CELLS & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY

PART 1: EXAM
mô hình khảm động
1. The “fluid” and “mosaic” terms in the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure refer to the ___ and ___,
respectively.
A. inside of the membrane; outside of the membrane
B. lipids; proteins
C. proteins; lipids
D. fatty acid chains; polar groups

kị nước
2. Which of the following proteins is likely to contain one or more hydrophobic segments, 20-30 amino
acids long?
A. Integral membrane protein. protein xuyên màng
B. Peripheral membrane protein.
C. Lipid-anchored protein.
D. Cytoplasmic protein.

3. Which of the following would most readily cross a lipid bilayer by simple diffusion?
A. Oxygen khuếch tán đơn giản
B. Glucose
C. Chloride ions
D. Proteins

4. The voltage-gated potassium channels associated with an action potential provide an example of what
type of membrane transport?
A. Simple diffusion.
B. Facilitated diffusion. khuếch tán có hỗ trợ
C. Coupled transport.
D. Active transport.

5. You are studying the entry of a small molecule into red blood cells. You determine the rate of movement
across the membrane under a variety of conditions and make the following observations: i. The molecules
can move across the membrane in either direction. ii. The molecules always move down their
concentration gradient. iii. No energy source is required for the molecules to move across the membrane.
iv. As the difference in concentration across the membrane increases, the rate of transport reaches a
maximum. theo chiều gradient, ko cần atp, theo 2 chiều, phụ thuộc vào nồng độ chất 2 bên màng
The mechanism used to get this molecule across the membrane is most likely:
A. simple diffusion.
B. facilitated diffusion.
C. active transport.
D. There is not enough information to determine a mechanism.

6. A particular cell has an internal chloride ion concentration of 50 mM, while outside the cell the chloride
ion concentration is 100 mM. The free energy change associated with chloride transport into the cell (DG) is
+970 cal/mol. Which choice below is the best explanation for this data?
A. Cl- ion movement into the cell is energetically favorable.
B. Both the concentration gradient and electrical gradient favor movement of Cl- ions into the cell.
C. The concentration gradient for Cl- ions favors movement into the cell, but the electrical gradient opposes
inward movement of Cl-.
D. Both the electrical and chemical gradients for Cl- ions favor outward movement of Cl- ions.

7. Place the following steps in an action potential in the correct order.

1. Sodium channels become inactivated and potassium channels are opened.
2. Sodium and potassium channel gates are closed; membrane potential is –60mV.
3. Sodium channel gates open in response to change in membrane potential. Na+ mở trước, K+ mở sau
4. Potassium rapidly leaves the cell; membrane potential drops to –75mV.

5. Sodium rushes into the cell; membrane potential reaches +40mV.

A. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 2.
B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2.
C. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5, 2.
D. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4, 2.

chất dẫn truyền tk chỉ gắn lên màng sau chứ không xuyên màng
8. How are neurotransmitters released into a synapse in response to an action potential? A.
They pass through voltage-gated neurotransmitter channels.
B. They diffuse through the cell when the action potential reverses membrane potential.
C. They pass through gap junctions into the post-synaptic cell.
D. They are released by membrane fusion of vesicles in response to increased calcium concentration.

9. The neurotransmitter g-amino butyric acid (GABA) binds to receptors that are ligand-gated Cl- ion
channels. What affect will this neurotransmitter have on the post-synaptic cell?
A. Cl- ions will rush into the cell leading to hyperpolarization and a reduced likelihood of an action
potential. Cl- từ ngoài vào trong làm tăng phân cực (màng trong càng âm hơn)
B. Cl- ions will rush into the cell leading to depolarization and an increase in the chance for an action
potential.
C. Cl- ions bind to GABA and inhibit it from interacting with the receptor, stimulating an action
potential. D. There will be no significant effect on the post-synaptic cell; only the pre-synaptic cell is
affected by

neurotransmitters.

10. Which of the following is the most likely immediate affect of G-protein activation?
A. Receptors are stimulated to bind to their ligands.
B. Enzymes are activated that catalyze second messenger formation. chất truyền tin thứ 2
C. GTP is depleted from the cell.
D. G-proteins bind to DNA and activate gene expression.

11. Proteins with SH2 domains are important in intracellular signaling pathways. What is the function of
these domains?
A. They bind to activated tyrosine kinase receptors. thụ thể tyrosine kinase có nhiều tiểu phần (domains)
B. They bind to DNA and activate gene transcription.
C. They regulate the activity of voltage-gated ion channels.
D. They hydrolyze GTP to inactivate the pathway.
12. Platelet activation at the site of a wound is a example of:
A. endocrine signaling. (qua máu)
B. paracrine signaling. (cận tiết)
C. intracellular receptor activation.
D. apoptosis.

apotosis (chết theo chu trình của tb) -> chọn caspase
13. Apoptosis is mediated by signal transduction pathways that lead to the programmed death of the cell.
How is cell death achieved during apoptosis?
A. Aqueous channels form in the cell membranes leading to inward movement of water and lysis of the cell.
B. Gene expression is activated that leads to the synthesis of inhibitors of respiratory enzymes.
C. The Na+/K+ ATPase is inactivated, leading to the loss of membrane potential which the cell needs to
survive.
D. Caspases are activated that lead to hydrolysis of many cellular macromolecules.

14. Which of the following statements is NOT true of tyrosine kinase-linked receptors?
A. Monomeric receptors are often induced to dimerize upon ligand binding.
B. The activated receptors attract and activate G proteins to continue the signal pathway. (thụ thể kết cặp G pro)
C. The cytoplasmic side of the receptor contains a kinase enzyme domain that is activated upon ligand
binding.
D. Activated receptors autophosphorylate themselves to attract SH2 domain proteins.

15.What mechanism is used to regulate the spontaneous assembly of collagen protein into a collagen fiber?
A. Different fibroblasts secrete different components for each collagen fiber.
B. Inhibitory protein domains are removed by an extracellular protease.
C. Covalent cross-links between proteins are only made outside the cell.
D. Complete collagen fibers are exported from the cell only as they are needed.

16. Which choice below describes the major function of proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix?
A. They provide a hydrated, gel-like medium for lubrication, cushioning, and embedding other ECM
components.
B. They provide high strength fibers required to withstand mechanical stress.
C. They provide a highly elastic support to resist tension.
D. They create the dense, hard support structures of bone tissue.

17. Fibroblasts attach the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton via:

A. focal adhesions.
B. tight junctions.
C. hemidesmosomes.
D. gap junctions.

18. Which of the following classes of molecules is not involved in direct cell-to-cell contact?
A. Cadherins
B. N-CAMs
C. Selectins
D. Fibronectins
19. The cell junction that prevents the two different types of glucose transporters from mixing in the plasma
membrane of intestinal epithelial cells is the:
A. gap junction.
B. tight junction.
C. adherens junction.
D. desmosome.

20. Polarized epithelial cells:

A. have a reversed membrane potential from most other cells.
B. maintain distinct membrane domains through the action of tight junctions.
C. do not have gap junctions so they are isolated from their neighbors.
D. are found only in animals such as polar bears, walruses and penguins.

PART 2: LESSON
THE OVERVIEW OF CELLS: STRUCTURES AND FUNCTIONS
1/ Who was the first person to see cells under the microscope and give them a name?
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
B. Robert Hooke
C. Theodor Schwann
D. Matthias Schleiden

2/ Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the cell theory?
A. cells must contain DNA học thuyết tế bào
B. all living things are made of cells
C. cells can only come from other cells
D. cells are the basic unit of life

3/ What do protists, plants, fungi, and animals have in common?

A. Multicellular
B. Eukaryotic thuộc vực nhân thực
C. Prokaryotic
D. Consumers

4. Which one of the following eukaryotic cell structures does not contain DNA?
A. a nucleus
B. a mitochondrion
C. the endoplasmic reticulum ti thể và lục lạp chứa DNA vòng, nhân chứa DNA thẳng
D. a chloroplast

5. A centriole is an organelle that is: vi ống

A. present in the center of a cell's cytoplasm
B. composed of microtubules and important for organizing the spindle fibers
C. surrounded by a membrane
D. part of a chromosome

6. Differential staining of bacteria on Gram staining is due to: gram (+) có 2 lớp, còn gram (-) có 3 lớp
A. Difference in the cell wall layer components of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
B. Difference in the cell structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
C. Difference in mode of nutrition of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
D. Difference in plasma membrane components of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria

7. What is a cell?
a) smallest and advanced unit of life
b) smallest and basic unit of life
c) largest and basic unit of life
d) largest and advanced unit of life

8. Which of the following is a functional unit of a body?

a) Mitochondria
b) Cytoplasm
c) Spleen
d) Cell

9. Which of the following is used by cells to interact with other cells?

a) Cell tubules
b) Cell junctions
c) Cell adhesions
d) Cell detectors

10. In which of the following type of cells the cell junction is abundant?
a) Cardiac cells
b) Prokaryotic cells
c) Hepatic cells
d) Epithelial cells tế bào biểu mô

11. What is epithelial mesenchymal transistion?

a) Loss of migration and gain of adhesion
b) Formation of mesenchymal cells
c) Loss of adhesion and gain of migration
d) Lysis of cell

12. In which of the following type of cells the Gap junctions are absent?
a) Sperm cells
b) Brain cells
c) Reproductive cells
d) Cardiac cells

13. In which of the following type of cells Sarcoplasmic reticulum is found?

a) muscle cells
LNC trơn liên quan đến khử độc -> gan
b) liver cells
LNC hạt liên quan đến tạo protein -> tb bạch cầu
c) kidney cells
d) neurons

Explanation: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum sequesters calcium ions within the cytoplasm of the cell and
controlled release of Ca2+ from the SER of cardiac and skeletal muscle cells triggers contraction. Smooth
endoplasmic reticulum (SER) in the aforementioned cells is known as sarcoplasmic reticulum.

14. Which of the following are phagocytic cells? thực bào

a) neutrophils, mast cells
b) mast cells, macrophages TB Mast, đại thực bào, tế bào giết tự nhiên, tế bào lympho tham gia vào
c) mast cells, antibodies thực bào
d) neutrophils, macrophages

10. Which of the following is known as the powerhouse of a cell?

a) Mitochondria
b) Cytoplasm
c) Lysosome
d) Nuclei

Explanation: The mitochondria, also known as the “powerhouse of the cell,” are the organelles that produce
energy within the cell. The mitochondria are the major site for ATP generation and play a significant role in
cellular respiration.

11. Which of the following is known as the suicide bag of a cell?

a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi Complex
c) Lysosome
d) Nuclei

Explanation: The digesting enzymes are found in lysosomes. When lysosomes rupture, digestive enzymes
are released, which begin digesting the body’s own cells. That’s why they’re referred to as suicidal bags.

12. Lysosomes are produced by which of the following cell organelles?

a) Mitochondria
b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Golgi Complex
d) DNA

Explanation: They are produced by the Golgi body. The fusion of vesicles from the Golgi complex with
endosomes produces lysosomes.

13. Which of the following cell organelle is responsible for transporting, modifying, and packaging proteins
and lipids?
a) Mitochondria
b) Endoplasmic Reticulum
c) Golgi Complex
d) DNA

Explanation: The Golgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi complex, is a factory where proteins from the
ER are further processed and sorted before being transported to their final destinations: secretion,
lysosomes, or the plasma membrane.

14. Which of the following cell doesn’t contain a cell wall?

a) Plant cell
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Animal cell

Explanation: Plant cells require a cell wall, but animal cells do not, as plants require a stiff framework in
order to grow up and out. Cell membranes are present in all cells and are flexible. Plant cells only have the
shapes of their cell walls, but animal cells can have a variety of shapes.

15. Who is the father of cell biology?

a) George N. Papanicolaou
b) George Emil Palade
c) Robert Hooke
d) None of the above

16. DNA is stored in which of the following cell organelle?

a) Cell wall
b) Cell Membrane
c) Nucleus
d) Cytoplasm

17. In which of the following cell nucleus is not present?

a) Eukaryotic cell
b) Prokaryotic cell nhân sơ có vùng nhân chứ không có nhân
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

18. Which of the following organisms doesn’t have a cell?

a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Fungi
d) Algae

Explanation: Viruses aren’t made up of cells. Their genetic material is protected by a protein covering (either
DNA or RNA). However, they lack a cell membrane and other organelles seen in cells.

19. Who proposed the cell theory?

a) Theodor Schwann, Watson and Robert Hooke
b) Theodor Schwann, Matthias Schleiden and Robert Hooke
c) Theodor Schwann, Matthias Schleiden and Rudolf Virchow
d) NTheodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow and Robert Hooke

20. RNA is present in which of the following cell organelles?

a) Cell wall
b) Ribosome ribosome = rRNA + protein
c) Nucleus
d) Cytoplasm
d) Golgi complex

Explanation: Ribosomes are tiny organelles that contain RNA and specific proteins within the cytoplasm.

21. A cell organelle that is present in animal cells but not present in plant cells is?
a) Cytoplasm
b) Centrosome
c) Mitochondrial
d) Golgi complex

Explanation: Plant cells lack a centrosome and lysosomes, while animal cells do. Animal cells lack a cell
wall, chloroplasts, and other specialized plastids, as well as a big central vacuole, but plant cells do.

22. Which of the following cell is found in the brain?

a) Neuron
b) Hepatocyte
c) Nephron
d) Epithelial cell
23. Protein synthesis takes place in which of the following cell organelle?
a) Cell wall
b) Ribosome
c) Nucleus
d) Cytoplasm

24. Which of the following cells are found in the intestinal lining?
a) RBCs
b) Neurons
c) Epithelial cells
d) Hepatocytes

Explanation: Epithelial cells line the intestine and are responsible for the uptake and absorption of nutrients
from the digestive tract. Microvilli are located at the apical end of these cells and mitochondria are located at
the basal end.

25. Which of the following polysaccharide is not present in the eukaryotic plant cell wall?
a) Chitin
b) Hemicellulose
c) Pectin
d) Cellulose

Explanation: Chitin is a polysaccharide that is present mainly in exoskeletons of Arthropods and are not a
component of plant cell wall. Plant cell wall is majorly composed of cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin.

26. Which of the following is the process of synthesis of glucose?

a) saccharification
b) glycolysis
c) gluconeogenesis tân tạo đường
d) neogenesis

Explanation: The anabolic pathway that leads to the formation of glucose is referred to as gluconeogenesis. A
cell can synthesize glucose at the same it as utilizing glucose as the source of chemical energy.

27. Which of the following site is represented by Loops in lampbrush chromosomes?

a) Crossing over
cấu trúc "kẹp tóc" -> kết thúc phiên mã không phụ thuộc Rho
b) Cell division
c) Replication
d) Transcription

Explanation: Lampbrush chromosomes are a type of giant chromosomes found in the growing oocytes of
amphibians. Twin loops arise on either side of the chromosome in the meiotic prophase. This is due to the
active transcription of many genes.

28. Which of the following part of a neuron receives information from other neurons?
a) myelin sheath bao myelin cách điện nên không dẫn điện
b) dendrites sợi nhánh tiếp nhận tín hiệu tk
c) cell body
d) axon gò axon là dẫn truyền tk từ đầu đến đuôi neuron, ko có chức năng tiếp nhận
Explanation: The fine extensions from the cell body of the neurons are called dendrites which receive
information from external sources, usually other neighboring neurons.

29. Which of the following is not a component of cell membranes?

a) Phosphotriglycerides (lipid,...)
b) Cholesterol
c) Sphingolipids
d) Phosphodiglycerides

Explanation: Phospholipids present in cell membrane are diglycerides and not triglycerides. Triglycerides
have three fatty acids and are not ampipathic in nature. It also consists of sphingolipid and cholesterol.

30. Which of the following promote curvature of cell membrane?

a) Phosphatidyl serine (PS)
b) Phosphatidyl inositol(PI) Chưa nghe bao giờ, nma đáp án là D
c) Phosphatidyl choline (PC)
d) Phosphatidyl ethanolamine (PE)

31. Which of the following is not a type of chromosomal aberration? bất thường nst
a) duplication
b) translocation
c) mutations
d) inversion

32. Which of the following cells release insulin when glucose levels elevate in the body?
a) gamma cells
b) beta cells beta cell -> insulin
c) alpha cells alpha cell -> glucagon
d) zeta cells

33. Which of the following cells are pluripotent? đa năng -> tb gốc
a) embryonic stem cells
b) nucleosomes
c) hepatocytes
d) neurons

34. Which of the following cells do not lack the ability to divide?
a) red blood cells
b) muscle cells
c) skin cells
d) nerve cells

Explanation: Only highly specialized cells of the body such as nerve cells, muscle cells and red blood cells
lack the ability to divide, once they have differentiated they remain in that state till the end of their life
cycles.

35. Which of the following cells do not usually divide but can be induced to divide?
a) liver cells
ứng dụng trong việc hiến tạng
b) red blood cells
c) hair cells
d) hair follicles

Explanation: Liver cells do not usually grow and divide but can be made to do so under specific conditions
such as liver surgery. Lymphocytes can also be induced to regrow and divide by interaction with a proper
antigen.
36. A scientist observes a new organism through a microscope. Which of the following observations tells her
that the organism is eukaryotic?
A. The organism has ribosomes
B. The organism has a membrane bound nucleus
C. The organism is unicellular
D. The organism has a cell membrane

37. What is the main function of cytoplasm in a cell?

A. Suspending cellular structures and providing a place for cellular functions to take place
B. Regulating the transport of molecules into and out of the cell
C. Synthesizing proteins in the cell
D. Packaging and sending out proteins and lipids

38. Lysosomes can be expected to be present in large numbers in cells which….

A. carry out phagocytosis thực bào
B. are actively dividing
C. are migrating
D. secrete peptide hormones
39. He advanced the cell theory with his conclusion that cells could only come from other cells?

40._____________ are inherited metabolic diseases characterized by an abnormal build-up of various toxic
materials in the body’s cells as a result of enzyme deficiencies.
A. Lysosomal storage diseases
B. Mitochondrial diseases
C. Endoplasmic reticulum diseases
D. Plasma membrane diseases
(____________ là bệnh chuyển hoá di truyền được mô tả bởi sự tích tụ của các vật chất độc hại trong các tế
bào của cơ thể do kết quả của thiếu enzyme)
A. Các bệnh lysosome
B. Các bệnh ti thể
C. Các bệnh mạng lưới nội chất
D. Các bệnh màng tế bào)

41. Which of the following statement is FALSE about mitochondrial diseases

A. occur when mitochondria fail to produce enough energy
B. are often chronic and genetic
C. can affect almost any part of the body but the parts of your body that need the most energy are most
affected
D. the affected child is always inherited the disease from the affected mother

42. SARS-CoV-2 consists of 4 structural proteins, which of them provides specificity for cellular entry
receptors:
A. spike (S) protein protein gai -> gắn với thụ thể tb
B. envelope (E) protein
C. membrane (M) protein
D. nucleocapsid (N) protein

43. Một tế bào có một đột biến làm cho nó không thể tổng hợp protein một cách phù hợp. Chức năng của bào
quan nào sau đây có thể bị ảnh hưởng bởi đột biến này nhất
A. Màng tế bào
B. Lục lạp
C. Ribosome
D. Ti thể

TRANSPORT ACROSS CELL MEMBRANE

1/ Which of the following describes the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane structure?
A. phospholipid monolayer with embedded proteins
B. phospholipid bilayer with embedded protein
C. phospholipid bilayer with embedded lipids
D. triglyceride bilayer with embedded proteins

2/ Which of the following ions has a higher concentration outside the cell than inside the cell
A. Na+, Cl-, H+, Mg2+
B. Na+, Cl-, K+, Mg2+
C. Na+, Ca2+, K+, Mg2+
D. Na+, Ca2+, Cl-, Mg2+

3/ In coupled transport processes, sugars can be brought into the cell against their concentrations gradients
A. because ATP powers the pump that brings them in
B. because they follow sodium ions into the cell which are traveling down their concentration gradients
C. because they follow potassium in through the sodium-potassium pump D. through endocytosis

4/ The opening of axon membrane voltage-gated potassium channels is responsible for which part of the
action potential?
A. Depolarisation of the membrane Khử cực -> Na+
B. Repolarisation of the membrane Tái phân cực -> K+
C. Contraction of the post synaptic muscle fibre
D. Signalling vesicular release of neurotransmitters

5/ The term "voltage - gated" means that in the membrane

A. ion channels open and close with changes in the membrane potential.
B. potential is controlled by the Na+/K+ pumps.
C. potential is controlled by light energy
D. potential can only be controlled by the binding of specific ligands to their receptors

6/ The neurotransmitter g-amino butyric acid (GABA) binds to receptors that are ligand-gated Cl- ion
channels. What affect will this neurotransmitter have on the post-synaptic cell?
A. Cl- ions will rush into the cell leading to hyperpolarization and a reduced likelihood of an action
potential.
B. Cl- ions will rush into the cell leading to depolarization and an increase in the chance for an action
potential.
C. Cl- ions bind to GABA and inhibit it from interacting with the receptor, stimulating an action
potential. D. There will be no significant effect on the post-synaptic cell; only the pre-synaptic cell is
affected by neurotransmitters.

7/ The principal intracellular cation is:

A. Sodium (Na+)
B. Potassium (K+)
C. Chloride (Cl-)
D. Calcium (Ca2+)

8/ Lipid-soluble molecules and gases enter the cell by

A. diffusion through the channel proteins
B. osmosis through the channel proteins
C. diffusion through the lipid bilayer
D. active transport through the lipid bilayer

9/ Why are proteins involved in active transport often called “pumps”?

A. They use energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient
B. They use energy to move a substance with its concentration gradient
C. They use energy to bind the substance to the carrier
D. They use energy to switch their conformation to “open state”

10/ Transporter and ion channels are similar in which of the following:
A. Both are membrane transport proteins
B. Both undergo a series of conformational changes for each molecule to be
C___
D___

11/ In postsynaptic membrane, the chemical signal is converted back into an electrical signal by:
A. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
B. neurotransmitter-gated ion channels
C. voltage-gated Na+ channels
D. voltage-gated K+ channels

12/ In nerve terminals, an electrical signal is converted into a chemical signal by:
A. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
B. neurotransmitter-gated ion channels
C. voltage-gated Na+ channels
D. voltage-gated K+ channels

13/ According to the fluid mosaic model, the membrane is _____________

a) rigid
b) discontinuous
c) sheet-like
d) fluid-like

Explanation: The fluid mosaic model states that the membrane is a lipid bilayer of fluid nature in which the
lipid components are free to move about.

14/ The ___________ the degree of unsaturation of the fatty acids of the bilayer, the ___________ the
temperature before the bilayer gels.
a) greater, lower
b) greater, more
c) lesser, higher
d) lesser, higher

Explanation: When the number of unsaturated fatty acids in the membrane is more, lower the transition
temperature at which the membrane gels.

15/ Which of the following molecules affects the mobility of fatty acyl chains in the plasma membrane?
a) starch
b) glycogen
c) cholesterol
d) carbohydrates

Explanation: Cholesterol disrupts the packing between fatty acyl chains and interferes with their mobility. It
makes the membrane durable while decreasing the permeability of the membrane.

16/ The sperm cell is covered by a _____________

a) sheath
b) cell wall
c) continuous membrane
d) discontinuous membrane

Explanation: Of all the cells in mammals, sperms are the most highly differentiated. A mature sperm is
divided into three regions head, midpiece and tail; all having their specific functions. The sperm is covered
by a continuous plasma membrane that contains a mosaic of specialized domains.

17/ The mobility of integral proteins can be measured by physical state of the ______________
a) amino acids
b) external phospholipids
c) membrane phospholipids
d) membrane appendages

Explanation: Since integral proteins are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer of the membrane, the mobility
of the integral proteins is determined largely by the physical state of membrane phospholipids.

18/ Which of the following genetic diseases is caused by mutations in a membrane protein?
a) Alzheimer’s disease
b) Parkinson’s disease
c) Anemia Lạ z, tự learn by heart
d) Hemolytic anemia
Explanation: Hemolytic anemia is caused by the abnormal shapes of erythrocytes which have been traced to
the mutations in ankyrin or spectrin which are plasma membrane proteins found in erythrocytes.

19/ Which of the following exists in nerve and muscle cells?

a) resting potential
b) membrane potential điện thế màng
c) potassium equilibrium potential
d) sodium equilibrium potential

Explanation: Nerve and muscle cells are the only excitable cells in the body; the potential difference that
exists between extracellular and intracellular environments is termed as resting potential. However in other
cells this voltage is termed as membrane potential.

20/ Which of the following has the highest permeability in a resting nerve cell?
a) Na+
b) Cl–
c) I– K+ là ion đặc trưng cho điện thế nghỉ/trạng thái nghỉ
+
d) K

21/ Depolarization is when ___________ ions flow inside the neuron’s membrane.
a) Potassium
b) Sodium
c) Chloride
d) Magnesium

Explanation: Depolarization is the flow of sodium ions into the membrane. These are positively charged and
reduce the polarity of a cell with respect to external environment and are therefore cause depolarization.

22/ A neuron fires when _____________________

a) action potential is achieved đạt ngưỡng điện thế hoạt động
b) apoptosis is induced
c) re-stimulation occurs
d) stimulation ceases

Explanation: When the external stimulation is strong enough to reach the threshold value which is around 50
mV, the action potential is generated, and firing of the neurons occurs. This is actually the response to
stimulus.

23/ The parts in the figure are a)__________, b)_____________, c)___________, d)____________.
a) dendrites, soma, myelin sheath, nodes of ranvier sợi nhánh, nhân tb, bao myelin, eo ranvie
b) dendrites, soma, cell body, axon hillock, myelin sheath
c) soma, axon hillock, myelin sheath, dendrites
d) soma, axon hillock, axon, dendrites

24/ Local anesthetics act by _____________ the ion channels.

a) inactivating
b) opening
c) closing
d) mutating

Explanation: Local anesthetics act by closing the ions channels present in the membranes of sensory cells
and neurons. As a result no action potential is generated and information can not be sent to the brain about
events occurring at the skin or teeth.

25/ The channel in a membrane protein by which an ion or molecule can be transported in and out of the cell
membrane is known as ___________
a) Permeation pathway
b) Permeate channel
c) Permeation channel
d) Channel pathway

26/ The transport of water molecules from a solution to the cell cytoplasm occurs in _________
a) Hypertonic solution
b) Hypotonic solution
c) Isotonic solution
d) All of the mentioned

Explanation: When the concentration of solute in the solution is greater than that of cell interior, it is called
hypertonic solution. When the concentration of solute in the solution is greater than that of cell interior, it is
called hypotonic solution. When both the solution and the cell interior has equal concentration of solute, it is
called isotonic solution. Water diffuses from hypotonic solution towards cell interior with more solute
concentration.

27/ Which of the following channels depend on forces such as stretch tension applied on the membrane?
a) Voltage-gated channels
b) Mechano-gated channels
c) Ligand-gated channels
d) Tension-gated channels

Explanation: The conformational change of mechano- gated channels depend on mechanical forces that are
applied to the membrane. These mechanical forces such as stretch tension forces the channel to open the
pathway for the transport of ions and solutes.

28/ How many H+ ions are transported by the vacuole H+-ATPase pump and the vacuole H+-phosphatase
pump per hydrolysis of ATP and pyrophosphate respectively?
a) 1, 1
b) 1, 2
Mới được cập nhật =))
c) 2, 1
d) 2, 2

Explanation: The vacuole H+-ATPase pump and the vacuole H+-phosphatase pump are membrane proteins
on the vacuole membrane that helps in the active transport of H+ ions inside the vacuole. With the hydrolysis
of one ATP molecule, two H+ ions can pass through the H+-ATPase pump. However, with the hydrolysis of
one pyrophosphate molecule, one H+ ion can pass through the H+-pyrophospatase pump.

29/ The ion most abundant in cells and most permeable to cell membrane is ____________
a) K+
b) Ca2+
c) Na+
d) H+

30/ The ratio of Na+ and K+ transported by Na+/K+-ATPase pump is ___________

a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 2:3
d) 3:2

Explanation: The sodium potassium pump is an active transporter that uses ATP to transport Na and K ions
across a membrane. With each ATP used the pump exports 3 Sodium ions while it imports 2 Potassium ions
into the cell.

31/ Symport and Antiport is the classification of ____________

a) Primary active transport
b) Secondary active transport
c) Primary passive transport
d) Secondary passive transport

32/ Halobacterium salinarium uses the following for the active transport of ions to induce purple colour.
a) Light energy
 sử dụng atp để phát quang
b) ATP
c) Voltage
d) Chemical energy

CELL SIGNALING
1. How many types of cell signaling are there?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Explanation: There are three types of cell signaling pathways – autocrine, paracrine and endocrine. Cells
communicate with each other through extracellular messenger molecules. Based on the distances these
messenger molecules travel, the signaling pathways differ.

2. In which type of signaling, the cell that expresses messenger molecules also produces receptors?
a) autocrine
b) heterocrine
c) paracrine
d) endocrine

Explanation: In autocrine signaling, the cells that express messenger molecules also synthesize surface
receptors. Surface receptors can respond to the messengers synthesized by the cell itself.

3. Cell signaling is a process by which cells communicate.

a) True
b) False

4. Paracrine messenger molecules are usually ________________

a) large
b) stable
c) unstable không ổn định
d) amphoteric

5. Endocrine messengers are also called ___________________

a) hormones dễ dàng di trong máu
b) receptors
c) antibody
d) antigen
Chất truyền tin thứ nhất
6. The primary messenger molecules bind to the transmembrane receptors.
a) True
b) False

7. Protein kinases and phosphatases act by altering ______________ of the signaling proteins.
a) basicity
b) conformation phosphoryl hoá và khử phosphoryl hoá
c) acidity
d) size
Explanation: Protein kinases are enzymes that add phosphate groups while protein phosphatases remove
phosphate groups. These enzymes alter the conformation of signaling proteins.

8. To which of the following residues of the protein, the protein kinases do not add phosphate groups?
a) serine
b) cytosine
c) threonine
d) tyrosine

Explanation: The protein kinases usually add phosphate groups to serine and threonine residues of their
target proteins.
A very important class of kinases also adds phosphate groups to the tyrosine residues.

9. The process by which extracellular messages translate into intracellular changes is termed
_________________
a) cell signaling
b) cell adhesion
c) signal transduction
d) cell transformation
Explanation: The process by which extracellular messenger molecules transform into intracellular changes
such as apoptosis, metabolism, transcription etc. is called signal transduction.

10. The a, b, and c respectively in the following image are _________________________

a) autocrine, paracrine, endocrine

b) autocrine, endocrine, paracrine tự tiết, cận tiết, nội tiết
c) endocrine, paracrine, autocrine
d) endocrine, autocrine, paracrine

Explanation: The signaling pathways in the figure shown are autocrine, paracrine and endocrine signaling
pathways respectively. All the three are stimulation pathways in which messenger molecules reach cell
surface receptors.

11. Steroids are derived from ________________

a) estrogen
b) cholesterol
c) proteins
d) carbohydrates

12. Which messenger molecules are derived from arachidonic acid?

a) eicosanoids
b) terpenoids
c) corticoids
d) steroids

13. G-protein coupled receptors contain ________ transmembrane alpha helices.

a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

Explanation: The G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are a family of cell surface receptors that consist of
7 transmembrane alpha helices. These receptors translate the binding of extracellular messengers to the
activation of intracellular GTP-binding proteins.

____ 1. In the yeast signal transduction pathway, after both types of mating cells have released the
mating factors and the factors have bound to specific receptors on the correct cells,
a. binding induces changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion.
b. the cells then produce the a factor and the factor.
c. one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell.
d. the cell membranes fall apart, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells.
e. a growth factor is secreted that stimulates mitosis in both cells.

____ 2. Paracrine signaling

a. involves secreting cells acting on nearby target cells by discharging a local regulator into the
extracellular fluid.
b. requires nerve cells to release a neurotransmitter into the synapse.
c. occurs only in paracrine yeast cells.
d. has been found in plants but not animals.
e. involves mating factors attaching to target cells and causing production of new paracrine cells.

3. From the perspective of the cell receiving the message, the three stages of cell signaling are
a. the paracrine, local, and synaptic stages.
b. signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response.
c. signal reception, nucleus disintegration, and new cell generation.
d. the alpha, beta, and gamma stages.
e. signal reception, cellular response, and cell division.

____ 4. When a cell releases a signal molecule into the environment and a number of cells in
the immediate vicinity respond, this type of signaling is
a. typical of hormones.
b. autocrine signaling.
c. paracrine signaling.
d. endocrine signaling.
e. synaptic signaling.

____ 5. Synaptic signaling between adjacent neurons is like hormone signaling in which of the following
ways?
a. It sends its signal molecules through the blood.
b. It sends its signal molecules quite a distance.
c. It requires calcium ions.
d. It requires binding of a signaling molecule to a receptor.
e. It persists over a long period.

____ 6. A small molecule that specifically binds to another molecule, usually a larger one
a. is called a signal transducer.
b. is called a ligand.
c. is called a polymer.
d. seldom is involved in hormonal signaling.
e. usually terminates a signal reception.

____ 7. Which of the following is (are) true of ligand-gated ion channels?

a. They are important in the nervous system.
b. They lead to changes in sodium and calcium concentrations in cells.
c. They open or close in response to a chemical signal.
d. Only A and B are true.
e. A, B, and C are true.

____ 8. Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most
similar to
a. the active site of an allosteric enzyme in the cytoplasm that binds to a specific substrate.
b. RNA specifying the amino acids in a polypeptide.
c. a particular metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle.
d. an enzyme with an optimum pH and temperature for activity.
e. genes making up a chromosome.

____ 9. G proteins and G-protein-linked receptors

a. are found only in animal cells, and only embedded in or located just beneath the cell's membrane.
b. are found only in bacterial cells, embedded in the cell's plasma membrane only.
c. are thought to have evolved very early, because of their similar structure and function in a wide
variety of modern organisms.
d. probably evolved from an adaptation of the citric acid cycle.
e. are not widespread in nature and were unimportant in the evolution of eukaryotes.

____ 10. Membrane receptors that attach phosphates to specific animo acids in proteins are
a. not found in humans.
b. called receptor tyrosine-kinases.
c. a class of GTP G-protein signal receptors.
d. associated with several bacterial diseases in humans.
e. important in yeast mating factors that contain amino acids.

____ 11. Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in the
cell membrane?
a. tyrosine-kinases receptors
b. ligand-gated ion channel receptors
c. growth factors
d. G proteins
e. cholesterol

____ 12. Which of the following are chemical messengers that pass through the plasma membrane of
cells and have receptor molecules in the cytoplasm?
a. insulin
do bản chất là lipid
 b. testosterone
c. cAMP
d. epinephrine

1. An agent secreted by a cell that can influence the properties of another cell:
a. Receptor
b. Antigen
c. Pheromone
d. Ligand
2. Hormones are signaling molecules of which system?
a. Nervous system
b. Endocrine system
c. Immune system
d. Circulatory system
3. In human beings, UV light acts as an incoming signal to promote the synthesis of a protective
pigment called:
a. Melanin
b. Bilirubin
c. Urochrome
d. Pheromone
4. Which of the following transmit information both electrically and chemically?
a. Neurons
b. Nephrons
c. Dendrocytes
d. All of these
5. Which of the following is not a local regulator?
a. Growth factor
b. Histamine
c. Prostaglandins
d. Oxytocin
6. A signaling molecule that diffuses through the interstitial fluid and acts on nearby cells is called:
a. Motor neuron
b. Local regulator
c. Transporter
d. Transmitter
7. In many signaling cascades in prokaryotic and animal cells, the second messenger is?
a. cAMP
b. cATP
c. NO
d. G proteins
9. Specialized receptors in the vertebrate eye that respond to light signals are:
a. Rhodopsin
b. Phytochrome
c. Cryptochromes
d. Melanophores
10. Cell surface receptors represent about…………..of all human proteins:
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 80%

11. Which of the following ligands binds to the extracellular receptors?

a. Nitric oxide
b. Growth hormones
c. Steroid hormones
d. Thyroid hormones Answer: b. Growth hormones

12. The largest family of human cell surface receptors is the:

a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Ion channel-linked receptors
c. Enzyme-linked receptors
d. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
13. The sequence of changes in a series of different molecules that occurs during cell signaling is:
a. Nerve impulse
b. Reflex arc
c. Signal transduction pathway
d. Reflex action
14. Chemicals that take information about nerve impulse from one neuron to another neuron are called:
a. Hormones
b. Pheromones
c. Neurotransmitters
d. Transducers O

15. Which of the following is used for long-distance signaling in both plants and animals? a.
Hormones
b. Protein kinases
c. Transducers
d. Ligand binding proteins
16. There are how many categories of cell signaling?
a. Two
b. Ten
c. Seven
d. Four
Explanation: There are four main types of cell signaling found in multicellular organisms: paracrine,
autocrine, endocrine, and signaling by direct contact.
17. Which of the following type of signaling is involved in Paracrine signaling?
a. Autostimulation of cell
b. Hormonal Communication
c. Synaptic transmission
d. Chemical signaling
18. Which of the following statements is true regarding cell signaling?
a. Cell signaling has four basic categories
b. is used to study the context of human diseases
c. In plants cell signaling occurs through phytohormones phytohormone là hormone ở thực vật
d. All of these
19. The target cells of a lipid-soluble hormone such as cortisol, are able to respond to it because of:
a. They have membrane-bound cell surface receptors
b. Only target cells express appropriate cytosolic receptors thụ thể nằm trong nhân -> quy định phiên mã
c. Their genome includes the appropriate transcriptional response
d. All of these
20. Which of the following signal molecules is NOT used for extracellular signaling?
a. Cyclic AMP
b. Endocrine
c. Autocrine
d. Paracrine
21. Which signal molecules does NOT interact with cell surface receptor?
a. Testosterone
b. Glucagon
c. Gastrin
d. Insulin
22. Which of the following guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G-protein) takes part in the
regulation of vision?
a. Gs family
b. Gq family
c. Gi family
d. Golf
23. Which of the following signaling pathway is followed by the T lymphocyte’s response to antigenic
stimulation?
a. Juxtacrine signaling
b. Autocrine signaling
c. Paracrine signaling
d. Endocrine signaling
24. What molecules can directly convert extracellular signals into intracellular signals? a.
transmembrane proteins
b. Cell-surface receptors
c. GPCRs
d. All of these
25. Choose the correct statement about the paracrine messenger molecules:
a. The messenger molecules are unstable
b. The messenger molecules are stable
c. The messenger molecules are short
d. The messenger molecules are large
26. Which of the following messenger molecules are derived from the fatty acid arachidonic acid?
a. Eicosanoids
b. Terpenoids
c. Corticoids
d. Steroids
27. Which of the following type of signaling the cell that expresses messenger molecules also produces
receptors?
a. Paracrine
b. Heterocrine
c. Endocrine
d. Autocrine
28. How many transmembrane helices are present in the GPCRs (G-protein coupled receptors)?
a. One
b. Fiver
c. Four
d. Seven
29. All steroid hormones are derived from:
a. Chemicals
b. Hormones
c. Cholesterol
d. Carbohydrates
30. Which of the following signaling molecules are used by simple nerve reflexes?
a. Proteases
b. G proteins
c. Neurotransmitters
d. Nitric oxides
2. Normal cells can be converted to cancer cells by treatment with _____________
a) carcinogenic compounds
b) endonucleases
c) exonucleases
d) kinases
Explanation: Normal cells can be converted to cancer cells by treatment with carcinogenic compounds (such
as X-rays) that can induce mutations in the genome of normal cells, making them malignant.

3. The normal cells tend to remain in monolayer when their _____________ decreases.
a) pH
b) volume
c) genomic content
d) growth rate

Explanation: The normal cells tend to remain in single layer of cells, termed monolayer when their growth
rate decreases. The decrease in growth rate is caused due to inhibitory influences from the environment.

5. The two important compounds of serum that are necessary for cell culture are __________________
a) insulin, epidermal growth factor
b) insulin, phosphatidylserine
c) tumor necrosis factor, epidermal growth factor
d) epidermal growth factor, phosphatidylserine

Explanation: The two important compounds those are required for the culture of normal mammalian cells,
are insulin and epidermal growth factor, present as components of the serum’s fluid fraction. However, these
are not required for the culturing of cancer cells.

6. The immortality exhibited by the cancer cells is due to presence of _____________________

a) telomerase
b) nuclease
c) kinase
d) protease

Explanation: In culture, the cancer cells possess the capability of growing infinitely unlike normal cells that
do not grow beyond a certain number of mitotic divisions. This immortality exhibited by the cancer cells is
due to the presence of enzyme telomerase.

7. The cancer cells are protected from ___________________

a) transcription
b) mutation
c) apoptosis
d) contamination

Explanation: The cancer cells are protected from apoptosis and usually do not activate a cell destruction
pathway even when there is a presence of aberrant chromosome number and inhibitory signals from the
environment.

8. Cancer cells depend on _________________ metabolic pathway.

a) Effectors
b) Primary messengers
c) Secondary messengers
d) G-proteins

Explanation: Arrestins are a small group of proteins that bind to the G-protein coupled receptors. To bind to
these receptors, the arrestins compete with heterotrimeric G-proteins. In the process of desensitization,
arrestin binding prevents further activation of the G-proteins.

11. For the development of cancer, which of the following is the most influential component of the genome?
a) EGF
b) Cytochrome c
c) TP53
d) T53

12. p53 is a _________

a) translation factor
b) polymerase
c) endonuclease
d) transcription factor yếu tố phiên mã

Explanation: p53 is a protein transcription factor that is also called the guardian of the genome because of its
role in tumour suppression by causing apoptosis. p53 has also been used to treat onset of certain tumours.

13. p53 is capable of binding to which family of proteins?

a) Bcl-1
b) Bcl-2
c) Bcl-3
d) Bcl-4

Explanation: p53 is a transcription factor that activates the expression of proteins involved in cell cycle
regulation and apoptosis. In addition to that, it can also bind directly to the Bcl-2 family of proteins and
initiate apoptosis.

CELL CYCLE, CELL DIVISION AND CELL DEATH

1. Which term is used to refer to a period between the cell divisions?
a) M phase
b) G0 phase
c) Interphase
d) Resting phase

2. There are ______ major phases in a cell cycle.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation: Cells in vivo and in vitro pass through a series of defined stages, constituting the cell cycle.
The two major phases of the cell cycle are M phase (constituting mitosis and cytokinesis) and interphase.

4. Asynchronous cultures are the ones whose cells are _______________________

a) of different origin
b) randomly distributed through the cell cycle
c) have different genomic content
d) have different nutrient requirements
Explanation: Asynchronous culture is the term used for cultures that have cells that are randomly distributed
throughout the cell cycle i.e. all the cells might be at different stages of their life.

5. DNA replication can be monitored by incorporation of ______________________

a) tyrosine
b) thymidine
c) cytosine
d) nitite

Explanation: DNA replication can be monitored by incorporating [3H]thymidine in the strands of double
helix. In this way, microscopy can be used to illustrate how the cells pass through each stage of the cell
cycle.

6. DNA replication occurs during _________________ of the cell cycle.

a) S phase
b) Interphase
c) G2 phase
d) G0 phase

7. Which of the following cells do not lack the ability to divide?

a) skin cells
b) nerve cells
c) muscle cells
d) red blood cells
Explanation: Only highly specialized cells of the body such as nerve cells, muscle cells and red blood cells
lack the ability to divide, once they have differentiated they remain in that state till the end of their life
cycles.

8. Which of the following cells do not usually divide but can be induced to divide?
a) red blood cells
b) liver cells
c) hair cells
d) hair follicles
Explanation: Liver cells do not usually grow and divide but can be made to do so under specific conditions
such as liver surgery. Lymphocytes can also be induced to regrow and divide by interaction with a proper
antigen.

9. Which of the following cells are capable of asymmetric cell division?

a) Hepatocytes
b) Epithelial cells
c) Stem cells
d) Neurons

10. Cells that have stopped dividing and are arrested in a state preceding that of DNA synthesis, are said to
be in the__________
a) S phase
b) G1 phase
c) G0 phase
d) G2 phase
Explanation: Cells that have stopped dividing either temporarily or permanently are referred to as being in
the G0 state, to distinguish them from cells in the G1 phase that are about to enter the synthesis phase.

12. What will happen if a G2 phase cell is fused with an M phase cell?
a) premature chromosome compaction
b) chromosome aggregation
c) gene transcription
d) inhibition of transcription
Explanation: If a G1 cell and M phase cell are fused together, premature chromosome compaction takes
place. If G2 and M phase cell are fused together G2 chromosomes will appear visibly doubled and undergone
premature gene compaction.

13. The entry of a cell into M phase is initiated by _________________

a) interleukin factor
b) maturation promoting factor yếu tố kích trứng (ảnh hưởng tới pha M)
c) transcription factor
d) necrosis factor
Explanation: The entry of a cell into mitotic (division or M phase) phase is initiated by the maturation
promoting factor (MPF). It consists of two subunits – one with kinase activity and the other with regulatory
activity.

14. The regulatory subunit of maturation-promoting factor (MPF) is called _______________

a) kinase
b) cyclin
c) tetracyclin
d) interleukin
Explanation: The regulatory subunit of maturation-promoting factor (MPF) is called cyclin. The
concentration of this regulatory protein changes in a predictable pattern. When the cyclin concentration is
low, the enzyme is inactive.

15. Cyclin binding leads to a change in the _________________ of kinase.

a) pH
b) temperature
c) concentration
d) conformation
Explanation: Cyclin binding leads to a change in the conformation of catalytic subunit of kinase enzyme by
binding to its catalytic site. This binding allows the cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) to phosphorylate its
substrates.

DNA STRUCTURE, REPLICATION, AND REPAIR

1/ Process of genetic information flowing from DNA to RNA to proteins is called

A. gene annealing

B. gene mutation

C. gene expression

D. gene therapy
2/ 5-Flurouracil is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of many cancers. It works by inhibiting
the S-phase of the cell cycle through inhibiting the synthesis of:

A. dUMP from dTMP

B. dTMP from dUMP

C. dAMP from dGMP

D. dGMP from dAMP

3, What is the structure indicated below?

A. Adenosine

B. Deoxyadenosine

C. Guanosine

D. Cytidine

4/ Dyskeratosis congenital (DKC) is a genetically inherited disease in which the proliferative capacity of
stem cells is markedly impaired. The defect has been traced to inadequate production of an enzyme needed
for chromosome duplication in the nuclei of rapidly dividing cells. Structural analysis has shown that the
active site of this protein contains a singlestranded RNA that is required for normal catalytic function. Which
step in DNA replication is most likely deficient in DKC patients?

A. Synthesis of Okasaki fragments

B. Synthesis of RNA primers

C. Synthesis of telomeres

D. Removal of RNA primers

5/ Newly synthesized DNA contains

A. both new strands

B. both old strands

C. one new strand and one old strand

D. only one strand

6, In patients with hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) or Lynch syndrome, which of the
following repair mechanisms is defective:

A. Nucleotide-excision repair (NER)

B. Mismatch repair tất cả đều liên quan tới sửa sai DNA
C. Base-excision repair (BER)

D. All of the above

7. An nucleic acid contains: 15%A, 55%C, 30%T, 20%G. What is the most likely source of this nucleic acid:
A. bacterial plasmid
B. mitochondrial chromosome
C. nuclear chromosome
D. viral genome (bộ gen virus)

8. Endonuclease activation and chromatin fragmentation are characteristic features of eukaryotic cell death
by apoptosis. Which of the following chromosome structures would most likely be degraded first in an
apoptotic cell?
A. 10-nm fiber
B. 30-nm fiber
C. centromere
D. heterochromatin

9. Which is correct?

TRANSCRIPTION AND TRANSLATION

3/ To start transcription, RNA polymerase recognizes nucleotide sequences in what region of the DNA?
A. Promoter region
B. Template region
C. G-C rich region
D. Terminator region

4/ A geneticist isolates a gene for a specific trait under study. She also isolates the corresponding mRNA.
Upon comparison, the mRNA is found to contain 1,000 fewer bases than the DNA sequence. Did the
geneticist isolate the wrong DNA?
A. yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template and should be the same length as the gene sequence
B. yes, the mRNA should contain more bases than the DNA sequence because bases flanking the gene are
also transcribed
C. no, the final mRNA contains only exons, the introns were removed D. no, the mRNA was partially
degraded after it was transcribed

5/ A 10-year-old boy with severe progressive skin ulceration, decreased resistance to infection, and impaired
cognitive ability has been diagnosed with a genetic deficiency of the enzyme prolidase. Mutation analysis has
identified a single base substitution at the 3’ end of intron 6 of the mutant allele as well as deletion of a 45-
base exon (exon 7) in the prolidase cDNA. Which type of gene mutation was most likely inherited by this
boy?
A. Splice-site mutation
B. Frame-shift mutation
C. Missense mutation
D. Nonsense mutation

6/ What is the role of chaperone proteins in protein synthesis?

A. Assisting correct folding of the newly formed polypeptide chain.
chaperone liên quan tới cuộn gập pro
B. Correct formation of disulphide bridges in protein folding.
C. Release of completed proteins from the ribosome.
D. Switching peptide bonds that involve proline residues between the cis and the trans configurations

7/ Proteins directed to which of the following organelle is synthesized by ribosomes attached to the rough
endoplasmic reticulum?
A. Cell membrane
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. Peroxisomes

8/ Parahemophilia is an autosomal recessive bleeding disorder characterized by a reduced plasma

concentration of the Factor V blood coagulation protein. Deficiency arises from a 12 base-pair deletion in
the Factor V gene that impairs the secretion of Factor V by hepatocytes and results in an abnormal
accumulation of immunoreactive Factor V antigen in the cytoplasm. In which region of the Factor V gene
would this mutation most likely be located?
A. Last exon
B. First exon
C. 5’ Untranslated region
D. 3’ Untranslated region

9/ Bằng cách nào ribosome của nhân sơ bám vào vị trí chính xác trên chuỗi mRNA để bắt đầu dịch mã:
A. Nó bám vào đầu 5’ tự do của mRNA
B. Nó nhận diện và bám vào codon khởi đầu AUG
C. Các protein của ribosome nhận diện và bám vào 1 trình tự ngay phía trước điểm khởi đầu
D. RNA của ribosome bắt cặp đặc hiệu với một trình tự bazo nằm ngay trước điểm khởi đầu

10/ Which type of Covid-19 vaccine below having translation of viral protein (spike protein) occurring in
human body cells?
A. mRNA vaccines
B. Protein-based vaccine do hệ gene của Covid là mRNA
C. Inactivated virus-based vaccine
D. Lipid-based vaccine

GENE REGULATION IN EUKARYOTES AND PROKARYOTES

1. Eukaryotic entities
(a) in the presence of a cAMP molecule, it carries out protein synthesis
(b) have only operons assisting in gene expression
(c) transcription takes place in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm do có sự xuất hiện của màng nhân
(d) transcription occurs in the cytoplasm and translation in nucleus

2. A genomic DNA possesses functioning units, a group of genes under the influence of promoters known as
(a) genes
(b) operons operon lac bao gồm P, O và 3 gene cấu trúc lac Z, lac Y, lac A
operon lac không bao gồm vùng I
(c) anticodon
(d) codon

3. All regulatory proteins possess a common DNA binding motif that is specific flexes in their protein
chains permitting them to interlock with
(a) the outside groove of DNA helix
(b) the major groove of DNA helix motif gắn DNA -> không học

(c) the minor groove of DNA helix

(d) the inner groove of DNA helix

4. Regulatory proteins turn transcription off through binding to a site rapidly at the front of the
promoter and many times even overlaps the promoter, this site is the
(a) regulatory site
(b) operator site
(c) suppressor site protein điều hoà bám vào vùng O
RNA pol bám vào vùng P
(d) transcriptional control site

5. Seemingly, the vertebrate cells contain a protein which binds to clusters of 5-methylcytosine ensuring
that the bound gene stays in the “off” position. This regulation on the role of gene regulation is an outcome
of
(a) Methylation methyl hoá = khử acetyl hoá -> đóng xoắn DNA -> ngăn phiên mã
(b) Translation khử metyl hoá = acetyl hoá -> dãn xoắn DNA -> mở phiên mã

(c) Enhancer expression

(d) operator suppression

6. The transcriptional gene control in eukaryotes is mediated by

(a) metabolites that bind to the cis-acting elements Điều hoà theo cơ chế cis-trans
(b) trans-acting factors failing to bind to cis-acting elements -> Cis: protein ức chế tạo ra bám lên vùng O
của operon đó.
(c) trans-acting factors binding to cis-acting elements -> Trans: protein ức chế tạo ra có thể bám lên
(d) repressor proteins that bind to operator sites vùng O của những operon khác.
Này không học

7. Basic tools of genetic regulation are the ability of some proteins to bind to specific
(a) regulatory DNA sequences
(b) regulatory RNA sequences
(c) enzymes of cells
(d) promoter portions of genes

8. In the regulation of gene expression, this is an incorrect statement

(a) in the bacteria, it permits to replicate with no control
(b) in the bacteria, it permits to adapt to changing environments
(c) permits the maintenance of homeostasis in multicellular entities
(d) permits the functioning of multicellular entities on the whole
9. There are these many histones in the core of a nucleosome
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 2

10. In eukaryotes and bacteria, the most common form of regulation is

(a) promoter control
Kiểm soát phiên mã là nhiều nhất
(b) translation control
(c) repressor control
(d) transcriptional control
11. Expression of gene is controlled in eukaryotes à At many places in the cell

12. Which one of the following is not a component of lac operon model?
A. Promoter gene
B. Structural gene (lac Z, lac Y, lac A)
C. Primer gene
D. Regulator gene

13. Which molecule is not produced by E. Coli in the lactose medium?

A. lactose dehydrogenase
B. thiogalactoside transacetylase
C. beta-galatosidase
D. lactose permease

14. The lactose operon consists of à five genes – one inhibitor, one operator and three structural genes

15. Aporepressor is inactive repressor in tryptophan repressible operon system. It is generally a à protein

16. Addition of lactose in a culture of E. Coli induces enzymes to breakdown the lactose into glucose and
galactose à B-galactosidase (tổng hợp bởi gene Z), permease, transacetylase
 hệ thống cảm ứng

cảm ứng ức chế

gene vùng vận hành và vùng điều hoà

điều hoà dương tính -> điều hoà bởi protein hoạt hoá (cAMP-CAP)

điều hoà âm tính -> điều hoà bởi protein ức chế

chất cảm ứng (inducer) là allolactose (đồng phân

của lactose)

lactose bám vào protein ức chế -> khởi động phiên mã gene

Không học opero tryptophan

-> nhớ là nó bám vô promoter là được
-> vùng 1 liên kết vùng 2, vùng 3 liên kết vùng 4 -> ngưng phiên mã
-> vùng 2 liên kết vùng 3 -> vẫn phiên mã

RNA pol luôn bám vào vùng promoter của operon

cAMP cao thì glucose thấp -> mức phiên mã cao
cAMP thấp thì glucose cao -> mức phiên mã thấp
-> liên quan tới điều hoà dương tính operon
Điều hoà âm tính là điều hoà độ bật/tắt của operon
Điều hoà dương tính là điều hoà mức độ phiên mã của operon (cao/thấp)
 vùng O là vùng không mã hoá, gắn với protein ức chế

CYTOGENETICS
2. Which of the following chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila:
(a) Polytene
(b) Lampbrush
(c) Supernumerary
(d) All of these
NST hình chổi
3. Lampbrush chromosomes occur in:
(a) Oocytes Noãn bào
(b) Cancer cells
(c) Lymph glands
(d) Salivary glands

4. Choose the true one about the Chromatids?

(a) It is a haploid chromosome
(b) It is a complete chromosome
(c) It is a duplicate chromosome
(d) It is one-half of the replicated chromosomes

5. The centromere is that part of chromosome where: tâm động

(a) Nicking occurs
(b) Chromatids are attached
(c) Nucleoli are formed
(d) Crossing-over takes place

6. The ends of the chromosome are called:

(a) Gene
(b) Centromeres
(c) Telomeres Đầu mút
(d) Kinetochore
8. A chromosome with sub-terminal centromere is called?
(a) Acrocentric nst tâm lệch
(b) Acentric
(c) Metacentric
(d) Telocentric
9. The giant chromosome with a number of chromonemeta is:
(a) Hetrochromosome
(b) Polytene chromosome
(c) Lampbrush chromosome
(d) Supernumerary chromosome

10. A chromosome with centromere near the middle is called?

(a) Metacentric nst tâm cân
(b) Acrocentric
(c) Telocentric nst tâm mút
(d) Submetacentric cũng là nst tâm lệch nma lệch ít hơn

11. Puffs or balbiani rings in the salivary gland chromosome are the sites of:
(a) Protein synthesis
(b) RNA synthesis
(c) DNA replication
(d) DNA duplication

13. Which of the following doesn’t agree with the chromosomal theory of inheritance?
(a) The genes are located on the chromosome
(b) The genes on the same chromosome are always passed together
(c) The genes are located linearly on the chromosomes
(d) The distance between two genes can be mapped

14. The chromosomal theory of inheritance violates which of the following laws?
a) Law of dominance
b) Law of segregation
c) Law of independent assortment
d) None

15. A colour blind daughter may be born if the:

Aa x aa -> aa
(a) Father is normal and the mother is a carrier
(b) Father is normal and the mother is colour blind
(c) Father is colour blind and mother is a carrier
(d) Father is colour blind and mother is normal

16. A somatic cell in a human male contains:

(a) No gene on the sex chromosome
(b) Genes on only on sex chromosomes
(c) Two genes for every sex-linked character
(d) Only one sex-linked gene for each character

17. The blue-green algae and bacteria contain:

(a) Three linkage groups
(b) Two linkage groups
(c) One linkage group
(d) None of the above

18. What is the number of linkage groups in the Drosophila?

(a) Two
(b) Four 2n = 8 -> n = 4
(c) Eight
(d) None of the above

19. Gene for colour blindness in man is located on ___________.

(a) Both X and Y chromosome
(b) Y-chromosome only
(c) X-chromosome only
(d) Either X-chromosome or Y-chromosome

20. Chromosomal constitution in human females can be best written as?

(a) 46
(b) 44+2
(c) 44A+XY
(d) 44A+XX

21. Which of the following disease is sex-linked?

(a) Hepatitis
(b) Leukaemia
(c) Malignancy
(d) Colour blindness Bệnh mù màu

22. If there is a non-disjunction in the X chromosome, the progeny being XXY, what will be the constitution
of the chromosome(s) in the gamete?
(a) X and Y
(b) X and XY
(c) XX and Y
(d) XXY with no separation

23. You observe a genetic trait which is a common occurrence in the male of a particular pedigree, this is
possibly a?
(a) X linked
(b) Y linked
(c) X linked recessive
(d) Y linked dominant
Explanation: If the gene has a sex bias it is certainly sex linked. In this case, it is a common occurance in the
males only in a pedigree so it must be Y linked gene. There is no dominant recessive as Y is always
hemizygous.

24. If you cross a red eyed pure breeding female Drosophila with a white eyed male, then the F1 males so
produces were crossed with white eyed male, what will be the eye colour of their daughters and sons in F2?
(a) Both daughters and sons red eyed
(b) Daughters with both eye colour while sons with white eye
(c) Both daughters and sons with both eye colours
(d) Daughters with red eye and sons with white eyes
Explanation: Eye colour is a sex linked trait. In this following case, the F1 male progeny was red eyed, as the
father only gave the Y chromosome and not X which determines eye colour. Then similarly the F2 sons
would be white eyed by allele from their mother, female will be red eyed as they get both alleles.

25. If the genes are located in a chromosome as A—B—C—D—E—O—-T. Which of the gene pairs will
have least probability of being inherited together?
(a) C and D
(b) A and T càng xa thì càng khó trao đổi chéo
(c) A and B
(d) O and T
Explanation: Longer is the distance, lesser will be the probability of the two genes being inherited together
as then there will be a greater chance of recombination.

26. If a gamete has 16 chromosomes, what will be the number of chromatids before anaphase 1?
(a) 8
(b) 16
16 nst -> nhân đôi ra 32 nst -> có 64 nhiêm sắc tử chị em
(c) 32
(d) 64
Explanation: There are 32 chromosomes but they are in duplicate chromatids so 64 is the number of
chromatids before anaphase 1.

27. Which of the following can result from non-disjunction?

(a) XY and XO
(b) YY and XY
(c) X and Y
(d) XY and XXY

28. What is meant by degenerate codon?

(a) Two codons can be read in different frame o give different amino acids
(b) Codons are not having a gap
(c) Specific codon codes for specific amino acid

(d) Two codons can code for same amino acid tính thoái hoá của mã di truyền (mã bộ 3)

29. Consider that our codon in place of being triplet was quadruplet. How many possible combinations could
be there then?
(a) 64
(b) 128
(c) 256
(d) 360
Explanation: There are 4 DNA bases and triplet coodon so number of possible combinations id 43=64. Now
if the codon was quadruplet the combinations would be 44=256.

30. Which of the following is not a stop codon? stop codon: UAA, UAG, UGA
(a) UAA
(b) GUG
(c) UAG
(d) UGA

31. Which of the following is not a type of translocation?

(a) Simple
(b) Reciprocal
(c) Tandem
(d) Intercalary

32. In translocating gene fragment which part is responsible for translocation?

(a) The LTR
(b) The transcribed gene
(c) The non-coding part of gene
(d) The surrounding sequences

34. Which of the following could result in homologous chromosomes moving to the same pole after
anaphase 1?
(a) Doubling
(b) Inversion
(c) Breaking
(d) Translocation

35. Which of the following is a result of reciprocal translocation?

(a) Burkitt’s lymphpma
(b) Trychothiodystrophy
(c) Thalassemia
(d) Cockyne’s syndrome

36. Which of the following is mandatory for autonomous transposition?

(a) Internal gene
(b) Transposase
(c) 3’ concensus of region upstream to transposition
(d) Branch point A

37. What percentage of the human genome is transposition related?

(a) 2%
(b) 10%
(c) 50%
(d) 80%

38. Choose the wrong one out for insertion sequence.

(a) Insertion sequences are transposons
(b) Insertion sequences range from 5kb to 30kb
(c) Insertion sequences only carry genes for their transposition
(d) Insertion sequences have terminal IR
Explanation: Insertion sequences are very short transposons which range from 768 bp to 5 kb.

39. Which of the following is wrong option?

(a) Transposons have trasposase along with other genes
(b) Transposons lack inverted terminal repeats
(c) Transposons have insertion sequences within it
(d) Class III transposons are called MITES

40. Which of the following is not true about conservative transposition?

(a) It creates direct repeat sequences on either side
(b) It is Copy-Paste mechanism
(c) Transesterification reaction takes place
(d) Class II transposons have this mechanism
Explanation: Conservative or non-replicative transposition acts through cut and paste mechanism. The donor
site loses the transposon which is inserted in the recipient generating direct repeats. It is seen in class II
transposons.

41. Which of the following enzyme is seen in copy-paste method, but not seen in cut-paste transposition?

(a) Resolvase
(b) Strand transfer
(c) Transposase
(d) Synaptic complex

42. choose wrong one about Inversion:

(a) Inverted chromosomes are generally viable
(b) Inversion can cause chromosome breakage
(c) Two DNA strands with an inverted segment will not pair
(d) Inversion including centromere is known as pericentric

43. Consider this sequence A—O—B —C—D—E—F, be a DNA sequence where O is the centromere.
Which of the following will be a pericentric inversion?
(a) A—O—B—D—E—F
(b) B—O—A—D—E—F
(c) D—B—O—A—E—F
(d) A—O—E—D—B—F
Explanation: Pericentric inversion is the inversion that doesn’t involve the centromere. Here in option A
there is no change at all, option B and C are including the centromere. Only option D doesn’t involve the
centromere in the inverted sequence, so it is pericentric.

44. What are the results of pericentric inversion with single crossing over?
(a) Two normal, one dicentric and one acentric chromosome
(b) 2 dicentric and 2 acentric chromosomes
(c) Four normal chromosomes with centriomere in different positions
(d) 3 normal chromosome, one abnormal acentric chromosome
Explanation: Recombination in the paracentric region will take place between only two strands, so the other
two strands will be normal. This recombination will result in one dicentric chromosome and another acentric
chromosome.

45. In drosophila male there is no cross over suppression due to pericentric inversion as:
(a) They have only one set of chromosome
(b) They always have double cross over
(c) They never recombine
(d) They don’t undergo meiosis

46. Which of the following is an example of inversion?

(a) Chromosome 22 and 9
(b) Chromosome 8
(c) Chromosome 14
(d) Chromosome 3
Explanation: In chromosome 3 of human there is duplication-deletion which leads to inversion.
47. In pericentric inversion, the inversion loop involves __________ strands.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

48. Which of the following case of duplication involves more than one chromosome?
(a) Tandem duplication
(b) Reverse tandem duplication
(c) Displaced
(d) Transposed

49. Tandem duplication creates ____________ and reverse tandem creates_____________

(a) Buckling, looping
(b) Hairpin, buckling
(c) Buckling, Hairpin
(d) Loop with turn, hairpin
Explanation: In case of tandem repeat the same sequence in same order is repeated. As parent chromosome
has only one copy of that sequence the daughter bulges out. This, causes buckling. In reverse tandem the
duplication is inverted in sequence which leads to formation of hairpin.

50. Which of the following explains Streisinger’s model?

(a) Transition Frame shifts
(b) Transposition
(c) Inversion
(d) Frame shifts
Explanation: Streisinger’s model explains that the Frame shift mutations are more frequent in repetitive
sequences. This causes duplicative insertion and also at times deletion.

51.

52.
53.
54.

55.
56.

SINGLE GENE DISORDERS

1/ Traits produced by a gene can be either dominant or recessive. A trait is dominant when the trait appears
when only one copy of the gene is present. A trait is recessive when the trait only appears when two copies of
the gene for that trait are present. Which of the following is the term used for people who have only one copy
of an abnormal gene for a recessive trait?

A.Carriers
B.Codominants
C.Non-X-linked inheritors
D.X-linked inheritors
2/ To inherit a recessive disorder, a person usually must receive two abnormal genes, one from each parent. If
both parents have one abnormal and one normal gene, neither parent has the disorder. However, each parent
has a 50% chance of passing the abnormal gene to their children. Which of the following is the likelihood
each child has of inheriting two normal genes?

A.25%

B.50% C.66% D.75%

3/ Human chromosomes contain a long strand of DNA and many genes. With the exception of sperm and
egg cells, how many pairs of chromosomes are contained in each human cell? A. 8 B. 15 C. 23. D. 30

4/

5/
6/
7/

8/
9/

10/
11/

12/
 Câ uhỏiô ntậpTB&SHPTbuổi1
1. Which organelles are found only in plants cells, but not in animals cells?
A. Chloroplasts (lục lạp)
B. Mitochondria (ti thể)
C. Golgi Apparatus (thể golgi)
D. Centrosome (trung thể)
2. How is biology classiEied?
A. Kingdom-Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Tribe-Genus-Species
B. Kingdom-Tribe-Order-Phylum-Class-Family-Genus-Species
C. Phylum-Tribe-Order-Kingdom-Class-Species-Genus-Family
D. Kingdom-Genus-Order-Family-Class-Phylum-Tribe-Species
3. What is the difference between bacteria (vi khuẩn) and microorganisms
(vi sinh vật)?
A. Cells wall (thà nh tế bà o)
B. rRNA
C. Cell membrane (mà ng tế bà o)
D. A and B
4. Kingdom Fungi belong to…
A. Domain Bacteria B. Domain Archaea
C. Domain Eukarya
D. Domain Fungi
5. Basic structure of a bacteria that every bacteria have are:
A. Nucleic acids, Capsid, Envelop
B. Nucleic acids, Capsid
C. Capsid, Envelop
D. Nucleic acids, Envelop
6. Function of peroxisome is
A. Release energy
B. Packaging & shipping station of cell
C. Contain enzymes that digest cellular components.
D. Involved in oxidization of substrates like phenols, formic acid,
formaldehyde, and alcohol
7. Which structrue is part of the endomembrane system (hệ thống nội
mà ng)?
A. Mitochondrion (ti thể)
B. Golgi apparatus (bộ má y golgi)
C. Chloroplast (lục lạp)
 D. Centrosome (trung thể)
8. Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
A. Chloroplast (lục lạp)
B. Central vacuole (khô ng bà o trung tâ m)
C. Mitochondrion (ti thể)
D. Centriole (trung tử)
9. Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell (tế bà o nhâ n sơ)?
A. Mitochondrion (ti thể)
B. Ribosomes
C. Nuclear envelope (vỏ hạt nhâ n)
D. Chloroplast (lục lạp)
10. What is the difference between lysosome and peroxisome?
A. High PH
B. Oxidation of long-chain fatty acid C. Storage and sudden release of
calcium ions
D. Function of enzymes.
11. Which organs are made up of microtubules?
A. Vacuoles (khô ng bà o)
B. Cilia & Flagella (lô ng và roi)
C. Golgi Apparatus (thể golgi)
D. A and C
12.Similarity between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells
A. Plasma membrane
B. Cytoplasm
C. Control center with DNA
D. All are correct
13. The cellular skeleton does’t consists of
A. MicroEilaments (vi sợi)
B. Microtubules (vi ống)
C. Intermediate Eilaments (sợi trung gian)
D. Centrosome (trung thể)
14. Where is the Einal step of cellular respiration takes place?
A. Mitochondria matrix
B. Outer membrane
C. Inner membrane
D. ATP synthase
15. What is the function of the extracellular matrix?
A. Provides mechanical support
 B. Separates different 8ssues
C. Generate signals that maintain cell survival
D. Substrate for cell migra8on
E. All are correct

16. Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane Eluidity?
A. a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids
B. a greater proportion of saturated phospholipids
C. a lower temperature
D. a relatively high protein content in the membrane
17. Which cell would be best for studying lysosomes?
A. Muscle cell
B. Nerve cell
C. Bacterial cell
D. Phagocytic white blood cell
18. According to the Eluid mosaic model of membrane structure, proteins of
the membrane are mostly
A. spread in a continuous layer over the inner and outer surfaces of the
membrane.
B. conEined to the hydrophobic interior of the membrane.
C. embedded in a lipid bilayer.
D. randomly oriented in the membrane, with no Eixed insideoutsidev polarity.
1A 2A 3D 4C 5B 6D 7B 8C 9B 10D 11B 12D 13D 14C 15E 16A 17D 18C
TRẮC NGHIỆM TẾ BÀO-SINH HỌC PHÂN
TỬ
1/Who was the first person to see cells under the microscope and give them a name?

A. Anton van Leewenhoek

B. Robert Hooke
C. Theodor Schwann
D. MaLhias Schiden

2/ Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the cell theory?

A. Cells must contain DNA

B. All living things are made of cells
C. Cells can only com from other cells
D. Cells are the basic unit of life

3/ What do pro8sts, plants, fungi, and animals have in common?

A. Mul8cellar ( đa bào)
B. Eukaryo8c ( sv nhân thực)
C. Prokaryo8c ( sv nhân sơ)
D. Consumers ( sv dị dưỡng)

4/ Which one of the following eukaryo8c cell structures does not contain DNA?

A. A nucleus ( Nhân)
B. A mitochondrion ( ty thể)
C. The endoplasmic re8culum ( lưới nội chất)
D. A chloroplast ( lục lạp)

5/ A centriole is an organelle that is:

A. Present in the center of a cell’s cytoplasm ( tế bào chất)

B. Composed of microtubles (vi ống) and important for organizing the spindle fibers (sợi trục chính)
C. Surround by a membrane ( lớp màng)
D. Part of a chromosome ( nhiễm sắc thể)

6/ Differen8al staining (nhuộm) of bacteria on Gram staining (nhuộm) is due to:

A. Difference in the cell wall layer components of Gram posi8ve and Gram nega8ve bacteria
B. Difference in the cell structure of Gram posi8ve and Gram nega8ve bacteria
C. Difference in mode of nutri8on of Gram posi8ve and Gram nega8ve bacteria
D. Difference in plasma membrane components of Gram posi8ve and Gram nega8ve bacteria

7/ / Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the modern version cell theory?
 A. Enery flow occur within cell
B. Heredity (di truyền) informa8on (DNA) is passed on (truyền) from cell to cell.
C. All cells have the same basic chemical composi8on
D. All living things are made of cells

8/ / Which of the following is NOT one of the cell?

A. Smallest living unit

B. Cell’s size about 1mm-100mm
C. Most are microscopic
D. Vary enormously in appearance and func8on

9/ How many domain (giới) and kingdoms (ngành)?

A. 3&6
B. 4&5
C. 6&5
D. 2&4

10/ What is the different thing between Prokaryo8c cells and Eukayo8c cells ?

A. Plasma membrane (màng tế bào chất) : a surrounding membrane

B. Cytoplasm (tế bào chất) – cell contents in thick fluid (dịch đặc), containing ribosomes
C. Membrane-bound organelles (including nucleus)
D. Control center with DNA

11/ Which of the following is False ?

A. In Bacteria domain, cell walls with pep8doglycan

B. In Archaea domain, cell walls with pep8doglycan
C. In Eukarya domain, at Pro8sta , cell walls of cellulose in some; some have chloroplasts
D. In Eukarya domain, at Fungi, cell walls of chi8n
E. In Eukarya domain, at Plantae, cell walls of cellulose;chloroplasts
F. In Eukarya domain, at Animalia, no cell walls or chloroplasts

12/ Which of the following is Fallse?

A. Both of Bacteria and Archaea domain, unicellular ( đơn bào); Autotroph (tự dưỡng) or Hetertroph
(dị dưỡng)
B. In Eukarya domain, at Pro8sta must get Hetertroph nutri8on (dinh dưỡng )
C. Both Fungi ( nấm) and Animalla , Hetertroph nutri8on
D. Plantae have mode of nutri8on is Autotroph

13/ Edosymbio8c theory is true ?

A. Eukaryotes envoled from prokaryotes

 B. The endosymbio8c theory states that several key organelles of eukaryotes originated as
symbioses between separate pair-celled organisms.

C. For example, mitochondria (8 thể) would have originated as free-living aerobic bacteria (vi
khuẩn hiếu khí sống tự do) and chloroplasts as cyanobacteria (vi khuẩn Lam), which are
photosynthe8c prokaryotes formerly known as blue-green algae (quang hợp).

14/ why VIRUSES are living organisms?

A. They are made of the same molecules as living cells

B. they are incapable (khả năng) of independent existence, completely dependent on a host cell (tế
bào vật chủ) for reproduc8on (sản sinh).
C. Almost all living organisms have viruses that infect them
D. A,B and C correct

Note: Bacterial viruses (viruses kí sinh vi khuẩn) called bacteriophages (thể thực khuẩn), are used by
scien8sts to transfer genes between bacterial strains

15/ Structure of viruses contain the following components:

A. Nucleic acids: DNA or ARN

B. Capsit: made from protein
C. Envelop (màng bao): made from lipids when virus exits cell
D. A,B and C correct

Notes:

No enveloped -> naked

• The en8re intact virus (virus hoàn chỉnh) is called the virion.

• The structure and composi8on (thành phần) of these components (yếu tố) can vary widely.

CELL STRUCTURES AND FUNCTIONS ( IMPORTANT)

Cell membranes include plasma membrane (màng sinh chất) and organelle membranes (màng các bào
quan)

16/ Which of the following is FALSE?

A. defines the boundary (xác định danh giới) of the cell -> vital (thiết yếu) for life
B. regulates (điều hòa) the movement of materials into and out of the cell
C. facilitates (dẫn truyền) signaling (qn hiệu) between cells
D. provide a matrix upon which complex chemical reac8ons can occur (là giá thể để hang loạt các
phản ứng hóa học phức tạp xảy ra) and define the boundaries of organelles

Structure of Plasma Membrane Double

layer of phospholipids & proteins

Phospholipids:

* Polar (phân cực)

– Hydrophylic head (đầu ưa nước)

– Hydrophobic tail (đuôi kị nước) * Interacts (tương tác) with water

17/ which of the following is TRUE?

A. Channels or transporters -> Move molecules ( vc các chất qua màng)

B. Receptors (thụ thể ) ->Recognize certain chemicals
C. Glycoproteins -> Iden8fy cell type (nhận diện loại tế bào : vai trò miễn dịch)
D. Enzymes -> Catalyze (xúc tác) produc8on of substances
E. All of them

Note: Small uncharged molecules can pass through membranes by simple diffusion, but ions cannot

Cytoplasm

Viscous fluid containing organelles

18/ How many components of cytoplasm (tế bào chất)?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 3

19/ How many general kinds of organelles ?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

ORGANELLES BOUNDED BY DOUBLE-MEMBRANE ENVELOPES

20/ How many the major cell organelles ?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 3

Note: -> all enclosed within an envelope consis8ng of two parallel membranes ( 2 parallel phospholipid)

all contain the gene8c material DNA

21/ Nucleoplam (dịch nhân chứa gì) ?

22/ compare func8on of Mitochondria ( 8 thể) and chloroplasts (lục lạp )?

- Mitochondria: release energy

- Chloroplasts: store energy

Similar:

• Have small circular DNA molecules that are similar to the chromosomes of bacteria

• Both contain ribosomes and synthesize a small subset of their own proteins

ORGANELLES BOUNDED BY SINGLE-MEMBRANE ENVELOPES

Gồm: mạng lưới nội chất, peroxisome, lysosomes, thể golgi, không bào

Golgi Apparatus
Func8on:

Packaging & shipping sta8on of cell

Trung thể (Centrosome)

Func8on: forms spinde fibres to seperate chromosomes (thời vô sắc) during cell division

Khung xương tế bào (Cytoskeleton)

• Tạo ra từ các sợi và ống

• Ở eukaryote, có 3 loại sợi:

– Microfilaments (vi sợi)

– Microtubules (vi ống)

– Intermediate filaments (vi sợi trung gian)

Func8ons: – Supports and shapes the cell

– Anchor organelles

– Move substances/organelles

– Help with cell movement (flagella and cilia)

– Help in centrioles forma8on