0ce61127-9e4a-4442-82df-e0b8ea21a361

NEET Pattern – 2020 : Part-A
BDS-2-MDS App : LEARN – ACHIEVE - EXCEL
ORAL PATHOLOGY AND MEDICINE
1.Child of a mother who frequently took alcohol during pregnancy will have what pathology?
a) Microcephaly
b) Midface deficiency
c) Treacher Collins syndrome
d) Apert syndrome
2.An extracted third mandibular molar shows concavity on root apex as shown in picture. What is the cause:
a) Presence of peri-radicular cyst
b) Contact with inferior alveolar canal
c) Dilaceration
d) Incomplete root formation
3.OPG of a 9-year-old child shows the following picture on OPG. The teeth marked with arrows are:
a) Supernumerary teeth
b) Primary CI
c) Permanent canine
d) Permanent CI
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4. A patient has dry eyes, dry skin and dry mouth due to Sjogren syndrome. What drug should be administered for
relief of the condition?
a) Cevimeline
b) Glycopyrrolate
c) Atropine
d) Hyoscine
5.HPV is associated with which malignancy?
a) Lymphoma
b) Kaposi's sarcoma
c) Cervical cancer
d) Burkitts lymphoma
6.A patient presents with pain in the left ear and development of vesicles on same side of palate soon. Patient also
develops facial muscle paralysis on the same side but the sensations are normal. What is the diagnosis?
a) James Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
b) Trigeminal Neuralgia
c) Sphenopalatine neuralgia
d) Costen syndrome
7.A patient presents with a periapical lesion in respect to a long-standing carious molar. Histology reveals 15 25 layer
thick epithelial lining surrounding a fibrous core with interspersed capillaries. The lining epithelium shows tiny,
eosinophilic, arc shaped calcifying masses with whorled appearance. What are these masses called?
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a) Rushton bodies
b) Russel bodies
c) Civette bodies
d) Cholesterol crystal
8.A patient presents with a slow growing mass on the left cheek in front of ear lobule. A sample is sent for gene
analysis and cytogenetic analysis reveals anomaly of chromosome 8q12. What is the diagnosis?
a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Mucoepidermoid Ca
c) Adenoid cystic Ca
d) Acinic cell Ca
9.A 45-year-old patient presents with deafness in one ear, development of few vesicles on the same side of face and
associated facial muscle weakness. What is the disease associated:
a) James Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
b) Herpes labialis
c) Frey syndrome
d) None
10.A child comes with a swelling on cheek adjacent to molar teeth which is close to gingival margin. He is otherwise
healthy, what it is called?
a) Gingival epulis
b) Gingival tumour
c) Epulis fissuratum
d) Enlarged papilla
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11.A 30 year old with female has a semicircular radiolucency associated with the cervical part of maxillary lateral
incisor on right side. Histopathology reveals islands of cuboidal tumour cells with individual cell keratinization but
keratin pearls are absent. What is the disease:
a) Squamous odontogenic tumour
b) Moderately differentiated SCC

c) Well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
d)BCC
12.Xerostomia is seen in all except:
a) Hypertension
b) Old Age
c) Sjogren syndrome
d) Diabetes
13.All indicates poor prognosis for SCC except:
a) Inflammatory cells
b) Grade of tumor
c) Angioinvasion
d) Spread along the nerve
14.A 45 year old male comes with pain in tooth. The pain is spontaneous and occurs since last 2 days. On
examination, lower right molar is carious and sensitive. On percussion, patient complains of severe pain. This
indicates:
a) Chronic reversible pulpitis without acute apical periodontitis

b) Acute irreversible pulpitis with symptomatic apical periodontitis
c) Acute irreversible pulpitis without apical periodontitis
d) Chronic reversible pulpitis with acute apical periodontitis
15.41-year-old male on treatment for A candidiasis develops this lesion on buccal mucosa. The lesion is present since
the last 3 months. Is CD4 count is 180/mm3 serum. What is the diagnosis?
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a) Lymphoma
b) Burkitts lymphoma
c) Kaposi sarcoma
d) Melanoma
16.A 36 year old male has a grossly carious molar with a periapical radiolucency. Histopathology reveals presence of
numerous blood vessels in a fibrous collagenous matrix with areas of focal necrosis and calcification. What is the
diagnosis:
a) Periapical cyst
b) Periapical granuloma
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) Odontogenic cyst
17.A 45-year-old woman has dry eyes, dry mouth and dry skin. Her tongue is erythematous and shiny. She is
suffering from:
a) Sjogren syndrome
b) Lichen planus
c) Leukoplakia
d) Mump
18.A 17-year-old male reports with painful eruption on lower lip since 2 days. The patient gives no history of medical
illness and is not a smoker, but says he has been stressed due to exams recently. What is the diagnosis?
a) Recurrent herpes labialis
b) Ramsay Hunt
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c) Mucocele
d) Recurrent apthae
19.A slowly progressing lesion of mandibular ramus of 6 months duration is histologically identified as Granular
ameloblastoma. The granules in this are made up of:
a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosomes
c) Nucleus
d) Glycogen
20.A male 34 years old is suffering from bilateral parotid enlargement with orchitis. He is suffering from what type of
illness?
a) Viral
b) Bacterial
c) Fungal
d) Parasitic
21.A Patient presents with desquamative gingivitis, photosensitivity, acral skin blistering and Poikiloderma. He is
suffering from:
a) Kindler syndrome
b) Wegener's granulomatosis
c) Tuberous sclerosis
d) Marfans syndrome
22.A patient undergoes extraction of tooth #36. After a few months, the patient wanted restoration of the missing
tooth with a prosthesis. An IOPA done for evaluation revealed blunting of root apex of tooth #35. The tooth had a
vital pulp, unchanged PDL width and intact lamina dura. What is the cause?
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a) Hypercementosis
b) Benign cementoma
c) Cementoblastoma
d) Root resorption
23.Wedge shaped defect in the cervical region of tooth due to occlusal stress leads to microfractures of enamel.
These defects are called:
a) Abfraction
b) Erosion
c) Attrition
d) Abrasion
24.A 45-year-old female complains of recurrent episodes of unilateral severe headache which exaggerate with head
movement, exposure to bright light and loud sounds. She is suffering from:
a) Cluster headache
b) Migraine
c) Migrainous neuralgia
d) Temporal arteritis
25.Identify the type of cartilage shown in diagram:
a) Hyaline
b) Fibrous
c) Elastic
d) Corne
26.A 46-year-old male patient presents with a small swelling in front of ear elevating the ear lobule which is slow
growing over the years and soft to palpate. Tc 99 scan gives a hotspot, what is the diagnosis?
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a) Warthin tumor
b) Pleomorphic adenoma
c) Mucoepidermoid tumor
d) Basal cell adenoma
ORAL RADIOLOGY
1.Thermoluminescent dosimeter works on the principle of:
a) Conversion of radiation into light
b) Conversion of radiation into heat
c)Conversion of radiation to light upon heating
d) Conversion of energy to light
2.What is shown by arrow in the OPG:
a) Coronoid notch
b) Sigmoid notch
c) Condylar process
d) Symphysis menti
3.A routine radiographic survey shows a well defined radiolucency located at the angle region below mandibular
canal. What is diagnosis:
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a) Stafne cyst
b) Ameloblastoma
c) Dentigerous cyst
d) Traumatic cyst
4.Which of the following is most radiopaque:
a) Cortical bone
b) Trabecular bone
c) Hyaline cartilage
d) Elastic cartilage
5.Intensifying screen converts X-ray radiation into:
a) Heat
b) Visible light
c) Gamma rays
d) Infra red
6.A 7-year-old boy presents with a short skull proptosis, narrow maxilla, midface deficiency, hypertelorism,
prominent supraorbital ridge, high palatal vault. His Lateral ceph view shows the following view of the skull. What is
the pathology:
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a) Treacher Collins syndrome
b) Marfans syndrome
c) Crouzon syndrome
d) Downs syndrome
7.OPG of a person shows the following anomaly on routine radiographic survey. The condition is called:
a) Taurodontism
b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
c) Amelogenesis Imperfecta
d) Dentin dysplasia
DENTAL MATERIALS
1.During setting for ZnPO4, which element is most important:
a)Zinc
b)AI
c)MgO
d)PO4
2. Relative Stiffness of a material defined as being within the elastic portion of stress strain curve is known as:
a)Elastic modulus
b)UTS
c)Resiliency
d)Yield Strength
3.Addition of silicone of palladium is done in non-aqueous elastomeric impression materials to improve the
properties. If this is not done, what will be the result:
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a) The stone cast will be contaminated
b) Delayed setting of stone cast
c) Loss of dimensioned stability
d) Pin point voids in stone cast if poured immediately
4.Most accepted theory of gypsum setting:
a) Dissolution precipitation theory
b) Colloidal theory
c) Hydration theory
d) Recrystallization theory
5.A patient comes with missing upper 2nd PM & 1st Molar for which he is seeking a 4 unit Fixed Partial denture. As
per ISO specification 1562, which type of gold alloy will you use:
a)Type 1
b)Type 11
c)Type I
d)Type IV
6.Difference in coefficient of thermal expansion of a restoration and the wall of the cavity of tooth will lead to:
a)Loss of marginal integrity
b)Loss strength
c)Increased corrosion
d)Increased strength
7.In electroplating, Ag is:
a) Cathode
b) Diode
c) Anode
d) Electrolyte
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8.When an acrylic denture is cured above 100 degrees C, where will the porosity be seen:
a) In the thinnest flange areas
b) In the thickest palatal areas
c) Uniformly across the denture base
d) No porosity will be seen
9.Titanium welding is done using which technique:
a)Laser welding
b)Plasma arc welding
c)Spot welding
d)Vacuum welding
10.If you mix dental plaster with boiling water, what will happen:
a)Reaction will become faster
b)Reaction will become slower
c)Reaction will reverse
d)No reaction
11.Maximum penetration depth of laser in laser welding:
a) 0.5 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 2.5 mm
d) 3.5 mm
12.Pickling is done with:
a) 50% HCL
b) 100% HCL
c) H2SO4
d) HNO
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13.Dicor ceramic is:
a) Castable ceramic
b) Injectable ceramic
c) In-spinel
d) CAD CAM
ORTHODONTICS
1.A 10-year-old child with skeletal deep bite, mandibular retrognathism, horizontal growth pattern is best treated
by:
a) Functional appliance
b) Serial extraction
c) Orthopedic therapy
d) Fixed appliance
2.Reidel gave 10 theorems regarding retention and relapse of treatment of malocclusion. Which of the following is
the 6th theorem of retention?
a) Teeth that have been moved tend to return to their former positions
b) If the lower incisors are placed upright over basal bone, they are more likely to remain in good alignment.
c) Bone and adjacent tissues must be allowed to reorganize around newly positioned teeth.
d) Proper occlusion is a potent factor in holding teeth in their corrected position.
3.PA cephalogram is used for which of the following:
a) To assess ramus fractures
b) To assess chin deviation in a patient
c) To assess maxillary sinus
d) For assessing the mandibular growth
4.Intrusion of tooth is resisted by:
a) All PL fibres
b) Apical & interradicular fibres
c) Oblique & Horizontal fibres
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d) Alveolar crest & oblique fibres
5.When anchor teeth have same anchor value as teeth to be moved, the type of anchorage is called:
a) Reciprocal anchorage
b) Indirect anchorage
c) Baker anchorage
d) Reinforced anchorage
6.Delta clasp is used in which appliance:
a) Activator
b) Bionator
c) Twin block
d) Frankel
7.Identify the appliance:
a) Jasper jumper
b) MARA
c) Herbst
d) Churo
8.An 8-year-old child with a family history of Class II malocclusion reports with an SNA = 78Degree and SNB = =
80degree. What will you do?
a) Wait and Watch
b) Chin cup therapy
c) Protraction face mask therapy
d) Functional appliance therapy
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9.An 8-year-old boy has lost 65 prematurely due to which the permanent molar has drifted mesially. All of the
following can be used to distalize the permanent molar except:
a) TAD Appliance
b) Pendulum
c) Jones Jig
d) Distal jet.
10.Identify the molar relation shown in the picture?
a) Angle class 1
b) Angle class II division 1
c) Angle class III
d) Angle class II division 2
11.A 9-year-old girl has 2mm midline diastema and thick fibrous frenum. What treatment should be done?
a) Do nothing, wait till eruption of permanent canine
b) Close space using finger spring
c) Do frenectomy, space will close by itself
d) Close space using fixed appliance
12. What type of bends are shown in the picture?
a) First order
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b) Second order
c) Third order
d) Fourth order
13.Analysis of skull shape and size, supra orbital ridge, extension of zygomatic arch beyond external meatus
measurement, angle of mandible, helps in:
a) Sex determination
b) Racial determination
c) Age determination
d) Ethnicity determination
14.Identify the appliance:
a) Frankel III
b) Frankel II
c) Bionator
d) Twin lock
ORAL AND MAXILLOFACIAL SURGERY
1.A dentist while extraction of the upper first molar accidentally creates a small perforation into the maxillary sinus.
What is the test to check presence of the Oro antral communication?
a) Valsalva maneuver
b) Irrigation
c)Aspiration
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d)Manual exploration of site
2.A medically compromised 46-year old female patient got her molar tooth number 36 extracted under Local
Anesthesia. Subsequently, she developed fever, respiratory distress and swelling in the submandibular region. What
is the diagnosis?
a) Ludwig's angina
b) Buccal space abscess
c) Sublingual space abscess
d) Submandibular cellulitis
3.Why is canthal incision not taken beyond lateral canthus of the eye?
a) Cosmetic reason
b) Prevent lymphatic drainage obstruction
c) To Prevent ectroption
d) Avoid damage to facial nerve
4. A 54-year-old male suddenly develops pain in right ear, tongue, jaw and nasopharynx. Intraoral examination
reveals asymmetry of right and left palatal halves. What is the diagnosis?
a) Costen syndrome
b) Trotters syndrome
c)Trigeminal neuralgia
d)Horton syndrome
5.Best material for orbital floor reconstruction:
a) Rib graft
b) Iliac crest
c) Calvarial graft
d) Auricular graft
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6.When holding the suture needle, what is the site of holding the needle prior to insertion into the tissue?
a) At junction of anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3
b) Half way in middle
c) At junction of anterior 3/4 & posterior 4
d) At junction of anterior 1/3 and posterior 2/3
7.A patient reports with a mild swelling in front of ear since the last 1 month which is painful. He reports that the
swelling varies in size during the day and increases every time he eats food, and during this time, the pain also
increases. A USG examination reveals a large stone at hilum of parotid gland. Most reliable/Best treatment of the
condition is:
a) Superficial Parotidectomy
b) Milking the stone from the duct
c) Lithotripsy and inducing salivation
d) Intraoral surgery along duct to expose and remove stone
8.Field examination using tongue depressor & illumination only is classified as:
a) ADA type I
b) ADA type II
c) DA type III
d) ADA type IV
9.Seldin, Catpaw and Langenbeck are instruments used to:
a) Retract nerve
b) Retract soft tissue
c) Retract hard tissue
d) Retract tongue
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10.What is the radiograph given below is used for:
a) Symphyseal Fracture
b) Hard Palate fracture
c) High condylar fracture
d) Cranial vault fracture
11.Parents of an infant with cleft lip come to you for advice regarding treatment. What will you tell them regarding
timing of the primary lip surgery:
a)5-6 months
b)10-12 months
c)12-18 months
d)18-24 months
12.A known case of epilepsy develops seizures of dental chair. Which drug in your emergency kit will be helpful:
a) Diazepam
b) Adrenaline
c) Hydrocotisone
d) Oxygen
13.Identify the prosthesis:
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a) Palatal lift prosthesis
b) Speech appliance
c) Cleft obturator
d) Feeding plate
14.For secondary alveolar grafting in a case of cleft lip and palate, the ideal site is for graft harvesting is:
a) Anterior lliac crest
b) Posterior Iliac crest
c) Costochondral
d) Auricular graft
15.A person with history of radiation therapy undergo tooth extraction. He develops osteoradionecrosis of bone
subsequently. What are the factors responsible for it?
a) Radiation, Trauma, infection
b) Nutrition, radiation, trauma
c) Radiation, Nutrition, trauma
d) Trauma, Radiation, infection
16.Most common location of secondary metastasis to mandible:
a) Angle and ramus
b) Symphysis & parasymphysis
c) Condyle
d) Molar region
17.All are supplemental anesthetic techniques in endodontics except:
a) Inferior alveolar
b) Intra ligament
c) Intra Osseous
d) Intra pulpal
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18.When taking bite in suture. What should be ratio of distance from the edge of wound and the point of insertion
of the needle into the tissue, to the depth of insertion into the tissue?
a) 1:1
b) 1:4
c) 1:2
d) 1:3
CONSERVATIVE AND ENDODONTICS
1.Which of the following is not used as a retrograde filling material is periapical treatment:
a) EBA
b) Diaket
c) MTA
d) Endomethasone
2.During access cavity preparation for endodontic treatment, part of orifice remains covered by axial
wall/incomplete removal of pulpal floor is done. This type of problem in access preparation is called:
a) Mouse hole preparation
b) Rabbit hole preparation
c) Tunnel preparation
d) Trapdoor preparation
3.Best response in cold vitality testing of teeth is perceived to which agent?
a) Dry ice
b) Ethyl chloride
c)1, 1, 2, 2 tetra chloroethane
d)Ice stick
4.Not true about Gates Glidden drills is:
a) Sequence from 1 to 6 with tip diameter 0.5 to 1.5
b) Can be used only in the straight portion of canal
c) Have cutting tip
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d) Cuts during withdrawal
5.Occlusal bevel in a Class Il inlay for metal is given to improve:
a) Retention form
b) Resistance form
c)Remove unsupported enamel
d)Marginal integrity
6.True regarding GP Points:
a) Color coded according to size
b) Consists of 50-60% Gutta Percha
c) Chemically bonds to dentin wall on condensation
d) It can be heat sterilized
7.Identify the type of cavity preparations in the picture:
a) A= Slot preparation; B= tunnel preparation
b) B= Slot preparation; A= tunnel preparation
c) Both are slot preparations
d) Both are tunnel preparations
e) Both are tunnel preparation
8.Dynamic test to re-evaluate the tendency for blades of a bur to pass through a single point:
a) Concentricity
b) Run out
c) Eccentricity
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d) Rake angle
9.Mechanism of Action of Carbamide peroxide in bleaching:
a) Hydrolysis of peptide bonds on contact with tooth surface
b) Formation of Sodium perborate and water on application of heat
c) Formation of hydrogen peroxide on contact with saliva
d) Formation of Sodium peroxide and carbamates upon breakdown of carbamide peroxide
10.While doing amalgam restoration, a dentist placed Ca(OH) liner followed by Zinc Phosphate base. Why is linear
placed:
a) High acidity of base
b) Low alkalinity of base
c) Low strength of base
d) High strength of base
11.An upper central incisor undergoes traumatic injury with horizontal fracture of apical third in a young patient. The
coronal segment of the affected tooth is mobile. What is the treatment:
a) Flexible splinting of coronal segment and checking vitality periodically
b) Extract the coronal segment and leave apical fragment
c) Do RCT of the coronal segment and periodic radiographic follow-up
d) Do permanent splinting of tooth
12.A 16-year-old female suffers traumatic labial luxation of right upper central incisor, 1 day before. What treatment
should be done?
a) Do functional splinting for 1-2 weeks and do RCT after 7-10 days if needed
b) No treatment is wait and watch
c) Extraction of luxated central incisor
d) Immediate endodontic treatment of tooth and splinting for 3-4 month
13.Which of the following traumatic dental injuries will show gingival crevicular bleeding?
a) Ellis Class I
b) Ellis Class II
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c) Contusion
d) Subluxation
14.Barbed broach is usually taken to the apex of a tooth for complete extirpation of pulp tissue during root canal
therapy. This is done because:
a) Loose tissue and Increase GAGs at apex
b) More vascular tissue in the canal
c) Collagenous fibres more at apex
d) Pulp more fragile at apex
PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY
1.A 5-year-old patient presents with a root stump of tooth #75 which is painful. What is the treatment?
a) A Extract 75 under local anesthesia
b) A Extract 75 under local anesthesia followed by distal shoe space maintainer
c)Do root canal therapy of root stump of 75 and put SS crown
d)Give antibiotic and send back
2.Nitrous oxide causes diffusion hypoxia because:
a) Increased movement of N2O from capillary to alveoli
b) Increased N2O in expired air
c) High N2O concentration in inspired air
d) High O2 Concentration
3.A Medically compromised child needs tooth extraction. Prophylactic Antibiotic should be given:
a)1 day before procedure
b)1 hour before procedure
c)Not needed
d)After procedure
4.A 7-year-old boy has crowding in erupted 31,32,41, 42 Arch analysis reveals arch length tooth material discrepancy
and tendency for crowding. What should the dentist do?
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a) Initiate fixed orthodontic treatment after all permanent teeth erupt
b) Review in 6 months
c) Initiate serial extraction followed by space maintainer
d) Distalization of permanent molars
5.During a forensic evaluation of a subject, an investigator uses a method of age determination in which 7 teeth of
left lower quadrant are examined. Which method of age determination is the examiner using?
a) Gustafson's method
b) Schour & Massler method
c) Demirjian method
d) Kohler method
6.An IQ level of 90 - 109 as per Stanford Binet classification is classified as:
a) Average
b) Very intelligent
c) Moderate
d) intelligent Genius
7.In a child with rampant caries and white spot lesion, which is the best topical fluoride to be applied?
a) APF
b) NaF
c) SnF
d) Fluoridated tooth paste
8 .Identify the type of injury according to Ellis Classification:
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a) Ellis Class 1
b) Ellis Class II
c) Ellis Class III
d) Ellis Class I
9."Choking off" phenomenon takes place after application of:
a) APF
b) NaF
c) SnF2
d) Amine fluoride
10.A 5-year-old child is behaving badly in the dental clinic and is not cooperative. In response, the caregiver takes
away his favorite toy and insists the toy will be returned only after the child allows to do the dental procedure. This
type of behavior management techniques is called:
a) Omission
b) Positive reinforcement
c) Negative reinforcement
d) Punishment
11.Technique for altering child's behaviour so as to get the desired behaviour by the dentist and his team in clinic is
called:
a) Positive reinforcement
b) Behaviour shaping
c) Contingency
d) Desensitization
12.A 6-year-old. Child is very anxious when brought to the dental clinic. He does not obey commands, shouts and
becomes hysterical when treatment is attempted. What Frankel rating scale will the child fit into?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 3
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d. 5
PROSTHODONTICS
1.Bone density for implant placement is best assessed using:
a) USG
b) CBCT
c) MRI
d) Color doppler
2.Resonance frequency analyzer is used implantology for:
a) Assessment of osseointegration
b) Assessment of primary stability of implant
c) Assessment of bone vitality/blood supply
d) Stability of soft tissue implant interface
3.Minimum Distance of maxillary major connector from palatal gingival margin:
a)4 mm
b)6 mm
c)8 mm
d)2 mm
4.According to Armany classification the following prosthesis is:
a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class II
d) Class IV
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5.Identify the instrument:
a) Implant rachet
b) Torque key
c) Implant module
d) Healing abutment
6.Maximum tooth contact occurs during:
a) Centric occlusal
b) Lateral excursion
c) Protrusion
d) Retrusion
7.What type of prosthesis design is shown in the picture?
a) Cantilever bridge
b) Maryland bridge
c) Resin bonded bridge
d) Virginia bridge
8.A patient reports with missing tooth number 26 and 27 teeth. He desires to have a RPD for the missing teeth.
While doing mouth preparation for RPD, the dentist establishes the proximal guide planes and rest seats. The rest
seat should be prepared:
a) Prior to proximal guide plane
b) With the proximal guide plane
c) After the proximal guide plane
d) Rest seat is made later in the cast
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9.In Vita shade guide 3D master, tabs are arranged according to:
a) Hue - Value - Chroma
b) Value - Hue - Chroma
c) Value - Chroma - Hue
d) Chroma – Hue – Value
10.Optimum interarch distance for implant supported removable prosthesis:
a) 5-6 mm
b) 8-10 mm
c) 12-15 mm
d) 20-25 mm
11.Ante's law is used for selection of:
a) Pontic
b) Abutment
c) Retainer
d) Rest
COMMUNITY DENTISTRY
1.An investigator is told to follow a group of 400 cardiac patients into the future who are administered a drug for
intervention of the cardiac disease. What kind study design has been chosen:
a) Prospective cohort
b) Retrospective cohort
c) Case control
d) Observational
2.According to CPITN index, a young 32-year old person with isolated 4-5 mm pocket in molar tooth should be
treated by:
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a) Scaling and root planning & instructions of oral hygiene
b) Instruction of oral hygiene
c) Scaling and Instruction of oral hygiene
d) Instruction of oral hygiene & surgery
3. In a BDS class Ram gets 10th ranks & Mohan got 40th ranks. What kind of scale of measurement is this?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
4.A Full mouth radiographic survey includes:
a)12 IOPA + 6 bite wing
b)18 IOPA + 6 bite wing
c)14 IOPA + 4 bite wing
d)17 IOPA + 4 bite wing
5.Graphic plot of change in ph of saliva after a glucose rinse when plotted against time is called:
a. Stephans curve
b. Caries curve
c. Scammon curve
d. Warberg curve
6.When a test is done on a population not seeking treatment, it is called:
a) Sentinel surveillance
b) Case finding
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c) Screening
d) Diagnosis
7.In a community discussion, 4-5 people who are experts are talking on a common topic in front of an audience. This
type of discussion is called:
a) Panel discussion
b) Group discussion
c) Symposium
d) Lecture
8.Which caries index was introduced to increase awareness regarding caries susceptibility in population with high
caries activity?
a) Mollers index
b) Caries severity index
c) Significant Caries index
d) Root caries index
9.Out of a sample of 100 students, 10 are to be selected randomly. Best method of sampling to ensure uniformity is:
a) Random sampling
b) Systematic random
c) Purposive sampling
d) Multistage sampling
10.Phase IV of Periodontal Therapy begins immediately after:
a) Review of phase I
b) Review of phase II
c) Review of phase III
d) Immediately after first visit
PERIODONTOLOGY
1.A 15-year-old male undergoing immunosuppressive shows the following clinical picture. What is the diagnosis?
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a) Gingival fibrosis
b) Leukemic gingivitis
c) ANUG
d) Gingival epulis
2.Identify the instrument:
a) Shwartz perio retriever
b) Curette
c) Perioscope
d) Ultrasonic file
3.Identify the instrument shown in the picture:
a) Piezoelectric scaler
b) Magnetostrictive scaler
c) Sonic
d) Curette
4. Substance approved to be used as scaffold by the FDA:
a) Polyglycolide
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Tricalcium Phosphate (TCP)

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d) Fibrin
5.First trimester pregnant woman shows isolated gingival swelling as shown in the picture. She gives no other
relevant history. What is the diagnosis:
a) Pregnancy gingivitis
b) Pyogenic granuloma
c) Giant cell granuloma
d) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
6.An otherwise healthy male reports to clinic with fever and pain in mouth with fetid odour and excessive salivation.
Intraoral exam reveals punched out lesions in Interdental & papillary gingiva. Diagnosis is:
a) ANUG
b) Lymphoma
c)Generalized diffuse gingivitis
d)Generalized periodontitis
7.Which probe is used to measure furcation:
a) Nabers
b) Williams
c) UNC15
d) Marquis
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8.Identify the flap design:
a) Modified Widman
b) Papilla preservation
c) Widman
d) Gingivectomy
9.Identify the bone defect pattern seen in the picture:
a) A= 1 wall defect; B= 2 wall defect, C= 3 wall defect
b) A= 3 wall defect; B= 2 wall defect: C= 1 wall defect
c) A= 2 wall defect; B= 3 wall defect; C= 1 wall defect
d) A= 2 wall defect; B= 1 wall defect; C= 3 wall defect
10.A dentist places an implant in upper anterior region of jaw. He preserves a part of root stump on the labial side of
the implant. What is the technique called?
a) Socket Shield technique
b) Socket preservation technique
c) Papilla preservation technique
d) Immediate loading implant
11. Identify in the figure Points marked A and B:
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a) A= Free Gingival Groove & B=Attached gingiva
b) A= Free Gingival Groove & B= Sulcular epithelium
c) A= Free Gingival Groove & B= Junctional Epithelium
d) A= Attached gingiva & B= sulcular epithelium
12.Identify the Flap shown below:
a) Apically displaced flap
b) Undisplaced flap
c) Coronally placed flap
d) Modified Widman flap
13.Which of the following acts as an astringent?
a) Thymol
b) Glycerin
c) Zinc chloride
d) Liquoron
14.Indifferent fiber plexus is made of:
a) Elastic fibres
b) Elaunin fibers
c) Oxytalan fibers
d) Collagen fibres
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15.In Leukemic gingivitis, bleeding is due to:
a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Increased leukocytosis
c) Increased RBC
d) Decreased coagulation factor
16.Not true regarding mesh graft:
a) Acceptable appearance after healing
b) Can be stretched upto 9 times but usually restricted to 3 times
c) Increases the time for healing the size of blood clot & increases pain
d) Reduces the dead space below graft
17.Identify the Points marked A and B:
a) A= Fenestration and B= dehiscence
b) A= Dehiscence and B= Fenestration
c) Both are dehiscence
d) Both are fenestration
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NEET Pattern – 2020 : Part-A

BDS-2-MDS App : LEARN – ACHIEVE - EXCEL

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND MEDICINE

c) Treacher Collins syndrome

a) Presence of peri-radicular cyst

b) Contact with inferior alveolar canal

d) Incomplete root formation

5.HPV is associated with which malignancy?

a) James Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

a) James Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

a) Squamous odontogenic tumour

b) Moderately differentiated SCC

12.Xerostomia is seen in all except:

13.All indicates poor prognosis for SCC except:

d) Spread along the nerve

a) Chronic reversible pulpitis without acute apical periodontitis

c) Acute irreversible pulpitis without apical periodontitis

d) Chronic reversible pulpitis with acute apical periodontitis

c) Squamous cell carcinoma

a) Recurrent herpes labialis

25.Identify the type of cartilage shown in diagram:

d) Basal cell adenoma

1.Thermoluminescent dosimeter works on the principle of:

a) Conversion of radiation into light

b) Conversion of radiation into heat

c)Conversion of radiation to light upon heating

d) Conversion of energy to light

2.What is shown by arrow in the OPG:

4.Which of the following is most radiopaque:

5.Intensifying screen converts X-ray radiation into:

a) Treacher Collins syndrome

1.During setting for ZnPO4, which element is most important:

a) The stone cast will be contaminated

b) Delayed setting of stone cast

c) Loss of dimensioned stability

d) Pin point voids in stone cast if poured immediately

4.Most accepted theory of gypsum setting:

a) Dissolution precipitation theory

a)Loss of marginal integrity

7.In electroplating, Ag is:

a) In the thinnest flange areas

b) In the thickest palatal areas

c) Uniformly across the denture base

d) No porosity will be seen

9.Titanium welding is done using which technique:

b)Plasma arc welding

a)Reaction will become faster

b)Reaction will become slower

c)Reaction will reverse

11.Maximum penetration depth of laser in laser welding:

12.Pickling is done with:

13.Dicor ceramic is:

d) Proper occlusion is a potent factor in holding teeth in their corrected position.

3.PA cephalogram is used for which of the following:

a) To assess ramus fractures

b) To assess chin deviation in a patient

c) To assess maxillary sinus

d) For assessing the mandibular growth

4.Intrusion of tooth is resisted by:

b) Apical & interradicular fibres

c) Oblique & Horizontal fibres

d) Alveolar crest & oblique fibres

6.Delta clasp is used in which appliance:

7.Identify the appliance: