Points Awarded 10.00 Points Missed Percentage 0.

00 100%

1. Following rejection of a specimen, a technologist must: A) Document the problem B) Assist in the collection of an acceptable specimen C) Document corrective actions taken D) Both A and C 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): D
P129 .Criteria for specimen rejection for both physical characteristics and labeling errors must be present. In Table 71, an example of a policy for handling mislabeled specimens is provided. Written criteria for rejection of specimens must be documented and available to the health-care provider and nursing staff.

2. When you receive a specimen and a requisition form that do not match, you should: A) Notify the personnel who collected the specimen B) Test the specimen, and note the error on the requisition C) Immediately discard the specimen D) Analyze the error, and make appropriate changes to the label 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): A
P129. 7_1 TABLE Leave specimen EXACTLY as you receive it; put in the refrigerator for preservation until errors can be resolved. Notify floor, nursing station, doctors office, etc. of problem and why it must be corrected for analysis to continue. Identify problem on specimen requisition with date, time, and your initials. Make person responsible for specimen collection participate in solution of problem(s). Any action taken should be documented on the requisition slip. Report all mislabeled specimens to the quality

3. Obtaining the same result after testing the same specimen three times is called test: A) Reliability B) Quality control C) Precision D) Accuracy 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): C
P 131 - precision (ability to obtain the same result on the same specimen)

4. Proficiency testing should be performed: A) When control results exceed the confidence limits B) By personnel performing the tests routinely C) By the laboratory supervisor only D) During an accreditation site inspection 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): B

(This one is kind of common sense). 5. Waived tests performed in a hospital urinalysis laboratory must meet the CLIA'88 standards for: A) Waived testing B) Provider-performed microscopy C) Moderate-complexity testing D) High-complexity testing 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): C
P135 - waived test to avoid disruption in the patient visit. Personnel standards authorize only physicians, physicians assistants, nurse practitioners, and dentists to perform the tests. Laboratories performing PPM must meet the moderate-complexity requirements for proficiency testing, patient test management, QC, and QA. Urine sediment examinations, wet mounts, and KOH preparations are examples of the tests in this category. Table 72.

6. Centrifugation of less than the recommended 12mL of urine for the microscopic examination will: A) Produce a false-negative SSA B) Produce a false-positive SSA C) Increase the number of cellular elements D) Decrease the number of cellular elements 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): D Slide 8 ch 6 - Specimen Volume Centrifuge 1015 mL urine (reagent strips fit into 12 mL) Always cap tubes Too little volume = fewer formed elements Some laboratories correct for volume

7. A patient with severe back pain and 15 to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may have: A) Renal calculi B) Acute glomerulonephritis C) Nephrotic syndrome D) Osteomyelitis 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): A P 66 (chapter 5) The laboratory is frequently requested to
perform a urinalysis when patients presenting with severe back and abdominal pain are suspected of having renal calculi. In such cases, hematuria is usually of a small to moderate degree, but its presence can be essential to the diagnosis P94 - early diagnosis of glomerular disorders and malignancy of the urinary tract and to confirm the presence of renal calculi. The presence of not only RBCs but also

hyaline, granular, and RBC casts may be seen following strenuous exercise. These abnormalities are nonpathologic and disappear after rest.15 The possibility of menstrual contamination must also be considered

8. Differentiation among RBC's, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following EXCEPT: A) Observation of budding in yeast cells. B) Increased refractility of oil droplets C) Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D) Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): C
P 95 - WBCs and more polyhedral in shape, with an eccentrically located nucleus. WBCs in the process of ameboid motion may be difficult to distinguish from epithelial cells because of their irregular shape. Supravital staining or the addition of acetic acid can be used to enhance nuclear detail p100 - Differentiation between yeast cells and RBCs can sometimes be difficult. Careful observation for budding yeast cells should be helpful, as shown p 122 - 15. Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets may be accomplished by all of the following except: A. Observation of budding in yeast cells B. Increased refractility of oil droplets C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

9. An increase in urinary WBCs is called: A) Pyelonephritis B) Cystitis C) Urethritis D) Pyuria 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): D
WBCs is called pyuria and indicates the presence of an infection or inflammation in the genitourinary system

10. The organisms attached to a clue cell are: A) Gardnerella vaginalis B) Trichomonas vaginalis C) Escherichia coli D) Candida albicans 1.0/1.0 Points Earned: Correct Answer(s): A

P 97 - variation of the squamous epithelial cell is the clue cell, which does have pathologic significance. Clue cells are indicative of vaginal infection by the bacterium Gardnerella vaginalis. They appear as squamous epithelial cells covered with the Gardnerella coccobacillus. To be considered a clue cell, the bacteria should cover most of the cell surface and extend beyond the edges of the cell. This gives the cell a granular, irregular appearance. Routine testing for