the enterprise is to be established:

A. plant capacity.
B. plant location.
C. plant layout.
D. process layout.
151 Refers to the arrangement of machines, equipments and other physical

facilities within factory premises:
A. plant capacity.
B. plant location.
C. plant layout.
D. process layout.
152. In .................................. Similar machines are placed in one place according to operations they
perform:
A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
C. stationary layout.
D. cellular layout.
153. In ....................... Men and equipment are moved to the material which remains in one place:
A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
154 ................................... Is possible where in item is made in different types and sizes:
A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
155. In .......................... machines dedicated to sequences of production are grouped into cells:
A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
156. Line layout is also called ………………………….

A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. product layout
157. In .............................. Machines are arranged in sequence in which they are used:
A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. product layout
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158. There is a continuous flow of materials in process towards the finished product stage
in…………
A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. product layout
159 Is the best suited in mass production:

A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. product layout
160 Is an innovative layout:

A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
161 Is referred to as group layout:

A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
162 Is called fixed position layout:

A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
163 Is also called functional layout:

A. process layout.
B. combined layout.
D. cellular layout.
164 is a post investment decision report.

A. feasibility report
B. interim report
C. project report
D. progress report
165 provides clues to pertinent questions like “what, why, how, when and where
of the project.
B. interim report
C. project report
D. progress report
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166. An in-depth study is not required in ……………………….

B. interim report
C. project report
D. progress report
167 is the master report

B. interim report
C. project report
D. progress report
168 is the final report

B. interim report
C. project report
D. progress report
169. Which of the following is not included in utilities.

A. raw materials
B. water
C. power
D. effluent disposal
170. Which of the these are not industries promotional institution

A. kfc
B. ksidc
C. ksetdc
D. ktc
171. Ability to make clear decisions on the merits of a case is called ...............skill.
A. communication
B. decision-making
C. project development
D. management
172 skill helps an entrepreneur to establish an enterprise.

A. communication
B. decision-making
D. management
173 skill relates to accounting and financing control, marketing, production planning and
inventory control and to manage people who work in the enterprise.
A. communication
B. decision-making
D. management
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174 skills are necessary for an entrepreneur to deal with many people.
A. communication
B. decision-making
D. management
175. Incubators organised by the government are called………………

A. government sponsored
B. non-profit organizations sponsored
C. university sponsored
D. privately sponsored
176 are incubators sponsored and managed through associations, chambers of commerce etc
177 incubators transit the findings of research and development into new products and
technologies.
178 incubators are organised and managed by private firms or companies or corporations
179 incubators create employment.

A. general purpose
B. technology
C. specialist
D. none
180 incubators seek to commercialize new product or service

A. general purpose
B. technology
C. specialist
D. none
181 incubators focus on specific industry areas like art and craft.
A. general purpose
B. technology
C. specialist
D. none
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182. which of these is not a criteria for choosing right incubator.

A. success rates
B. quality
C. site
D. space
183 .............. is made up of a core group of highly specialized firms the same industry.
A. ed clubs
B. business clubs
C. chamber of commerce
D. business clusters
184. Which of these is a problem of MSMEs

A. bogus units
B. inadequate finance
C. lack of managerial experience
D. all of these
185. The slogan “innovate or evaporate” was given by………..

A. robert owen
D. philip Kotler
186. The first and foremost industrial estate was established at…………………
A. rajkot
B. ahmadabad
C. patna
D. Gurgaon
187. The first and foremost industrial estate was established in the year…………………
A. 1960
B. 1962
C. 1955
D. 1950
188 means organising, housing and servicing industry, a planned clustering of industrial
enterprises offering standard factory buildings erected in advance of demand and a variety of
services and facilities to the occupants.
A. industry
B. industrial estate
C. company
D. none of these
189 is the advance given to cover the finance requirement during the time lag between
sanctioning and disbursement of term loan by financial institutions.
A. incentive
B. bridge capital
C. subsidy
D. venture capital
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190 Is the work of entrepreneurs.

A. invention
B. innovation
C. both
D. none
191 is the work of scientists.

A. invention
B. innovation
C. both
D. none
192. Which of these is not a environmental barrier to entrepreneurship

A. lack of skilled labour
B. custom of people
C. lack of fund
D. lack of infrastructure
193. Which of these is a social barrier to entrepreneurship

A. low status
B. custom of people
C. both
D. none
194 ................. is a combination of knowledge, skills and appropriate motives that an individual
must possess to perform a given task.
A. persistence
B. initiative
C. competency
D. creativity.
195. The capacity to take repeated and different actions to overcome obstacles is called……………..
A. persistence
B. initiative
C. competency
D. creativity.
196. An inner urge in an individual to do something is called……………

A. persistence
B. initiative
C. competency
D. creativity.
197 ................ is the ability of an entrepreneur to successfully convince others.

A. persistence
B. initiative
C. competency
D. persuasion.
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198. Projects for industrial development is an............... project.

A. quantifiable
B. non-quantifiable
C. sectoral
D. crash
199. Additional capital cost are incurred in............ projects to save time.
A. quantifiable
B. non-quantifiable
C. sectoral
D. crash
200. Large scale projects are an example of ................ project

A. quantifiable
B. magnitude oriented
C. sectoral
D. crash
201 analysis helps in studying the impact of crucial variables like raw materials, sales
volume, sales price, degree of capacity utilization etc over the economic viability of an enterprise.
A. break-even
B. sensitivity
C. risk
D. ratio
202 analysis presents he picture of profit at different levels of production.

A. break-even
B. sensitivity
C. risk
D. ratio
203 analysis helps to compare current performance with the past and also in
measuring effectiveness and efficiency of the organization in the light of norms of performances
A. break-even
B. sensitivity
C. risk
D. ratio
204 analysis is a continuous process used to analyse the past and/or projected financial
data.
A. break-even
B. sensitivity
C. financial
D. ratio
205. Crashing is applicable in………………..

A. pert
B. cpm
C. map
D. lob
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206 ............................ entrepreneurs are extremely task oriented.

A. Technical
B. Fabian
C. induced
D. Business
207. The term intrapreneur was coined by …………………………. .

A. Robert Owen
B. Joseph Schumpeter
C. Richard Cantillon
D. Gifford Pinchot
208. According to Schumpeter, Is the most important function of a modern entrepreneur.

A. Innovation,
B. invention,
C. skill,
D. creativity.
209. Knowledge + Skill + Traits = ………………………………..

A. Innovation.
B. Competency.
C. Skill.
D. Creativity.
210. Social attitude is one of the important problems of a ................................Entrepreneur.

A. Drone.
B. Business.
C. Women.
D. Adoptive.
211. Which of the following risks is borne by the entrepreneur:

A. Financial risks,
B. personal risks,
C. psychological risks,
D. all of these.
212. Which of the following is a psychological factor affecting entrepreneurial growth:

A. Legitimacy of entrepreneurship,
B. social status,
C. need for achievement,
D. none of these.
213. A micro enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed Rs.
……………………
A. 25 lakhs
B. 50 lakhs
C. 1 crore
D. 10 lakhs
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214. A micro enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed
Rs…………………….. .
A. 25 lakhs
B. 50 lakhs
C. 1 crore
D. 10 lakhs
215. The process of measuring the progress and performance of a project is called:
A. Project appraisal.
B. Project evaluation.
C. Project control.
D. Project audit.
216. Capital investment subsidy was introduced in ………………………………….

A. 1973
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1970
217. A micro manufacturing enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does
not exceed…………………….
A. Rs. 5 lakhs.
B. Rs. 10 lakhs.
C. Rs.20 lakhs.
D. None of these.
218. A micro service is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not exceed………..
A. Rs. 5 lakhs.
B. Rs.10 lakhs.
C. Rs 25 lakhs.
D. None of these.
219. A small service enterprise is one in which the investment in plant and machinery does not
exceed…………………….
A. Rs. 25 lakhs.
B. 1 crore.
C. 2 crores.
D. None of these.
220. A single lump sum which is given by a govt. to an entrepreneur to cover the cost is known
as…….
A. subsidy
B. Concession
C. Bounties
D. None of these
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221. The advance given to cover the finance requirement during the time lag between the
sanctioning and disbursement of term loan by financial institutions is known as…………..
A. Soft loan.
B. Seed capital.
C. Capital subsidy.
D. Bridge loan.
222. The MSME Development Act came into force in the year……………………………….
A. 2005.
B. 2006.
C. 2007.
D. None of these.
223. Techno crafts is assistance is provided by………………………..

A. KFC
B. KITCO
C. KSIDC
D. KINFRA
224. The process of evaluating the project ideas with a view to select the best and promising idea
after eliminating the unprofitable ideas is called ........................... Of the project ideas.
A. Screening
B. appraisal
C. identification
D. none
225. After screening the ideas, they are translated into project………………………………….
A. portfolio
B. profiles
C. proposal
D. none
226. SWOT stands for strength, weakness, opportunity, and ………………………………..

A. Treat
B. threat
C. tort
D. none
227. Project formulation means ..................................... Study.

A. profitability
B. liquidity
C. feasibility
D. viability
228 .....................................Analysis is primarily concerned with the identification, quantification

and evaluation of project resources.
A. Network
B. financial
C. techno-economic
D. input
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229. The term ................................ refers to the plan for a particular type of building,
arrangement of machinery and equipment and provision of facilitation in the building.
A. factory building
B. factory design
C. factory layout
D. factory premises
230. The element of job to be completed in a specific time is known as……………………….

A. event
B. activity
C. network
D. slack
231 ........................ represents the start and end of an activity.

A. event
B. activity
C. network
D. slack
232. The sum of earliest start time and estimated time to perform the project is called……..
A. EFT
B. LST
C. LFT
D. EST
233. The latest possible time an activity can finish without delaying the project is called…….
A. EFT
B. LST
C. LFT
D. EST
234. Difference between latest finish time and estimated time to perform the project is
called………..
A. EFT
B. LST
C. LFT
D. EST
235. Contribution margin ratio is better known as……………..

A. P/V
B. current
C. profitability
D. none
236. Arrangement where payments to suppliers are made in agreed instalments over a specified
period of time at some agreed rate of interest on the outstanding balance.
A. venture capital
C. deferred credit
D. lease financing
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237. Payback period and ARR methods are …………………..

A. traditional
B. discounting
C. modern
D. none
238. Project… ............................ is done after the project is implemented.

A. Management
B. Appraisal
C. Evaluation
D. None
239. The main object of project appraisal is :

A. To find whether the project is technically feasible
B. To ascertain whether the project is financially feasible
C. To decide whether to accept or reject a project
D. To know whether the project is eco-friendly
240. Which one is not an element of project appraisal :

A. Technical feasibility.
B. Network analysis.
C. Economical viability.
D. Commercial viability.
241. The discount rate must be determined in advance for the :

A. Payback period.
B. Time adjusted rate of return method.
C. IRR
D. NPV method.
242. For discounted cash flow methods, the discount rate used is:
A. Fixed arbitrarily
B. Equivalent to bank rate.
C. Equivalent to firm’s average cost of capital.
D. Equivalent to final rate of dividend.
243. 2120) The excess of the present value over the cost of the project is ……………………..
A. IRR
B. ARR
C. NPV
D. NTV
244. In independent projects, accept a project if it’s NPV is………………………..

A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
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245. Under Net Terminal Value Method, reject a project if it’s NTV is………………..
A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
246. Accept a project if it’s IRR is ................. when compared to desired minimum
A. higher
B. lower
C. negative
D. positive
247. Department of industries and commerce formulated a scheme to set up ................... To

inculcate entrepreneurial culture amongst youth.
A. ED clubs
B. youth clubs
C. lion clubs
D. none
248. The scheme of ED Clubs will be implemented by ………………..

A. Business incubators.
B. Industrial estates.
C. DIC.
D. None of these.
249. 3133)............................. Skill refers to the ability to conceive new ideas and products.
A. diagnostic
B. conceptual
C. technical
D. human relation
250. Technology developed within a country is called …………………………….

A. Technology licensing.
B. Purchase of technology.
C. Joint venture.
D. Indigenous technology
251. Line layout is also called ………………………….

A. Process layout.
B. Combined layout.
C. Stationary layout.
D. product layout
252. 6166) ........................... Is also called functional layout:

A. Process layout.
B. Combined layout.
C. Stationary layout.
D. Cellular layout.
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253. 7178) Incubators organised by the government are called………………

254 ....... skill helps an entrepreneur to establish an enterprise.

A. communication
B. decision-making
D. management
255. which of these is not a criteria for choosing right incubator.

A. success rates
B. quality
C. site
D. space
256 .............. is made up of a core group of highly specialized firms the same industry.
A. ED clubs
B. Business clubs
C. chamber of commerce
D. Business Clusters
257. The slogan “innovate or evaporate” was given by………..

A. Robert Owen
B. Joseph Schumpeter
C. Richard Cantillon
D. Philip Kotler
258. 9203) Large scale projects are an example of ............... project

A. quantifiable
B. magnitude oriented
C. sectoral
D. crash
259. Crashing is applicable in………………..

A. PERT
B. CPM
C. MAP
D. LOB
260. Intrapreneurship is also known as

A. innovative entreprenurship
B. coorporate entreprenurship
C. women entreprenurship
D. none of these
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261. entrepreneur adopt the successful innovations

A. innovative
B. Adoptive
C. fabian
D. drone
262. entrepreneur are very cautious and sceptical in adopting any change.
A. fabian
B. adoptive
C. innovative
D. drone
263. entrepreneur are laggards as they continue to operate in their traditional way and resist
changes
A. innovative
B. fabian
C. drone
D. adoptive
264. Entrepreneurial skills includes

A. creative problem solving
B. persuading
C. negotiation
D. all of these
265. As per McCLELLAND' s psychological theory suggest the most important characteristics for an
entrepreneur is
A. need for power
B. need for affiliation
C. need for achivement
D. need for cooperation
266. Need hierarchy thoery ig given by

A. McClelland
B. herzgerg
C. maslow
D. J.S.mill
267. Joseph schumpeter describe entrepreneur as

A. risk taker
B. energetic
C. innovators
D. information seeking
268. Basic problems of women entrepreneur in india

A. lack of education skill
B. male dominating society
C. lack of financial strength
D. all of these
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269. Which of the following factors should not be included in P

A. E Government re-cycling policy
B. Proposed reduction in interest rates
C. Competitor activity.
D. Demographic changes.
270. A new venture's business plan is important because

A. It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
B. Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
C. Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
D. All the above.
271. Promoter is a person who .

A. takes part in the incorporation of a company .
B. is a director
C. is a relative of the managing director
D. works to publicity to the company
272. The process of preparing an inventory of skills needed for

A. Economic viability
B. Financial feasibility.
C. Technical feasibility
D. Managerial competence.
273. Memorandum of association of a firm contains

A. rules regarding the internal management of the company
B. rules regarding the constitution and activities of the company.
C. rules regarding the external management
D. rules regarding the constitution
274. discretionary responsibilities relates to

A. philanthropy
B. ethical responsibility
C. legal responsibilities
D. economic responsibilities
275. legal responsibilities relates to

A. just and fair practices
B. obey the laws of land
C. attain economic goals
D. do good to others
276. corporate social responsibility leads to

A. long run survival of business
B. improvement in public image
C. helps in avoiding government interference
D. all of these
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277. EDP stands for

A. Entrepreneurship development programme
B. Entrepreneurship development policy
C. Entrepreneurship demand plan
D. none of these
278. Entrepreneurial behaviour includes

A. solving problems
B. taking initiative
C. taking responsibility
D. all of these
279. the entreneurial growth in india gain momentum after the launch of economic planning in
A. 1872
B. 1772
C. 1952
D. 1978
280. Why are small businesses important to a country's economy

A. m They give an outlet for entrepreneurs
B. They can provide specialist support to larger companies.
C. They can be innovators of new products.
D. All the above.
281. Which of the following factors does the macro-environment

A. political and regulatory factors.
B. customer needs in a given market.
C. social and demographic factors.
D. technological changes
282. designed to produce numerous ideas in a short period

A. Synectics
B. Delphi technique
C. Brain storming
D. Nominal group technique
283. . describes the direction, the enterprise is going in, what its goals are, where it wants to be,
and how it is going to get there
A. project report
B. technical analysis
C. market analysis
D. financial analysis
284. The oldest form of business organization is .

A. Partnership.
B. sole proprietorship
C. joint stock company
D. co-operative undertaking.
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285. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business Name and
sell its products or services is known as
A. A cooperative.
B. A franchise
C. An owner-manager business
D. A limited company
286. The 'T' in a PESTLE analysis refers to .

A. Time
B. Technology
C. Training
D. Talent
287. Which of the following is the reason for business failure

A. Lack of market research.
B. Poor financial control.
C. Poor management.
D. All the above
288. kunkel proposed the theory of

A. social behaviour
B. consumer behaviour
C. cognitive response
D. X-efficiency
289. adopting any change.

A. fabian
B. adoptive
C. innovative
D. drone
290. operate in their traditional way and resist changes

A. innovative
B. fabian
C. drone
D. adoptive
291. Which of the following factors should not be included in PESTLE analysis?
A. Government re-cycling policy
B. Proposed reduction in
C. Competitor activity.
D. Demographic changes.
292. A new venture's business plan is important because .

A. It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the
B. Can help demonstrate the
C. Provides a guide for business activities by
D. All the above.
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293. Promoter is a person who .

A. takes part in the incorporation of a
B. is a director
C. is a relative of the managing director
D. works to publicity to the company
294. The process of preparing an inventory of skills needed for effective implementation of the
project is called as
A. Economic viability
B. Financial feasibility.
C. Technical feasibility
D. Managerial competence.
295. Memorandum of association of a firm contains

A. rules regarding the internal management of the
B. rules regarding the constitution and
C. rules regarding the external management
D. rules regarding the constitution
296. corporate social responsibility leads to

A. long run survival of business
B. improvement in public image
C. helps in avoiding government interference
D. all of these
297. EDP stands for

A. Entrepreneurship development programme
B. Entrepreneurship development
C. Entrepreneurship demand plan
D. none of these
298. Why are small businesses important to a country's economy?

A. They give an outlet for entrepreneurs
B. They can provide specialist support
C. They can be innovators of new products.
D. All the above.
299. Which of the following factors does the macro-environment not include?
A. political and regulatory factors.
B. customer needs in a given market.
C. social and demographic factors.
D. technological changes
300. produce numerous ideas in a short period

A. Synectics
B. Delphi technique
C. Brain storming
D. technique
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301 ............describes the direction, the enterprise is going in, what its goals are, where it wants to
be, and how it is
A. project report
B. technical analysis
C. market analysis
D. financial analysis
302. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business Name and
sell its products or services is known
A. A cooperative.
B. A franchise
C. An owner-manager business
D. A limited company
303. Innovation can best be defined as .

A. the generation of new ideas.
B. the evolution of new ideas.
C. the opposite of creativity.
D. the successful exploitation of new ideas.
304. Which of these statements best describes the context for entrepreneurship?
A. Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses.
B. Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses.
C. Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts.
D. Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises.
305. Entrepreneurship can best be described as .

A. a process that requires setting up a business.
B. taking a significant risk in a business context.
C. having a strong vision.
D. a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation.
306. Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round ----------------- through acceleration
of industrial and entrepreneurial activities.
A. economic development
B. increase in profits
C. shareholders value
D. business development
307. According to sociological approach, entrepreneurship

A. Process of sensitivity
B. Process of role performance
C. Process of economic change
D. All of these
308. Which of the following attitudes Is not generally associated with successful entrepreneurship:
A. Competition and co-operation
B. Desire to influence others
C. Innovation and product improvement
D. Status quo in business
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309. The function of entrepreneur are:

A. To imagine a business idea
B. To study project feasibility
C. To setup enterprise
D. All the above
310. Which of the following sentence is not a characteristic of entrepreneurship:

A. Risk taking
B. Innovation
C. Creative activity
D. Managerial training
311. An entrepreneur is:

A. Born
B. Made
C. Bom and made both
D. All of these
312. Which of the following sentence is inconsistent in the context of entrepreneur:

A. He is owner of the business
B. He is risk taker
C. He operates production activities
D. He searches out business opportunities
313. Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs theory is governed by the fact that:

A. People are universally motivated by needs
B. People are socially motivated by needs
C. People are politically motivated by needs
D. None of the above
314. In under developed countries, local mobile phone companies use the same technology used
by big companies to manufacture their products. Which of the following type of Entrepreneurs is
highlighted above:
A. Trading Entrepreneurs
B. Imitative Entrepreneurs
C. First generation Entrepreneurs
D. Innovative Entrepreneurs
315. All but which of the following is considered to be a myth associated with entrepreneurship?
A. Successful entrepreneurs are born not made
B. First ventures are always successful
C. All entrepreneurs must willingly invest significant sums of money
D. Successful entrepreneurs must have a break-through invention
316. Entrepreneurial culture and growth orientation consists of all of the following except:
A. Encouraging employees to generate ideas
B. Focusing on opportunities.
C. The desire to grow at a slow and controlled pace.
D. Being creative.
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317. Intrapreneurship often takes the form of

A. A semi-autonomous group (e.g. an internal venture team), operating within the overarching
structure of the parent organization.
B. A spinout venture from a university to commercial a new invention.
C. A subsidiary of a large corporation developing a new product.
D. A semi-autonomous group operating outside the overarching structure of the parent
organization.
318. A is a professional money manager who makes risk investment from apool
of equity capital to obtain a high rate of return on investments.
A. venture capitalist
B. entrepreneur
C. businessman
D. buyer
319. A business plan is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. a business plan forces a firm's founders to systematically think through each aspect of their new
venture.
B. a business plan provides lenders and investors assurance that they will earn a decent return.
C. a business plan provides an investor with something to react to.
D. a business plan is a selling document that enables a company to present itself to potential
suppliers and business partners.
320. A new venture's business plan is important because .

A. It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
B. Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
C. Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
D. All the above.
321. To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up a number
of .
A. financial advisors.
B. financial intermediaries.
C. Industrial estates.
D. financial institutions.
322. can be defined as a specifically evolved work plan densed to achieve a

Specific objective within a specific period of time
A. Idea generation.
B. Opportunity Scanning.
C. Project.
D. Strategy
323. is used to accomplish the project economically in the minimum availabletime

with limited resources
A. Project Scheduling.
B. Network Analysis.
C. Budget Analysis.
D. Critical Planning
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324. is a form of financing especially for funding high technology, high riskand
Perceived high reward projects
A. Fixed capital.
B. Current capital.
C. Seed capital.
D. Venture capital.
325. is a favourable set of circumstances that creates a need for a new product, service, or
business.
A. A niche
B. A venture
C. A trend
D. An opportunity
326. Each of the following are ways to identify an opportunity EXCEPT:

A. observing trends.
B. solving a problem.
C. trying out alternative uses of existing products.
D. finding gaps in the marketplace.
327. Entrepreneurs can recognize problems and find ways to solve them through each of the
following EXCEPT:
A. recognizing problems in emerging trends.
B. identifying a currently available product or service and then building a business around a better
version.
C. framing a problem differently than it's been thought of before, and then proposing an appropriate
solution.
D. experiencing a problem in one's own life, and then realizing the solution represents a business
opportunity.
328. All of the following are characteristics shared by those who excel at recognizing opportunities
EXCEPT:
A. brainstorming.
B. prior experience.
C. entrepreneurial alertness.
D. social contacts and ties with others.
329. All of the following are suitable questions to ascertain Product/Service Desirability EXCEPT:
A. Does it make sense?
B. Is the product or service financially feasible?
C. Is this a good time to introduce the product or service in the market?
D. Are there any fatal flaws in the product or service's basic design or concept?
330. All of the following are characteristics of attractive industries EXCEPT:

A. the industry is young.
B. the industry is fragmented.
C. the industry is crowd
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331. is conducted to determine whether a proposed business has sufficient management

expertise, organizational competence, and resources to successfully launch its business.
A. A marketing plan
B. Financial feasibility analysis
C. Industry/market feasibility analysis
D. Organizational feasibility analysis
332. Why is the executive summary perhaps the most important section of the business plan?
A. This section of the plan provides in-depth discussion of the major trends in the industry in which
the firm intends to compete.
B. This section of the plan summarizes the firm's key executives.
C. If this section of the plan fails to attract an investor's interest, he or she is unlikely to read the
remainder of the plan.
D. This section of the plan deals with the day-to-day operations of the company.
333. Which of the following might be termed a disadvantage faced by the small business?
A. Greater flexibility
B. Greater ability to serve specialized markets
C. Extreme personal commitment of the owner
D. More personal service
334. The financial assistance to small business provided by the Small Business Administration
takes the form of:
A. direct loans
B. guidance in locating lenders
C. loan guarantees
D. assistance in filling out paperwork
335. Key features of a well written business plan would include all of the following except:
A. financial plan
B. qualifications of the owner
C. an analysis of the market
D. a review of the advertising firms analyzed
336. EDPs course contents contain .

A. General introduction to entrepreneurs.
B. Motivation training.
C. Managerial skills.
D. All the above
337. MSME is defined under which act?

A. MSMED Act 2006
B. MSMED Act 2001
C. MSMED Act 1999
D. MSMED Act 2004
338. MSMEs are important for the Nation's Economy because they significantly contribute to
A. Industrial Production
B. Exports
C. Employment
D. All of the above
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339. Investment Limit of a Micro Enterprise under manufacturing sector does not
exceed lakhs.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 50
340. The manufacturing enterprises are defined in terms of investment in .

A. Furniture
B. Stock
C. Plant & machinery
D. None of these
341. Which of the following is not considered while selecting the region?
A. Law and order
B. Price of land
C. Availability of raw materials
D. Proximity to the product market
342. Which one of the following is the step involved in setting up a new enterprises?
A. Creating a business plan
B. Making a product choice
C. Selecting the location
D. Setting up infrastructure
343. Which of the following is the key factor for choosing the type of financing?
A. Availability of funds
B. Assets of the venture
C. Prevailing interest rates
D. All of the given options
344. Following is not involved in EDP

A. Identification of entrepreneurs for training
B. Selection of entrepreneurs for training
C. Developing entrepreneurial capabilities
D. Arranging infrastructural facilities
345. The distinction between an "entrepreneur" and "small business owner" , if made, revolves
around:
A. really nothing; they are truly one and the same
B. the Small Business Administration definitions
C. whether the business is an Internet based one or not
D. the risk taking or re-invention of a business vs. someone who "simply" starts a
346. Which of the following is not a main element of the project management process?
A. Estimation.
B. Schedule.
C. Monitor.
D. Systems design.
Phone – 99035-03989
347. SBA stands for:

A. Small business accountants
B. Small business administration
C. Small business adequacy
D. Small business advisors
348. EDPs course contents contains .

A. General introduction to entrepreneurs.
B. Motivation training.
C. Managerial skills.
D. All the above
349. EDII was developed by the

A. Government of India
B. State Government
C. All India Financial Institutions
D. Public sector banks
350. NIESBUD was established in

A. 1980
B. 1983
C. 1986
D. 1989
351. is the first development bank of the country.

A. ICICI.
B. IDBI.
C. SFC.
D. IFCI
352. State Industrial corporations engage in the development of .

A. industrial estates.
B. institutional estates.
C. individual investors.
D. agricultural entrepreneurs.
353. SIDBI was set up as a subsidiary of .

A. IDBI.
B. IFCI.
C. ICICI.
D. SFC
354. Which of the following is a function of SIDBI?

A. Extension of seed capital.
B. Discounting of bills.
C. Providing factoring services.
D. All of the above
Phone – 99035-03989
355. A provisional SSI registration certificate is valid for a period of .

A. four Years.
B. three Years.
C. two Years.
D. one year.
356. DGTD stands for .

A. Directorate General of Technical Development.
B. District General of Technical Development.
C. District General of Taxation Deduction.
D. Directorate General of Taxation Deduction
357. National Alliance of Young Entrepreneurs (NAYE) Sponsored an Entrepreneurial Development

scheme with Bank of India in .
A. January 1920.
B. August 1920.
C. January 1972.
D. August 1972.
358. The application for registration of a small scale unit should be submitted to the .
A. General manager, DIC.
B. Director, DIC.
C. General manager. NSIC.
D. Director, NSIC.
359. District Industries Centres are located .

A. in each district.
B. in each state.
C. only in selected districts.
D. only in selected states
360. The purpose of soft loan scheme is to encourage units to undertake .

A. modernization of plant and machinery.
B. replacement of plant and machinery.
C. renovation of plant and machinery.
D. all the above
361. EXIM bank is a .

A. State-level institution.
B. Regional -level institution.
C. All India institution.
D. International institution.
362. DIC is headed by General Manager in the rank of .

A. Joint Director of industries.
B. Assistant Director of industries.
C. Non-departmental officer.
D. Departmental officer.
Phone – 99035-03989

Aaditya Gupta Classes- Entrepreneurship Development Mcqs

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Aaditya Gupta Classes- Entrepreneurship Development Mcqs

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Guiding You Today For a Better Tomorrow Aaditya Gupta Classes

Entrepreneurship Development (ED) MCQs

1 applied the word entrepreneur to business for the first time.

2 is the drive to achieve a goal.

3 entrepreneurs are extremely task oriented.

5. The term intrapreneur was coined by …………………………. .

6. According to Schumpeter, Is the most important function of a modern entrepreneur.

7. Knowledge + Skill + Traits = ………………………………..

9. The capacity to develop new ideas, concepts and processes is known as :

10. Which of the following risks is borne by the entrepreneur:

13. Who introduced the term intrapreneur:

20 Units provide inputs to other industries.

21 Registration helps the entrepreneur to take necessary steps to bring

22. The MSME Development Act came into force in ………………….

23. Capital investment subsidy was introduced in ………………………………….

24 Is the financial and promotional assistance provided by the Govt. to the

25 is the place where the required facilities and factory accommodation

28. KITCO was set up in………………………

29 ........................... offers comprehensive consultancy services to MSMEs in Kerala.

36. Single window scheme is instituted through…………………………

40. KINFRA was setup in …………………….

41. Techno crafts is assistance is provided by………………………..

42 Is a National level apex organization of young entrepreneurs

43 provides consultancy services to small and medium enterprises atreasonable

44. KITCO was established in ………………

45 ........................ is an area where applied research on high tech projects is conducted

46. Which of these is not a state level promotional institutions

47. The Head Office of KINFRA is located at………………………

48 refers to any investment opportunity which is to be exploited for profit.

49 the process of collection, compilation and analysis of economic data for

52. SWOT stands for strength, weakness, opportunity, and ………………………………..

53. Project formulation means ..................................... Study.

54 Analysis is primarily concerned with the identification, quantification and

55 analysis is done to ascertain financial viability of a project.

56 technology refers to that technology which is suitable to local, economic,

59 is the difference between sales and variable cost.

60 is a network technique of scheduling and controlling the project where

61 analysis is a technique commonly used to assess expected product profitability.

63 ......................... represents the activities and events of a project in a logical sequence.

64. The element of job to be completed in a specific time is known as……………………….

65 ........................ represents the start and end of an activity.

66. Node represents…………………………

68. Critical path is the longest .............................. in the network

72. Activities that can be accomplished simultaneously are called.............. activities.

73 .......................is the earliest time an activity can begin

78 study is a systematic method adopted to find out the possibility and

80. Which of the following is a technique of project identification:

81. Decision regarding factory design is part of :

82. Which of the following is not a network technique :

83. Shortest possible time to complete an activity is ………………………

84. Maximum possible time to complete an activity is ………………………

85. Estimated time required in normal conditions complete an activity is ………………

88. Which of the following is not a technique of financial analysis:

91 is described as bread earning point.

92 ratio establishes relationship between contribution margin and total sales.

93. Contribution margin ratio is better known as……………..

94 ....................Is also known as marginal profit ratio

95. Raising capital from multiple sources is known as…………………….

100. Project appraisal is usually done by a................................ Institution.

101. Profitability index is also known as ................................... ratio

102. Payback period and ARR methods are …………………..

105 ...................... is also called trial and error Method.

107. Project… ............................ is done after the project is implemented.

108. The main object of project appraisal is: