PRELIMS TEST SERIES (PTS)

Civil Services Examination 2024

Test Code: 01050303 DATE : 10/03/2024

A
Test Booklet Series

GENERAL STUDIES
(Paper-I)
Full Syllabus Test-5

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

Before attempting paper please read the instructions given on page no. 2 carefully and follow
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 General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5

Q.1 With reference to Global River Cities Which of the statements given above is/are
Alliance, consider the following statements: correct?
1. It is an India led alliance launched by (a) 1 only
National Institute Of Hydrology. (b) 2 only
2. Objectives of this alliance are likely (c) Both 1 and 2
to be impacted by lack of partnership (d) Neither 1 nor 2
with funding agencies. Q.4 With reference to Ramsar Sites in India,
3. India , the United Kingdom, France, consider the following pairs:
and Bangladesh are member countries. Sites : Location
How many of the above given statements 1. Aghanashini : Tamil Nadu
are not correct? Estuary
(a) Only one 2. Ankasamudra : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Only two Bird Conservation
(c) All three Reserve
(d) None 3. Karaivetti Bird : Kerala
Sanctuary
Q.2 With reference to Indian Forest And 4. Longwood Shola : Tamil Nadu
Wood Certification Scheme, consider The Reserve
following statements:
How many of the above pairs are correctly
1. Scheme envisages to give market
matched?
incentives to areas (Forest divisions and
(a) Only one pair
plantation) that effectively implement
(b) Only two pairs
criteria Indian Forest Management (c) Only three pairs
Standard (IFMS). (d) All four pairs
2. The scheme is governed by the Institute
of Forest Genetics and Tree Breeding. Q.5 Consider the following pairs:
Conventions : Related to
3. The Certification Scheme is not
1. Stockholm : Hazardous wastes
applicable in Trees outside Forests.
convention
How many of the statements given above 2. Basel : Minimizing Global
are correct? convention Warming
(a) Only one 3. Rotterdam : Persistent Organic
(b) Only two convention Pollutants
(c) All three 4. Vienna : Protection of
(d) None convention Ozone layer
Q.3 With reference to World Conservation How many of the above pairs are correctly
Strategy (WCS), consider the following matched?
statements: (a) Only one pair
1. It is the first worldwide document on (b) Only two pairs
the conservation of living resources (c) Only three pairs
that includes input from governments, (d) All four pairs
NGOs, and other specialists. Q.6 Consider the following statements:
2. It is Prepared by the International 1. Still water like ponds, lakes, bogs
Union for Conservation of Nature and and swamps are known as the lotic
Natural Resources (IUCN). ecosystem.

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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024

2. Running Water like springs, mountain Q.9 With reference to medieval India, which
brooks, streams and rivers are known of the following statements is not correct
as lentic ecosystems. about the Gujarat or Western India?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Alauddin Khalji was the first Sultan to
correct? annex Gujarat to the Delhi Sultanate.
(a) 1 only (b) Ahmad Shah founded the city of
(b) 2 only Ahmedabad and made it his capital.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Mahmud Begarha had to give the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Portuguese a site for a factory in Diu.
(d) Akbar tried to conquer Gujarat but was
Q.7 With reference to the economic activities
defeated by Muzaffar Shah.
of Harappan Civilisation, consider the
following statements: Q.10 With reference to ancient south India, the
1. The abundance of agricultural output term ‘Kadaisiyar’ was referred to?
was facilitated by the presence of rich (a) Landless labourers
Indus alluvium. (b) Tax officials
2. They had trading networks for import (c) Village chiefs
and export of goods. (d) Temple priests
3. They manufactured gold objects but Q.11 With reference to Precision Farming in
silver was not known to them. India, consider the following statements:
How many of the statements given above 1. Information technology is used in this
are correct? approach to ensure that crops and soil
(a) Only one receive the necessary nutrients.
(b) Only two 2. Soft precision agriculture relies less on
(c) All three statistical and scientific analysis and
(d) None more on intuition.
3. Hard precision agriculture relies
Q.8 With reference to Mauryan ruler
mainly on modern techniques such as
Chandragupta, consider the following GPS and remote sensing.
statements:
How many of the above statements are
1. Justin was a Greek writer who wrote
correct?
about the military conquests of
(a) Only one
Chandragupta.
2. He liberated North-western India from (b) Only two
the rule of Seleucus. (c) All three
3. He ruled over the entire Indian (d) None
subcontinent up to extreme south India. Q.12 Consider the following statements
How many of the above statements are containing geological processes:
correct? 1. Orogenic process of mountain
(a) Only one formation.
(b) Only two 2. Epeirogenic processes of elevation or
(c) All three warping of earth’s crust.
(d) None 3. Plate tectonic movements.

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 General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5

How many of the above given statements 4. Market gardening, mixed farming with
are correct example(s) of ‘Diastrophism’? huge potential of dairy farming.
(a) Only one
Which of the following climate types is
(b) Only two
correctly associated with the features given
(c) All three
above?
(d) None
(a) Warm Temperate Western Margin
Q.13 Consider the following statements with (Mediterranean) Climate
respect to ‘Tropical cyclones’: (b) Tropical Monsoon Climate
1. Upper level tropospheric divergence (c) Cool Temperate Eastern Margin
reduces the intensity of tropical (Laurentian) Climate
cyclones. (d) Cool Temperate Western Margin
2. Eye of the tropical cyclone is the region (British Type) Climate
of highest temperature.
Q.16 Consider the following statements regarding
3. Higher variation in vertical wind
Competition (Amendment) Act, 2023:
speed reduces the intensity of tropical
1. Transactions of 2500 crores or more
cyclones.
in case of acquisition, merger or
How many of the above given statements amalgamation now require approval of
are not correct? the Competition Commission of India
(a) Only one (CCI).
(b) Only two 2. It empowers CCI to appoint the
(c) All three Director General for conducting
(d) None an investigation/enquiry into
Q.14 Consider the following pairs: contravention of the provisions of the
Local winds : Regions affected Competition Act, 2002.
1. Fohn : Finland 3. It has introduced a limitation period
2. Sirocco : Canada of two months for filing complaints
3. Chinook : United States before CCI.
4. It has introduced a settlement and
How many of the pairs given above are
commitment mechanism for a party
correctly matched?
under inquiry.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above are
(c) All three correct:
(d) None (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
Q.15 Consider the following features:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Equable climate with moderately warm
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
summers and fairly mild winters.
2. Precipitation is experienced almost Q.17 Consider the following categories of the
throughout the year with maximum in people:
winter or autumn. 1. Undertrial Prisoners
3. Deciduous forests are predominant 2. Convicts out on bail
natural vegetation with great lumbering 3. People under preventive detention
value. 4. Convicts serving their sentence in jails

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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024

Which of the above categories of the people — I could not refer to any other Article
can cast a vote during elections in India? except this one. It is the very soul of the
(a) 1 and 2 only Constitution and the very heart of it…”
(b) 2 and 3 only The paragraph given above describes which
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only article/provision of the Constitution?
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4 (a) Article 14
Q.18 Consider the following pairs: (b) Article 21
Type of bail : Definition (c) Article 19
1. Regular bail : Direction given by (d) Article 32
the court to release Q.20 With reference to the Prevention of Money
a person who Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), consider
is already under the following statements:
arrest and kept in 1. The general principle of presumption of
police custody innocence of the accused is applicable
2. Interim bail : Bail in case if police to PMLA.
or investigating 2. Offenses under PMLA are cognizable
agency fails to and bailable.
file a chargesheet 3. The Directorate of Enforcement is
timely authorized to investigate offenses
3. Statutory bail : Bail in case of under PMLA.
grant of regular 4. Recently, the Supreme Court has
bail or anticipatory declared that the provisions relating
bail to attachment of property involved in
4. Anticipatory bail : A bail in a non money-laundering are unconstitutional.
bailable offense
Which of the statements given above is/are
when any
correct?
person has an
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
apprehension or
(b) 2 only
reason to believe (c) 3 only
that he may be (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
arrested
Q.21 What is the ‘Aqaba process’, which was
How many of the above pairs are correctly recently seen in the news?
matched? (a) Climate neutrality arrangement
(a) Only two between UAE and USA.
(b) Only three (b) Denuclearisation of Arabian Peninsula.
(c) All four (c) To enhance global coordination and
(d) None cooperation to counter-terrorism.
Q.19 During the Constituent Assembly debates (d) Peace process in the Palestinian region
in December 1948, a discussion on this initiated by the Arab countries.
fundamental right, Dr B R Ambedkar had Q.22 Which of the following countries has passed
said, “If I was asked to name any particular the Creating Helpful Incentives to Produce
Article/provision in this Constitution as Semiconductors and Science (CHIPS) Act?
the most important — an Article without (a) India
which this Constitution would be a nullity (b) France

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(c) China
(d) USA
Q.23 With reference to The International
Coral Reef Initiative (ICRI), consider the
following statements:
1. It is a formal partnership between
Nations and organizations which
strives to preserve coral reefs.
2. It was launched at the UN Climate
Conference COP-28.
3. Only the members of the United
nation countries are eligible to become
members .
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.24 Which of the following institutions/
organizations publishes the Worldwide
Governance Indicators?
(a) World Bank
(b) Inter-Parliamentary Union
(c) European Union
(d) NITI Ayog
Q.25 Recently, the M23 rebellion group was seen
in the news. This group is active in which of
the following countries?
(a) Palestine
(b) Democratic Republic of Congo
(c) South Sudan
(d) Somalia
Q.26 Consider the following components:
1. Consumption expenditures
2. Private domestic investment
3. Government expenditure
4. Net exports
5. Income earned by residents from
overseas investments
6. Income earned by foreign residents.
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General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5
How many of the above components
are included in the calculation of Gross
National Product?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six
Q.27 In the context of economics, the term
‘forfeitures’ refers to:
(a) Government claims over the property
where owners die without any legal
heirs.
(b) Penalties imposed by judicial bodies
for non-compliance of contracts.
(c) Services provided by the government
bodies for emergencies.
(d) Additional interest paid for defaulting
any timely interest payment.
Q.28 With reference to stabilization functions
in the economy, consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to control demand through
government interventions.
2. It is essential to correct fluctuations in
income and employment.
3. It can lead to a ban on exports to meet
domestic demands.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.29 With reference to online gaming in India,
consider the following statements:
1. Both the game of chance and the game
of skills come under the purview of
goods and service tax.
2. Both the game of chance and the game
of skills are levied with tax deducted at
source (TDS).
3. Both the game of chance and the game
of skills are legal in India.
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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.30 Which one of the following most
appropriately describes the term ‘techno
nationalism’?
(a) Developing a sense of fake nationalism
via social media platforms.
(b) Enhancing inclusive development by
encouraging more women in science
and technology.
(c) Augmenting AI infrastructure to reduce
human efforts in the industrial plants.
(d) Use of technology in both civilian and
strategic sectors.
Q.31 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Liquified Hydrogen is the most preferred
fuel for the cryogenic engines used in
satellite launch vehicles used by ISRO.
Statement II:
Hydrogen fuel generates the highest exhaust
velocity as compared to the other fuels used
in cryogenic engines of the satellite launch
vehicles.
Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement‑II is correct
Q.32 What is the ‘Net Energy Gain’ in the nuclear
power plants?
(a) The critical state of a fissile material
in a nuclear fission reaction, where a
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self-sustaining nuclear chain reaction
occurs.
(b) Increase in the energy output in the
nuclear power plant due to the increase
in the concentration of a particular
isotope within the nuclear fuel.
(c) The specific point where a nuclear
fusion reaction produces more usable
energy than the total amount of energy
required to initiate and sustain the
reaction.
(d) The energy generation in the nuclear
power plant by recycling and reusing
one of the byproducts of the nuclear
fission reaction, namely Pu-239.
Q.33 Consider the following statements:
1. Unlike viruses, which have a protein
coat to protect their genetic material,
viroids do not possess such a coating.
2. Obelisks are the new kind of life form,
existing somewhere between viruses
and viroids.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.34 With reference to the Buddhism, consider
the following statements:
1. It rejected the law of karma.
2. It preached nirvana, the ultimate goal
in the life of a man.
3. It laid great emphasis on the authority
of the Vedas.
4. The Sangha had the power to punish its
members.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
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 General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5

Q.35 Consider the following books: How many of the above pairs are correctly
1. The Problem of the Rupee – Its origin matched?
and its solution (a) Only two
2. The Untouchables, Who are they? (b) Only three
3. Who were the Shudra? (c) All four
4. States and Minorities (d) None
5. Gulamgiri
Q.38 Consider the following statements:
How many of the above books/texts were 1. The Constitution has prescribed a term
written by B. R. Ambedkar? of five years for Lok Sabha.
(a) Only two
2. The term of Lok Sabha cannot be
(b) Only three
extended beyond 5 years under any
(c) Only four
circumstance.
(d) All five
3. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved,
Q.36 With reference to Parole, consider the the Speaker does not vacate his office
following statements: and continues till the newly-elected
1. The Code of Criminal Procedure, Lok Sabha meets.
1973, deals with the provisions related
to parole. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Parole amounts to suspension of correct?
sentence. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient (b) 2 and 3 only
case, parole cannot be denied to such (c) 1 and 3 only
prisoner because it becomes a matter (d) 1, 2 and 3
of his/her right. Q.39 Consider the following provisions:
How many of the above statements are 1. Disqualifications for membership of
correct? state legislature
(a) Only one 2. Qualifications of voters
(b) Only two 3. Procedures for delimitation of
(c) All three constituencies
(d) None
Which of the above provisions are provided
Q.37 Consider the following pairs: under the Representation of the People Act,
Directive : Law implementing 1951?
Principle it
(a) 1 only
1. Article 39A : Legal Services
(b) 1 and 2 only
Authority Act, 1987
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Article 40 : Constitution (73rd
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Amendment) Act
3. Article 41 : Narcotic Drugs Q.40 Recently the Justice Amitvaroy Committee
and Psychotropic was seen in the news. It is related to:
Substances Act,1985 (a) Police reforms
4. Article 47 : National Rural (b) Digital literacy
Employment (c) Digital transactions
Guarantee Act, 2005 (d) Prison reforms

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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024
Q.41 Dollar gyration, sometimes mentioned in
the news, refers to:
(a) Pegging one country’s economy to the
dollar payment system for domestic
business.
(b) Regulating import of goods in the
country to avoid dollar outflow.
(c) Stocking dollar reserves to avoid
instances of balance of payment crisis.
(d) Rapid fluctuations in the exchange rate
of dollar and domestic currency in the
country.
Q.42 Consider the following statements in
relation to Startup India Seed Fund Scheme:
1. It aims to finance startups for the
development of prototypes and proof
of concepts.
2. It recognizes startups that are formed
more than two years while filing
applications for funding.
3. It prefers startups that provide solutions
in the oil, gas sector etc.
4. It is an initiative under the Ministry of
Corporate Affairs.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.43 With reference to Defence Offset Policy,
consider the following statements:
1. It was established with the formulation
of Industrial Policy, 1956.
2. It helps in reducing India’s import bills
on defence procurement.
3. It mandates the Central Government
to select an Indian enterprise to be the
offset partner.
4. It promotes joint ventures between the
original equipment manufacturers and
offset partners.
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How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.44 With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kisan
Samruddhi Kendras, consider the following
statements:
1. They are one-stop shops for the
purchase of agricultural inputs.
2. They provide assistance for soil
analysis.
3. They conduct weekly interaction with
farmers under Kisan Ki Baat.
4. They are operational under the
Department of Fertilizers.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.45 In terms of finance, the term ‘paper gold’
refers to:
(a) Currency notes circulated by central
banks of any country.
(b) Special Drawing Rights provided under
the framework of the International
Monetary Fund.
(c) Government securities at the time of
maturity.
(d) Insurance facilities for decoupling risks
associated with virtual digital assets.
Q.46 Consider the following functions:
1. Maintaining public confidence in the
payment and settlement system.
2. Supporting national objectives.
3. Formulating monetary policy and
inflationary targets.
4. Banker to Governments and Banks.
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 General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5

How many of the above-mentioned 2. The facility can work without a free
functions are performed by the Reserve piston driver and compression tube
Bank of India? for generating and sustaining the
(a) Only one hypersonic flow.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Only three correct?
(d) All four (a) 1 only
Q.47 Consider the following measures: (b) 2 only
1. Increase in product taxes (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Increase in production taxes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Decrease in subsidies Q.50 The ‘Mitochondrial coxiella effector F
4. Curbing Limits on Productions from (MceF),’ recently mentioned in the news in
Factories context of:
How many of the above-mentioned (a) Viruses
measures help in widening the gap between (b) Fungi
the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and (c) Bacteria
Gross Value Added (GVA)? (d) Algae
(a) Only one Q.51 With reference to the Eukaryotic and
(b) Only two Prokaryotic Cells, consider the following
(c) Only three statements:
(d) All four 1. Eukaryotic cells are generally smaller
Q.48 Consider the following statements with and multiply more rapidly than the
reference to the Gaganyaan Mission: Prokaryotic cells.
1. Its objective is to demonstrate the 2. Unlike eukaryotic cells, prokaryotes
human spaceflight capability by lack a well-defined nucleus, and their
launching crew members to high earth genetic material is essentially naked,
orbit. not enclosed by a nuclear membrane.
2. The astronauts for this mission have 3. Ribosome is the only cell organelle
been trained in the Astronaut Training found in both Eukaryotic and
Facility at NASA Johnson Space Prokaryotic cells.
Center. How many of the above statements are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 2 only (c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.52 Which of the following parts of the brain
Q.49 With reference to the Hypervelocity is responsible for coordinating voluntary
Expansion Tunnel Test Facility, consider movements?
the following statements: (a) Cerebrum
1. It is an indigenously designed tunnel (b) Cerebellum
facility capable of generating flight (c) Medulla oblongata
speeds between 3-10 km/s. (d) Thalamus

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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024

Q.53 Consider the following pairs : Q.57 Which among the following historical
Site : Well known for movements was also known as the
1. Udayagiri : Vaishnavite cave shrine ‘Vandemataram Movement’ in deltaic
2. Badami : Buddhist cave shrine Andhra region?
3. Ellora : Jain cave shrine (a) Swadeshi movement
(b) Non Cooperation Movement
How many of the above pairs are correctly (c) Civil Disobedience Movement
matched? (d) Temple Entry Movement
(a) Only one
Q.58 Which among the following organizations
(b) Only two
publishes the report "Climate Equality: A
(c) All three
Planet for the 99%"?
(d) None (a) Germanwatch
Q.54 Which of the following freedom fighters has (b) World Inequality Lab
written the book “Nijer Katha” (My Story) (c) United Nation Environment
of his stay in Chandannagar, a French- Programme
occupied territory in India, to escape from (d) Oxfam
arrest by British officers? Q.59 With reference to National Efficient
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh Cooking Programme, consider the following
(b) Sachindranath Sanyal statements:
(c) Sardar Singh Bundela 1. This programme was launched by
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose Energy Efficiency Services Limited
(EESL).
Q.55 With reference to 16th August, 1946 in 2. It introduces induction-based cook-
Indian history, which one of the following stoves, offering a cost advantage of 25-
statements is correct? 30% over traditional cooking methods.
(a) Individual Satyagraha was launched
Which of the statements given above is/are
with Vinobha Bhave as its first leader.
correct?
(b) Congress Ministries resigned in the
(a) 1 only
provinces on grounds that British India (b) 2 only
decided to participate in the Second (c) Both 1 and 2
World War. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Muslim League initiated the Direct
Q.60 With reference to United Nations Forum
Action Day.
on Forests (UNFF), consider the following
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose formed the
statements:
party named Forward Bloc. 1. It was established by the resolution
Q.56 Which one of the following features was of the United Nation Environment
not included in the Nehru Report? Programme.
(a) Residuary powers were vested in the 2. India was the founding member of
center. UNFF.
(b) The Governor-General shall act on the Which of the statements given above is/are
advice of the Executive Council. correct?
(c) The principle of separate electorates (a) 1 only
should be introduced. (b) 2 only
(d) The Provincial Councils were to be (c) Both 1 and 2
elected on the basis of adult franchise. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5

Q.61 Which of the following is not a bird ? Q.64 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) Conjoined silverline with respect to the Palermo Convention?
(b) White Ilbis (a) It is a convention against Transnational
(c) Indian Nightjar Organised Crime
(d) Alpine Thrush (b) It is a convention to preserve the
Q.62 Consider the following pairs: cultural heritage during armed conflict
Tiger Reserves : River flowing post World War II
through the (c) It is a convention to protect building
Reserves dedicated to religion,art and science
1. Kawal Tiger : Godavari (d) It is a convention against land
Reserve degradation.
2. Valmiki Tiger : Tista Q.65 With reference to the United Nations
Reserve Peacekeeping Forces, consider the
3. Satpura Tiger : Tapi following statements:
Reserve 1. United Nations Peacekeepers are also
How many of the above given pairs are known as Blue Helmets.
correctly matched? 2. Every Member State of the UN is
(a) Only one legally obligated to pay their respective
(b) Only two share towards peacekeeping.
(c) All three 3. Peacekeeping missions are deployed
(d) None only with the consent of the host
country.
Q.63 With reference to National Clean Air 4. India is the largest contributor of
Programme (NCAP), consider the following troops to United Nations peacekeeping
statements: missions.
1. It has been launched by The Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate Which of the statements given above are
Change. correct?
2. The PRANA portal to be used (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
for tracking the progress of the (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
implementation of Programme (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(NCAP) across non-attainment cities (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
in India. Q.66 Recently the ‘Weimar Triangle’ was seen in
3. There is a proposed national-level the news. Which of the following countries
objective aiming for a reduction in are part of this triangle?
Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) (a) France, Germany and Poland
concentration by 20%–30% by the (b) Germany, Czechoslovakia and Poland
year 2024. (c) France, Germany and Czechoslovakia
How many of the statements given above (d) Germany, Hungry and Poland
are correct? Q.67 Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. Madan Lal Dhingra founded the Indian
(b) Only two Home Rule society in London.
(c) All three 2. Mitra Mela was an association set up
(d) None by Pramathanath Mitra.

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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024
3. Anushilan Samiti was a secret
organization set up by Sachindranath
Sanyal.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.68 With reference to the Pabna revolt, consider
the following statements:
1. It was a peasant revolt in Bengal.
2. The main cause behind the revolt was
the dismissal of tenants by zamindars
from their occupancy rights.
3. Kesab Chandra Roy and Sambhunath
Pal were prominent leaders of the
revolt.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.69 With reference to the Indian economy
during colonial rule, which of the following
statements is not correct?
(a) Commercialization of agriculture led
to an integrated Indian economy with
the capitalistic world economies.
(b) A decline in traditional handicraft
industries was not accompanied by
the advent of modernized technology-
based industries.
(c) The ruination of Indian agriculture was
seen with the frequent occurrences of
famine.
(d) Indian imports and exports suffered
from differential tariff policies.
Q.70 Consider the following statements:
1. Jainism does not recognise the
existence of gods.
2. Jainism condemns the Varna system.
3. Jainism emphasized on Triratnas for
attainment of freedom and liberation.
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Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Q.71 Consider the following components:
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Gold Reserves
3. Special Drawing Rights holdings of
government
4. Multilateral loans
5. Reserve Tranche of the IMF
Which of the following components
comprise India’s Foreign Exchange
Reserves?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q.72 With reference to inflation-indexed bonds
in India, consider the following statements:
1. They provide inflation interest by
providing higher interest over the
current inflation rate.
2. They are pegged with the Consumer
Price Index (CPI).
3. They can be traded in the secondary
markets.
4. They are eligible for repo transactions.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.73 With reference to legal tender in India,
consider the following statements:
1. The Reserve Bank of India is the sole
authority to issue currency notes and
coins.
2. Reserve Bank of India approves the
form and material of bank notes after
recommendations of the Central
Government.
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3. The highest denomination currency
issued was INR 5000.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.74 With reference to the Indian Economy, which
one of the following most appropriately
depicts the term ‘factoring’?
(a) Trading system for virtual digital assets
existing in the dark web.
(b) Long-term government bonds
are exchanged against short-term
government bonds.
(c) Meeting short-term liquidity
requirements by selling accounts
receivables.
(d) Raising loans against collaterals from
micro-financing institutions.
Q.75 With respect to Deposit Insurance and
Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC),
consider the following statements:
1. They provide a safety net to the
depositors of the bank that filed for
liquidation.
2. They pay directly to the depositors of
the bank that filed for liquidation.
3. They ensure the insurance security
to the deposits of Central and State
governments.
How many of the statements given above
are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.76 In the context of money system, the term
‘currency chests’ refers to:
(a) Printing centers of currency notes in
India.
(b) Storehouses for distributing currency
notes in India.
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General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5
(c) White-bank ATMs that are working as
offset cash payment systems.
(d) Government bond papers that are issued
against cash payments in exchange.
Q.77 Which of the following statements is not
correct with respect to the India State of
Forest Report 2021?
(a) Tree cover is only 2.91% of the
geographical area of the country.
(b) Andhra Pradesh contributed to the
most increase in the forest cover as
compared to the previous assessment
report.
(c) Forest cover in hill districts are more
than 40 percent and recorded increase
in forest cover compared to ISFR 2019
assessment.
(d) National Forest Policy’ goal of
achieving 33 percent of geographical
area under green cover also includes
Tree cover along with Forest cover.
Q.78 Consider the following pairs:
Desert : Responsible Ocean
current
1. Namib desert : Irminger current
2. Atacama desert : Labrador current
3. Sahara desert : Benguela current
4. Sonoran desert : Canaries current
How many of the above given pairs are not
correct for desert and corresponding ocean
current factoring in the formation of desert?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q.79 Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Laterite soils are rich in iron oxide and
aluminium and acidic compounds.
Statement II:
They are deeply weathered soil and
experience pronounced leaching.
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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024

Which of the following options are correct 2. Every award made by a Lok Adalat is
in reference to above given statements? final and binding on all the parties to
(a) Both statement I and statement II are the dispute.
correct and statement II is the correct 3. Lok Adalat has no jurisdiction in
explanation for statement I. respect of any criminal case.
(b) Both statement I and statement II are 4. Nominal court fee is payable when a
correct and statement II is not the matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.
correct explanation for statement I. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II correct?
is incorrect.
(a) 2 and 4 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
(b) 2 only
is correct.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q.80 Consider the following countries: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Bulgaria
Q.83 With reference to the growing trend of
2. Austria
appointment of Deputy Chief Ministers
3. Montenegro
(CM) in the state, consider the following
4. Croatia
statements regarding Deputy Chief
5. Greece
Ministers (CM):
6. Hungary
1. It is not a constitutional post.
How many of the above mentioned 2. He does not enjoy any extra financial
countries share a land border with Serbia? powers in comparison to the CM.
(a) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only three
correct?
(c) Only four
(a) 1 only
(d) Only five
(b) 2 only
Q.81 Consider the following pairs: (c) Both 1 and 2
Strait : Water bodies (d) Neither 1 nor 2
connected by the
Q.84 Consider the following statements:
strait
Statement-I:
1. Dover Strait : Baltic sea and
North Sea The ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression
2. Sunda Strait : Yellow Sea and than the ‘Territory of India’.
Sea of Japan Statement-II:
3. Bosphorus Strait : Black Sea and Sea The Territory of India includes the States,
of Marmara the Union Territories, and the territories
How many of the pairs given above are that may be acquired by the Government of
correctly matched? India at any time.
(a) Only one Which one of the following is correct in
(b) Only two respect of the above statements?
(c) All three (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) None correct and Statement-II is the correct
Q.82 With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the explanation for Statement-I
following statements : (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
1. Lok Adalat was given statutory status are correct and Statement-II is not the
in 1992. correct explanation for Statement-I

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 General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5

(c) Statement-I is correct but StatementII Q.89 Which of the following statements well
is incorrect describe the term “Tidal Disruption Event”?
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but (a) A climate pattern characterized by
Statement‑II is correct unusually cool ocean temperatures
in the central and eastern equatorial
Q.85 Consider the following Indian states:
Pacific Ocean.
1. Arunachal Pradesh
(b) A belt around the Earth near the
2. Mizoram
equator characterized by strong winds
3. Manipur
and light, variable breezes.
4. Nagaland (c) A phenomenon in which a star ventures
Inner line permit is applicable to which of too close to a supermassive black hole
the above states? and gets ripped apart by the black
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only hole’s immense gravitational forces.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) A temporary disturbance of Earth’s
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only magnetosphere caused by a solar wind
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 shock wave.

Q.86 Which of the following statements best
describes the term ‘Freemartins’?
(a) These are the proteins produced by the
immune system when an unwanted
substance enters the body.
(b) These are the planets which are not
bound by the gravitational pulls of the
stars.
(c) These are the cattle that are born
exhibiting characteristics of both male
and female sexes.
(d) These electrically neutral particles are
fundamental to the structure of atoms.
Q.87 The terms, SWEEP and SWICAR were
recently mentioned in the news in the
context of which of the following?
(a) Space Technology
(b) Biotechnology
(c) Open Source Software (OSS)
(d) Defence Technology
Q.88 The ‘Kranz Anatomy’ is a special adaptation
associated with which of the following
cells?
(a) Collenchyma Cells
(b) Sclerenchyma Cells
(c) Epithelial Cells
(d) Parenchyma Cells
Q.90 With reference to the ‘Patent Cooperation
Treaty (PCT),’ consider the following
statements:
1. It facilitates multiple applicants to
seek patent protection for an invention
simultaneously in numerous countries.
2. Only a resident of a PCT Contracting
State can file a patent application under
this treaty.
3. It is administered by the World
Intellectual Property Organization
(WIPO), which serves as the Secretariat
to the PCT Assembly.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q.91 With reference to India’s leopard population
estimation 2022, consider the following
statements:
1. The fifth cycle leopard population
estimation report is released by
National Tiger Conservation Authority
(NTCA).
2. Palamau tiger reserve has the highest
leopard population.

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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024

3. Shivalik hills and Gangetic plains Q.95 Which one of the following statements best
experienced an increase in leopard reflects the term 'Arctic Amplification'?
population from the 2018 census. (a) It is the warming differential between
the poles and the tropics.
How many of the above statements are
(b) It is the spreading of ice cover on the
correct?
poles.
(a) Only one
(c) It is the shrinking of the polar vortex
(b) Only two
due to reduced air pressure.
(c) All three
(d) It is the cooling of the Arctic region
(d) None
due to increased cloud cover.
Q.92 The India Meteorological Department
Q.96 With reference to Radioactive Pollution,
(IMD) comes under the:
consider the followings:
(a) The Ministry of Environment, Forest
1. Diagnostic medical applications
and Climate Change
(b) The Ministry of Earth Sciences 2. Atomic radioactive minerals
(c) The Ministry of Home Affairs 3. Cosmic rays
(d) The Ministry of Science and 4. Radioactive elements
Technology How many of the above are included in
Q.93 With reference to Silkyara Bend-Barkot natural sources of radioactive pollution?
Tunnel Project in Uttarakhand, consider the (a) Only one
following statements: (b) Only two
1. It is a part of Chardham Mahamarg (c) Only three
Pariyojana. (d) All four
2. The project will be implemented by the Q.97 Which of the following could be cited
National Disaster Response Force. as the possible reasons for the decline of
Which of the statements given above is/are Buddhism in India:
correct? 1. Buddhism became a victim to the evil
(a) 1 only of Brahmanism
(b) 2 only 2. Use of Sanskrit language
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Beginning of idol worship
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Introduction of women
Q.94 With reference to Jim Corbett National Select the correct answer using the codes
Park, consider the following statements: given below:
1. It is India’s first national park. (a) 3 and 4 only
2. It has the highest tiger population in (b) 2 and 4 only
India. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. River Kosi flows from this national (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
park.
Q.98 With reference to the Vijayanagar Temple
How many of the statements given above style what does the term ‘Kalyana
are correct? Mandapam’ best denotes:
(a) Only one (a) a place where poor beggars were given
(b) Only two charity.
(c) All three (b) a place where the principal deity was
(d) None enshrined.

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(c) a marriage hall ,wherein the icon of the
god and goddess were ceremonially
united on festive days.
(d) a place where group marriages were
organized at the temple complex.
Q.99 Consider the following statements:
Statement I :
Yields of fixed rate bonds increase with
increase in market rate of interest.
Statement II:
Increase in market rate of interest makes
lower fixed rate bonds less attractive to
bond holders.
Which of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both statement I and statement II are
correct and statement II is the correct
explanation for statement I.
(b) Both statement I and statement II are
correct and statement II is not the
correct explanation for statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II
is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
is correct.
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General Studies | Full Syllabus Test-5
Q.100 With reference to the Real Estate Investment
Trusts (REITs), consider the following
statements:
1. This trust is regulated by SEBI and the
listing of their units in a stock exchange
is mandatory in India.
2. REITs are given “pass through status” from
the perspective of income tax.
3. REITs cannot invest in Residential
properties in India.
How many of the above given statements
is/are not correctly associated with Real
Estate Investment Trusts( REITs)?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
nnnn
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CSE Prelims Test Series (PTS) : 2024

Space for Rough Work

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