On the provided ANSWER SHEET, SHADE the
"Hilots
circle that corresponds to the letter of the correct
answer. Absolutely no ERASURES.
1. Refers to lifesaving services for emergency
maternal and newborn conditions/complications as
in Basic Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care
plus the provision of surgical delivery and blood
bank services and other specialized obstetric
interventions.
a. MNCHN
b. BeMONC
c. CeMONC
d. ILHZ
2. For geographically isolated disadvantaged areas
densely populated areas, the designated BeMONC
facilities are the following:
1) Rural Health Unit
2) Lying-in Clinics
3) Barangay Health Station
4) Birthing Homes
a. 1&2
b. 3&4
c. 1,2,3
d. 1,2,3,4
3. It applies specific policies and actions for local
health systems to systematically address health
risks that lead to maternal and especially neonatal
deaths which comprise half of the reported infant
mortalities.
a. MNCHN
b. BeMONC
c. CEMONC
d, ILHZ
4. Refers to one of the disorders detected in
Newbom Screening that is known as the most
common cause of mental retardation. Most affected
infants may look normal at birth. However, they
may have large fontanels and tongues, big tummies
and prolonged yellowish discoloration of the skin
and eyes.
a. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
b. Congenital Hypothyroidism
c. Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency
d. Phenylketonuria
5. A Home Delivery is for normal pregnancies
attended by licensed health personnel. When, at
the time of delivery, the health personnel are not
available or the client is in the area where there are
no health personnel on maternal care, may be
allowed to attend home deliveries only in the
following circumstances Group Leaders
a.
b. Trained "Hilots
c. Group Leaders
d. None of these
6. The following pregnant women are qualified for
home delivery, EXCEPT:
a. Cephalic position
b. Imminent deliveries
c. >5 pregnancies
d. Full term
7. According to UNICEF, complications in childbirth
are brought by the following preventable conditions,
EXCEPT:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Hypertension
c. Asepsis
d. Abortive outcomes
8. Which of the following is an example of the
health restoration phase of health care?
a. Encourage prenatal care, the importance of
safeguarding homes by childproofing it sim
poisoning
b. Family planting, teach the importance of safe sex
practice, the importance of immunizations
c. Care of the child during illness, care of the
woman during pregnancy complications
d. Encourage continuous therapies and
medications
9. All of the following are scope of maternal and
child health nursing practice, EXCEPT
a. Care in different hospital and home care settings
b. Health care during preconception
c. Care of worsen during puerperium
d. Care of individuals during adulthood.
10. LDRP (Labor- -Delivery-Recovery-Postpartum)
Room is one of the alternative settings and styles
for health care Which of the following is a
description of LDRP
a. Retail Clinics or Emergent Care Clinics located in
shopping malls.
b. Ambulatory Clinics home to avoid long hospital
stays for women and children.
c. Women giving birth without health care provider
supervision, unassisted birth.
d. Family members are invited to stay to be a part
of childbirth.
11. This refers to the number of deaths per 1.000 c. Vulvodynia
live births that occur as a direct result of the d. Vaginismus
reproductive process
16. Whereas, this type of sexual pain disorder is
a. Perinatal Death Rate characterized by involuntary spasms of the vaginal
b. Neonatal Death Rate wall muscles.
c. Maternal Mortality Rate
d. Infant Mortality Rate a Vulvar Vestibulitis
b. Dyspareunia
12. Sexual dysfunction refers to which of the c. Vulvodynia
following difficulties experienced by an individual or d. Vaginismus
couple during any stage of normal sexual activity?
17. Which of the following statement is true about
a. Physical Pleasure psychological erectile dysfunction?
b. Desire
c. Arousal a. Continual or severe damage to the Nervi
d. All of these Erigentes which prevents or delays erection.

13. Previously known as frigidity in women, it has b. Diabetes as well as cardiovascular diseases
now been replaced with a number of terms simply decrease blood flow to the tissue in the
describing specific problems that can be broken penis,
down into which of the following four categories
c. Multiple sclerosis, kidney failure, vascular
1) Lack of ovulation disease, and spinal cord injury are the other source
2) Pain during intercourse of erectile dysfunction.
3) Lack of arousal
4) Lack of erection d. Can be helped by anything that patient believes
5) Lack of orgasm in; there is a very strong 'placebo effect.
6) Lack of desire
18. Post-orgasmic diseases cause symptoms
a. 1,2,3,4 shortly after orgasm or ejaculation. One of its
b. 3,4,5,6 classifications is Dhat Syndrome or Culture-Bound
c. 2,3,5,6 Syndrome which is characterized by:
d. 1.3.5.6
a. An anxious and dysphoric mood after sex in men
14. All of the following statements are true about but is distinct from the low-mood and concentration
sexual desire disorders, EXCEPT: problems (acute aphasia).

a. A sexual dysfunction characterized by the b. A severe muscle pain throughout the body, and
inability to develop or maintain an erection of the other symptoms immediately following ejaculation
penis. in men

b. Characterized by lack or absence, for some
period of time, of sexual desire or libido for sexual
activity. causes vary considerably but include a
possible
c. The decrease in the production of normal
estrogen in women or testosterone in both men and
women.
d. Other causes may be aging, fatigue, pregnancy.
medications, or psychiatric conditions, such as
depression and anxiety.
15. Refers to a sexual pain disorder that is caused
by insufficient lubrication in women as a result of
insufficient excitement and stimulation, or hormonal
changes caused by menopause, pregnancy, or
breastfeeding.
a. Vulvar Vestibulitis
b. Dyspareunia
c. A pain that occurs in the skull & neck during
sexual activity, including masturbation, arousal, or
orgasm.
d. A feeling of melancholy and anxiety after sexual
intercourse that lasts for up to two hours.
19. Which of the following best describes the
emotional causes of sexual disorders?
a. Physiological changes in women that affect the
reproductive system; premenstrual syndrome,
pregnancy and the postpartum period, and
menopause can have an adverse effect on libido.
b. Injuries to the hack may also impact sexual
activity, as can problems with an enlarged prostate
gland, problems with blood supply, or nerve
damage.
c. Interpersonal or psychological problems, which
can be the result of depression, sexual fears or
guilt, past sexual trauma, and sexual disorders.
d. Use of drugs, such as alcohol, nicotine,
narcotics, stimulants, anti-hypertensives,
antihistamines, and some psychotherapeutic drugs.
20. Intracavernous Pharmacotherapy is considered
as one of the treatments for sexual arousal
disorders in men, which involves:
a. The application of topical estrogen creams and
gels to the vulvar or vaginal area to treat
vaginismus and atrophy.
b. Injecting a vasodilator drug directly into the order
to stimulate an erection.
c. Flibanserin, pain relievers, desensitizing vaginal
lubricants.
d. Viagra, Cialis, and Levitra have become first-line
of therapy.
21. Refers to the abnormalities that are likely to be
present but not detected by current methods.
a. Primary Infertility
b. Secondary Infertility
c. Unexplained Infertility
d. None of these
22. Emotional stress and marital difficulties are
greater in couples where infertility lies with:
a. The couple
b. The woman
c. The man
d. All of these
23. If conservative medical treatments fail to
achieve full term pregnancy, the physician may
suggest:
a. Fertility Medication
b. Conception Cap
c. Intrauterine Insemination
d. Assisted Reproductive Technology
24. In Immune Infertility in both men and women,
Antisperm Antibody (ASA) production is directed
against surface antigens on sperm, which:
1) Interfere with sperm motility and transport
through the female reproductive tract.
2) Inhibit capacitation and acrosome reaction.
3) Impaired fertilization influence on the
implantation process.
3) Impaired growth and development of the
embryo.
a. 2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 1,3,4
d. 1,2,3,4
25. Under Alimentary Habits, BMI may be a
significant factor in fertility, both the increase and
decrease in BMI in the male can be associated with
infertility by:
a. Decreasing sperm concentration
b. Decreasing sperm motility
c. Increasing DNA damage in sperm
d. All of these
26. Primary infertility is described as the following.
EXCEPT:
a. The absence of live birth for women who desire a
child and have been in a union for at least 12
months since their last live birth, during which they
did not use any contraceptives.
b. The absence of live birth for women who desire a
child and have been in a union for at least 12
months, during which they have not used any
contraceptives.
c. Women whose pregnancy spontaneously
miscarries, or whose pregnancy results in a
stillborn child, without ever having had a live birth.
27. Which among the following Sexually
Transmitted Infections can also cause infertility due
to internal scarring?
1) Syphilis
2) HIV
3) Chlamydia Trachomatis
4) Neisseria Gonorrhea
a. 1,3
b. 1,2,4
c. 2.4
d. 1,2,3,4
28. Toxins such as glue, volatile organic solvents or
silicones, physical agents, chemical dusts,
pesticides, and tobacco are under what factor that
more likely to cause infertility?
a. General Factors
b. Hypothalamic-Pituitary Factors
c. Environmental Factors
d. Psychological Factors
29. One of the psychological effects of infertility is
women who are trying to conceive often have
depression rates similar to women who have
1) Cardiovascular Disease
2) Hypertension
3) Cancer
4) Diabetes
a.1,3
b. 2,4
c. 1,2,4
d. 1,2,3,4
30. Spermatogonial Stem Cells Transplant takes
place in which of the following structure of the male
reproductive system?
a. Prostate Gland
b. Vas Deferens
c. Seminiferous tubule
d. Testicle
31. Which among the following procedures is the
most commonly used ART technique
a. Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection
b. In Vitro Fertilization
c. Tuboplasty
d. All of these
32. Endometriosis can cause infertility with the
growth of endometrial tissue in the Fallopian tubes
or a ovaries that can lead to:
a. Blockage of the Fallopian tube
b. Inability to ovulate
c. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
d. All of these
33. If sperms are of good quality and the
mechanics of the woman's reproductive structures
are good (patent fallopian tubes, no adhesions of
scarring), what medical treatment may be used?
a. Fertility Medication
b. Conception Cap
c. intrauterine Insemination
d. Ovulation induction
34. All of the following statement are true about
hyperemesis gravidarum, EXCEPT:
a. A pregnancy complication that is characterized
by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and
possible dehydration.
b. Often symptoms get better after the 20th week of
pregnancy but may last the entire pregnancy
duration.
c. Results from too much production of the tissue
that is supposed to develop into the placenta.
d. Considered more severe than morning sickness.
35. Which among the following statement is NOT
TRUE about Placenta Previa?
a. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding which
commonly occurs around 32 weeks of gestation but
can be as early as late mid-trimester.
b. Women may also present as a case of failure of
engagement of fetal head.
c. Enlarged uterus disproportionate to the
gestational age of the fetus.
d. Bleeding after delivery occurs in about 22% of
those affected.
36. All of the following statement are true about
blighted ovum, EXCEPT:
a. It may occur due to abnormal cell division.
Regardless, your body stops the pregnancy
because it recognizes this abnormality.
b. Miscarriages from a blighted ovum are often due
to problems with chromosomes, the structures that
carry genes
c. Occurs when a fertilized egg implants in the
uterus but does not develop into an embryo.
d. Referred to as an Anembryonic pregnancy and
for most women, it recurs frequently.
37. However, this condition is usually defined as
having a blood pressure higher than 140/90
measured on two separate occasions, more than 6
hours apart, without the presence of protein in the
urine and diagnosed after 20. weeks of gestation.
a. Gestational Hypertension
b. Eclampsia
c. Pre-eclampsia
d. All of these
38. Premature rupture of membrane is a breakage
of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor, if it
occurs before 37 weeks it is known as what type of
PROM?
a. Prolonged
b. Preterm
c. Mid-Trimester
d. Pre-Viable
39. Complications of PROM in the baby may
include the following, EXCEPT-
a. Premature birth
b. Postpartum Endometritis
c. Cord compression
d. Infection
40. Refers to the type of diagnostic test for PROM
wherein a collection of amniotic fluid can be seen in
the back of the vagina (vaginal fornix).
a. Pooling test 46. Which among the following prenatal risk factors
b. Nitrazine test DOES NOT increase the risk of CPD?
c. Fem test
d. History a. Mother is underweight
b. Mother is overweight
41. While in this type of diagnostic test, a person c. Pre-eclampsia
with PROM typically recalls a sudden "gush" of fluid d. Above 35 years old
loss from the vagina, or steady loss of small
amounts of fluid. 47. Severe headache, dizziness, blurring of vision,
and spots before the eyes are danger signs of
a. Pooling test which of the following gestational conditions?
b. Nitrazine test
c. Fern test a. IUFD
d. History b. HPN
CUTI
42. Abruptio placenta is a gestational condition CVD
wherein the placenta separates before childbirth It
occurs most commonly around how many weeks of 48. Sudden escape of fluid from the vagina means
pregnancy? that the membranes have ruptured. Both the
mother and the fetus are threatened because:
a. 19 weeks
b. 20 weeks a. If fetus is small and head does not fit into cervix,
c. 24 weeks umbilical cord may prolapse.
d. 25 weeks b. The uterine cavity is no longer sealed against
infection.
43. Refers to the bacterial infection of the fetal c. It depletes the nutritional supply available to the
membranes, which can be life-threatening to both fetus.
mother and fetus. d. All of the above

a. Endometritis 49. A crampy pain, low abdominal, early in

b. Endometriosis pregnancy, with or without bleeding, is a
c. Chorioamnionitis characteristic of the following, Except:
d. None of these
a. Ectopic Pregnancy
44. This is a condition wherein tonic-clonic seizures b. Abortion
appear in a pregnant woman with high blood c. Abruptio Placenta
pressure and proteinuria. d. Placenta Previa

a. Gestational Hypertension 50. The iron needs of pregnancy are obtained from
b. Eclampsia the following EXCEPT:
c. Pre-eclampsia
d. All of these a. Maternal Iron Stores
b. Iron-Rich Diet
45. Pregnant women who are aged 15 years old c. Iron Deficiency Anemia
and below are considered high risk because of the d. Iron Supplementation
following reasons, EXCEPT:
51. Which of the following preexisting medical
a. Abnormalities in labor such as C/S pre- conditions of a pregnant woman may result to
eclampsia, and increased risk of congenital infertility?
abnormalities and chromosomal aberrations.
a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. At risk of having adverse health outcomes since b. Hypertension
the reproductive system is not yet fully matured. c. Thyroid disease
d. Cardiac disease
c. Poor antenatal care and increased risk of 52. Whereas, a sudden sharp, severe, low
developing pre-eclampsia, increased risk for CPD. quadrant unilateral, radiating to the shoulder is a
characteristic of:
d. Fetal implications include: LBW, Increased risk
for fetal demise. a. Ectopic Pregnancy
b. Abortion
c. Abruptio Placenta
d. Placenta Previa
53. First trimester bleeding is mostly related to
abortion, whereas third trimester bleeding is
associated to;
a. PROM
b. Implantation
c. Infection
d. Placenta Previa
54. Perinatal addiction may lead to Neonatal
Abstinence Syndrome wherein drug addicted
neonates experience withdrawal syndromes with
the following signs and symptoms, EXCEPT:
1) Feeding problems
2) Poor coordination
3) Hyperactivity
4) Tremors
5) Increased sensitivity to noise, or other stimuli
6) Excessive crying and irritability
a. 1,2,3,4,5,6
b. 2,3,4,5.6
c. 1,2,3,5,6
d. 1,2,4,5,6
55. Swelling of the hands, face, legs and feet is a
sign of generalized edema and is often associated
with pre-eclampsia. This swelling is usually noted
as:
a. "Tightening of the wedding ring"
b. "Tightening of the shoes"
c. "Cramping of the legs"
d. "Square face"
56. Which of the following is the initial action of the
nurse when umbilical cord prolapsed occurs?
a. Monitor maternal vital signs
b. Place the client in knee-chest position
c. Notify physician and prepare client for delivery.
d. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the
exposed cord.
57. In this condition, the fetus cannot descend
through the pelvis because of the presence of an
unsurmountable barrier despite the strong
contractions.
a. Abnormal labor patterns
b. Prolapsed umbilical cord
c. Obstructed labor
d. Abnormal dilatation
58. Inlet contracture occurs:
a. When the sum of the interspinous and posterior
sagittal diameters of the mid pelvis is <13.5 cm.
b. When anteroposterior diameter is >10 cm,
greatest transverse diameter that is >12 cm, or
diagonal conjugate is >11.5 cm.
c. When the bi-ischial diameter (distance between
ischial tuberosities) is < 11 cm.
d. When the fetus is able to engage.
59. When the membranes rupture before the fetal
head is engaged, the nurse should monitor the
client for:
a. Prolonged labor
b. Cord prolapsed
c. Placenta previa
d. Contracted pelvis
60. Which of the following causes of obstructed
labor shows small pelvis for fetus or large fetus for
the pelvis?
a. Abnormal presentation
b. Fetal abnormalities
c. Reproductive tract abnormalities
d. Cephalo-pelvic Disproportion
61. Which of the following statements is NOT true
about shoulder dystocia?
a. It usually happens when baby is too large and
pelvis is too small.
b. It occurs with equal frequency in primi and
multigravida.
c. It occurs when there is narrowing in one or more
important diameters of the pelvis.
d. It is diagnosed only during delivery.
62. Which of the following maneuvers is utilized
when you roll the patient onto her hand and knees
or the "ALL FOURS" position to increase pelvic
diameter?
a. Gaskin
b. Mc Robert's
c. Leopold's
d. Zavanelli
63. Which of the following actions should you
perform when assisting a client in labor with slight
shoulder dystocia?
a. Apply fundal pressure.
b. Prepare for an assisted forceps delivery
c. Obtain an order for Oxytocin infusion.
d. Flex client's legs sharply over her abdomen.
64. On admission, the nurse anticipates Caesarian
Section for one of the following clients:
a. G2P2 client at 40 weeks gestation with hypotonic
contractions.
b. Shoulder presentation on a G4P3 client.
c. Primipara at 4 cm dilatation, station 0
d. Primipara with fetus in LOP position.
65. Inadequate voluntary expulsive forces of a
client during delivery means:
a. Bearing down efforts of the mother is not
adequate to generate sufficient intra-abdominal
pressure to propel the uterus.
b. Contractions may still continue or stop but no
progress in cervical dilatation will be observed.
c. Weak and infrequent contractions which are
insufficient to dilate the cervix.
d. All of the above.
SITUATION: Nurse Sam is assigned to Mrs. Smith,
a patient who is diagnosed with uterine dysfunction.
Questions number 66 to 69 pertain to this case.
66. Mrs. Smith experiences weak uterine
contractions. According to her she does not feel
pain at all. This order of labor is termed as:
a. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction
b. Protraction disorder
c. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction
d. Arrest disorder
67. Nurse Sam expects to see an order of which of
the following medications to address Mrs. Smith's
situation?
a. Morphine Sulfate
b. Nubain
c. Oxytocin
d. Methergen
68. Mrs. Smith's type of dysfunction is usually
encountered during the:
a. Latent phase of labor
b. Transitional phase of labor
c. Active Phase of labor
d. Second stage of labor
69. While monitoring the FIII nurse Sam observed
variable deceleration, her immediate action would
he:
a. Change client's position
b. Administer oxygen mask
c. Increase IVF
d. Check FHT
70. The priority intervention for a client
experiencing hypertonic uterine dysfunction is:
a. Offer the client fluid frequently to prevent
dehydration.
b. Assist client to void every 1-2 hours
c. Encourage the client to walk around.
d. Provide pain relief measures.
71. To prevent development of infections, one of
the interventions is to limit the frequency of internal
examination from an every-hour basis to every four
hours. This is due to the fact that the normal
cervical dilatation for a nulliparous woman is:
a. 1.2 cm/hour
b. 1 cm/hour
c. 1.3 cm/hour
d. 1.5 cm/bour
72. It is a horizontal indention running across the
abdomen or division of the two uterine segments
that become very prominent which was caused by
the continuous traction of the upper segment and
the over distention of the lower uterine segment.
a. Physiologic retraction ring
b. Linea Negra
c. Bandl's ring
d. Abdominal quadrants
73. A patient experiences a sudden excruciating
pain at the peak of a contraction, and then
contractions stop altogether. This condition may be
an indication of
a. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction
b. Complete uterine rupture
c. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction
d. Incomplete uterine rupture
74. Anticipatory guidance for prevention of
precipitate labor and delivery includes the following,
EXCEPT:
a. If accelerated labor pattern occurs during
Oxytocin administration, stop infusion right away.
b. Warn women with history of precipitate labor and
delivery may happen again.
c. Inform multiparous women that succeeding
labors are usually shorter.
d. Adequate prenatal care for early detection of risk
conditions.
75. All of the following are considered management
for poor cervical dilatation in a prolonged latent
phase, EXCEPT:
a. CS if after 8 hrs, induction, cervical dilatation has
not progressed more than 4 cm
b. Oxytocin stimulation if without cephalo-pelvic
disproportion
c. Monitor feto-maternal well-being and POL
d. Amniotomy to rupture intact membranes
76. It refers to the tearing of uterine muscles which a. Uterine Inversion
occurs when the uterus can no longer withstand the b. Uterine Rupture
strain. It is rare but often a fatal complication of c. Uterine Atony
labor. d. Uterine Dysfunction

a. Laceration 82. Which of the following causes uterine

b. Episiotomy
c. Uterine rupture
d. Uterine prolapse
77. Upon performance of Leopold's Maneuver, the
nurse palpated that the fetal head and buttocks of
the fetus occupy the sides of the uterus. This is an
indication that the fetus is in:
inversion?
1) Pulling of the umbilical cord or applying pressure
on uncontracted uterus.
2) Uterine relaxation due to the effects of
anesthesia or analgesia.
3) Sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure
(coughing, sneezing, straining).

a. Breech presentation a. 1,3,4

b. Brow presentation b. 1,2,3
c. Face presentation c. 1,2,3,4
d. Shoulder presentation d. 1,2,4

78. Refers to condition wherein fetus is lying 83. Which among the following vital signs are
longitudinally, but presents in any manner other significant in monitoring concealed hemorrhage
than vertex. when external bleeding is absent?

a. Abnormal lie a. Temperature and pulse rate

b. Malposition b. Respiratory rate and blood pressure
c. Malpresentation c. Pulse and respiratory rate
d. Normal lie d. Blood pressure and pulse rate

79. Which of the following is the description of
placenta acreta?
a. The placenta invades the full thickness of the
uterine wall and possibly other pelvic structures,
most frequently the bladder.
84. External Cephalic Version (ECV) is attempted if:
a. There are no contraindications
b. Vaginal delivery is possible
c. Breech presentation is present at after
d. All of the above

b. The placenta adheres to the myometrium without
invasion into the muscle.
c. The placenta adheres into the myometrium
d. The placenta adheres into the endometrium
80. If the HELPERR maneuvers are unsuccessful,
the following interventions are considered by the
physician:
85. Upon performance of Leopold's Maneuver
#2 (Lateral palpation), the nurse felt the smooth
resistant plane and monitored the FHT on the left
upper quadrant of the mother's abdomen. This is an
indication that the fetus in:
a. Breech presentation
b. Brow presentation
c. Face presentation
d. Shoulder presentation

1) Deliberate clavicle fracture 86. If the placenta of the client is still attached
2) Zavanelli maneuver during uterine inversion, which of the following
3) General anesthesia. management is not appropriate?
4) Symphysiotomy
a. Replace the uterus manually in the uterine cavity
a. 1,2,3,4 then administer oxytocin to promote contraction.
b. 1,3,4
c. 1,2,4 b. Do not attempt to remove placenta, doing so will
d. 1,4 only enlarge the bleeding area.

81. While monitoring the progress of labor, the
patient complained of a sudden excruciating pain at
the peak of a contraction, and then the contractions
stop altogether. The nurse understands that the
patient is experiencing a possible:
c. Do not administer oxytocin before uterus it will be
tenser and more difficult to replaced, it replace.
d. Delivered the placenta when uterus is already
replaced and contracting.
87. It t is a condition wherein the fetus is lying 94. A newborn in face presentation delivered
longitudinally and the vertex is the presenting part, vaginally exhibits lip edema and bluish discoloration
but not in Occiput Anterior position. of the face. the appropriate action of the nurse is:

a. Abnormal lie a. Explain to the parents that this is a normal

b. Malposition occurrence.
c. Malpresentation b. Monitor newborn for signs of bleeding
d. Normal lie c. Check the newborn's coagulation factors for any
abnormality.
88. A type of presentation that occurs when fetus d. Administer Vitamin K twice to prevent further
assumes a transverse or oblique lie. tissue bleeding.

a. Breech presentation 95. Which of the following factors does not favor
b. Brow presentation malposition?
c. Face presentation
d. Shoulder presentation a. Android pelvic brim
b. Android pelvic brim
89. In this type of breech presentation, the buttocks
c. Gynecoid pelvic brim
of the fetus come first, the hips are flexed while the
d. Pendulous abdomen
knees are extended.
96. Which among these fetal head positions has
a. Single footling
the widest diameter?
b. Double footling
c. Complete breech
a. Suboccipitofrontal
d. Frank breech
b. Occipitofrontal
c. Mentovertical
90. A technique of vaginal breech delivery wherein
d. Suboccipitobregmatic
the baby is born without traction or manipulation
from OB.
97. When the membranes rupture before the fetal
head is engaged, the nurse should monitor the
a Total Breech Extraction
client for.
b. Partial Breech Extraction
c. Spontaneous Breech Delivery
a. Prolonged labor
d. None of these
b. Cord prolapsed
c. Placenta previa
91. It is the most uncommon of all presentations.
d. Contracted pelvis
a. Breech presentation
98. When assisting a client in labor whose fetus is
b. Brow presentation
in breech presentation, it is important to assess
c. Face presentation
initially for:
d. Shoulder presentation
a. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
92. This occurs when the fetal head is
b. Presence of early decelerations
hyperextended, and the chin (mentum) is the
c. Cord prolapsed right after rupture of membranes
presenting part.
d. Cervical dilatation
a. Breech presentation
99. Pinard’s Maneuver is being done:
b. Brow presentation
c. Face presentation
a. In breech with extended leg
d. Shoulder presentation
b. In breech with flexed leg
c. When the back of the fetus fails to rotate to the
93. Which of the following is the initial action of the
anterior.
nurse when umbilical cord prolapsed occurs?
d. To automatically correct any upward
displacement of arms.
a. Monitor maternal vital signs
b. Place the client in knee-chest position
100. Fetal distress refers to the presence of signs
c. Notify the physician and prepare the client for
in pregnant woman before or during childbirth that
delivery.
suggest that the fetus may not be well. Generally.
d. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the
ally, it is preferable to describe specific signs in lieu
exposed cord
of declaring fetal distress that include:

a. Meconium stained amniotic fluid

b. Decreased movement felt by the mother
c. Non-reassuring patterns seen on
cardiotocography
d. All of these
101. Which of the following statements is true about
postpartum hemorrhage?
a. The 1st hour postpartum is the most dangerous
time at which hemorrhage is likely to occur.
b. It refers to excessive blood loss during or after
the third stage of labor.
c. It is the leading cause of maternal mortality.
d. All of the above
102. When providing discharge instructions to a
primipara, the nurse should tell her to return to the
clinic if she observes that:
a. She has breast pain and tenderness between the
3rd and 5th day postpartum.
b. Her lochial discharge is turning brownish in color.
c. Her lochial discharge seem heavier than her
menses.
d. She has Hemorrhoids
103. Presence of retained placental tissues
prevents uterine contractions resulting to failure to
seal off bleeding vessels and one of its causes is
the presence of an accessory lobe which is known
as:
a. Succenturiate
b. Accreta
c. Previa
d. None of these
104. Which of the following medications would the
nurse prepare to administer in the postpartum
period to prevent hemorrhage in a client who has
hypertension?
a. MgSO4
b. Oxytocin
c. Methyl Ergonovine
d. Hydralazine
105. Upon palpation of the client's uterus after
delivery, you noticed that it is boggy and displaced
to the right side of the abdomen. With these
findings, it is important for you to:
a. Assess if client has bladder distention
b. Check if the Oxytocin is infusing properly
c. Assess if lochial flow is within normal limits
d. Check under the buttocks for pooling of blood
106. You are ordered by the physician to administer
Oxytocin after placental expulsion. Which of the
following is an indication that the drug has already
taken effect?
a. Decrease blood pressure
b. Diuretic effect
c. Marked uterine contraction
d. Uterine relaxation is facilitated
107. A client who has undergone forceps delivery
complains of excruciating pain around her labial
area. On examination, the nurse finds a discolored
area with a movable mass underneath. Which of
the following findings should the nurse document in
the client’s chart?
a. Presence of tumor
b. Sign of hemorrhage
c. Hematoma
d. Unrepaired lacerations
108. What is the initial intervention if client is still
bleeding, but upon assessment of the uterus, it is
firm?
a. Inspect for presence of lacerations & developing
hematoma
b. Internal bimanual compression and massage
c. Manual compression of the aorta
d. Massage uterine fundus
109. The client complains of intermittent afterbirth
pains. As a nurse, you can best help her by doing
all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. Apply hot water bag
b. Give analgesics as ordered PRN
c. Explain to the client that this is normal
d. Encourage the client to void every 2 hours
110. All of the following are signs and symptoms of
uterine inversion, EXCEPT:
a. Fundus is no longer palpable in the abdomen.
b. Uterus appears in the vulva.
c. Sudden gush of blood from the vagina.
d. None of these
111. Blood normally clots within 5 minutes. If it fails
to clot within 7 minutes, it is considered as a
clotting defect which is known as:
a. Hypovolemia
b. Hematoma
c. Coagulopathy
d. None of these
112. The main problem associated with uterine 117.On the third postpartum day, the patient's
atony is: breast becomes full and appeared inflamed. She
complained of a feeling of tension in the breast.
a. Retained tissues This condition is termed
b. Inability of the uterus to contract
c. Excessive uterine contractions a. Let-down reflex
d. Uterine fatigue b. Mastitis
c. Milk fever
113. All of the following statement are true about d. Engorgement
mastitis, EXCEPT:
118. Although symptoms of Postpartum Depression
a. Almost always unilateral can last from several weeks up to a year, the
b. Usually hemolytic staphylococcus aureus following treatment
c. Accompanied by chills, fever, malaise, pain
d. Develops well before milk flow established 1) Antidepressant Medications are very effective:
2) Psychotherapy
114. Abdominal wound infection often results from 3) Antipsychotic Medications
contamination of CS incision. The most common 4) Mood Stabilizers
risk factors are:
a. 1&3
1) Treatment corticosteroids, with b. 2&4
immunosuppression, anemia, and development of c. 1&2
hematoma. d. 3&4
2) Prolonged operating time, abdominal twin
delivery, and excessive blood loss. 119. Postpartum psychosis may lead to life-theme
3) Chorioamnionitis, prolonged labor and rupture thoughts or behaviors and requires immediate
of membranes. treatment, In cases of strong risk for suicide, which
4) Diabetes, Hypertension and Obesity. of the following treatment is applicable?
5) Fecal contamination of the wound.
a. Electroconvulsive Therapy
a.1,2 b. Electrocardiogram
b. 1,2,3 c. Radiation Therapy
c. 1,2,3,4 d. All of the above
d. 1,2,3,4,5
120. This condition is considered as a normal part
115.Referred to as the most common uterine of early motherhood which peaks on the fifth
puerperal infection If uncomplicated, it usually lants postpartum day and goes away within ten days.
for 7-10 days.
a. Postpartum Psychosis
a. Urinary Tract Infection b. Postpartum Depression
b. Endometritis c. Postpartum Blues
c. Parametritis d. All of these
d Mastitis
121. Prevalence of major and minor depression
116. Urinary Tract Infection is defined as a bacterial begins to rise:
inflammation of the bladder of urethra. It is common
during puerperium because of the following, a. Before delivery and peaks during delivery
EXCEPT: b. After delivery and peaks in the third month.
c. During delivery and peaks after delivery
a. It is often a result of an extension of infection d. Third month after delivery onwards.
from the endometrium, cervix, vagina and
perineum. 122 Whereas this condition is a psychiatric
emergency and requires hospital admission.
b. Urinary retention and bladder over-distention that
occurs due to the effects of anesthesia. a. Postpartum Psychosis
b. Postpartum Depression
c. It may also be introduced during catheterization. c. Postpartum Blues
d. All of these
d. Of the trauma of the bladder after delivery.