Machine Translated by Google

1) The centromere is a region in which

A) chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase.
B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate.

:
C) chromosomes are grouped during telophase.
D) the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
E) new spindle microtubules form at either end.

2) What is a chromatid?
A) a chromosome in G1 of the cell cycle
B) a replica chromosome
C) a chromosome found outside the nucleus
D) a special region that holds two centromeres together
E) another name for the chromosomes found in genetics

3) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early
embryo with how many cells?
A) 4
B) 8 25
C) 16
0D) 32
E) 64

4) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?

A) 10
B) 20

:
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

5) For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote -like cell
division rather than binary fission?
A) Binary fission will not allow for the formation of new organisms.
B) Cell division would allow for the orderly and efficient segregation of multiple linear chromosomes.

C) Cell division would be faster than binary fission.

D) Cell division allows for lower rates of error per chromosome replication.
E) Binary fission would not allow the organism to have complex cells.

6) How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell
when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
A) The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
B) The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
C) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
• The daughter cells have the same
D)
-
number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
-

E) The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
Machine Translated by Google

7) Which term describes two centrosomes arranged at opposite poles of the cell?
A) telophase -

B) anaphase
•C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase

8) Which term describes centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

A) telophase -
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
• metaphase
D)
E) prophase

9) Which is the longest of the mitotic stages?

A) telophase -

B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
0

10) Which is the shortest of the cell cycle phase?

A) G1
B) G2
C) S phase
D) G0
E) mitosis

11) Which term describes -centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating, and the two new
chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
orator
D) metaphase

:
E) prophase

12) If cells in the process of division are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the
functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase
Machine Translated by Google

13) A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce
two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes?
A) 12
B) 16
C) 23
D) 46
E) 92

:14) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each
daughter cell after cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

15) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each
daughter cell after cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20

:
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

16) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in
each daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80

17) Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?

A) centromere
B) centrosome
C) centriole
D) chromatid

:
E) kinetochore

18) If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it be
have during anaphase?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16
Machine Translated by Google

19) Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not
cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with
A) a single large nucleus.
B) high concentrations of actin and myosin.
C) two abnormally small nuclei.
D) two nuclei.
°
E) two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA.

palotaxel
20) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, taxol disrupts microtubule
-
formation by binding to microtubules and hurriedly their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin.
Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. specific, taxol must affect A) the fibers of the mitotic spindle.

B) anaphase.
C) formation of the centrioles.

:
D) chromatid assembly.
E) the S phase of the cell cycle.

21) Chromosomes first become visible during which phase of mitosis?

A) prometaphase
B) telophase
C) prophase
D) metaphase
E) anaphase

22) During which phases of mitosis are chromosomes composed of two chromatids?
A) from interphase through anaphase
B) from G1 of interphase through metaphase
C) from metaphase through telophase
D) from anaphase through telophase
E) from G2 of interphase through metaphase

: 23) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that A)
reduces cyclin concentrations.
B) increases cyclin concentrations.
C) prevent elongation of microtubules.
D) prevent shortening of microtubules.
E) prevent attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.
Machine Translated by Google

24) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing
fungus. The measured DNA levels range from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus.
In which stage of the cell cycle is the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA?
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
0 D) G2
E) M

25) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately after mitosis and is found to have an average
of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would have picograms at the end of the S __________
phase and __________ picograms at the end of G2.
A) 8; 8
B) 8; 16
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16

:26) The somatic cells derived from a single-celled zygote divided by which process?
A) meiosis
B) mitosis
C) replication
D) cytokinesis alone E)
binary fission

27) The research team used the setup to study the incorporation of labeled nucleotides into a culture of
lymphocytes and found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotides at a significantly higher level
after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. They concluded that:

A) the presence of the pathogen made the experiment too contaminated to trust the results.

B) their tissue culture methods needed to be relearned.

C) infection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly.

:
D) infection causes cell cultures in general to reproduce more rapidly.

E) infection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.

28) Cells that are in a nondivided state are in which phase?

A) G0
B) G2
C) G1
D)
SE) M
Machine Translated by Google

29) Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?

-
• PDGF
A)
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk

30) Which is a general term for enzymes that activate or inactivate other proteins by
phosphorylating them? -
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin

:
E) Cdk

31) Fibroblasts have receptors for this substance on their plasma membranes:
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinases
D) cyclin
E) Cdk

32) Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that
associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?
-
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
0E) Cdk

33) Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle
that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) protein kinase
D) cyclin
E) Cdk

: 34) DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:

A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
Machine Translated by Google

35) Nerve and muscle cells are differentiated cells and implicated in this phase:

0 A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M

36) The cyclin component of (mitosis-promoting factor) MPF is destroyed toward the end of this phase:

-
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
0 E) M

37) An enzyme that attaches a phosphate group to another molecule is called a: A)

phosphatase.
B) phosphorylase.
C) kinases.
D) cyclase.
E) ATPase.

:
38) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in
concentration during the cell cycle, are called A)
ATPases.
B) kinetochores.
C) centrioles.
D) proton pumps.
E) cyclins.

39) The MPF protein complex turns itself off by A)

activating a process that destroys cyclin component.
B) activate an enzyme that stimulates cyclin.
C) binding to chromatin.
D) exiting the cell.
E) activate the anaphase-promoting complex.

:40) A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint.
Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

A) The cell will prematurely enter anaphase.

B) The cell will never leave metaphase.
C) The cell will never enter metaphase.
D) The cell will never enter prophase.
E) The cell will undergo normal mitosis, but fail to enter the next G1 phase.
Machine Translated by Google

41) Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

A) Cdk is inactive, or ÿturned off,ÿ in the presence of cyclin.
B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle.
C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
D) Both A and B are true.
E) Both B and C are true.

:
42) The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including
healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long -
term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation
after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the women teenagers and significantly lower in each
of the elderly persons. They repeat the study with a larger amount
number of samples but got the same results. What might be among their conclusions?
A) The young women show these results because they have poorer nutrition.
B) The elderly personsÿ samples demonstrated their lowered immune responses.
C) The young men had higher response because they are generally healthier.
D) The patient samples should have had the lowest response but did not, so the experiment is invalid.

E) The elderly donor samples represent cells no longer capable of any cell division.

43) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?

A) metastasis
B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages C) lack

0D)of appropriate cell death

inability to form spindles
E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate

44) Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the
assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to A) disruption of
mitotic spindle formation.
B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation.

:
C) suppression of cyclin production.
D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
E) inhibition of DNA synthesis.

45) One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells A) are unable
to synthesize DNA.
B) are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.
D) cannot function properly because they are affected by density-dependent inhibition.
E) are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.
Machine Translated by Google

46) The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to A)

the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk.
B) decreased synthesis of cyclin.
C) the degradation of cyclin.
D) synthesis of DNA.
E) an increase in the cellÿs volume-to-genome ratio.

:
47) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the
cell cycle would be most improved by cytochalasin B?
A) spindle formation
B) spindle attachment to kinetochores
C) DNA synthesis
D) cell elongation during anaphase
E) cleavage furrow formation

48) In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in A)
cells with more than one nucleus.
B) cells that are unusually small.

:
C) cells lack nuclei.
D) destruction of chromosomes.
E) cell cycles lack an S phase.

49) Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

A) condensation of the chromosomes
B) replication of the DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) spindle formation
E) separation of the spindle poles

50) Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in
prokaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with
the transcript
and cut it free from the polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to
a- separate -

from the DNA and release the transcript.

C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let
go of the
transcript.
D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome.

E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop
advancing through
the gene and release the mRNA.
Machine Translated by Google

51) Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic
gene
expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end. 0
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.

52) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for
the
transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most

probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?

A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another.
B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental
conditions.
C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon.

:
D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates.
E) It could change the rate of translation and of exon splicing.

53) Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal sequence?

A) It adds the poly-A tail to the 3' end of the mRNA.
B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~10^35
nucleotides away.
C) It allows the 3' end of the mRNA to attach to the ribosome.
D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA polymerase.
E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3' end of the mRNA.

54) In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is
involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?
A) ligase
B) RNA polymerase
IC) RNA polymerase II
D) RNA polymerase III
E) primase

:55) Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA

Polymerase?
A) the protein product of the promoter
B) start and stop codons
C) ribosomes and tRNA
D) several transcription factors (TFs)
E) aminoacyl synthetase
Machine Translated by Google

56) A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution.
Which of the following might this illustrate?
A) The sequence evolves very rapidly.
B) The sequence does not mutate.
C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.

:
E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.

57) The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of
transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?
A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA B)
the triplet nature of the codon C)
the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site D)
the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site E)
the 3- D shape of a DNA molecule

58) What is a ribozyme?

A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity C)
an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits D) an
enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process E) an
enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication

: 59) During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction?

A) proteins

B) DNA

C) RNA

D) lipids

E) sugar
Machine Translated by Google

Use the following model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the next few questions
(Questions from 60 to 64).

5' UTR E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 UTR 3'

60) Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol?

A) 5' UTR I1 I2 I3 UTR 3'

B) 5' E1 E2 E3 E4 3'

C) 5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3'

D) 5' I1 I2 I3 3'

E) 5' E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 3'

:
61) When the spliceosome binds to elements of this structure, where can it attach?

A) to the exons

B) to the 5' UTR

C) to the 3' UTR

D) to an adjacent intron and exon

E) to the end of an intron

62) Which of the following is a useful feature of introns for this model?

A) They are translated into small polypeptides.

B) They become parts of snRNPs.

C) Each intron has enzymatic properties.

• D) Introns allow exon shuffling.

-

E) Introns protect exon structure.

Machine Translated by Google

63) Suppose that exposure to a chemical mutagen results in a change in the sequence that
alters the 5' end of intron 1 (I1). What might happen?

A) loss of the gene product

B) loss of E1

C) premature stop to the mRNA

O D) inclusion of I1 in the mRNA

E) exclusion of E2

64) Suppose that an induced mutation removes most of the 5' end of the 5' UTR. What might result?

A) Removal of the 5' UTR has no effect because the exons are still maintained.

B) Removal of the 5' UTR also removes the 5' cap and the mRNA will quickly degrade. o
-

C) The 3' UTR will duplicate and one copy will replace the 5' end.

D) The first exon will not be read because I1 will now serve as the UTR.

E) Removal of the 5' UTR will result in the strand not binding to tRNAs.

65) Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

O A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus.

B) Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA.

C) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing.

D) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes.

E) A primary transcript is often much longer than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus.
Machine Translated by Google

66) The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is

A) permanently turned on.
B) turned on only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C) turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) turned on only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
E) turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
O-
67) Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?
A) operon
B) inducer
C) promoter
OD) repressor
E) corepressor

68) A lack of which molecule would result in the cell's inability to "turn off" genes?
A) operon -
B) inducer
C) promoter
D) ubiquitin

OE) corepressor

69) Which of the following, when taken up by the cell, binds to the repressor so that the
repressor no longer binds to the operator?
A) ubiquitin
B) inducer
C) promoter

:
D) repressor
E) corepressor

70) A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in

A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.

B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator.
C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator.
D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site.
E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure
Machine Translated by Google

71) When DNA is compacted by histones into 10-nm and 30-nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with
proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must
constantly change its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity?

A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1

B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails

C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core

:
D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes

E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction

72) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are A) DNA
methylation and histone amplification.
B) DNA amplification and histone methylation.
C) DNA acetylation and methylation.
D) DNA methylation and histone modification.
E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.

73) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in
approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are
analogized to which process in development?
A) morphogenesis
B) determination C)
induction D)
differentiation E)
pattern formation

:
74) Tumor-suppressor genes

A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells.

B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses.

C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion.

D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle.

E) due to all of the above

Machine Translated by Google

75) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are considered to be tumor-suppressor genes because

A) they prevent infection by retroviruses that cause cancer.

B) their normal products participate in repair of DNA damage.

C) the mutant forms of either one of these promote breast cancer.

D) the normal genes make estrogen receptors.

E) they block penetration of breast cells by chemical carcinogens

÷
76) Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene?
A) It is an activator for other genes.
B) It speeds up the cell cycle.
C) It causes cell death via apoptosis.
D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage.
E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA
polymerase

77) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is true?
A) Most of the DNA codes for proteins.
B) The majority of genes are likely to be transcribed.

:
C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer.
D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters.
E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells

78) Cell differentiation always involves

A) the production of tissue-specific proteins, such as muscle actin.
B) the movement of cells.
C) the transcription of the myoD gene.
D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome.
E) the cell's sensitivity to environmental cues, such as light or heat

79) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
A) express different genes.
B) contains different genes.
C) use different genetic codes.
D) have unique ribosomes.
E) have different chromosomes