. MCQ AY 1426-1427 (2005-2006) Most common malformation of head and neck region is: a. b. c. d.

d. cleft lip and palate* hemangioma preauricular cyst malformation of ear

2. Most common type of cleft in males is: a. unilateral cleft lip alone b. unilateral cleft palate alone c. unilateral lip and palate* d. Bilateral cleft lip 3. A patient presents with small yellow spots, present bilaterally on buccal mucosa opposite to posterior teeth without any other associated complaint. Most probable diagnosis of the condition is: a. b. c. d. Kopliks spot Fordyces granules* Melanotic macule White sponge nevus

4. A patient presented with asymptomatic, smooth, circumscribed red area in midline anterior to circumvallate papillae on the dorsum of tongue with microscopic evidence of epithelial hyperplasia. The most probable diagnosis of the condition is:

a. b. c. d.

geographic tongue hairy tongue median rhomboid glossitis* lingual thyroid

5. In hairy tongue, there is hypertrophy of: a. b. c. d. fungiform papillae filiform papillae* foliate papillae circumvallate papillae

6. A patient present with an asymptomatic soft, fluctuant swelling of the angle of mandible anterior to sternocleidomastoid muscle which he stated to be present since his childhood days. Regional lymph nodes are nonpalpable with normal radiographic pictures of the area and normal blood and urine examination. Aspiration of swelling shows yellowbrown fluid. Most probable diagnosis in the condition is: a. thyroglossal duct cyst b. salivary gland tumor

c. branchial cleft cyst* d. follicular ameloblastoma 7. Which of the following condition is characterized by generalized intestinal polyposis with pigmentation of face and oral mucosa: a. b. c. d. Peutz-Jeghens syndrome* Albright syndrome Gardner syndrome Neurofibromatosis

8. A 25-year al patient presents with an asymptomatic doughy soft, fluctuant swelling on lateral neck which was present for month but recently enlarged following an upper respiratory tract infection. Most likely diagnosis of the swelling is: a. b. c. d. scrofula lymphoma cervicofacial actinomycosis cervical lymphoepithelial cyst*

9. Most characteristic histopathologic feature of keratoacanthoma is: a. elevation of normal epithelium towards the central portion of the lesion with an abrupt change in normal epithelium as hyperplastic acanthotic epithelium is reached* b. hyperplastic squamous epithelium growing into underlying connective tissue

c. occasional dysplastic features d. epithelium appears to be invading into connective tissue at deep leading margin of the tumor

10. A patient reported with an asympthomatic white patch on buccal mucosa which cannot be rubbed off. The patch was present for the last 3 months. Patient is a heavy cigarette smoker. Most probable diagnosis of the lesion is: a. b. c. d. Leukoplasia* Candidiasis Erythroplakia White sponge nevus

11. is: a. b. c. d.

Site most commonly affected by basal cell carcinoma

buccal mucosa skin of palm and exposed surface of arms skin of upper back area skin of middle third of face*

12. A patient with history of tobacco chewing presents with an asymptomatic, exophytic papillary growth on right buccal mucosa. Histologic examination of the lesion reveal marked epit helial proliferation without invasion into the connective tissue and parakeratin plugging. Most probable diagnosis is: a. epidermoid carcinoma b. basal cell carcinoma c. papilloma

d. verrucous carcinoma* 13. A patient present with tender swelling in the palatal area. Associated teeth were normal. Radiographic examination of the area shows radiolucent area with honeycomb appearance. Excessive bleeding was encountered upon entering into the lesion. Most probable diagnosis of the lesion is: a. b. c. d. radicular cyst aneurysmal bone cyst* hemorrhagic bone cyst mid-palatal cyst

14. Skin lesions of the hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia are most common on: a. b. c. d. arms abdomen legs face*

15. Characteristic hemorrhagic lesions of the hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia occurs most often on a. b. c. d. Tongue Lips* Gingival Palate

16. A 70-year old patient present with small, elevated, crusted lesion on right side of nose which he stated to be present for last several months and never quite heals. The most likely diagnosis is:

Epidermoid carcinoma Verrucous carcinoma Sebaceous cyst Basal cell carcinoma* 17. A patient presents with a bilateral greyish white lesion on buccal mucosa which disappear when stretched. The most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d.
18. All

a. b. c. d.

Lichen planus Leukoplakia Leukoedema* White sponge nevus

of the following diseases has been associated with Epstein-Barr virus EXCEPT: a. b. c. d. Burkitts lymphoma Malignant mixed tumor Oral hairy leukoplakia* Infectious mononucleosis

19. An elderly anemic patient complains of back pain. Numerous punched out radiolucencies are evident on skull radiograph. The patient should be suspected of having: a. b. c. d. Ewings sarcoma Thalassaemia Multiple myeloma* Malignant lymphoma

20. Basal cell carcinoma frequently involves normal tissues by spreading by way of:

a. b. c. d.

lymphatics arteries nerve sheaths direct invasion*

21. A benign neoplasm which appears as a non-painful slowly enlarging, submucosal mass with overlying epithelium exhibiting pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia is most likely a: a. b. c. d. fibroma granular cell tumor* papilloma keratoacanthoma

22. Examination of a child shows enlargement of left side of tongue showing small, elevated greyish-pink nodules some of which are fluid filled with rest of oral cavity being normal. Most likely diagnosis of the lesion is: a. b. c. d. neurofibromatosis lymphangioma* granular cell myoblastoma cystic fibrosis

23. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at lateral, border of tongue shows stratified squamous epithelium covering loose connective tissue that contains many thinwalled engorged, vascular space. Most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. papilloma hemangioma* lymphangioma granular cell myoblastoma

24. Multiple lesions seen in patients suffering from von Recklinghaussens disease of skin are: a. b. c. d. neurofibromas* neurolemmomas hemangiomas griant cell tumors

25. Most common site of occurrence of salivary gland tumors is a. b. c. d. parotid gland* sub-maxillary gland sub-lingual gland minor salivary gland

26. Primary Sjogrens syndrome consists of keratoconjunctivitis sicca and: a. b. c. d. 27. a. b. c. d. Xerostomia* Rheumatoid arthritis SLE Scleroderma Triad of Sjogren syndrome consists of: conjunctivitis, stomatitis, rheumatoid arthritis keratoconjunctivitis, xerostomia, rherumatoid arthritis* keratoconjunctivitis, xerostomia, osteoarthritis conjunctivitis, stomatitis, urethritis

28. Radiographic appearance of salivary glands in Sjogrens syndrome is characteristically described as:

a. sun-ray appearance b. cherry-blossom or branchless fruit laden tree appearance* c. honeycomb appearance d. onion-peel appearance 29. Patients affected by Sjogrens syndrome shows increased incidence of development of: a. b. c. d. osteosarcoma lymphoma* multiple myeloma adenocarcinoma

30. Majority of lymphomas developed in patients of Sjogens syndrome are of: a. b. c. d. Hodgkins lymphoma Burkitts lymphoma Non-hodgkin lymphoma of B-cell origin* Non-hodgkin lymphoma of T-cell origin

31. The common site of occurrence of adenoid cystic carcinoma is: a. b. c. d. 32. is: parotid gland* palatal mucosa upper lip sub-mandibular gland Most suggested etiology of necrotizing sialometaplasia

a. b. c. d.

trauma infection ischaemia* neoplastic changes

33. Which of the following salivary gland neoplasm is least likely to be found in minor salivary glands a. b. c. d. papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum* adenoid cycstic carcinoma mucoepidermoid carcinoma pleomorphic adenoma

34. A 40-year old woman reports the development of painful crater like ulcer on mucosa of left hard palate within one week following the extraction of maxillary left second premolar. Most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. pleomorphic adenoma squamous cell carcinoma necrotizing sialometaplasia* adenoid cystic carcinoma

35. An elderly woman present with swelling of lateral aspect of left side of neck which was present for last ten months but start increasing in size for the last two months and is now painful. There is small ulceration of skin overlying the mass with distortion of left facial region when patient speaks. Differential diagnosis will include all of the following EXCEPT: a. adenoid cystic carcinoma b. pleomorphic adenoma*

c. mucoepidermoid carcinoma d. malignant mixed tumor

36. Toxin produced by streptococci which is responsible for causing scarlet fever is: a. b. c. d. first day illness second or third day of illness* fifth to seventh day of illness one week after appearance of other clinical signs and symptoms

37. In miliary tuberculosis, dissemination of microorganism occur usually via: a. b. c. d. lymphatics blood streams* saliva pulmonary fluid

38. A patient presents with mild fever, sore throat and ulceration of fascial pillars, posterior pharyngeal wall and soft palate. Most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. Reiter syndrome Herpangina* Herpetis gingivostomatitis Recurrent rhomboid glossitis

39. A patient on antibiotic therapy for scarlet fever develops white plaques on his oral mucosa which when scraped with tongue blade leaves a painful bleeding surface, most probable diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. 40. a. b. c. d. Blastomycosis Candidiasis* Herpes simplex infection Syphilis Which of the following is most opportunistic infection? Candidiasis* Actinomycosis Histoplasmosis Blastomycosis

41. Sulfur granules are of diagnostic value is suspected cases of: a. b. c. d. Candidiasis Tuberculosis Actinomycosis* Histoplasmosis

42. A patient presents with slightly painful white lesions of oral mucosa which when wiped off shows the red surface underneath. The patient is on penicillin therapy for last 12 weeks. The most likely diagnosis of lesion is: a. b. c. d. Actinomycosis Candidiasis* Lichen planus Leukoplakia

43.
a.

Clinical diagnosis of candidiasis is confirmed by: response to vitamin B12 therapy b. demonstration of mycelia and spores on histologic examination of scrapings* c. sun-ray arrangement of fungal hyphae d. presence of characteristic sulfur granules

44. A patient with severe mycotic infection of head and neck characterized by triad of uncontrolled diabetes, orbital infection and meningoencephalitis most probably has: a. b. c. d. Candidiasis Actinomycosis Mucormycosis* Histoplasmosis

45. The organism most commonly implicated as causative agents in cases of cellulites is: Staphylococcus sp. b. Streptococcus sp.* c. Neisseria sp d. Pheumococcus sp.
a.

46. A middle age patient presents swelling in the left maxillary area with mild pain on palpation. On examination, left maxillary first molar was missing and patient gives the history of traumatic extraction of the tooth about 10 year ago in which one of the root was displaced in the maxillary sinus which was then removed via Caldwell-Luc operation. Overlying skin and other teeth were normal. X-ray examination shows a radiolucent are in left maxilla which

was separated from left maxillary sinus anatomically. Most probable diagnosis of the condition is: a. b. c. d. surgical ciliated cyst of maxilla* maxillary sinusitis carcinoma of maxillary antrum retention cyst of maxillary sinus

47. A patient presents with swelling in neck near the angle of mandible on right side which disappear on applying pressure to it. Intraorally a dome-shaped, bluish swelling present in floor of mouth on right side. Most likely diagnosis of the lesion is: a. b. c. d. mucocele dermoid cyst branchial cyst ranula*

48. a. b. c. d. 49.

Sialoliths are mainly composed of: calcium calcium calcium calcium phosphate* oxide carbonate suphate

Which of the following cells are most radioresistant? a. granulocyte b. muscle cell

c. lymphocyte d. epithelial cell* 50. Which of the following tissue is mot sensitive to radiation induced carcinogenesis? a. b. c. d. 51. as: a. b. c. d. Thyroid* liver salivary gland brain Craniofacial dysostosis with syndactyly is also known

Crouzons syndrome Apert syndrome* Treacher Collins syndrome Eranceschetti syndrome

52. Triangular frontal defect, parrots beak nose, hypertelorism and prognathic mandible are features of: a. b. c. d. mandibulofacial dysostosis craniofacial dysostosis* Pierre Robin syndrome Cleidocranial dysostosis

53. A female patient complains of pain in right ear radiating towards the angle of mandible. Clicking sounds were present in right temporomandibular joint. Results of palpation and radiographic examination are negative. The most probable diagnosis is:

a. b. c. d.

osteoarthritis rheumatoid arthritis myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome* traumatic arthritis

54. Which of the following groups of lymph nodes is first to exhibit lymphadenopathy in cases of infection monocucleous? a. b. c. d. 55. is; a. b. c. d. 56. a. b. c. d. 57. axillary cervical* inguinal mediastinal An early oral manifestation of infectious mononucleosis

palatal petechiae* oral ulceration inflammation of mucous membrane edema of soft palate and uvula Philadelphia chromosome is characteristically seen in: acute lymphocytic leukaemia acute monocytic leukaemia chronic lymphocytic leukaemia chronic myeloid leukaemia* Most common form of leukaemia in children is:

a. acute lymphocytic leukaemia* b. chronic myeloid leukaemia

c. acute monocytic leukaemia d. chronic lymphocytic leukaemia 58. a. b. c. d. 59. a. b. c. d. 60. In thrombocytopenic purpura: bleeding time is normal, clotting time is prolonged Both bleeding and clotting time are prolonged Bleeding time is prolonged, clotting time is normal* Both bleeding time and clotting time are norma Hemophilia A is caused to deficiency of: Factor VIII* Factor IX Factor V Factor X In hemophilia A:

a. Prothrombine time (PT) is normal, plasma thromboplastin time (PTT) is normal b. PT is prolonged, PTT is prolonged c. PT is normal, PTT is prolonged* d. PT is prolonged, PTT is normal 61. A patient presents with spontaneous necrotizing ulcers of oral cavity. On laboratory examination, RBC count was normal but WBC count was 2,000 with lymphocytes 65% neutrophils 5%, monocytes 28%, eosinophils 2% and basophils 0%. The most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. infectious mononucleosis agranulocytosis* cyclic neutropenia leukaemia

62. A

patient presents with petechiae on oral mucosa with gingival bleeding. Blood examination shows platelet count of 30,000/mm3 with increase in bleeding time and clot retraction time, RBC, TLC are normal. Most probable diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. hemophilia infectious mononucleosis thrombocytopenic purpura* anemia

63. A middle-aged patient complains of periodic burning of her buccal mucosa. Oral examination shows slightly raised, linear, grayish-white plaque on buccal mucosa. Biopsy of the lesion shows acanthosis, surface keratosis with vacuolation of cells of basal cell layer with cellular inflammatory infiltrate localized to subepithelial connective tissue. Most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. Lichen planus* Leokoedema Luekoplakia Pemphigoid

64. Sudden development of intensely red, wheal-like lesions on oral mucosa which progress to form thin-walled vesicles which ruptures to form ulceration covered by yellowish-white membrane suggests a diagnosis of: a. b. c. d. Reiters syndrome Behcets syndrome Erythema multiforme* Pemphigus

65. A patient presents with an asymptomatic white corrugated patch present bilaterally on his buccal mucosa. He also reports the occurrence of same kind of lesion in his mother and younger brother. Most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. Pemphigus Leukoedema Candidiasis White sponge nevus*

66. An elderly patient complains of burning, aching pain, paresthesia, and itching on one side of face. On examination, small white scars are seen in pre-auricular region. Most likely diagnosis is: a. b. c. d. Sphenopalalatine neuralgia Bells palsy Auriculotemporal syndrome Post-herpetic neuralgia*

67. Dysphagia, sore throat, pharyngeal pain which occurs due to elongated styloid process exerting pressure on pharyngeal wall is known as: a. b. c. d. Trotters syndrome Eagles syndrome* Glossopharyngeal neuralgia Orofacial dyskinesia

68. A patient presents with an asymptomatic submucosal lump in his tongue. On histopathologic examination, it shows cells with extremely granular eosinophillic cytoplasm. Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia was also present. Most likely diagnosis of the lesion is:

a. b. c. d.

lymphangioma granular cell myoblastoma* hemangioma lingual thyroid

69. In which of the following condition, serum alkaline phosphatase levels are increased? a. b. c. d. Paget;s disease* Osteogenesis imperfecta Osteopetrosis Cherubism

70. Diffuse white lesions are seen in the mouth of a 6month old child who is on antibiotic therapy for the cystic fibrosis. The white patches could be stripped off leaving a raw, red surface. The most likely diagnosis of the condition is: a. b. c. d. acute herpetic stomatitis diphtheria oral thrush* herpangina

MCQ in ORL COURSE

Name:_______________________________________Computer #:____________

1. Dorsum of Nose formed by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Vomer b. Lower Lateral Cartilage c. Nasal Bones d. Septal Cartilage 2. Upper lateral cartilage attached with the nasal bone a. Under side of the nasal bone b. Postero Superior part of the bone c. End to end d. Not attached at all 3. Nasal Vestibule lined by the: a. Cuboidal epithelium b. Columnar epithelium c. Skin d. Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium 4. The paranasal sinuses drains into the middle meatus of the nose EXCEPT: a. Sphenoid sinus b. Middle ethmoid sinus c. Maxillary sinus d. Posterior sinus 5. Olfactory cleft lies between the: a. Middle turbinate & cribriform plate b. Superior turbinate & cribriform plate c. Superior turbinate & inferior turbinate

d. Inferior turbinate & cribriform plate

6. True about the nerve supply of the nose: a. Sympathetic supply from superior cervical ganglion b. Parasympathetic supply via nervus intermedius c. Nerve supply is extremely rich d. All of the above 7. Type of sphenoid sinus in normal population is usually: a. Sellar b. Postseller c. Preseller d. Maximal Pneumatisation 8. Pain in vertexis seen in: a. Ethmoid sinusitis b. Sphenoid sinusitis c. Frontal sinusitis d. Maxillary sinusitis 9. Nose develops from: a. Second branchial arch b. First branchial arch c. Third branchial arch d. First & second arch 10. Incidence of mucocele is lowest in a. Frontal sinus b. Sphenoid sinus

c. Maxillary sinus d. Ethmoid sinus

11. Extraction of which tooth commonly leads on to oroantral fistula: a. Second pre molar b. First molar c. First pre-molar d. Second molar 12. Sodium chromogycate is helpful in allergic rhinitis because it causes: a. Desensitization b. Decongestion of nasal mucosa c. Most cell stabilization d. Vasoconstriction 13. a. b. c. d. 14. Nasal polyps in a child should arouse the suspicion of: Celiac disease Aspirin hypersensitivity Cystic fibrosis All the above

Aquamous papilloma of the nose arises from a. Turbinates

b. Vestibule c. Septum d. Any of the above 15. Coincidental malignancy in upper respiratory tract with inverted papilloma is: a. 2% b. 5% c. 4% d. 0.1%

16. Best approach for surgical papilloma of nose is: a. Caldwell-lucs approach b. External ethmoidectomy c. Intranasal approach d. Lateral rhinotomy 17. a. b. c. d. 18.

excision

of

inverted

Syphilis of nose usually involves the: Nasal septum Ethmoid sinus Nasal bone Maxillary sinus

Septal perforation may seen in all EXCEPT: a. Tuberculosis

b. Syphilis c. Leprosy d. Toxoplasmosis 19. a. b. c. d. 20. a. b. c. d. Cosmetic rhinoplasty is preferably avoided in: Nose with thick greasy skin Ethnic noses Over forty years of age All of the above Idead nasolabial angle in males is: 80 100 110 90

21. a. b. c. d. 22.

Normal masofrontal angle is: 105 135 190 125

Ideal age for otoplasty in ears is: a. 1 year b. 5 years

c. 12 years d. 2 years 23. a. b. c. d. 24. a. b. c. d. 25. a. b. c. d. Cribriform plate is a part of: Ethmoid bone It is a separate bone Frontal bone Vomer Treatment for carcinoma maxillary sinus is: Radiotherapy Radiotherapy followed by surgery Maxillectomy followed by radiotherapy Chemotherapy only Sphenopalatine foramen lies posterosuperior to: Bulla ethmoidalis Middle turbinate Superior turbinate Inferior turbinate

26.

Sensory supply of nasal cavity mainly from the: a. Ophthalmic nerve b. Infra orbital nerve c. Mixillary nerve

d. Vidian nerve 27. a. b. c. d. 28. a. b. c. d. 29. a. b. c. d. 30. a. b. c. d. Radiologically, maxillary sinus is best seen in: Lateral view Oblique view Occipito frontal view Occipitomental view Commonest intracranial complication of sinusitis is: Brain abscess Canernous sinus thrombosis Cortical venous thrombosis Meningitis Reduction rhinoplasty is for: Hump nose Narrow nose Crooked nose Saddle nose Tripode fracture is seen in: Zygomatic bone Temporal bone Nasal bones Maxilla

31. a. b. c. d. 32. a. b. c. d. 33. a. b. c. d. 34. a. b. c. d.

Potato nose is seen in: Malignancy Sarcoidosis Rhinophyma Rhinosporidiosis Lefort II fracture also known as: Rhomboid fracture Pyramidal fracture Cranio-facial dissociation Molar fracture Cranio-facial dislocation is seen in: Lefort I fracture Lefort II fracture Lefort III fracture None of the above True about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma: Benign but locally invasive Seen only in males around puberty High vascular tumor All of the above

35. Commonest malignant neoplasm of the nose and paranasal sinuses is: a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Squamous cellcarcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma

d. Malignant melanoma

36. a. b. c. d. 37. a. b. c. d. 38. a. b. c. d. 39. a. b. c. d.

Commonest site of inverted papilloma of the nose: Lateral wall of the nose Nasal septum Floor of the nose Roof of the nose Fracture of the skull seen in: Lefort I fracture Lefort II fracture Lefort III fracture Lefort IV fracture Diagnosis of glandular fever is confirmed by: Positive monospot test Raised liver enzyme Leucocytosis C-reactive protein Scarlet fever rashes are differentiated by: These are painful There are slightly tender Rashes appear early Desquamation

40. a. b. c. d.

Waldayers ring is: Lymphatic ring Venous ring Arterial ring Ring of pigmentation

41. a. b. c. d.

Shoberry tongue is seen in: Erysipelas Scarlet fever Monday fever All of the above syndrome most significant

42. In Plummer Vinson investigation is: a. Serum iron b. Bone marrow iron c. Serum hemoglobin d. Serum ferritin 43. a. b. c. d.

Killian Dehiscence leads to: Oesophageal diverticulae Pharyngeal pouch Laryngocele Plummer-vinson syndrome

44. a. b. c. d. 45. a. b. c. d.

True about globus syndrome: Feeling of lump in the throat Organic lesion present Relieved by anxiety Treatment is surgery Difficulty in swallowing fluids than solids seen in: Achlasia Oesophageal stricture Pharyngeal pouch Carcinoma oesophagus

46. Acute retropharyngeal abscess in infants is dangerous because: a. Space is smaller in size b. Immune system is poor c. Infants spine is short and larynx is high d. It occurs bilaterally 47. a. b. c. d. A fascial space is defined as the area: Bone and fascia Area bounded by connective tissue Area around the gland Between muscle and fascia

48. a. b. c. d. 49. a. b. c. d. 50. the: a. b. c. d.

Retropharyngeal space extends from base of skull to: Hyoid bone Bifuraction of trachea Angle of mandible Cricoid cartilage All are contents of parapharyngeal space except: Internal jugular vien Part of parotid gland Submandibular gland Carotid artery Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess due to spasm of Buccinator Temporalis Masseter Medial pterygoid

51. a. b. c. d.

Organism responsible for Ludwigs angina is: Haemolyticus streptococcus Albus streptococcus Viridans streptococcus Aureus streptococcus

52. a. b. c. d. 53. a. b. c. d. 54. a. b. c. d. 55. a. b. c. d.

Mainstay of treatment in Ludwigs angina is treated by: Supportive treatment Antibiotics Incision and drainage Radiation Commonest malignancy in nasopharynx is: Squamous cell carcinoma Lymphoma Adenocarcinoma Transitional Cell Carcinoma Treatment of carcinoma nasopharynx is: Radiotherapy Cryosurgery Surgery Chemotherapy Oropharyngeal cancer mainly: Carcinosarcoma Squamous cell carcinoma Lymphoepithelioma Columnar cell carcinoma

56. a. b. c. d.

Common site of hypopharyngeal tumour is: Anterior wall Posterior wall Post cricoid areas Pyriform fossa

57. Incidence of lymph node metastasis in pyriform fossa tumour is: a. 50% b. 95% c. 25% d. 75% 58. a. b. c. d. 59. a. b. c. d. 60. a. b. c. d. Radiographic finding of plummer Vinson syndrome is: Cricoid constriction Post cricoid web Enlarged vasculature Mass in the pyriform fossa Plummer Vinson syndrome is also known as: Killiam syndrome Paterson-Brown Kelly syndrome Brown syndrome None of the above Type of apthous ulcer seen in population normally: Minor Malignant Major Recurrent

61. What is inappropriate about granular cell tumour of oral cavity: a. Common in upper jaw b. Common in males c. Common in fourth decade d. Arises from skeletal muscle 62. All are common sites of papilloma in oral cavity EXCEPT: a. Anterior pillar b. Buccal mucosa c. Soft palate d. Alveolus 63. a. b. c. d. 64. a. b. c. d. Treatment of geographical tongue is: Reassurance B-complex Vit. A Iron Geographical tongue is due to: Folic acid deficiency Idiopathic Iron deficiency Vit C deficiency

65. a. b. c. d.

In geographical tongue there is hypertrophy of: Circumvallate papillae Filiform & fungiform papillae Fungiform papillae Filiform papillae

66. a. b. c. d. 67. a. b. c. d. 68. a. b. c. d.

Median rhomboid glossitis is due to: Candida albicans Folic acid deficiency Herpes virus Iron deficiency All are types of ranula EXCEPT: Plunging Dermoid Simple Cavernous Carcinoma soft palate is treated by: Radiotherapy Cryosurgery Surgery Chemotherapy

69. a. b. c. d. 70. a. b. c. d.

True about nerve supply of pyriform fossa: Secretomotor fibres go to chorda tympani Devoid of any nerve Poor sensory supply It has rich nerve supply Malignant pleomorphic adenoma is commonest in: Minor salivary glands Parotid gland Submandibular gland Sublingual gland

71. Most common malignant salivary gland tumour in children is: a. Muco-epidermoid tumour b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma c. Adenocarcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma 72. a. b. c. d. Parotid gland tumour associated with pain is: Pleomorphic adenoma Warthims tumour Adenoid cystic carcinoma Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

73. a. b. c. d. 74. a. b. c. d. 75. a. b. c. d.

Most common site of mucoepidermoid tumour is: Submandibular gland Minor salivary glands Sublingual gland Parotid gland Accepted surgery for a benign parotid tumour is: Total parotidectomy Superficial parotidectomy + neck dissection Superficial parotidectomy Enucleation Cystic swelling in a parotid gland is usually caused by: Muco-epidemoid tumour Pleomorphic adenoma Warthins tumour Adenoid cystic carcinoma

76. a. b. c. d. 77.

In a parotid tumour malignancy may be suspected with: Facial palsy Pain Skin involvement All of the above In Sjogrens syndrome biopsy taken from:

a. b. c. d. 78. a. b. c. d. 79. a. b. c. d. 80. a. b. c. d.

Palatal glands Monir sublabial gland Submandibular Lacrimal glands Wide excision of the nerves is indicated in: Adenoid cystic carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Acinic cell tumour Freys syndrome occurs: Sialectasis After parotidectomy Warthins tumour In pleomarphic adenoma Not true abut pre-epiglottic space: To be removed in laryngectomy Site for tuberculosis Cancer spreads in it easily It contains fat

81.

Not true about epiglottis: a. It is elastic cartilage

b. Forms the boundary of pre epiglottic space c. Contains some glands also d. It ossifies in old age 82. a. b. c. d. 83. a. b. c. d. Abducters of vocal cords: Cricothyroid Thyroarytonoid Posterior cricoartytenoid Lateral cricoarytenoid Unpaired laryngeal muscles: Vocalis Interarytenoid Lateral cricoarytenoid Posterior cricoarytenoid are supplied by recurrent

84. all muscles of larynx laryngeal nerve, except: a. Oblique arytenoids b. Thyroarytenoid c. Cricothyroid d. Vocalis 85. a. b. c. d.

Commonest benign tumour of salivary glands: Orcocytoma Manomorphic adenoma Pleomorphic adenoma None of the above

86. a. b. c. d. 87. a. b. c. d.

Delphian lymph node lies on: Cricoid cartilage Cricothyroid membrane Thyroid cartilage Epiglottis all are main functions of larynx EXCEPT: To control the air flow Phonation Generation of speech To protect the lungs

88. Microlaryngoscopy is usually done with an objective lens with focal length of: a. 200 mm b. 400 mm c. 100 mm d. 300 mm 89. a. b. c. d. Vocal nodules present usually seen at: Anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3 junction Middle of the cord At the junction of anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 of the cord Posterior 1/3 of the cord

90. a. b. c. d.

Most appropriate about spastic dysphonia: Seen in children Macrolaryngeal surgery cures the disease It is stress related Hereditary

91. a. b. c. d. 92. a. b. c. d. 93. a. b. c. d. 94.

Diplophonia usually seen in: Vocal polyps Dysphonia plica ventricularis Contact ulcer Papilloma of larynx Length of vocal cord in adult males: 3.5 cm 2.5 cm 1 cm 2 cm Treatment of choice in early glottic cancer is: Chemotherapy Radiotherapy Toral laryngectomy Surgery followed by radiotherapy

Origin of laryngocele from: a. Vocal folds

b. Ventricular folds c. Ventricle d. All of the above 95. a. b. c. d. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is: aortic aneurysm Mitral stenosis surgery Surgery of patent ductus arteriosis Subclavian artery aneurysm

96. a. b. c. d. 97. a. b. c. d. 98.

Right recurrent laryngeal paralysis due to all EXCEPT: Carcinoma of apex of lung Aortic aneurism Thyroid surgery Carcinoma of oesophagus Dead space is reduced in tracheotomy: 15% 30 - 50% 10% 20%

Tracheal rings incised in tracheostomy are: a. Third & fourth b. Fifth & sixth

c. Second & third d. First & second rings 99. a. b. c. d. Carotid body tumour is confirmed by: Ultrasound Tomography CT scan Angiography

100. Commonest occult primary site is: a. b. c. d. Tonsil Pyriform fossa Nasopharynx Base of tongue

101. Occult nodes are maximum in: a. b. c. d. Pyroform fossa tumours Base of tongue malignancy Supraglottic tumours Glottic tumours

102. Regurgitation of undigested good after a long time of swallowing is seen in:

a. b. c. d.

Plummer Vinson syndrome Pharyngeal pouch Peptic ulcer Cardiac achlasia

103. Malignant changes occur in leukoplakia with: a. b. c. d. Hyperkeratosis Dyskeratosis Dysplasia Simple keratosis

104. The best method to secure a tracheostomy tube is: a. b. c. d. Tape Bandage Suturing All of the above

105. Nasopharynx extends from base of skull to: a. b. c. d. Base of tongue Styloid process Level of hard palate Cricoid cartilage

106.Hyoid bone gives stability to hypopharynx through: a. Superior constrictor b. Middle constrictor c. Inferior constrictor d. All the constrictor 107.Chief artery of tonsil comes from: a. Ascending pharyngeal artery b. Facial artery c. Palatine artery d. Dorsal lingual artery 108.Palatine tonsils lie in: a. Hard palate b. Eustachian tube c. Facial pillars d. Soft palate 109.Common symptom of laryngitis is: a. Pain b. Dysphonia c. Burning sensation d. Foreign body sensation 110.Ludwigs angina is infection of: a. Submental space b. Parapharyngeal space c. Retropharyngeal space d. Submandible space

111.Tuberculosis of the larynx affect the: a. Anterior part of the larynx b. Posterior part of the larynx c. Entire larynx d. None of the above 112.Tonsillar bed formed by all EXCEPT: a. Buccopharyngeal membrane b. Suprerior constrictor muscle c. Pharyngobasilar fasia d. Inferior constrictor muscles 113.Most common malignancy of the tongue: a. Metastatic b. Malignant melanoma c. Basal cell carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma 114.Most common site of salivary calculi: a. Submandibular gland b. Lingual gland c. Parotid gland d. Minor salivary glands 115.Paul-Bunnel test is for:

a. b. c. d.

Leukemia Diphtheria Glandular fever All of the above

116.Peritonsillar abscess most commonly occurs around which part of the tonsil: a. Anterosuperior b. Lateral c. Anteroinferior d. Posterosuperior 117.Normal length of the styloid process is: a. 1.5 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 3.5 cm d. 4 cm 118.Which of the laryngeal cartilage does not ossify: a. Epiglottis b. Cuneiform cartilage c. Corniculate cartilage d. All of the above 119.Lining epithelium of vocal cords:

a. b. c. d.

Stratified squamous epithelium Simple squamous epithelium Transitional epithelium Cuboidal epithelium

120.Inspiratory strider seen in obstruction of: a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Bronchus d. Bronchiole

121.Most common histological type of laryngeal malignancy: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Transitional cell carcinoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. None of the above 122.Angioneurotic edema is: a. Type I reaction b. Type II reaction c. Type III reaction d. Type IV reaction 123.Most common type of oesophageal malignancy: a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Transitional cell carcinoma d. None of the above 124.Occult nodes commonly seen in malignancy of: a. Nasopharynx b. Larynx c. Oesophagus d. Lungs 125. Commonest type of malignancy of auricle and external auditory: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Malignant melanoma d. Transitional cell carcinoma

126.The cartilage of pinna made up of: a. Hyaline cartilage b. Fibrous cartilage c. Elastic cartilage d. Mixed cartilage 127.External auditery meatus is cartilaginous in its: a. Outer one third

b. Outer two third c. Outer one forth d. Outer half 128.Boils of external auditory canal are very painful due to: a. Associated perichondritis b. Close attachment of skin c. It is extremely rich in sensory supply d. Presence of cerumenous glands 129.Depth of the middle ear is the least in: a. Mesotympanum b. It is equal c. Epitympanum d. Hypotympanum 130.The vascular structure lie below the floor of middle ear is: a. Internal jugular vein b. Internal carotid artery c. Jugular bulb d. Emissary vein

131.Processus cochleariform contains: a. Stapedius tendon b. Apex of cochlear

c. Tensor tympani tendon d. Semi circular canal 132.Secondary tympanic membrane is: a. Covers the oval window b. There is no such entity c. Covers the round window d. False tympanic membrane 133. Promontary is performed by: a. Medial semicircular canal b. Lateral semicircular canal c. Basal turn of cochlea d. Superior semicircular canal 134.Fallopian canal is: a. Internal auditory meatus b. Facial nerve canal c. External auditory canal d. Eustachian tube 135.Stapedious is inserted to: a. Neck of stapes b. Foot plate of stapes c. Head of stapes d. Crura of stapes

136.Eustachian tube length is: a. 48 mm b. 40 mm c. 24 mm d. 36 mm 137.Swallowing movements opens the Eustachian tube through: a. Levator palati b. Tensor palati c. Tensor tympani muscle d. Palatoglossus 138.Cartilagenous part of Eustachian tube is: a. Outer half b. Medial two third c. Outer two third d. Middle third 139.The fluid near to consistency of CSF: a. Cortilymph b. Perilymph c. Endolymph d. Prilymph & endolymph 140.Reisseners membrane is between the: a. Scala media and scala tympani b. Scala vestibule and scala tympani c. Scala media and scala vestibuli

d. Cochlea and vestibule

141.Tympani membrane functions best when the middle ear pressure is: a. slightly higher than external ear b. equal to external ear pressure c. slightly lower than external ear d. None of the above is correct 142.Pain in the ear may be due to diseases of all parts of ear EXCEPT: a. External auditory canal b. Middle ear c. Cochlea d. Auricle 143.Most common symptom of ear disease is: a. Pain b. Tinnitus c. Discharge d. Deafness 144.Semicircular canal stimulated by: a. Linear movement b. Gravity

c. Angular movement d. Vigorous exercise 145.Perforation of tympanic membrane with ragged edges is seen in: a. Chronic otitis media b. Bass trauma c. T.M. trauma d. Myringotomy

146.Pain and tenderness in the region of tragus are usually caused by: a. Furuncle b. Mastoiditis c. Wax d. Temporamandibular joint dysfunction 147.Lining of the eustachian tube is: a. Cuboid epithelium b. Transitional epithelium c. Squamous epithelium d. Ciliated columnar epithelium 148.Preferred frequency of tuning fork for hearing test is: a. 512

b. 204 c. 256 d. 102 149.The Rinne test will be negative in conductive deafness of: a. 5-10 db b. 0 - 5 db c. 10 - 15 db d. more than 15 db 150.Absolute bone conduction measures: a. Middle ear function b. External ear function c. Inner ear function d. Middle and inner ear function

151.Absolute bone conduction is reduced in: a. Perceptive deafness b. Conductive deafness c. Psycogenic deafness d. Malignant otitis media 152.Pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube is at: a. Posterior end of superior turbonate b. Posterior end of middle turbonate

c. Posterior end of inferior turbonate d. Below the inferior turbonate 153.Webers test is lateralized when the hearing loss is: a. 7 db b. 5 db c. more than 15 db d. more than 10 db 154.Masking is applied in better ear if the difference in threshold of two years is: a. 20 - 30 db b. 30 - 40 db c. 40 db or more d. more than 20 db 155.False about speech audiometry: a. It predicts the usefulness of hearing aids b. It predicts the benefits of operations c. It is very useful in functional deafness d. It is a valuable method to access actual disability

156.Impedance audiometry is useful in: a. Ossicular discontinuity b. Eustachian tube obstruction

c. Sercretory otitis media d. All of the above 157.Recruitment denotes lesions of: a. Cochlea b. Central connections c. Middle ear d. Cochlea nerve 158.All are true about acoustic reflexes EXCEPT: a. It can help in localizing the facial nerve lesions b. It is useful in malingerers c. It is very useful in Menieres disease d. Tensor tymapani contraction can be tested by stimulating cornea with cold air 159.Most effective test in functional hearing loss is: a. Stengers test b. Lombards test c. Evoked response audimetry d. Delayed speech feedback 160.Fatiguable nystagmus is seen in: a. Vestibular type b. Ocular type c. Central type d. Cochlear type

161.In caloric test, the interval between two irrigation is: a. 10 seconds b. 40 seconds c. 5 seconds d. 2 seconds 162.Caloric test is carried out in supine position with head raised about: a. 20
b. c. d.

40 10 30

163.Perichondritis of the auricle usually caused by: a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. E. Coli d. Pseudomonas 164.Ceruminous glands are present in external auditory canal in: a. Outer third b. Entire canal c. Outer half d. Outer two third 165.Most common benign tumour of external auditory meatus: a. Osteoma b. Adenoma c. Papilloma

d. Ceruminoma

166.Primary cause of osteoma of external auditory canal is: a. Otitis external b. Swimming in cold water c. Trauma d. Long standing otitis media 167.Commonest organism responsible for otitis externa in tropics is: a. Streptococcus b. H. influenza c. Staphylococcus d. Pseudomonas 168.Abnormally patent Eustachian tube may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT: a. Marked weight loss b. Adenoid enlargement c. Debilitating diseases in old age d. Congenital 169.Unilateral secretory otitis media in an adult may seen in: a. Grandular fever b. Parapharyngeal tumour c. Aids

d. Carcinoma nasopharynx 170.Commonest bacterial isolate in acute suppurative otitis media is: a. Pneumococcus b. H. influenza c. E. Coli d. Staphylococcus

171.Chief complaint in chronic middle ear effusion in adult is: a. Pain in ear b. Blocked feeling in ear c. Tinnitus d. Deafness 172.All points towards chronic middle ear effusion EXCEPT: a. Reduced mobility of drum b. Flat tympanogram c. Conductive deafness d. Red tympanic membrane 173.Cholesteatoma commonly EXCEPT: a. Fallopian canal b. Cochlea c. Incus erodes all of the following

d. Lateral semicircular 174.Characteristic discharge in attico-antral disease is: a. Purulent discharge b. Mostly stained discharge c. Mucopurulent discharge d. Mucoid discharge 175.Commonest material used in myringoplasty is: a. Perichondrium b. Cartilage c. Temporalis fascia d. Dura matter

176.Symptomless multiple meatus: a. Should be excised b. No treatment c. Radiation d. Chemotherapy

osteomas

of

external

auditory

177.Mastoid cell always present in infants is: a. Facial cells b. Mastoid antrum c. Perisinus cell

d. Labyrinthine cells 178.Sudden disappearance of symptoms in Gradenigo syndrome indicates: a. Improper antibiotics b. Psychogenic cause c. Intracranial d. Complete cure of disease 179.Gradenigo syndrome consist all EXCEPT: a. Pain and headache b. Diplopia c. Ear discharge d. Fascial plasty 180.Evening rise of temperature with rigors after mastoid surgery occurs in: a. Tubercular otitis media b. Lateral sinus thombosis c. Meningitis d. Extradural abscess

181.Tobey Ayer test is positive in: a. Otitic hydrocephalus b. Petrositis

c. Lateral sinus thrombosis d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis 182.Griesinger sign seen in: a. Bezolds abscess b. Lateral sinus thrombosis c. Acute mastoiditis d. Citellis abscess 183.Voice in otosclerosis: a. High, well modulated voice b. Loud, harsh speech c. Low, well modulated voice d. Medium, harsh speech 184.Tympanic membrane in chronic non-active otosclerosis in most cases: a. Slightly congested b. Pink c. Yellow d. Normal 185.Main symptom of otosclerosis are: a. Deafness and vertigo b. Deafness and heaviness of ear c. Tinnitis and vertigo d. Deafness and tinnitus

186.Family history is positive in otosclerosis is about: a. 20% b. 50% c. 10% d. 30% 187.Manifestation of otosclerosis is usually at the age of: a. 15 - 20 years b. 20 - 35 years c. 10 - 25 years d. never before 30 years 188.Most commonly affected area in otosclerosis is: a. Post fenestram b. Ante fenestram c. Annular alignment d. Foot plate of stapes 189.Hearing aid gives best results in: a. Sensory deafness b. Mixed deafness c. Neural deafness d. Conductive deafness 190.Conchlear implant is useful in: a. Mixed deafness b. Sensorineural deafness c. Total deafness

d. Unilateral sensorineural deafness

191.Feedback in hearing aid is more common in a: a. Ear level hearing aid b. Body worm hearing aid c. Low tone hearing aid d. All of the above 192.Acute middle ear effusion is a variety of: a. CSOM b. Mastoiditis c. Catarrhal otitis media d. None of the above 193.After acute unilateral labyrinthine functions usually come in: a. 1 day b. 6 months c. 2 weeks d. 6 weeks failure the normal

194.Treatment of acute suppurative otitis media: a. Local antibiotics b. Systemic antibiotics c. Both of the above

d. Local antibiotics and steroids 195.Deafness in Menieres disease is: a. Conductive b. Fluctuating sensorineural c. Mixed d. Unilateral conductive deafness

196.Menieres disease bilateral in: a. 40% b. 80% c. 10% d. 90% 197.Lermoyez syndrome is variant of: a. Presbyacusis b. Menieres disease c. Vestibular neuronitis d. Otosclerosis 198.Acoustic neuroma arise usually from: a. Inferior vestibular nerve b. Cochlear nerve c. Nervous intermedius d. Superior vestibular nerve

199.In cerebellopontine comprise of: a. 60% b. 80% c. 51% d. 10% 200.Hardest bone is: a. Squamous part b. Bony labyrinth c. Tympanic part d. Petrous part

angle

tumours,

acoustic

neuroma

201.Common fracture of temporal bone is: a. Longitudinal b. Oblique c. Mixed d. Transverse 202.Type of deafness in longitudinal fracture of temporal bone is: a. Sensorineural deafness b. Central deafness c. Conductive deafness d. Mixed deafness

203.Barotrauma occurs if the pressure difference between nasopharynx and middle ear is above: a. 60 mm of Hg b. 120 mm of Hg c. 90 mm of Hg d. 30 mm of Hg 204.All are true about transverse fracture of temporal bone EXCEPT: a. Facial nerve commonly involved b. Sensorinueral deafness c. Conductive deafness d. These fractures are less common 205.Noise trauma first of all involves the frequency range of: a. 1 - 3 K Hz b. 4 - 6 K Hz c. 1 - 2 K Hz d. 3 - 14 K Hz

206.Sound level in factory of 8 hours shift should not exceed: a. 65 db b. 50 db c. 45 db d. 85 db

207.MacEwens triangle corresponds to: a. Mastoid tip b. Cochlea c. Mastoid antrum d. All of the above 208.Most dangerous type of labyrinthisis: a. Circumscribed labyrinthisis b. Purulent labyrinthisis c. Paralabyrinthisis d. Serous labyrinthisis 209.Main disadvantage of modified radical mastoidectomy is: a. Facial palsy b. Intracranial complications c. Large cavity d. Severe deafness 210.Main disadvantage of tympanomastoidectomy is: a. High rate of complications b. Deafness c. Large cavity d. Recurrence of cholesteatoma combined approach

211.Bezoids abscess is: a. Digastric abscess b. Zygematic abscess c. Abscess posterior to mastoid process d. Subperiosteal abscess 212.Gradenigos syndrome is diagnostic of: a. Mastoiditis b. CSOM c. Petrositis d. Masked mastoiditis 213.Nerve supply of tensor tympani: a. Trigeminal nerve b. Greater auricular nerve c. Chorda tympani nerve d. Facial nerve 214.Air bubbles in secretary otitis media are seen when the fluid is: a. Purulent b. Haemorrhagic c. Mucoid d. Serous 215.Sound intensity required to elicit stapedial reflex is more than: a. 45 - 65 db b. 70 - 90 db c. 90 - 100 db d. 30 - 45 db

216.Cochlear microphanics generated by: a. Tympanic membrane b. Cochlea c. Organ of d. All of the above 217.Maximum amount of secretary otitis media: a. 10 - 25 db b. 15 - 30 db c. 25 - 40 db d. 40 - 55 db conductive deafness caused by

218.Which of the following s absent in Bat ear: a. Helis b. Antihelix c. Tragus d. Lobule 219.Treatment of traumatic membrane is: a. Local antibiotics b. Systemic antibiotics c. Steroid drops perforation of the tympanic

d. Observation 220.Most common symptoms of acoustic neuroma is: a. Pain b. Unilateral deafness c. Tinnitus d. Vertigo

221.Lermoye syndrome is variant of: a. Otosclerosis b. Otitis media c. Mastoiditis d. Menieres disease 222.Sudden development in patient having tinnitus & hearing loss followed by loss of tinnitus and improvement in hearing seen in: a. Ossicular otosclerosis b. Lermoyez syndrome c. Cochlear otosclerosis d. Masked mastoiditis 223.Earliest syndrome of drug induced ototoxicity: a. Low pitched tinnitus b. High pitched tinnitus

c. Sensorineural deafness d. Any of the above 224.Vestibular neuronitis caused by: a. Fungus b. Virus c. Bacteria d. Malignancy 225.Which of the following is most common site of extradural abscess following otitis media is: a. Temporal lobe b. Cerebellum c. Frontal lobe d. Occipital lobe

226.Most common cause of tinnitus is: a. Otitis media b. Menieres disease c. Glamus tumours d. Idiopathic 227.Intensity of the whispering is: a. 5 db b. 20 db c. 30 db d. 40 db

228.Intensity sound of normal conversation: a. 40 db b. 60 db c. 50 db d. 30 db 229. 230.

MCQ in ORL COURSE

Name:_______________________________________Computer #:____________

1. In an audiogram speech frequencies are: a. 125, 250, 500 Hz b. 250, 500,1000 Hz c. 500, 1000, 2000 Hz d. 1000, 2000, 3000 Hz 2. Following are the features of acute mastoidectomy EXCEPT: a. Earache b. Post-auricular swelling c. Conductive deafness d. Painful movements of the pinna

3. All of the following statements are correct about facial nerve EXCEPT: a. It crosses lateral to styloid process b. Lies below horizontal semicircular canal c. Lies behind the pyramid in the posterior wall of the middle ear d. Chorda tympani branch arises from its tympanic segment 4. All of the following muscles are supplied by facial nerve EXCEPT: a. Masseter b. Buccinator c. Stylohoid d. Orbicularis Oculi 5. All of the following muscles are supplied by VIIth nerve EXCEPT: a. Stapedius b. Posterior belly of digastric c. Platysma d. Tensor Tympani 6. Ramsay Hunt syndrome includes all EXCEPT: a. Facial paralysis b. Vesicles in the external ear canal and tympanic membrane c. Vesicles on soft palate d. Pharyngeal paralysis

7. Facial paralysis in acute otitis media is due to the following EXCEPT: a. Cholesteatoma b. Bony erosion of fallopian tube c. Pre-existing dehiscence of facial canal d. Infection of retrofacial cells

8. All are true about otosclerosis EXCEPT: a. Onset is between 20 40 years of age b. Causes slowly progressive hearing loss c. Endolymphatic pressure is raised d. More common in white races

9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning Menieres disease? a. Other name for the disease is Hydrops of middleear. b. It is characterized by attacks of vertigo, tinnitus and conductive hearing loss. c. It is common in females d. With repeated attacks of vertigo, cochlear function gets reduced.

10.

Main constituents of the nasal septum are: a. Quadrangular cartilage b. Vomer c. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid d. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

11.

Which of the following is NOT true to nasal synechia a. Often follows intranasal surgery b. Epistaxis is the presenting feature c. Can lead to sinusitis d. Recurrence is common after removal

12.

Following are the features of atrophic rhinitis EXCEPT: a. Crusting and bleeding from nose b. Offensive smell c. Anosmia d. Narrow nasal chambers

13.

Purulent discharge in superior meatus is due to a. Maxillary sinus b. Anterior ethmoid sinuses c. Posterior ethmoid sinuses d. Sphenoid sinus

infection of:

14.

Septal performation is NOT seen in: a. Leprosy b. Wegeners granuloma c. Tuberculosis d. Rhinoscleroma

15.

Most common malignancy of paranasal sinuses is: a. Adenocarcinoma b. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Malignant Melanoma

16.

Abduction of vocal cord is brought about by: a. Thyroarytenoid b. Vocalis c. Cricothyroid d. Posterior cricoarytenoid

17.

External laryngeal nerve supplies which of the following a. Posterior cricoarytenoid b. Thyroarytenoid c. Oblique arytenoid d. Cricothyroid

muscle(s):

18.

The

following

laryngeal

cartilages

may

show

calcification EXCEPT: a. Cricoid b. Thyroid c. Arytenoid d. Epiglottis

19.

Contact ulcer of the larynx is caused by: a. Tuberculosis b. Syphilis c. Vocal abuse

d. Fungal infection

20.

All

are

true

about

Plummer-Vinson

syndrome

(Sideropenic dysphagia) EXCEPT: a. May be associated with carcinoma of hypopharynx or oesophagus. b. Dysphagia is due to cervical oesophageal web. c. Associated with iron-deficiency anaemia. d. More common in males. 21. Most common benign tumour of the parotid gland in an a. Haemangioma b. Warthins tumour c. Pleomorphic adenoma d. Oxyphil adenoma adult is:

22.

The most common malignant tumour of the salivary a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Muco-epidermoid carcinoma c. Malignant mixed tumour d. Cylindroma

glands is:

23.

Which of the following is NOT true of Pleomorphic a. It is slow-growing painless tumour b. Local recurrence is common after enucleation c. Most of the benign mixed tumours occur in submandibular gland

adenoma?

d. Treatment is wide surgical excision

24.

Which of the following is NOT true of Warthins tumour? a. Seen more often in men b. Affects age group of 40 - 60 c. Rapidly growing d. Affects tail of parotid gland

25.

All are true about Thyroglossal cyst EXCEPT: a. Presents as smooth, cystic swelling at or just below the hoid bone. b. Should be removed because of danger of infection and malignant change. c. Requires excision of mid-portion of hoid bone if recurrence is to be avoided.
d.

Originates from the 2nd brachial cleft.

26.

A cystic midline swelling in the neck can be result of the a. Branchial cyst b. Dermoid cyst c. Thyroglossal cyst d. Sebaceous cyst

following EXCEPT: