MOCK TEST 1 JANUARY 2009 1. A patient brings you a prescription for 16 mEq KC1.

Your pharmacy has 600 mg KC1 (MW 74.5) controlled release tablets does the patient need? A. 0.5 tablets B. 1 tablets C. 2 tablets D. 4 tablets E. 5 tablets ANS: C 2. HLB value for O/W emulsifying agent: A. 4 - 8 B. 1 - 4 C 8 - 18 D. 1-12 E. 4 - 12 ANS: C

3. Calcium gluconate injection contains 0.1 g Ca(C6H11O7)2mL of solution. If the NaC1 equivalent of calcium gluconate is 0.16, the injection is: A. hypotonic B. iso-osmotic C. isotonic D. hypertonic E. opisthonic ANS: D 4. Which of the following monitoring parameter is essential for patient who currently taking Low molecular weight herapin (LMWH): A. International Normalized Ratio (INR) B. Prothrombin time C. Herapin assay D. Sensitive TSH E. None of the above monitoring needed ANS: E 5. The elimination rate constant for a certain drug is 2.7 days -1. What is the half-life? A. 800 min B. 369 min C. 900 min D. 1200 min E. 1600 min ANS: B

6. Which of the following most closely describes as the clearance rate of drug that is infused at rate of 4 mg/min and produces a steady state concentration of 6 mg/L in plasma. A. 1,200 ml/min B. 667 ml/min C. 300 ml/min D. 132 ml/min E. 67 ml/min ANS: B 7. How many tablets are needed for following prescription? Rx Provera 5 mg tab QD 16 - 25 days for 3 months One tablet containing 5 mg A. 50 tablets B. 60 tablets C. 80 tablets D. 75 tablets E. 30 tablets ANS: E

8.

Which of the following parameters is used measure extent bioavailability: A. Cmax B. tmax C. AUC D. Vd E. Clearance ANS: C TIPS: Extent of bioavailability is obtained by AUC where as rate is measured by Cmax and tmax. Volume of distribution is not associated with bioavailability. 9. If 60 gram of 1% Hydrocortisone is mixed with 80 gram of 2.5% Hydrocortisone, what is the % w/w of hydrocortisone in final mixture? A. 2.25% B. 3.15% C. 1.85% D. 4.35% E. 2.60% ANS: C 10. Correct statement about partition coefficient? A. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble / drugs in water soluble B. Pc = drugs in water soluble / drugs in lipid soluble C. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble x drugs in water soluble

D. Pc = drugs in lipid soluble - drugs in water soluble E. None of the above ANC: A TIPS: Pc = Octanol/Water 11. pH-Pka = 1.5 for acidic drug what percent of drug is ionized? A. 3.06% B. 1% C. 100% D. 99% E. 97.5% ANS: E

12. In insurance plan drug price is $29.00 and $6.00 prescription fee. Every time this patient pays $100.00 for each prescription what is it called? A. Coinsurance B. Co-payment C.Prescription fee D. Gross margin E. Donation ANS: B 13. DIN is: A. Drug Information Number B. Drug Identification Number C. Drug Index number D. Drug Information Centre E. Each college of pharmacy identified by DIN ANS: B

14. How many millimeters of a 1 to 1600 solution can be made by dissolving 5.5 gram of sodium bicarbonate solution in water. A. 8800 B. 8000 C. 7200 D. 9800 ANS: A 15. If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10mL/min then one may assume that: I. Higher percent of plasma protein bond drug II. Drug has tubular reabsoprtion III. The extensively metabolized A. I only B. III only C. I and II only

D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct ANS: B 16. A researcher develops a new drug to prevent the common cold in children over the of two.1000 children received placebo and 1000 received the drug. During the one-year follow up the research diagnosed colds in 2.5% of the kids on placebo and in 2% of the active treatment. What is the absolute risk reduction? A. 0.5% B. 20% C. 10% D. 40% E. 5% ANS: A 17. What does SPF 15 mean? A. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn, in SPF 15, it would take 15 x 10 min B. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 15 x 100 min C. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 150 x 100 min D. if it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 150 x 1000 min E. If it takes 10 minutes to get sunburn in SPF 15, it would take 1500 x 100 min ANS: A Adduction is? A. Movement toward the midline of the body B. Movement away from the midline of the body C. Lengthening or straightening of a flexed limb D. Bending a part of the body E. Backward (upward) bending of the foot ANS: A

18.

19. A hospital pharmacist has to recommend appropriate drug for hospital formulary. Which of the following antibiotic would you recommend? Drug Cost/day Dosing frequency Duration Drug A $1.50 QID 7 days Drug B $1.50 QD 7 days Drug C $3.00 BID 3 days Drug D $1.25 BID 3 days Drug E $1.25 QID 3 days ANS: Drug D 20. If a prescription order requires 25 g of concentrated HCl (Density 1.18g/ml) what volume should the pharmacist measure? A. 29.50 ml C. 23.0 ml B. 0.0212 ml D. 21.2 ml ANS: D

21. A patient brings you a Rx for 0.5% menthol q.s. to 100 ml of alcohol. How many grams of menthol would you need to prepare the Rx? A. 0.005 D. 5 B. 0.05 E. 50 C. 0.5 ANS: C 22. Bacturia and pyuria are normally characteristics of which of the following conditions? A. Gastrointestinal infections B. Urinary tract infections C. Respiratory tract infections D. Cardiovascular infections E. Ocular infections ANS: B 23. A patient calls to ask if her digoxin has changed color and shape. What would be the most appropriate response? A. Tell the patient that an error has been made and refer her to the physician B. Determine if the color and shape for the tablets dispensed have been changed by the manufacturer and convey this information to the patient C. Obtain the patient's name, prescription number and the color of the tablet and verify the patient prescription. D. Explain that this is a serious matter and the medication should be brought back to the pharmacy to be checked by the pharmacist ANS: C 24. A 75 y/o patient suffering from pneumonia. Her daughter is looking after her. She has two children at home. Doctor hesitates to give flu shot to the patient. What will doctor do? A. Immunize other family member B. Send him to nursing home C. Do not give flu vaccine all family members D. flu vaccine is irrelevant ANS: A 25. A physician in a unit dose hospital writes for Prednisone 15 mg tid. Each package contains 1 x 5 mg tablet. How many packages are needed per dose? A. 9 C. 6 B. 3 D. 4.5 ANS: B 26. The lower part of gut contain the following microorganisms: A. 10-50% anaerobic B. 90-95% anaerobic

C. 10-50% aerobic D. 90-95% aerobic E. lower part of gut does not have microbes ANS: B 27. In preparing ZnSO4 suppositories using 200 mg of its USP value. Refers that dispense value of ZnSO4 is 4 means that: A. ZnSO4 will displace 800 mg of cocoa butter B. Cocoa butter displace 800 mg of ZnSO4 C. Only 4 mg of cocoa butter will be displaced D. 200 mg of ZnSO4 will displace 50 mg of cocoa butter ANS: D 28. A pharmacist adds 400 ml of alcohol (95% v/v) to a liter of mouthwash formula. What is the new percentage of alcohol present if the ordinary mouthwash was labelled as 12% v/v of ethanol? A. 36% C. 45% B. 40% D. 50% ANS: A 29. Find the absolute bioavailability of comp B tab COMPANY DOSE FORM CUMULATIVE URINARY AMOUNT A A B B Parenteral Tablet Tablet Capsule 10 mg IV 20 mg PO 20 mg PO 15 mg 9.4 12.0 8.2 6.8 DOSE ADMINISTRATION

A. 0.94 B. 9.4 ANS: C

C. 0.44 D. 8.2

30. How many grams of pure HC powder must be mix with 60 grams of 0.5% HC cream if one wishes to prepare at 2.0% w/w preparation. A. 0.78 D. 0.60 B. 0.88 E. 0.90 C. 0.92 ANS: C

31. A patient weighs 70 kg with normal renal function is injected with an IV drug for 10 hours . The desired plasma concentration is 15 mg/dl. T half of drugs is 1 hr and an apparent volume of distribution is 9 liters. What is the rate of infusion for this patient? A. 936.0 mg/hr D. 93.6 mg/hr B. 1350.0 mg/hr E. 135.0 mg/hr C. 468.0 mg/hr ANS: A 32. A new cephalosporins antibiotic was given at a dose of 5 mg/kg by a single IV bolus injection to a 58 y/o man who weighs 75 kg. The antibiotic follows the Pharmacokinetics of a one-compartment model and has an elimination t 1/2 of 2 hours. The apparent volume of distribution is 0.28L/kg and the drug is 35% bound to plasma protein. What is the initial plasma drug concentration in this patient? A. 5 mg/L D. 0.28 mg/L B. 17.9 mg/L E. None of the above C. 75 mg/L ANS: B 34. How much drug remains in the patient's body 8 hours after the dose? A. 375 mg D. 187 mg B. 23.4 mg E. 93.7 mg C. 150 mg ANS: B

35.

Arrange the following benzodiazepines from longest to shortest acting: Oxazepam, Diazepam,Triazolam, Temazepam A. Diazepam, Oxazepam,Temazepam,Triazolam B. Triazolam,Oxazepam,Temazepam,Diazepam C. Temazepam,Oxazepam,Triazolam,Diazepam D. Triazolam,Temazepam,Oxazepam, Diazepam E. Diazepam,Temazepam,Oxazepam,Triazolam ANS: A TIPS: Diazepam/ Oxazepam (t1/2 = 1-4 hrs), Temazepam (2-3 hrs) & Diazepam (1-2 hrs) 36. A patient with hyperglycemic in the evening and hypoglycemic in the morning and currently on regular insulin and NPH insulin, he should receive: I. Increase NPH insulin in the morning II. Decrease NPH insulin in the evening III. Increase regular insulin levels in the morning A. I only D. II and III only B. III only E. All of the above C. I and II only ANS: C

37.

Friability is defined as: A. Ability of the tablet to withstand abrasion in packing, handling and shipping which is defined as loss of weight of tablet due to chipping or fragmentation in the form of particles. B. Measure the degree of force required to break a tablet and also indicates tensile strength of tablet. Hardness of tablet greatly effects dissolution and disintegration C. Measuring weight of tablet D. The process of reducing particle size E. Dissolving in small proportions ANS: A 38. Meniere's Disease is (Meniere's Syndrome)? A. A disorder in which gross enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemia B. A disease of inner ear characterized by episodes of deafness, buzzing to the ears (tinnitus) and vertigo C. Drugs associated ototoxicity such as aminoglycosides Gentamycin D. Unknown disease of ears E. None of the above ANS: B TIPS: Differentiate with Menetrier's Disease: a disorder in which gross enlargement of the cells of the mucus membrane lining the stomach is associated with anemia. 39. How many ml of 0.9% w/v NaCl solution should be prepared from 250 ml of 25% w/v solution? A. 3750 ml C. 6944.4 ml B. 2500 ml D. 9 ml ANS: C

40. Planes and sections of the body: separates the body into unequal right and left portions is referred as: A. sagittal plane D. parasagittal plane B. midsagittal plane E. oblique C. coronal plane ANS: D 41. At night dark, what is the active part in the retina? A. Cones D. Optic Nerve B. Rods E. Cornea C. Cones and rods ANS: B Cystic fibrosis is?

42.

A. Disorder of pancreatic function B. Disorder of lung function C. Disorder of bones D. Disorder of electrolyte imbalance E. Disorder of bladder ANS: A TIPS: Cystic fibrosis is the most common genetic disorder affecting young Canadians. It is a multi-organ disease affecting primarily the lungs and the digestive system. In the lungs, CF causes severe breathing problems. A build up of thick mucus makes it difficult to clear bacteria and leads to cycles of infection and inflammation which damage the delicate lung tissues. They must follow a demanding daily routine of physical therapy to keep the lungs free of congestion and infection. In the digestive tract, cystic fibrosis makes it difficult to digest and absorb nutrients from food. 43. Enkephalins are: A. Benzodiazepine receptors B. Peptide type of opioid neurotransmitter C. Opioids receptors D. Peptides in cell cycle E. Regulates pain function F. Enzymes that metabolize opioids ANS: B

44.

Thyroid stimulating hormones (TSH) secretes from? A. Anterior pituitary gland B. Posterior pituitary gland C. Thyroid gland D. Parathyroid gland E. None of the above ANS: A TIPS: Anterior pituitary gland secretes TSH, FSH, LH, Prolactin, ACTH and Growth Hormones where as posterior pituitary gland stimulates ADH and Oxytocin only. 45. Aromatized ring A is present in? A. Progesterone D. Androgen B. Estrogen E. Aldosterone C. Testosterone ANS: B

46. Inadequate blood circulation (perfusion) to the kidneys, which leaves them unable to clean the blood properly, is characterized as?

A. Intrinsic acute renal failure B. Postrenal acute failure C. Prerenal acute failure D. Chronic renal failure E. Chronic liver failure ANS: C TIPS: Prerenal ARF is characterized by inadequate blood circulation. Many patients with prerenal ARF are critically ill and experience shock (very low blood pressure) there often is poor perfusion within many organs which may lead to multiple organ failure. 47. Which of the following blood cells cannot be distinguished from basophils? A. Neutrophils D. Red blood cells (RBC) B. White blood cells E. Mast cells C. Eosinophils ANS: E Which of the following condition have deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)? A. Smoking D. Infants B. Old age E. Pregnancy C. Chronic alcoholism ANS: C Hemophilia A results from deficiency of factor? A. V D. II B. X E. XI C. VIII ANS: C Translation occurs: A. Before transcription B. After transcription ANS: B

50.

51.

52.

C. Same time as transcription D. None of the above

53.

What is definition of Pharmacogenetics? A. The pharmacogenomics is integration of pharmacology and genetics. B. The study of pharmacogenomics allows to design and develop drugs that are customized to each person's genetic mark up. C. The pharmacogenomics also utilized to study cytochrome enzymes that are responsible for drug interactions. D. All of the above E. None of the above ANS: D 54. All of the following are NOT recommended for flu vaccine, EXCEPT? A. Child under 6 months of age

B. A person allergy to eggs C. A person with acute bronchitis symptoms D. Pregnant women E. None of the above ANS: D 55. What is correct about erythropoeitins? I. Epoeitin alpha are used for anemia associated chronic kidney diseases II. Helps in to production of RBCs III. Produced in bone marrow A. I only D. II and III only B. III only E. All of the above C. I and II only ANS: C Muromonab (OKT3) is monoclonal antibody indicated? A. Renal, cardiac and hepatic graft rejection B. Neutropenia associated with cancer chemotherapy C. Thrombocytopenia associated with cancer chemotherapy D. Anemia associated with chronic renal diseases E. None of the above ANS: A Ethanol metabolizes to acetic acid by the enzyme called? A. Alcohol dehydrogenase B. Alcohol reductase C. Glucuronidation D. Alcohol decarboxylation ANS: A

56.

57.

58. Assuming you have alcohol 95% and need to prepare 60 mls of alcohol 12%. How much of alcohol 95% should be used to make this new concentration of alcohol? A. 4.32 mls D. 6 mls B. 7.57 mls E. 6.57 mls C. 8.64 mls ANS: B 59. You are giving ZnCl2 0.7%, Phenylephrine 0.1% and Boric acid 1.1% with E values 0.16,0.32 and 0.5 respectively. This solution will be: A. Isotonic D. Iso-osmotic B. Hypertonic E. Isotonicity cannot be finding C. Hypotonic ANS: C 60. An inhaler contains 120 doses. How many days the patient will take to finish the entire inhaler with this signature: " Use 2 inhalers in each nostril every morning and at

bedtime" A. 7 days B. 10 days C. 20 days ANS: D

D. 15 days E. 30 days

61. What is the sensitivity of a balance that can weight 120 mg of a substance and has a permissible error of 5%? A. 6 mg D. 26 mg B. 16 mg E. 1.6 mg C. 66 mg ANS: A 62. If the rate of infusion of the drug is 500 mg q8 hours and clearance is 7.3 l/hr. Find steady state concentration A. 85.6 mg/L D. 8.56 mg/L B. 856 mg/L E. 5.86 mg/L C. 8.56 g/L ANS: D 63. A 40 y/o patient who weighs 70 kg needs intravenous infusion of Amoxicillin. The desired Css of drug is 15 mg/dL. The physician ordered antibiotic infused for 10 hours. Amoxicillin has t1/2 = 1 hour and Vd = 9L. What rate of IV is recommended for this patient? (no loading dose was given) A. 135 mg/hr D. 333 mg/hr B. 936 mg/hr E. 400 mg/hr C. 1000 mg/hr ANS: B 64. In competitive antagonism Ag + E + Ag* ----> AgE + Ag*E

If we use more concentration of Ag what happen? A. Concentration of AgE increase and Ag*E decrease B. Concentration of Ag*E increase and AgE decrease C. Concentration of AgE and Ag*E decrease D. Concentration of AgE and Ag*E increase ANS: A TIPS: In competitive antagonism, increase agonist concentration gives increased agonist complex product. Ag = Agonist Ag* = Antagonist E = Enzyme 65. Diastereoisomers that have the opposite configuration at only one of two or more tetrahedral stereogenic centres present in the respective molecular entities are epimers. Interconversion of epimers are epimerization. Which of the following class of antibiotics known to have epimerization properties

A. B-lactams B. Quinolones C. Vancomycin ANS: D

D. Tetracyclines E. Cephalosporins

66. Geometrical Isomerism may be classified as CIS and TRANS depending the spatial position of the molecule around a bond with restricted rotation, which of the following is an example of geometrical isomerism? A. Butene D. 3-Butyne B. 1-Butene E. 1-Butane C. 2-Butene ANS: C TIPS: Geometric isomerism may be classified as CIS and TRANS depending on the spatial position of the molecule around a bond with restricted rotation. 2-Butene is an example of molecule having geometric isomerism. 67. This reaction is known as NH4+ + OH- ----> H2O + NH3 A. First order reaction D. Equilibrium reaction B. Ionization reaction E. Protonated reaction C. Neutralization reaction ANS: C DNA gyrase and supercoiling DNA is essential for? A. Replication D. Ciprofloxacin B. Chemical degradation E. Quinolones C. Topoisomerase II ANS: A What phase I metabolic reaction occurs at position R3?

68.

69.

R3 = OH Lorazepam Oxazepam Temazepam

A. Oxidation B. Hydroxylation C. Reduction ANS: B 70.

D. Demethylation E. Carboxylation

A man was Acetaminophen overdosed before 5 hour ago. At what time N-Acetylcysteine should be administered? A. It is too late for acetyl cysteine treatment B. Can be administered anytime after overdose

C. Can be administered now D. Treat by sodium bicarbonate first E. There is no antidote for acetaminophen ANS: C 71. Thrombolytics (fibrinolytic) agents are contraindicated in I. Myocardial infarction II. Hypertensive patients III. Bleeding from the GIT A. I only D. II and III only B. III only E. All are correct C. I and II only ANS: B Patient with renal failure and normal liver function is showing sensibility to the drug, this means that A. High accumulation of metabolite B. High concentration of drug protein binding C. High volume of distribution D. High concentration of drug in the systemic circulation E. High accumulation of drugs into tissues ANS: A A man with blood group AB can receive blood from: A. A D. O B. B E. All of the above C. AB ANS: E A diabetic patient suffering from Hypertension is having Enalapril, however he is complaining from severe dry cough that we can associate as a side effect of the Enalapril. Which would be the best choice of changing this medication? A. Ramipril D. Indapamide B. Losartan E. Captopril C. Amlodipine ANS: B Selegiline is? A. MAO type A and B B. MAO type A ANS: C

72.

73.

74.

75.

C. MAO type B D. None of the above

76.

Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex may cause: A. Cushing's disease D. Reye's disease B. Gray's disease E. All are wrong C. Addison's disease

ANS: C 77. If a patient taking Atorvastatin 80 mg daily and brings a prescription of Erythromycin for 3 days. What type problem is expected? A. Drug and Disease interaction B. Drug and Food interaction C. Drug and Drug interaction D. Drug and Lab interaction ANS: C TIPS: Atorvastatin is substrate of CYP3A4 enzyme which means it is essential for its metabolism where as Erythromycin is an inhibitor of CYP 3A4 that means it lowers the enzyme levels. 78. Which of the following is not a drug metabolizing enzyme? A. CYP 3A4 B. CYP 450 C. UDP-GT D. N-acetyl transferase E. Alcohol dehydrogenase ANS: E Critical solution temperature represents: A. The temperature which concentration of phenol is homogenous solution B. The temperature at phenol vaporizes C. The temperature above which homogenous solution is formed for all concentration of phenol D. Temperature which phenol vapor pressure equals the vapor pressure of water ANS: C Parenteral solutions are used for internal use. What is the most common used vehicle for parenteral drug manufacturing? A. Purified water USP B. Water for injection C. Distillate water D. Sterile water for injection USP E. Fractional distillate water ANS: B

79.

80.

81.

Correct statements regarding Trituration include: A. Is the process of mixing powders in a large container rotated by a motorized process B. Is the process when potent substance must be mixed with a large amount of diluents

C. Is the process of reducing the substance to small particles by rubbing it in a mortar with a pestle D. Is the process of reducing the substance by addition of a solvent that is easily removed after pulverization E. Is the process of mixing powders by passing through sifters ANS: C 82. The HLB Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance is applied to: A. Emulsying agents D. Surfactant agent B. Humectant agents E. Solubilizing agent C. Thermolabile agents ANS: A and D An agent with HLB value range of 0-3 is known as: A. Antifoaming agent D. Wetting agent B. W/O emulsifying agent E. Detergents C. O/W emulsiying agent ANS: A

83.

84. A pharmacist would like to make a compound prescription where he needs to mix 1% of camphor into white petroleum. Which would be more appropriated technique to be used by the pharmacist? A. Trituration D. Geometric dilution B. Levigation E. Attrition C. Pulverization by intervention ANS: B 85. The diagram represents which of the following flow system:

Rate of Shear

Shearing stress

A. Pseudoplastic flow B. Newtonian flow C. Thixotropy ANS: A 86.

D. Dilatant flow E. Antithixotropy

What is incorrect about thixotropy? A. Gel to solution D. Flow ability increased

B. Solution to gel C. Viscocity decreased ANS: B 87.

E. None of the above

Breaking is the problem in the manufacture of: A.Cream B.Lotions C.Tablets D.Capsules E.Suspensions ANS:A TIPS: Breaking (irreversible) or Creaming (reversible) is the problem in emulsions. The following factor is the cause of most contaminations in sterile preparations A.Solutions B Surface area C.Personal D.Clothing E.Equipment ANS:C What are correct instructions should be labelled in the following preparation? Salicylic Acid 2% Lactic acid 6 mL Flexible collodion ad 30 mL A. Flexible collodion is extremely flammable B. Tight closed container to prevent ether and alcohol C. Store away from fire D. All of the above E. None of the above ANS: D

88.

89.

90. All of the following detector are used in High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC) EXCEPT: A. Diode array detector D. Gamma rays B. UV detector E. Radioactive detector C. Refractive Index detector ANS: D 91. Mass spectroscopy is used to: A. Detect traces of unknown chemical structure B. Structure elucidation of unknown chemical C. Traces in environmental samples D. Drug traces in blood samples E. All of the above ANS: E

92.

Lyophilization (freeze dry method) technique is used in: I. Sterilization of liquids and solids II. Sterilization of solids only III. To dry heat-sensitive wet powders A. I only D. II and III only B. III only E. All are correct C. I and II only ANS: B The ethical standard Veracity in pharmacy counseling means: A. Pharmacist act with justice B. Pharmacist act with fairness C. Pharmacist act with honesty and without deception D. Pharmacist does well with patient E. Pharmacist do prevent harm ANS: C

93.

94. A physician phones a pharmacist asking him not to tell the patient about the side effects of the drugs because if he does, the patient will not take it. The pharmacist complies. Both the physician and pharmacist have violated which ethic principle for the patient? A. Non maleficence D. Veracity B. Beneficence E. Justice C. Autonomy ANS: D 95. All of the following are principles of Canadian Health Act (CHA), EXCEPT A.Universality B.Private administration C.Accessibility D.Portability E.Comprehensiveness ANS:B TIPS: Canadian Health Act (CHA) is single tier system that is based on public administration and not private administration. 96. A national pharmacy regulatory body NAPRA stands for: A. National Association of Pharmaceutical Regulatory Administration B. National Administration of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority C. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authorities D. National Association of Pharmacy Manufacturer Regulatory Authority E. National Association of Provincial Regulatory Authorities ANS: C Who determines the patented prescription drug price?

97.

A. Canada Research Based Pharmaceutical Companies (Rx & D) B. Generic Pharmaceutical Association (CGPA) C. Patented Medicines Prices Review Board (PMPRB) D. Health Canada (HC) E. National Association of Pharmacy Regulatory Authority (NAPRA) ANS: C 98. A diabetic patient came to you and complaining about his hyperglycemia, you realized the increased dose, sometime you realized that he is buying a rich chocolate, sugar candies and food containing high carbohydrates. A. Should you advice him and explain the risks and ask him to see his physician B. Let him decide what he wants C. But not (do not) obligate him and forbid him D. Refer him to doctor E. Refer him to emergency ANS: A 99. You noticed the technician come down to help a patient choosing a cough product contains Codeine. You may do all of the following actions EXCEPT: A. Go down to interrupt the discussion and make the sale B. Ask the technician if the patient has allergy to Codeine after the sale C. Review with her the law of dispensing over the counter drugs D. Don't humiliate the technician in front of the customer E. Send her to additional training courses ANS: B 100. A senior pharmacy technician has worked in a community pharmacy for 10 years. He is well trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His manager now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him, should: I. Discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project II. Negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project III. Provide support and follow-up as required A. I only D. II and III only B. III only E. All are correct C. I and II only ANS: E 101. Total sales of prescription drugs are $210,000 and cost of good sold is 180,000.What is the gross profit? A.71% D. 20% B.14% E. 25% C.15% ANS:B

102. In the pharmacoeconomics considerations, the following aspects is the most important: A.Pharmacist D. Doctor B. Hospital E. Patient C. Society ANS: C 103. Cochrane collaboration is? A. Evidence based medicine database B. A Canadian pharmacy journal C. Collaboration of medical professionals D. A natural product database E. The group of people with same characteristics ANS: A

104. Compendium of Pharmaceutical Specialties (CPS) is useful resource for locating which of the following information? A. Approved indication for all prescription pharmaceuticals in Canada B. Detailed monograohs for all prescription pharmaceuticals available in Canada C. Clinical recommendations for dental prophylaxis of bacterial endocarditis D. Canadian consensus guidelines on drug therapies used to treat asthma and COPD E. Recommendation patient self-selection products in Canadian pharmacies ANS: C 105. Choose the incorrect statement about the p (Probability) value/ A. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type I error. B. If a p value is equal to/or lower than 0.05, it is unlikely that a type I error has been made; that is, a type I error will be made 5 times or less out of 100 C. A p value equal to/or less than 0.05 is generally considered to be statistically significant; lower p values (e.g. p<0.01) may be required for statistical significance in studies with large sample sizes D. The p (probability) value is the chance of a type II error ANS: D The next four questions have as reference the following information: In a chromatographic analysis of a drug we found the following results 2,4,8,5,7,4 and standard deviation 5. 106. What is the mean in this analysis? A. 4 D. 15

B. 5 C. 30 ANS: B 107.

E. 6

What is the median in this analysis? A. 2 D. 7 B. 5 E. 8 C. 4.5 ANS: C Type I error also called alpha-error give what kind of results A.False-positive B.False-negative C.Positive false D.False-False E.Positive-Positive ANS: A How many 4 mg tab are needed? Weight of the child = 44 lb Rx Ondansetron HCl 0.15 mg/kg/tsp Cherry Syrup qs 60 mL A. 4 tabs B. 6 tabs C. 9 tabs ANS: C D. 12 tabs E. 10 tabs

108.

109.

110. mg

A patient presents to a pharmacy with a new Rx for 60 tablets Levothyroxine 0.15

to be taken OD. On checking the patient's history the pharmacist notices that the patient filled a similar Rx for 180 tablets Levothyroxine 0.15 mg with the same directions 4 weeks ago. What course of action should be the pharmacist follow? A. Fill the prescription B. Check with the doctor before dispensing C. Talk to the patient about this D. Give only one month supply E. Refuse to fill the prescription ANS: C 111. mg A 33 y/o male receiving Acetaminophen 300 mg + Codeine 30 mg + Caffeine 15 (Tylenol #3) for pain relief, which of the following laxative is appropriate choice for constipation associated with Codeine:

A. Sennakot D. Psyllium B. Bulk laxatives E. Glycerine C. Lactulose ANS: A TIPS: Stimulant laxatives are drug of choice for the treatment of constipayion associated with opioids use. 112. A patient brings the prescription of Amitriptyline 300 mg 6 months supply. Patient medical history includes major depression and in the past has 2 unsuccessful attempts to suicide. What is the appropriate, a pharmacist should do? A. Dispense 6 months supply of Amitriptyline and caution about overdose symptoms B. Dispense in part fills and ask patient pick up in parts every 15 days C. Refuse the prescription and ask patient to see other doctor D. Refer patient to other physician for mental assessment ANS: B 113. A pharmacist is required to give knowledge of drugs and supply the patient with enough pieces of information to overcome the patient ignorance. This is done by: A. Written information only B. Verbal information only C. Verbal and written information D. Magazine and folders information E. Video information ANS: C Which antipsychotic drugs monitored for WBC A. Olanzapine B. Clozapine C. Risperidone D. Haloperidol E. Quetapine ANS: B Drugs that give bronchospasm A. Albuterol B. Acebutol C. Salmeterol D. Formeterol E. Ipratropium ANS: B Busy pharmacies a long line up in 15 customers, a person came he is insisting and fighting with pharmacist, do dispense him first?

114.

115.

116.

A. Ignore that customer B. Dispense him first C. Don't dispense D. Just talk to him and explain there are other before you E. Call police ANS: D 117. A patient using Calcium supplements 500 mg bid. Now gets the prescription of Ciprofloxacin 500 mg bif for 3 days. What is appropriate method of administration? A. Take Calcium supplements and Ciprofloxacin together morning and evening. B. Take Calcium supplements before 2 hour and after 4 hours of Ciprofloxacin C. Stop taking Calcium supplements for 3 days and continue Ciprofloxacin D. Stop taking Ciprofloxacin and continue Calcium supplements daily E. Call the doctor, change to Tetracycline ANS: C

118. All of the following antibiotics suspensions are stored at room temperature,EXCEPT: A. Metronidazole B. Clarithromycin C. Azithromycin D. Clindamycin E. Clotrimoxazole ANS: A 119. Incorrect statement about sunburn? A. Peak time of sunburn is 10:00 AM to 4:00 PM B. High altitude has low sunburn C. Cloud do not protect sunburn D. Beach area might have more sunburn E. Apply sunscreen before get into sun ANS: B What is correct statement about treatment in eruption cysts in infants A. In general cysts rupture spontaneously B. Use teethers to rupture cysts C. Manually cysts can be ruptured D. None of the above ANS: A Which of the following is the incorrect action of sympathomimetic? I. Increase of IOP II. Increase the drainage of H2O humor from the eye III. Decrease the H2O humor in the eye A. I only D. II and III only

120.

121.

B. III only E. All of the above C. I and II only ANS: D TIPS: Sympathetic agonist (sympathomimetic) increase IOP. Open angle glaucoma (OAG) is due to increase IOP and increase in H2O humor of eye or could be due to decrease in drainage of H2O humor in the eye. For the treatment of OAG, sympathetic blockers such as Timolol are effectively used to decrease IOP and H2O humor. 122. All of the allergens or factor that can trigger asthma ,EXCEPT? A. Molds B. Warm air C. Emotional stress D. Pets E. Cockroaches ANS: B Which is not a drug used for smoke cessatation? A.Nicotine polacriilex B.Transdermal nicotine patches C.Nicotine sublingual tablets D.Bupropion E.Buspirone ANS: E All are correct regarding the action of Corticosteroids in asthma status, EXCEPT: A. Suppress the inflammatory response B. Decrease the production of inflammatory mediators C. Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammation D. Relieve bronchoconstriction E. Increase B agonist receptors response ANS: D Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is mainly characterized by: A. Diaphragm wall inflammation B. Diaphragm perforation C. Reflux of the stomach content into the esophagus D. Hyperacidity of stomach E. All are correct ANS: C One of the most common conditions associated with acute hemorrhagic gastritis

123.

124.

125.

126.

may include: A. Chronic alcoholism B. H. pyloric bacterial infection C. Carcinoma of stomach D. Carcinoma of colon E. Traveler's diarrhea ANS: A 127. What is /are not symptoms of hypoglycemia A. Sweating B. Hunger C. Polyuria D. Fainting E. Fatigue ANS: C TIPS: Sweating, dizziness, fainting, fatigue are symptoms of Hypoglycemia. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, neuropathic pains and blurred visions are symptoms of Hyperglycemia. Conversion of T4 to T3 is catalyzed by: A. Tetraiodinase enzyme B. Deiodinase enzyme C. Triiodinase enzyme D. Hydrogenase enzyme E. Iodinase enzyme ANS: B Absorption of Levothyroxine is reduced by? A. Al and Ca antacids B. Calcium supplements C. Iron supplements D. Soya fiber E. All of the above ANS: E Contraceptive methods that protect STDs such as gonorrhea, syphilis, chlamydia and AIDS? A. Oral contraceptive B. Condoms C. Contraceptive sponges D. Vaginal cream E. Plan B ANS: B Urinary incontinence is NOT aggravated by: I. Furosemide

128.

129.

130.

131.

II. III.

TCA Doxylamine

A. I only D. II and III only B. III only E. All of the above C. I and II only ANS: D TIPS: Doxylamine succinate belongs to the Ethanolamine class of antihistamine that gives anticholinergic side effects such as urinary retention and induce sedation. Furosemide is a diuretic which increases urinary frequency. 132. Importance of Vitamin D in Osteoporosis: I. Increase the absorption of Calcium from the small intestine II. The best Vitamin D analog to treat Osteoporosis is Calcitriol III. Antacids containing Aluminum and Magnesium may interfere with proper activity of Vitamin D A. I only B. III only C. I and II only ANS: E Note: No Q&A for nos. 33, 48 and 49. D. II and III only E. All are correct