Questions

1. While administering peritoneal dialysis to Mr. Thompson in the dialysis unit,

Nurse Emily notes that the return fluid is draining more slowly than usual.
What is Nurse Emily’s most appropriate immediate course of action to
address the slow drainage of return fluid during Mr. Thompson’s peritoneal
dialysis?

A) Adjust Mr. Thompson’s bed to a reverse Trendelenburg position.

B) Inspect the outflow tubing for any kinks or obstructions.
C) Elevate the drainage bag higher than Mr. Thompson’s abdomen.
D) Request Mr. Thompson to perform a cough.

2. David, a dialysis nurse, is preparing a 54-year-old patient for hemodialysis.

The patient has a functioning arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place. What should
David prioritize to ensure the patency of the AV fistula before initiating
hemodialysis?

A) Apply a warm compress to the AV fistula site.

B) Auscultate the AV fistula for bruit and palpate for thrill.
C) Administer a bolus of saline through the AV fistula.
D) Elevate the extremity with the AV fistula above heart level.

3. Nurse Emily is attending to Lisa, a 30-year-old woman who is undergoing

hemodialysis treatment. Lisa has an internal arteriovenous fistula in her arm
for vascular access. Emily wants to take measures to minimize the risk of
complications associated with the arteriovenous fistula. What action should
Emily take to prevent complications related to this vascular access device?

A. Refrain from measuring blood pressure on the arm containing the

arteriovenous fistula.
B. Establish intravenous lines proximal to the location of the arteriovenous
fistula.
C. Feel for pulses distal to the arteriovenous fistula site.
D. Notify the healthcare provider if a bruit or thrill is detected over the
arteriovenous fistula.

4. Nurse David is overseeing the hemodialysis treatment of a patient when he

notices that she starts to become agitated. She complains of a headache and
mentions feeling nauseous. David needs to identify the likely complication
that could be manifesting. What complication should Nurse David suspect
based on the patient’s symptoms during hemodialysis?

A. Acute hemolysis.
B. Bacterial or viral infection.
C. Entrapment of air in the bloodstream.
D. Disequilibrium syndrome.

5. During a session of hemodialysis, Nurse Alex notices that her patient, Mrs.
Wilson, starts to complain about experiencing muscle cramps. What should
Nurse Alex do immediately to effectively relieve Mrs. Wilson’s muscle
cramps?

A) Urge Mrs. Wilson to perform active range-of-motion exercises.

B) Accelerate the rate of the ongoing hemodialysis treatment.
C) Administer a 5% dextrose solution intravenously.
D) Infuse a normal saline solution intravenously.

6. Nurse Sarah is reviewing the care plan for Mr. Anderson, a patient with
chronic renal failure who is complaining about persistent itching or pruritus.
What instruction should Nurse Sarah include in Mr. Anderson’s teaching plan
to manage this symptom?

A) Maintain short, clean fingernails.

B) Vigorously rub the affected skin areas with a towel.
C) Utilize alcohol-based emollients for skin moisture.
D) Take baths frequently to keep the skin clean.

7. Nurse David is developing a care plan for Ms. Garcia, who has been
diagnosed with renal calculi. What intervention should Nurse David include in
the care plan to best manage Ms. Garcia’s condition?

A) Limit fluid intake to reduce urine output.

B) Advise the patient to maintain complete bed rest.
C) Encourage a diet high in purines.
D) Instruct the patient to strain all urine.

8. An 18-year-old college student is admitted to the hospital presenting with

dark urine, fever, and flank pain. After diagnostic tests, the student is
diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. What health history factor is most
likely to be present in this student’s case?

A) Previous renal trauma.

B) Family history of acute glomerulonephritis.
C) A recent episode of a sore throat.
D) History of renal calculi (kidney stones).

9. Nurse Lauren is caring for a patient, Mr. Patel, who has been admitted with
acute renal calculi and is experiencing significant pain. What type of
medication is generally indicated for the management of pain related to acute
renal calculi?

A) Salicylates
B) Muscle relaxants
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D) Narcotic analgesics

10. Nurse Megan is attending a continuing education seminar on preventing

urinary tract infections (UTIs) in hospitalized patients. The speaker asks the
audience which factor is primarily responsible for the majority of UTIs in
hospitalized settings. What is the most likely answer?

A) Insufficient perineal hygiene.

B) The use of invasive procedures.
C) Immunosuppressed state of the patient.
D) Inadequate fluid intake.

11. Nurse Anthony is on his rounds when he checks on Mrs. Smith, who has
recently been diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. Based on her diagnosis,
which symptoms would Nurse Anthony expect to observe in Mrs. Smith?

A) A burning sensation during urination.

B) Tenderness at the costovertebral angle along with chills.
C) Jaundice and pain in the flank area.
D) Increased frequency of urination and urination at night.

12. Nurse Laura is caring for Mr. Harris, who has been recently diagnosed with
acute glomerulonephritis. Based on the diagnosis, what clinical
manifestations would Nurse Laura expect to see in Mr. Harris?
A) Painful urination and low blood pressure.
B) Increased thirst and frequent urination.
C) Reduced urine output and generalized swelling.
D) Chills and pain in the area between the ribs and hip.

13. While attending to Mrs. Jones, who is currently in the oliguric phase of
renal failure, Nurse Rebecca wonders what level of 24-hour urine output she
should expect to be below for this patient.

A) Less than 400 milliliters.

B) Below 200 milliliters.
C) Under 800 milliliters.
D) Not exceeding 1000 milliliters.

14. Nurse Olivia is conducting an educational session on the early signs of

kidney disease for a group of nursing students. She poses a question: What is
the most frequently observed early sign of kidney disease?

A) Excessive thirst and hunger.

B) Blood in the urine.
C) Proteinuria.
D) Elevated blood pressure.

15. Nurse Ethan is reviewing the medical history of Mrs. Clark, who reports
that she leaks urine whenever she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy items.
Based on this description, what type of urinary incontinence is Mrs. Clark
likely experiencing?

A) Reflex Incontinence.
B) Overflow Incontinence.
C) Urge Incontinence.
D) Stress Incontinence.

16. Nurse Amanda is responsible for caring for Mr. Johnson, who has just
undergone a prostatectomy. What complication requires immediate and
priority assessment in Mr. Johnson’s post-operative care?

A) The onset of deep vein thrombosis symptoms.

B) Signs of hemorrhaging or excessive bleeding.
C) Early indications of pneumonia.
D) Symptoms of urine retention.

17. Nurse William is speaking to a men’s health group about the importance
of screening for prostate cancer. One of the attendees asks him what is the
most indicative diagnostic test for detecting prostate cancer. What should
Nurse William reply?

A) Excretory urography as a diagnostic measure.

B) An in-depth digital rectal examination.
C) The use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
D) Testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels.

18. Nurse Emily is providing education to a 22-year-old patient with diabetic

nephropathy. The patient expresses the belief that since they are young and
have two kidneys, sticking to their insulin schedule will prevent kidney
damage. What is the best response that Nurse Emily should give?

A) “Despite following your insulin schedule, the risk of kidney damage remains
a concern.”
B) “You should consult with your physician; statistics suggest your viewpoint
may be too optimistic.”
C) “Your statement would hold true if diabetes could solely be managed
through insulin.”
D) “As long as your kidneys continue to produce urine, you have minimal
concern.”

19. Nurse Jennifer is preparing discharge instructions for a patient who was
diagnosed with sepsis stemming from a urinary tract infection (UTI). What key
point should Nurse Jennifer include in her patient’s discharge teaching plan?

A) Refrain from using tampons.

B) Abstain from engaging in sexual activity.
C) Consume 8 to 10 eight-ounce glasses of water each day.
D) Take cool baths to manage symptoms.

20. Nurse Zachary is preparing medication education for a patient diagnosed

with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium).
What important information should Nurse Zachary include in the patient’s
medication teaching?
A) “Administer this medication between your meals and at bedtime.”
B) “Avoid this drug if you have a penicillin allergy.”
C) “You must complete this antibiotic course for a total of 7 days.”
D) “Expect your urine to possibly change to a bright orange color.”

21. Nurse Olivia is caring for a 32-year-old patient and is reviewing the
patient’s medical chart. Based on the symptoms exhibited, what would lead
Nurse Olivia to suspect the patient may have acute glomerulonephritis?

A) Symptoms of fever, chills, and pain in the right upper quadrant radiating to
the back.
B) Elevated blood pressure, reduced urine output, and complaints of fatigue.
C) Complaints of back pain accompanied by nausea and vomiting.
D) Symptoms of painful urination, frequent urination, and a sense of urgency.

22. Nurse Anthony is taking care of a patient who has been diagnosed with
end-stage renal disease. What should be the priority nursing diagnosis for this
patient?

A) Excess Fluid Volume.

B) Experience of Pain.
C) Deficit in Patient Knowledge.
D) Intolerance to Physical Activity.

23. Nurse Sarah is caring for a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD)
who has an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. What
intervention should be included in the patient’s plan of care?

A) Keep the left arm completely dry.

B) Apply consistent pressure to the needle insertion site upon ceasing
hemodialysis.
C) Elevate the left arm on an arm board for a minimum of 30 minutes.
D) Maintain the head of the bed at a 45-degree elevation.

24. Nurse Emma is caring for a 60-year-old patient diagnosed with

pyelonephritis and suspected septicemia. The patient has had recurrent UTIs,
is sleep-deprived, and has lost weight due to frequent urination, including at
night. The patient’s lab results indicate sodium levels of 154 mEq/L,
osmolarity at 340 mOsm/L, glucose at 127 mg/dl, and potassium at 3.9
mEq/L. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?
A) Altered Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to the catabolic
effects of insulin deficiency.
B) Altered Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to a
hypermetabolic state.
C) Fluid Volume Deficit related to osmotic diuresis triggered by hyponatremia.
D) Fluid Volume Deficit related to the inability to conserve water.

25. Nurse Laura is assessing a patient suspected of progressing through the

stages of acute renal failure. What sign would indicate to her that the patient
is in the second phase of acute renal failure?

A) Urine production is less than 400 ml per day.

B) A daily urine output that doubles, reaching 4 to 5 liters per day.
C) Stabilization of kidney function.
D) A daily urine output of less than 100 ml.

26. Nurse Brian is reviewing the medical history of several patients admitted
to the general medical floor. Based on their profiles, which patient is at the
greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)?

A) A 28-year-old individual diagnosed with angina.

B) A 35-year-old woman who has a fractured wrist.
C) A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman.
D) A 20-year-old woman diagnosed with asthma.

27. Nurse Emily is caring for a patient who recently underwent surgery to
create an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis. What key information should
Nurse Emily keep in mind when providing care for this patient?

A) Auscultating the fistula with a stethoscope is not advised.

B) The patient should not experience pain during the initiation of dialysis.
C) The patient generally feels at their best immediately following dialysis
treatment.
D) Measuring blood pressure on the arm with the arteriovenous fistula can
lead to clot formation.

28. Nurse Olivia is caring for a patient who has diabetes mellitus and has
recently started hemodialysis due to renal failure. What would be the most
appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient on the days between
dialysis treatments?
A) A low-protein diet with no restrictions on water intake.
B) No dietary restrictions whatsoever.
C) A low-protein diet with a physician-prescribed amount of water intake.
D) A diet devoid of protein, along with the use of a salt substitute.

29. Nurse Jake is monitoring a patient who has just completed their first
session of hemodialysis. Shortly afterward, the patient starts to experience a
headache, elevated blood pressure, restlessness, mental confusion, nausea,
and vomiting. What condition is most likely indicated by these symptoms?

A) Peritonitis
B) Hypervolemia
C) Disequilibrium Syndrome
D) Respiratory Distress

30. Nurse Maya is working on a rehabilitation plan for a patient who has a
neurogenic bladder. Which action should be considered the most critical when
undertaking bladder training for this patient?

A) Promote the practice of Kegel exercises.

B) Advocate for increased fluid intake.
C) Suggest the continued use of an indwelling urinary catheter.
D) Establish designated times for bladder emptying.

31. Nurse Alex is discussing dietary modifications with a patient who has both
diabetes and a longstanding history of multiple renal stones. Now facing
chronic renal failure, which nutritional component needs to be notably
decreased in this patient’s meal plan?

A) Dietary fats
B) Protein sources
C) Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
D) Carbohydrate intake

32. Nurse Emily is responsible for a patient who recently had an arteriovenous
fistula placed for hemodialysis. She knows it’s crucial to regularly assess for
patency. What is the best method for Emily to check the patency of this
arteriovenous fistula?
A) Aspirate blood from the fistula using a needle and syringe.
B) Compress the fistula and observe the rate of refilling upon release.
C) Palpate along the entire length of the fistula for the presence of a thrill.
D) Evaluate capillary refill time in the nail beds of the same arm.

33. Nurse Sarah is caring for a paraplegic patient who has been diagnosed
with renal calculi. Sarah is trying to understand the contributing factors that
led to the formation of these calculi. Which factor is likely to have contributed
to the development of renal calculi in this patient?

A) Elevated fluid consumption.

B) Reduced renal function.
C) Enhanced loss of calcium from the skeletal system.
D) Lowered dietary calcium intake.

34. Nurse John is formulating a care plan for a patient who is in end-stage
renal disease. Among the various aspects of patient care that need to be
addressed, what would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?

A) Nutritional imbalance: insufficient dietary intake.

B) Excess fluid volume.
C) Elevated risk for physical harm.
D) Reduced tolerance for physical activity.

35. Nurse Emily is closely monitoring the cardiac status of a patient with end-
stage renal disease. The cardiac monitor starts showing frequent PVCs
(Premature Ventricular Contractions). What is the priority nursing intervention
for this situation?

A) Administer intravenous lidocaine (Xylocaine) to the patient.

B) Review the most recent laboratory results for the patient’s potassium level.
C) Ready the equipment for potential defibrillation of the patient.
D) Contact the healthcare provider immediately.

36. Nurse Sarah is conducting a follow-up visit in the outpatient clinic for a
patient who recently received a kidney transplant. The patient reports
discovering a lump in her breast. What should Nurse Sarah consider regarding
transplant recipients?
A) At a lower likelihood for developing cancer, thus the lump is probably non-
malignant.
B) At a heightened risk for cancer development because of
immunosuppressive therapy with cyclosporine (Neoral).
C) More prone to tumor formation directly due to the kidney transplant.
D) Overwhelmed with anxiety post the life-altering kidney transplant
experience.

37. Nurse James is crafting a care plan focused on the nursing diagnosis of
“risk for infection” for his patient who has recently undergone a kidney
transplant. What would be an appropriate goal to set for this patient?

A) Resume usual fluid consumption within a 48 to 72-hour timeframe.

B) Maintain a normal body temperature and have cultures that show no
infection.
C) Work toward ceasing the use of cyclosporine (Neoral) as expediently as
safe.
D) Return to regular employment within a period of 2 to 3 weeks post-surgery.

38. You’re caring for a patient who recently underwent a kidney transplant.
You become concerned about the possibility of kidney transplant rejection.
Which symptoms would arouse your suspicion?

A) Elevated body temperature, an increase in weight, and reduced urine

production.
B) Reduced urine production accompanied by low blood pressure.
C) Discomfort at the surgical site, overall feeling of weakness, and signs of
depression.
D) Discomfort at the surgical site, overall malaise, and low blood pressure.

39. Nurse Karen is caring for a patient who has just been wheeled back from
the operating theater following a repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
She’s vigilant for signs of potential complications, particularly acute renal
failure. What symptom should alert Nurse Karen to the possibility of acute
renal failure in this postoperative patient?

A. Oliguria
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Complete absence of urine.
D. Frequent bowel movements.
40. Nurse Anthony is caring for a patient diagnosed with acute renal failure.
He notes that the patient is also experiencing elevated blood pressure levels.
Anthony wants to identify the most prevalent cause of hypertension in the
context of acute renal failure. What is the most common cause of
hypertension in cases of acute renal failure?

A. Low levels of red blood cells.

B. Fluid accumulation in the lungs.
C. Excessive fluid volume in the body.
D. Insufficient fluid volume in the body.

41. Nurse Olivia is monitoring a postoperative patient who has been back
from surgery for six hours. The patient has an indwelling urinary catheter,
which was empty upon return but now shows only 120ml of urine. Olivia
confirms that the drainage system is not obstructed. What is Olivia’s priority
intervention in this situation?

A. Irrigate the urinary catheter with sterile saline or water.

B. Position the patient for shock management and alert the surgical team.
C. Administer a 500ml bolus of isotonic saline solution.
D. Assess the patient’s circulatory status and vital signs.

42. Nurse William is setting up for the urinary catheterization of a patient who
has recently suffered from a traumatic injury. As he gets ready, William
notices that there’s blood present at the opening of the urethra (urethral
meatus). What should be William’s priority action in this situation?

A. Analyze the discharge for hidden blood prior to inserting the catheter.
B. Postpone the catheterization and alert the physician.
C. Thoroughly rinse and clean the urethral opening before proceeding with
catheterization.
D. Generously apply lubrication to the catheter before insertion.

43. Nurse Jane is closely monitoring a patient who has been diagnosed with
nephritic syndrome. Jane is eager to identify any positive indicators that
would suggest her patient is on the path to recovery. What change would
signify that the patient with nephritic syndrome is recovering?

A. Decreased levels of serum albumin.

B. Complete absence of protein in the urine.
C. Elevated levels of lipids in the blood serum.
D. An increase in overall body weight.

44. Nurse Ethan is reviewing the medical histories of two different patients:
one with renal failure and another with prerenal failure. Ethan aims to
differentiate the two conditions based on treatment responsiveness. Which
statement accurately distinguishes prerenal failure from renal failure?

A. In prerenal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels can be lowered through
hemodialysis.
B. In prerenal failure, administering an intravenous infusion of isotonic saline
enhances urine production.
C. In prerenal failure, diuretics like furosemide (Lasix) are less effective in
eliciting a response.
D. In prerenal failure, vasoactive agents such as dopamine (Intropin) elevate
blood pressure levels.

45. Nurse Isabella is working with a patient who may need to transition to
continuous peritoneal dialysis. Before making any recommendations, she
needs to evaluate whether the patient meets certain criteria to be eligible for
this treatment option. What is a required criterion for a patient to be
considered for continuous peritoneal dialysis?

A. Previous attempts at hemodialysis must have been unsuccessful.

B. The patient’s vascular access point needs to be fully healed.
C. The patient must have severe pulmonary edema.
D. The patient needs to have stable hemodynamic parameters.

46. Nurse Laura is preparing a teaching care plan for a patient diagnosed with
cystitis, who is being treated with phenazopyridine (Pyridium). Laura wants to
include essential guidance for the safe and effective use of this medication.
What instruction should Nurse Laura include in the care plan for this patient?

A. Administer phenazopyridine immediately prior to urinating to alleviate

discomfort.
B. Cease taking phenazopyridine as soon as symptoms of painful urination
subside.
C. Stop the course of prescribed antibiotics once the painful urination is
alleviated.
D. Contact the physician if your urine becomes orange-red in color.
47. Nurse Melissa is caring for a patient with renal failure and has orders to
administer Polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). She understands that this
medication has a specific role in managing the complications associated with
renal failure. What is the primary purpose of using Polystyrene sulfonate
(Kayexalate) in patients with renal failure?

A. To swap potassium ions for sodium ions.

B. To counteract constipation resulting from sorbitol usage.
C. To rectify acid-base imbalances.
D. To lower elevated serum phosphate concentrations.

48. Nurse Emily is assessing a patient who presents with intense pain on the
right side of his lower back, nausea, vomiting, and restlessness. The patient
also appears somewhat pale and is sweating. His vital signs are: BP 140/90
mmHg, Pulse 118 beats/min., Respirations 33 breaths/min., and Temperature
98.0°F. Based on the subjective data, which symptom most strongly suggests
the diagnosis of renal calculi (kidney stones)?

A. Vomiting that resembles coffee grounds in color.

B. Pain that extends toward the right upper abdominal area.
C. A history of experiencing mild symptoms of the flu the previous week.
D. Urine that is dark in color and produced in low amounts.

49. Nurse Olivia is caring for a patient who has recently undergone a kidney
transplant. She understands the importance of immunosuppressive therapy to
prevent rejection of the new organ. For how long is immunosuppression
generally continued following a kidney transplantation?

A. Only for one week post-transplant.

B. For the initial 24 hours following the transplant.
C. Indefinitely, for the duration of the patient’s life.
D. Until there are no further signs of kidney rejection.

50. Nurse Anna is evaluating a patient who may be suffering from a urinary
tract infection (UTI). To further confirm the diagnosis, Anna pays close
attention to the patient’s subjective symptoms. Which statement from the
patient would most likely indicate the presence of a UTI?

A. “There’s a sweet odor coming from my urine.”

B. “I experience a burning sensation during urination.”
C. “I can go for long stretches without feeling the need to urinate.”
D. “I’ve been urinating quite frequently.”
Questions
1. Nurse Logan was making her rounds in the nephrology ward, carefully
monitoring the progress of her patients undergoing dialysis. She needed to
explain the intricacies of the renal system to one particularly inquisitive
patient, including the formation of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the
kidney. She phrased her question thus:

“In the kidney’s complex system, juxtaglomerular cells intertwine with which
other cells to create the juxtaglomerular apparatus?”

A. Cells from the renal sinus.

B. Cells from the renal pelvis.
C. Macula densa cells.
D. Nephron cells.

2. While reviewing her notes on renal circulation, nurse Emily contemplates

the journey of a blood cell through the kidney, from the renal artery to the renal
vein. She wonders, which among the following doesn’t belong in this intricate
vascular route?

A. Glomerulus
B. Peritubular capillaries
C. Efferent arteriole
D. Pulmonary artery

3. In the middle of a night shift, Nurse Emma found herself sharing a cup of
coffee with an intern who was studying for his exams. To test his
understanding of renal anatomy, she posed a question:

“What type of tissue forms the composition of the renal medulla in our
kidneys?”

A. The renal pelvis.

B. Nephrons
C. Renal pyramids.
D. The renal sinus.
4. During a health promotion event, Nurse Liam was explaining kidney
function to a group of high school students. To illustrate the topic of urine
composition, he posed an intriguing question:

“Out of these substances, which one do you think is present in the highest
concentration in our urine?”

A. Urea
B. Uric acid
C. Creatinine
D. Glucose

5. While working in the nephrology clinic, Nurse Harper decided to quiz a

medical student on renal physiology. She pointed towards a model of the
nephron and asked:

“What is the key role performed by the ascending loop of Henle within the
kidneys?”

A. It actively reabsorbs sodium.

B. It passively reabsorbs potassium.
C. It passively reabsorbs urea.
D. It actively reabsorbs nitrates.

6. In the urology department, Nurse Maddison was helping a patient

understand the structure of the urinary bladder in preparation for an upcoming
procedure. She crafted her question in a clear and concise manner:

“What is the term for the middle layer found in the urinary bladder?”

A. Muscular Coat
B. Submucous Coat
C. Sphincter Coat
D. Mucous Coat

7. During a patient’s check-up in the urology clinic, Nurse Anderson was

explaining the micturition process, which sparked a conversation about the
neural control of urination. He posed a question to clarify:

“Can you tell me where the micturition reflex center is located in our bodies?”
A. Lumbar plexus
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Sacral plexus

8. In a community health seminar about kidney health, Nurse Spencer had

been explaining various terms related to urinary output. He posed a question
to engage the audience:

“Could you tell me which term corresponds to the condition characterized by a

low production of urine?”

A. Enuresis
B. Diuresis
C. Oliguria
D. Pyuria

9. While guiding a group of nursing students through the nephrology ward,

Nurse Reed used a diagram of a nephron to illustrate the various renal
functions. As part of her lesson, she asked:

“What’s the main function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney?”

A. The secretion of potassium ions.

B. The reabsorption of water by osmosis.
C. The reabsorption of sodium ions.
D. The secretion of hydrogen ions.

10. In the middle of her shift in the nephrology department, Nurse Ava decided
to challenge a medical intern on his knowledge of renal microanatomy. She
asked:

“The capillary loops found within the medulla of the kidney are referred to as
what?”

A. Trigone
B. Urea collectors
C. Macula densa
D. Vasa recta
11. During a health teaching session about male urinary anatomy in a men’s
health clinic, Nurse Jason posed a question to the group to gauge their
understanding:

“Which of the following is not considered a segment of the male urethra?”

A. Penile
B. Membranous
C. Vasapore
D. Prostatic

12. In a diabetes education seminar, Nurse Grace was explaining the impact
of high blood sugar levels on kidney function. She posed a question to her
audience to highlight one possible outcome:

“When glucose is detected in the urine, what is this condition called?”

A. Glucose intolerance
B. Uremia
C. Glucosuria
D. Ureteritis

13. During a busy afternoon shift, nurse Callum carefully reviews the
medications for his patient suffering from fluid overload. He examines the list
of prescribed drugs and wonders: which one among these is not a loop
diuretic?

A. The reliable Furosemide (LASIX).

B. The potent Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN).
C. The mild Chlorothiazide (DIURIL).
D. The compact Bumetanide (BUMEX).

14. Late into the night, nurse Aurora is immersed in her studies, exploring the
intricacies of renal function. She ponders over the role of the distal convoluted
tubule in the kidneys. Is it responsible for:

A. Production of urine through filtration.

B. Reabsorption of water and sodium ions.
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
D. Breaking down food into nutrients.
15. In the heart of a busy ICU, nurse Grace is caring for a patient with
electrolyte imbalance. While adjusting the IV fluid rate, she reflects on the
impact of ADH on the distal convoluted tubule. Does it:

A. Reduce water reabsorption.

B. Lower the concentration of urine.
C. Heighten water reabsorption.
D. Expand the urine volume.

16. In the calm of the early morning, nurse Rafael is preparing for a lecture on
renal physiology to the nursing students. As he sips his coffee, he reflects on
a query related to the multifaceted role of the kidneys. Which function is not
attributed to them?

A. The discharge of renin, a significant enzyme.

B. The emission of Vitamin E.
C. The activation of Vitamin D.
D. The production of erythropoietin, a crucial hormone.

17. Nurse Amelia, renowned for her expertise in urology, is discussing kidney
stones with her patient. In the middle of their conversation, she reflects on the
composition of these troublesome deposits. Which substance isn’t typically
found in kidney stones?

A. The stubborn Uric Acid.

B. The notorious Calcium oxalate.
C. The modest HCO3.
D. The persistent Calcium phosphate.

18. Amidst the busy telemetry unit, nurse Elliot is caring for a patient with
hypertension. As he monitors the patient’s blood pressure, he recalls the
impact of Angiotensin II release. What does this potent hormone trigger?

A. The drop in glomerular hydrostatic pressure.

B. The surge in filtration rate.
C. The boost in Vitamin E synthesis.
D. The heightened release of erythropoietin.
19. In a quiet corner of the hospital’s pharmacy, nurse Lucas reviews a
patient’s prescription. He considers the effects of a diuretic medication that
the patient is prescribed. What is a likely consequence of this drug?

A. Augmentation in sodium reabsorption.

B. Reduction in Cardiac Output.
C. Amplification of chloride ion reabsorption.
D. Surge in fluid volume.

20. During her anatomy and physiology lecture, nurse Zoey marvels at the
incredible complexity of the human body. She ponders about the kidneys,
specifically, how many nephrons, the working units, each kidney
approximately houses. Is it:

A. 100,000
B. 10,000
C. 10 million
D. 1 million