AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETATIVE EXAMINATIONS

Head Office: E-23, Defence Colony, New Delhi - 110024 Phones : 011-41888030, 41888031

OCCP UNIT TEST-04

Time : 2 hrs
Date : 07/07/2024 M.M. : 480

Topic Covered:
Physics : Electrostatics (Full)
Chemistry : Solution and Electrochemistry
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Biological Classification
Zoology : Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health
INSTRUCTIONS:
() The paper contains 30 objective type questions in each subject. Four alternatives are given for each objective type question out of which
only one is correct. Darken the correct alternative on the given answer-sheet, with pen.
() Objective type questions carry 4 marks each. For each incorrect answer 1 mark will be deducted.
() No student is permitted to leave examination hall before the time is complete.
() Use of calculator is not permitted.
(5) Use of unfair means shall invite cancellation of the test.
(6) Please mention your Name and Roll No. on the OMR Sheet. Otherwise Your Candidature will be cancelled.
PHYSICS
1. The unit of permittivity of free space, 0 is qq 0 qq 0
(3) (4)
(1) coulomb/newton-metre 30 20
(2) coulomb2/newton-metre2 4. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a
(3) newton-metre2/coulomb2 uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder axis.
(4) coulomb2/(newton-metre)2 The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is
2. Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at the given by
points (0, a) and (0, –a) on the y-axis. A charge +Q
(1) 2R 2 E (2) R 2 / E
is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-
axis. The chanrge Q will (3) (R 2  R 2 ) / E (4) zero
(1) execute simple harmonic motion about the 5. The application of Gauss theorem gives rise to an
origin easy calculation of electric field in the case of
(2) move to the origin and remains at rest (1) a charged body of any geometrical
(3) move to infinity configuration
(4) execute oscillatory motion but not simple (2) a charged body of regular geometrical
harmonic motion configuration
3. An infinite number of charges, each of magnitude (3) revolving charged bodies
q, are placed along X-axis at x = 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 (4) charges forming dipoles
m, 16 m and so on but the consecutive charges are 6. Equal charges q are placed at the three corners
of opposite sign starting with +q at x = 1 m. A B,C,D of a square ABCD of side a. The potential at
point charge q0, kept at the origin, experiences a A is
force of magnitude 1 q 3q
(1) . (2)
qq 0 qq 0 40 a 40 a
(1) (2)
40 50 q  1  q 
(3) 2 (4) 1  2 
40 a  
2 40 a 

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 1

7. A hollow spherical conductor of radius R is given a  
charge Q. Work done in moving a charge q from its (1) (2)
0 2 0
centre to surface is
2
Qq Qq (3) (4) zero
(1) (2) 0
4 0 R 2 0 R
Qq 16. A soap bubble is charged to a potential of 16 V. Its
(3) (4) zero radius is now doubled. The potential of bubble will
 0 R
be
8. A charge Q is placed at the centre of a circle of
(1) 16 V (2) 8 V
radius R. The work done in moving a charge q from
A to B so as to complete a semicircle is (3) 4 V (4) 2 V
17. Point charges q = 2C and q = –1C are kept at
1 2
points x = 0 and x = 6 m respectively. Electric
potential will be zero at the points
(1) x = 1 m and x = 5 m
Qq (2) x = 2 m and x = 9 m
(1) zero (2)
4 0 R (3) x = 4 m and x = 12 m
Qq Qq (4) none of the above
(3) (4) 18. When the separation between two charges is
2 0 R 4 0 R 2
increased, the electric potential energy of the
9. In an electron gun, electrons are accelerated
charges
through a potential difference of V volt. Taking
electronic charge and mass to be respectively e and (1) increases
m, the maximum velocity attained by them is (2) decreases
(3) remains the same
2eV 2eV (4) may increase or decrease
(1) (2)
m m 19. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A
(3) 2 m/eV (4) (V2/2em) and B. The electric potential at the points between
10. In bringing an electron towards another electrons, A and B (excluding these points) is studied while
electrostatic potential energy of the system moving from A to B. The potential
(1) decreases (2) increases (1) continuously increases
(3) becomes zero (4) remains same (2) continuously decreases
11. Electric charge q, q and –2q are placed at the (3) first increases and then decreases
corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side L. (4) first decreases and then increases
The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the
system is 20. The electric field at the origin is along the positive
(1) qL (2) 2qL X-axis. A small circle is drawn with the centre at
(3) ( 3)qL (4) 4qL the origin cutting the axes at points A, B, C and D
12. The work done in deflecting a dipole through 180° having coordinates (a, 0), (0, a), (–a, 0) (0, –a)
from field direction is respectively. Out of the points on the periphery of
(1) pE (2) 2pE the circle, the potential is
(3) (1/2)pE (4) zero (1) minimum at A (2) minimum at B
13. At a point on the axial line of an electric dipole (3) minimum at D (4) same at all points
(1) the electric field E is zero
(2) the electric potential V is zero 21. When a charge of 3 coulomb is placed in a uniform
(3) neither E nor V is zero electric field, it experiences a force of 3000 N
(4) both E and V is zero within this field. The potential difference between
14. The electric intensity due to a dipole of length 10 two points, separated by 1 cm in this field, is
cm and having a charge of 500 C, at a point on the
(1) 10 V (2) 1 V
axis 20 cm from one of the charges in air is
(1) 1.28 × 107 N/C (2) 20.5 × 107 N/C (3) 30 V (4) 9 V
(3) 6.25 × 107 N/C (4) 13.1 × 1011 N/C 22. n small drops of the same size are charged to V volt
15. Two thin infinite sheets have uniform surface each. If these coalesce to form a single large drop,
densities of charge + and –. Electric field in the then its potential will be
space between the two sheets is (1) V/n (2) Vn

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 2

 (3) Vn1/3 (4) Vn2/3 10 cm is E. Then the electric field at a distance 5
23. A unit positive charge has to be brought from cm from the centre will be
infinity to a mid-point between two charges, 20 C (1) 16E (2) 4E
and 10C separated by a distance of 50 m. How (3) 2E (4) zero
much work will be required ? 29. Four positive point charges of same magnitude (Q)
(1) 10.8 × 104 J (2) 10.8 × 103 J are placed at four corners of a rigid square frame of
(3) 1.08 × 106 J (4) 0.54 × 105 J side L as shown in figure. The plane of the frame is
24. The electric potential at a point on the axis of an perpendicular to Z-axis. If a negative point charge
electric dipole depends on the distance x of the is released from rest at a distance z away from the
point from the dipole as above frame (z << L), then
(1)  x–1 (2)  x–2
(3)  x0 (4)  x–3
25. A insulated sphere of radius R has a uniform
volume charge density . The electric field at a
point P inside the sphere and distant r from the
centre is (1) Negative charge oscillates along the Z-axis
R r (2) It moves away from the frame
(1) (2)
3 0 3 0 (3) It moves slowly towards the frame and stays in
2 r the plane of the frame
(3) zero (4) 
3 0 (4) It passes through the frame only once
30. Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B
26. The surface integral of an electric field is closely
respectively, which are distance 2 L apart. C is the
related to
mid-point between A and B, as shown in figure.
(1) potential (2) charge
The work done in moving a charge +Q along the
(3) energy (4) force semicircle CRD is
27. The force of attraction between two charges is x R
when their separation is y. If the separation is x,
then the force would be
+q L –q
x2
(1) y (2)
y A C B D
2 2L
y qQ qQ
(3) (4) none of these (1) (2)
x 20 L 60 L
28. The electric field at a point 20 cm from the centre q Q qQ
of a uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of (3) (4)
60 L 40 L
radius

CHEMISTRY
31. The cost of electricity required to deposit 1 g of 33. The charge required for the reduction of 0.4 mol of
Magnesium is Rs. 5.00. How much would it cost to K2Cr2O7 to Cr3+ ions is
deposit 10 g of Aluminium? (Al = 27, Mg = 24)
(1) 0.6 Faraday (2) 2.4 × 96500 C
(1) Rs. 10.00 (2) Rs. 27.00
(3) 6 × 96500 C (4) 12.4 × 96500 F
(3) Rs. 44.44 (4) Rs. 66.67
34. The negative Zn pole of Daniel cell, sending a
32. When lead storage battery is discharged constant current through a circuit, decreases in
(1) SO2 is evolved mass by 0.13 g in 30 minutes. If the chemical
(2) Lead is formed equivalent of Zn and Cu are 32.5 and 31.5
(3) Lead sulphate is formed respectively, the increase in the mass of the
(4) H2SO4 is consumed positive Cu pole in this time is
(1) 0.180 g (2) 0.141 g
(3) 0.126 g (4) 0.242 g
AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 3
35. When during electrolysis of a solution of AgNO3, 43. The standard electrode potentials for the half cell
9650 coulombs of charge pass through the reaction are
electroplating bath, the mass of silver deposited on  Zn2+ + 2e– ; E° = +0.76 V
Zn 
the cathode will be
Fe  Fe2+ + 2e–; E° = +0.41 V
(1) 1.08 g (2) 10.8 g
The EMF of the cell reaction
(3) 21.6 g (4) 108 g
Fe2+ + Zn   Zn2+ + Fe is
36. For the redox reaction
(1) –0.35 V (2) +0.35 V
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (0.1 M)  Zn2+ (1 M) + Cu(s) (3) –1.17 V (4) +1.17 V
o
taking place in a cell, Ecell is 1.10 volt. E cell for 44. The charge required to deposit 9g of Al from a
Al3+ solution (At mass of Al = 27.0 g) is
 RT 
the cell will be  2.303  0.0591 (1) 32166.3 C (2) 96500.0C
 F 
(3) 9650.0C (4) 3216.33 C
(1) 2.14 V (2) 1.80 V 45. In a cell reaction
(3) 1.07 V (4) 0.82 V
 Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s), E°cell
Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) 
37. If a salt bridge is removed from the two half cells;
the voltage = + 0.46V. By doubling the concentration of Cu2+
(1) Drops to zero ions, E°cell is
(2) Does not change (1) doubled
(3) Increases gradually (2) halved
(4) Increases rapidly (3) increased by less than double
38. 1 faraday of electricity will liberate 1 g atom of the (4) unchanged
metal from the solution of 46. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is
(1) NaCl (2) BaCl2 proportional to the ratio between the number of
(1) Solute molecules to solvent molecules
(3) CuSO4 (4) AlCl3
(2) Solute molecules to the total number of
39. Based on the data given below, the correct order of molecules in solution
reducing power is : (3) Solvent molecules to the total number of
Fe3+ (aq) + e 
 Fe2+ (aq); E° = +0.77 V molecules in solution
(4) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions
Al3+ (aq) + 3e 
 Al(s); E ° = -1.66 V in solution
47. 12 g of urea is dissolved in 1 litre of water and
 2Br - (aq);E° = +1.08 V
Br2 (aq) + 2e  68.4g of sucrose is also dissolved in 1 litre of
(1) Br–< Fe2+< Al (2) Fe2+< Al < Br– water. The lowering in the vapour pressure of first
case is
(3) Al < Br–< Fe2+ (4) Al < Fe2+< Br– (1) equal to second
40. The reduction potentials of four metals P, Q, R and (2) greater than second
S are –2.90, + 0.34, + 1.20 and –0.76 respectively. (3) less than second
Reactivity decreases in the order (4) double the second
(1) P > Q > R > S (2) Q > P > R > S 48. Which of the following statements is true?
(3) P > Q > S > P (4) P > S > Q > R (1) The relative lowering in vapour pressure of a
solution is equal to the mole fraction of the
41. A solution of Na2SO4 was electrolysed by using solute.
some inert electrodes. The products at the (2) Passage of solute molecules towards solution
electrodes are : side through semipermeable membrane is
(1) O2, H2 (2) O2, Na osmosis
(3) O2, SO2 (4) O2, S2O8 (3) Boiling point of solution is always lower than
that of the solvent.
42. Which of the following is not a redox reaction ? (4) Boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at
(1) CaCO3 
 CaO + CO2 which its vapour pressure becomes equal to
200 mm.
(2) O2 + 2H2 
 2H2O 49. An elevation in b.p. of a solution of 10g of solute
(3) Na + H2O 
 NaOH + 1/2 H2 (molar mass = 100) in 100 g of water is Tb . The
equllioscopic constant for water is
(4) MnCl3 
 MnCl2 + 1/2 Cl2 (1) 10 (2) 10 Tb
AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 4
 (3) Tb (4) Tb /10 (4) Melting and boiling points
50. The vapour pressure of a solvent decreases by 55. 2.5 litre of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed with a
10 mm mercury when a non-volatile solute is added 3.0 litres of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The molarity of
to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the the resulting solution is
solution is 0.2. What should be the mole fraction of (1) 0.80 M (2) 1.0 M
the solvent if the decrease in vapour pressure is to (3) 0.73 M (4) 0.50 M
be 20 mm mercury? 56. If liquids A and B form an ideal solution
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.6 (1) The free energy of mixing is zero
(3) 0.4 (4) None of these (2) The free energy as well as the entropy of
51. The volume of water to be added to 100 cm3 of mixing are each zero.
0.5 N H2SO4 to get decinormal solution is : (3) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
(4) The entropy of mixing is zero
(1) 100 cm3 (2) 450 cm3
57. The volume of water to be added to N/2 HCl to
(3) 500 cm 3
(4) 400 cm3
prepare 500 cm3 of N/10 solution is
52. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate (1) 45 cm3 (2) 400 cm3
is made upto 250 mL. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH
(3) 450 cm 3
(4) 100 cm3
required to completely neutralise 10 mL of this
solution is 58. A solution of acetone in ethanol
(1) 40 mL (2) 20 mL (1) Obeys Raoult’s law
(3) 10 mL (4) 4 mL (2) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
53. Colligative properties of the solutions are those (3) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
properties which depend on the (4) Behaves like a near ideal solution
(1) Shapes of the particles 59. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water
(2) Nature of the solvent is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is
(3) Nature of the particles only (1) 2.28 mol kg–1 (2) 0.44 mol kg–1
(4) Number of the particles only (3) 1.14 mol kg –1
(4) 3.28 mol kg–1
54. Colligative properties are used for the 60. 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of
determination of water. The vapour pressure of water for this
(1) Molar mass aqueous solution at 100°C is
(2) Equivalent mass (1) 76.00 Torr (2) 752.40 Torr
(3) Arrangement of molecules (3) 759.00 Torr (4) 7.60 Torr

BOTANY
61. A condition when the male and female sex organs 66. When the anther and stigma mature at same time in
mature at different times is called a bisexual flower then the condition is
(1) Dicliny (2) Self sterility (1) Herkogamy (2) Homogamy
(3) Herkogamy (4) Dichogamy (3) Dichogamy (4) Dicliny
62. Pollen grains develop from which one of the 67. Filiform apparatus is associated with
following (1) Synergids (2) Egg nucleus
(1) Parietal cells (2) Sporogenous cells (3) Secondary nucleus (4) Antipodals
(3) Archesporial cells (4) Tapetal cells 68. Cleistogamous flowers are those which
63. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering (1) Open during right
plants and is limited to about 30 genera, mostly (2) Open during day
(1) Dicotyledons (2) Monocotyledons (3) Remain always open
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Never open
64. Lever mechanism of pollination is found in 69. Fertilization with help of pollen tube is called
(1) Ophrys (2) Salvia (1) Zoolodogamy (2) Siphonogamy
(3) Yucca (4) figs (3) Porogamy (4) Mesogamy
65. Mesogamy is commonly seen in which one of the 70. Chirepterophily is seen in which of the following
following (1) Anthocephalus (2) Kigelia pinnata
(1) Casuarina (2) Lily (3) Adansomia (4) All of these
(3) Maize (4) Cucurbits 71. Double fertilization and triple fusion in plants was
discovered by
AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 5
 (1) Strasburger (2) Nawaschin (3) Viola (4) All of these
(3) Amici (4) Winkler 81. Polygonum type of embryo sac is
72. Among the animals, insects, particularly ---- are the (1) Monosporic embryosac
dominant biotic pollinating agents. (2) 7 - celled 8 nucleate
(1) Butterfly (2) Wasp (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Ants (4) Bees (4) None of these
73. Read the following statements 82. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the
A - Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar. (1) Xenogamy (2) Geitonogamy
B - When the flowers are small, a number of (3) Cleistogamy (4) Chasmogamy
flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to 83. Stomium of anther wall is part of
make them conspicuous (1) Epidermis (2) Middle layers
Which one of the following is correct (3) Tapetum (4) Endothecium.
(1) Statement (A) & (B) both are correct 84. Match the following
(2) Statement (A) is correct but (B) is incorrect A. Autogamy i. Hairy y& branched
(3) Statement (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct
Stigma
(4) Both statements(A) & (B) are incorrect
B. Chasmogamous ii. Scutellum
74. Which of these cells is the largest cell in embryo C. Anemophily iii. Xenogamy
sac ?
D. Colytedon iv. Cleistogamy
(1) Antipodals (2) Central cell
(1) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) Megaspore cell (4) None of these
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
75. Which of the following conditions prevents both
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
autogamy and geitonogamy.
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(1) Monoecious (2) Dioecious
85. Exine of the anther is composed of
(3) Dichogamy (4) Homogamy
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Suberin
76. Two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion
take place in an embryo sac the phenomenon is (3) Pecto-cellulose (4) Lignin
termed 86. Pollination by bird is called
(1) Triple fusion (2) Double fertilization (1) Ornithophily (2) Malacophily
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these (3) Anemophily (4) Chiropterophily
77. The most common type of tetrad formed during 87. In case of ceratophyllum pollination is by
micro-gametogenesis in monocot is (1) Hydrophily (2) Hypohydrophily
(1) Linear (2) T - Shaped (3) Epihydrophily (4) Entomophily
(3) Isobilateral (4) Tetrahedral 88. Which one of the following is not a feature of
78. Formation of the primary endosperm nucleus anemophilous flowers
(PEN) involves fusion of (1) Are showy & brightly coloured
(1) Two Male nuclei & One female nuclei (2) Are odourless & nectarless
(2) One female nuclei & One male nuclei (3) Stigma & anthers are exerted
(3) Two female nuclei & One male nuclei (4) stigma are hairy feathery and branched
(4) Two Male nuclei & two female nuclei 89. Flowers which remain closed and help in self
79. Which of the following cells start to degenerate pollination are called
before fertilization (1) Chasmogamous (2) Diclinous
(1) Secondary Nucleus (2) Antipodals (3) Cleistogamous (4) Monoclinous
(3) Synergids (4) Polar nuclei 90. A mature anther is
80. Which of the following plants produce both (1) Bisporangiate (2) Tetrasporangiate
cleistogamous & Chasmogamous flowers (3) Apocarpous (4) Unisporangiate
(1) Oxalis (2) Commelina

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 6

 ZOOLOGY
91. Select the statement which is not correct about i. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
reproductive health ? during first trimester is generally safe
(1) It refers to the halthy reproductive organs with ii. Generally chances of contraception are nil
normal functions until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two
(2) It is an insignificant part of general health and years
a central feature of human development iii. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective
(3) It is a state of complete physical, mental and contraceptives
social well-being iv. Contraceptive pills may be taken upto one
(4) It detals with the reproductive process, week after coitus to prevent conception
functions and system at all stages of life (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
92. In India, “Family-Planning Programme” was started (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
in 98. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
(1) 1947 (2) 1950 transfer of which one of the following into the
(3) 1951 (4) 1955 fallopian tube ?
93. Depo-Provera refers to (1) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell
(1) Implant stage
(2) Oral contraceptive (2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(3) Intra uterine device (3) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(4) Injectable contraceptive (4) Zygote only
94. Which one of the safest method of birth control ? 99. Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
(1) The rhythm method considered safe upto how many weeks of
pregnancy?
(2) Sterilization techniques
(1) Six weeks (2) Eight weeks
(3) Use of physical barriers
(3) Twelve weeks (4) Eighteen weeks
(4) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
100.Saheli, a new oral contraceptive for the females
95. Give below are four methods (A-D) and their mode
of action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select developed by Indian scientists is a
their correct matching from the four options that (1) Steroidal preparation
follow : (2) Hormonal preparation
Method Mode of Action (3) Non-steroidal preparation
A. The pill i. Prevents sperm (4) Toxic preparation to kill sperms
reaching cervix 101.The technique called Gamete Intra-Fallopian
B. Condom ii. Prevents implantation Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
C. Vasectomy iii. Prevents ovulation (1) Who cannot produce an ovum
D. Copper-T iv. Semen contains no (2) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
sperm (3) Who cannot provided suitable environment for
Answer codes : fertilization
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (4) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
passage for the sperms
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 102.The non-medicated IUD is
(1) LNG-20 (2) Copper-T
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) Lipper loop (4) Progestasert
96. Which one is not included in Barrier methods of
birth control ? 103.Which one of the following cannot be considered as
Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) ?
(1) Diaphragms (2) Lippes loop
(1) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
(3) Cervical caps (4) Vaults
97. Consider the statements given below regarding (2) Medical Termination of Prognancy (MTP)
contraception and select correct answer as directed (3) Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
thereafter (4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 7

104.In Assisted Reproductive Technology, the method (2) Implantation of embryo at site other than
in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum uterus.
is called
(3) Implantation of defective embryo in the
(1) GIFT (2) ET uterus.
(3) ZIFT (4) ICSI
105.The test-tube baby programme employs which one (4) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
of the following techniques ? imbalance.
(1) Intra uterine Insemination (IUI) 113. Which of the following events is not associated
(2) Gamete Intra-Fallopian Tranafer (GIFT) with ovulation in human female?
(3) Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
(4) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) (1) Decrease in estradiol
106.The number of autosomes in human primary (2) Full development of Graafian follicle
spermatocyle is (3) release of secondary oocyte
(1) 46 (2) 44
(4) LH surge
(3) 23 (4) 22
107.Which one of the following is not the function of 114. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle
placenta? It is acellular?
(1) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and
waste material from embryo (1) Granulosa (2) Theca interna
(2) Secretes oxytocin during parturition (3) Stroma (4) Zona pellucida
(3) Fecilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to
embryo 115. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only
(4) Secretes estrogen if :
108.Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of (1) the sperms are transported into vagina just
after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin
(2) the ovum and sperms are transported
(3) Progesterone (4) FSH simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic
109.The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and junction of the fallopian tube.
urinary system in the human male is (3) the ovum and sperms are transported
(1) Vas deferens (2) Vasa efferentia simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic
(3) Urethra (4) Ureter junction of the cervix.
(4) the sperms are transported into cervix within
110. Which of these is not an important component of 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
initiation of parturition in humans?
116. Which of the following approaches does not give
(1) Release of oxytocin the defined action of contraceptive ?
(2) Release of prolactin (1) Barrier Prevent fertilization
(3) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio methods

(4) Synthesis of prostaglandins (2) Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis of

devices sperms, suppress sperm
111. Which of the following cells during motility and fertilizing
gametogenesis is normally diploid ? capacity of sperms

(1) Spermatogonia (3) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of

contraceptives sperms, prevent ovulation
(2) Secondary polar body and fertilization
(3) Primary polar body (4) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis
(4) Spermatid
117. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is
112. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as : controlled by circulating levels of :
(1) estrogen and progesterone
(1) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality.
(2) estrogen and inhibin
(3) progesterone only

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 8

 (4) progesterone and inhibin 120.Assertion : In breast, several mammary ducts join
to form a wider mammary ampulla
118. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed
Reason : Mammary ampulla is connected in
due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into laciferous duct through which milk is sucked out
(1) fallopian tube (2) fimbriae (1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
(3) cervix (4) uterus reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
119. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, is not the correct explanation of the assertion
progesterone are produced by (3) If assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
(1) placenta (2) fallopian tube
(3) pituitary (4) ovary

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 9

 ANSWERS – 4 (07/07/2024)

Physics
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2)
6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2)
11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (3) 15. (1)
16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (1) 22. (4) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (2)
26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3)
Chemistry
31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (4)
41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (4)
46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (3) 50. (2)
51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (3)
56. (3) 57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (2)
Botany
61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (2) 64. (2) 65. (4)
66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (2) 75. (2)
76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (4)
81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (4) 85. (1)
86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (1)

Zoology
91. (2) 92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (2) 95. (1)
96. (2) 97. (4) 98. (1) 99. (3) 100. (3)
101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (4) 105. (3)
106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (3) 110. (2)
111. (1) 112. (2) 113. (1) 114. (4) 115. (2)
116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (4) 119. (1) 120. (2)

AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS Page 10