1.

Frequency density of a class is defined as (A) Frequency of the class/Interval of the class (B) Frequency of the class/ Cumulative frequency for the class (C) Cumulative frequency for the class/Frequency of the class (D) Frequency of the class/ Frequency of the previous class 2. Which of the following is statistics? (A) Profit of a firm has gone up (B) The production of wheat has increased (C) The temperature of Delhi is 5 degree more than the temperature of Mumbai (D) The birth rate has declined in India 3. At end March 2009, Indias total foreign exchange reserves stood at? (A) Approximately $ 150 billion (B) Approximately $ 200 billion (C) Approximately $ 250 billion (D) Approximately $ 300 billion 4.A firm is called maximum efficient firm if it has? (A) Minimum Total Cost (B) Minimum Average Cost (C) Minimum Variable Cost (D) Minimum Marginal Cost 5. Implicit cost may be considered as? (A) Social cost (B) Private cost (C) Normal cost (D) Variable cost 6 The Mid-day Meal scheme is covered under the Ministry of? (A) Human Resource Development (B) Health and Family Welfare (C) Social Justice and Empowerment (D) Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution 7. Which of the following associate bank has been taken over by the State Bank of India in 2008? (A) State Bank of Travancore (B) State Bank of Hyderabad

(C) State Bank of Mysore (D) State Bank of Saurashtra 8. Which of the following demand curves is not a constant elasticity curve? (A) Vertical (B) Horizontal (C) Linear (D)Rectangular hyperbola 9. The following theory of profit has been given by J. A. Schumpeter? (A) Risk theory of profit (B) Uncertainty bearing theory of profit (C) Innovation theory of profit (D) Dynamic theory of profit 10. The formula for determination of number of class-interval for a frequency distribution is given by? (A) Connor (B) Spur (C) Sturges (D) Secrist 11. In the Union Budget, the term Primary Deficit means? (A) Revenue Deficit Interest Payment (B) Fiscal Deficit Interest Payment (C) Revenue Expenditure Revenue Receipts (D) Total Expenditure Total Borrowing 12. As a measure to unearth black money, the demonetisation of Rupees 1000 currency notes in India was done in the year? (A)1968 (B) 1978 (C)1988 (D)1998 13. The Lead Bank scheme was launched in India on the recommendation of? (A) M. Narasimhan

(B) F. K. F. Nariman (C) D. T. Lakdawala (D) V. M. Dandekar 14. Firms have chronic excess production capacity in? (A) Duopoly (B) Oligopoly (C) Pure competition (D) Monopolistic competition 15. In a two sector model when consumption is equal to 40 + 0.90 Y and investment is equal to 50, the equilibrium output will be equal to? (A) 500 (B) 700 (C) 900 (D) 1100 16. The positional average is shown by ? (A) Mean deviation (B) Standard deviation (C) Mean (D) Median 17. The shutdown point is that level of output of a firm where? (A) MC=AFC (B) MC=AVC (C) MC=TFC (D) MC=TVC 18. Which of the following functions is not a component of Kaldors model of grow? (A) Employment function (B) Technical progress function (C) Saving function (D) Investment function 19. Walras Law states that the sum of the excess demand for money, bonds and current output must be? (A) Less than zero (B) Equal to zero

(C) Equalto one (D) More than zero 20. For a unitary elastic demand curve, when price increases ,the amount spent by a consumer on a /good? (A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remains unchanged (D) Becomes zero 21. Correlation coefficient is significant if it is? (A) Less than 6 times of pro able error (B) More than 6 times of probable error (C) Equal to probable error (D) Equal to standard error 22. The term rainy day used by Keynes is related with? (A) Effective demand (B) Precautionary demand (C) Investment multiplier (D) Inflationary gap 23. Root mean square of all the deviations is known as? (A) Mean deviation from median (B) Mean deviation from mode (C) Standard deviation (D) Quartile deviation 24. If there is perfect correlation between two variables, then the regression lines are? (A) Parallel (B)Perpendicular (C)Coincidental (D)Intersectional 25. A producers surplus is equal to? (A) ARMC (B) ARAC

(C) AR-MR (D) TRTC 26. According to 2001 census, the total number of persons living in urban slums was approximately? (A)1 crore (B) 2 crore (C)3crore (D) 4 crore 27. The tax called CENVAT is related to? (A) Central Sales Tax (B) Union Excise Duty (C) Corporate Tax (D) Custom Duty 28. The price and quantity,both are indeterminate under? (A) Pure competition (B) Perfect competition (C) Monopoly (D) Bilateral monopoly 29. Which of the following is not an example of Internal Economies? (A) Economies of superior technology (B) Economies of division of labour (C) Economies of competition (D) Economies of management 30. Which of the following type of facts are not Considered under the study of statistics (A) Quantitative facts (B) Qualitative facts (C) Comparative facts (D) Relative facts 31. The statistical calculations in classified data are based on? (A) The actual values of observations

(B) The upper class limits (C) The lower class limits (D) The mid-points of the classes 32. The concept of merit goods has been introduced by? (A)Buchanan (B) Musgrave (C)Samuelson (D) Tiebout 33. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 prohibits the employment of Children below the age of? (A) 10 years (B) 12 years (C) 14years (D) 16years 34.The Prime Lending Rate of Commercial Banks are decided by? (A)Positive (B) Negative (C)Zero (D) Infinite 35. The cross elasticity of demand for substitute commodities is always? (A)Positive (B) Negative (C)Zero (D) Infinite 36. The K-factor analysis is related with? (A)Economic growth rate (B)Tends in foreign trade (C)Causes of mortality (D)Infrastructure facilities 37. The knife-edge equilibrium in Harrods model is an equality between?

(A) G and Gw (B) Gw and Gn (C) G and Gn (D) G,Gw and Gn 38.Stratified sampling is preferred, where? (A) Population is homogeneous (B) Population is heterogeneous (C) Random sampling is not possible (D) Small samples are required 39. Pure interest is? (A) Equal to the gross interest (B) Less than gross interest (C) More than gross interest (D) Not related to gross interest 40. Which of the following is totally different from logical multiplier? (A) Instant multiplier (B) Lagless multiplier (C) Static multiplier (D) Dynamic multiplier 41.Availability hypothesis explains a countrys (A) Production capacity (B) Natural resources availability (C) Commodity composition of foreign trade (D) Consumption pattern 42. For a Giffen good (A) Income effect is positive and substitution effect is negative (B) Income effect is negative and substitution effect is positive (C) Income effect and substitution effect both are positive (D)Income effect and substitution effect both are negative 43. To meet the objective of inflation control, the Central Bank should adopt following policy measures

(A) Increase in cash reserve ratio, along with purchase of securities under open market operations (B) Increase in cash reserve ratio, along with sale of securities under open market operations (C) Decrease in cash reserve ratio, alongwith purchase of securities under penmarket operations (D) Decrease in cash reserve ratio, alongwith.sale of securities under open marketoperations 44. The relative measures of dispersion are generally called? (A) Dispersion coefficient (B) Dispersion multiplier (C) Dispersion accelerator (D) Dispersion variable 45. Which of the following is not expressed by a transformation curve? (A) Choice (B) Scarcity (C) Factor price (D) Opportunity cost 46. The central theme of the World Development Report, 2009 pub lished by the World Bank is? (A) Agriculture for development (8) Development and next generation (C) A better investment climate for every one (D) Reshaping economic geography 47. Under the first degree of price discrimination in discriminating monopoly, the consumers surplus will be? (A)Zero (B) Maximum (C) Minimum (D) Indeterminate 48.A rational consumer moves to a higher indifference curve due to? (A) Monotonic preference

(B) Polytonic preference (C) Convex preference (D) Concave preference 49. When was the concept of core sector introduced in Indian industries ? (A)1970 (B) 1980 (C)1990 (D) 2000 50 .Which is the apex bank for micro finance in India? (A) State Bank of India (B) Industrial Development Bank of India (C) Small Industries Development Bank of India (D) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Answers: 1A 2C 3C 4B 5B 6A 7D 8C 9C 10C 11B 12B 13B 14D 15C 16D 17B 18B 19B

20C 21B 22B 23C 24C 25B 26D 27B 28D 29C 30B 31D 32B 33C 34B 35A 36C 37D 38B 39D 40D 41B 42B 43B 44A 45C 46B 47A 48C 49A 50D

CURRENT AFFAIRS PRACTICE QUESTIONS FOR APPSC GROUP-II

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (a) 95% of the countryss trade was through sea lanes. So to protect the sea lanes, India launched INS Chennai the third missile destroyer of project - 15 A. (b) Chennai is the third and last Kolkata class warship, It is propelled by four gas turbines, and is designed to achieve speeds in excess of 30 knots. (c) It is being built for the navy at the Garden rich Shipbuildersand Engineers Ltd. (Kolkata) (d) It will be fitted with the indigenous Supersonic Brah Mos surface to surface missile system. 2. SIMBEX is an annual naval exercise this was formalised in 1994. between India and ? (a) Sri Lanka (b) France (c) USA (d) Singapore 3. Consider the following Statements : 1. Cryogenic engines use liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen at very low temperatures, 2. This technology is needed to put heavier, Communication Satellites in a geosynchronous transfer orbit with an apogee of 36,000 km and a perigee of 200 km. Which of the above statement is in correct ? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. The Liquid propulsion systems centre (LPSC) of the Indian space Research organisation (ISRO) is at ? (a) Mahendragiri (Tamil Nadu) (b) Bangalore (Karnataka)

(c) Hydrabad (Andhra Prades) (d) Ahmedabad (Gujrat) 5. Consider the following statements : 1. GSLV- D3 has failed to put in orbit an advanced communication satellite called GSTA-4. 2. The main high lights of GSAT-4 were its communication system in ka band. Its GAGAN Payload which would help in the landing accuracy of commercial aircraft at airports in India. 3. GAGAN Stands for GPS-aided Geo-Augmented navigation System. GPS is short for Global positioning system. Which of the above statement is/are wrong ? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) 3 Only (d) Non of the above 6. Consider the following statements : 1. Cobalt - 60 was leaked when a worker cut open a pece of metal in a Delhi market this cobalt-60 is used for medical purposes, industrial radiography for nondestructive testing and in the food processing industry for irradiation process. 2. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) is meant to maintain a Cradle to grave System to keep track of such equipment, including through on-site inspection. Which of the above statement is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above. 7. In a break through the scientist have isolated an exotic radioactive gas which they claim would make it easier to detect under ground nuclear tests from air samples. the name of this radioactive gas is ? (a) Xenon - 133. (b) Xenon - 135

(c) Nion - x - 133. (d) Nion - x - 135. 8. The Garden Reach shipbuilder and Engineers limited has built the countrys first Anti submarine warfare corvette (ASWC). The name of this corvette is ? (a) Andaman sea (b) Ganga Sagar (c) Kamorta (d) Kachu baria 9. MALABAR is a naval exercise between India and ? (a) Singapore (b) U.S.A (c) China (d) Britain 10. Consider the following Statements : 1. Brah Mos armed with su- 30MKI would be a game changer in the India ocean because it has a range of 290 Km and Can also travel at a top speed of mach 2.8 barely 3-4 metres above the sea Surface, the missile cannot be intercepted by any Known weapon system in the world. 2. Brah Mos Acrospace, a joint venture between India and Russia has started designing a hypersonic Verson of the Brahmos missile Brahmos - II Which of the above statement is / are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 11. The Defence ministry announced plans to make the Defence Research and Development organisation (DRDO) more accountable and leaner on the basis of the recommendations made by ? (a) V.K. Saraswat (b) Mr. Prabhat kumar

(c) P. Rama Rao (d) P. Suryakant 12. The union Government has given the approval for the setting up of an autonomous defence university that is expected to provide inputs to strategic policy making. This university will come up in ? (a) Gurgaon (Haryana) (b) Gaziabad (Uttar pradesh) (c) New Delhi (d) Lucknow (Uttar pradesh) 13. The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) has set up a Committee to study the Capability of the national Aerospace Laboratory (NAL) to build Civil aircraft. The panel is headed by ? (a) V.K. Saraswat (b) K. Kasturirangan (c) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (d) S. Ramakrishnan. 14. Consider the following Statements : 1. Agni - II is a Surface - to - surface intermediate range missile that can carry nuclear weapons and has a range of more than 2000 km. 2. The missile re-entry vehicle is made with C a r b o n - Carbon Composits. to withstood very high temperatures of up to 3,000 degree Celsius. which of the above statements is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 15. Recently which Country has Successfuly launched a rocket to probe the planet venus ? (a) China (b) U.S.A

(c) European Space Agency (d) Japan 16. The Garuda Series is a joint Air force exericise which started in 2003. In 2010, the singa pore Air force was a part of this exercise. The Garuda exercise is conducted between india and ? (a) U.S.A (b) France (c) Russia (d) Japan 17. Consider the following statements : 1. Medium range surface - to- surface prithni-II ballistic missile is a single stage, liquid propelled missile, that is capable of striking targets at a maximum range of 350km. 2. The Prithvi is the first of the missiles developed under the countrys Integrated Guided missile development programme. It has now two variants - Air force version (Prithvi-II) and Naval (Dhanush) both having a range of 350 km. Which of the above statement is/are Correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. C - 130 J Super Hercules is the Worlds most advanced airlifter. Indian Air Force has purchased six of these airlifter from ? (a) U.S.A (b) Russia (c) France (d) Israel 19. Vajra prahar is a bilateral military exercise between India and ? (a) Banladesh (b) Sri Lanka

(c) Russia (d) U.S.A 20. Shatrujeet and Yudh Abhyas are the two bilateral military exericise between India and ? (a) France (b) Russia (c) U.S.A (d) Israel 21. Hand in Hand is a bilateral military war game between India and ? (a) China (b) Russia (c) France (d) U.S.A 22. Consider the following statements : 1. INSAT - 4 B satellite of the ISRO have developed a glitch power supply from one of its two solar panels has been cut off, affecting telecast by several channels. 2. INSAT- 4 B, Built by the ISRO Satellite Centre in Bangalore, was put in orbit in March 2007 by an Ariane launch Vehicle from kourou in Franch Guyana. Which of the above statement is/are in correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 23. Consider the following statements : 1. ISROs Polar Satellite launch Vehicle (PSLV - C13) has successfully put five satellite in the orbit. 2. This was the 16th Consecutive Successful fight of PSLV. Which of the above statement is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2. 24. The DRDO is building a new test range for its aeronautics missions for flighttesting sophisticated unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) air - to ground weapons, huge parachutes, light combat Aircraft Tejas, aerostates and also for testing electronic warfare systemThis new test range is in which state? (a) Solapur (Mharashtra) (b) Vishaka patnam (Andhra Pradesh) (c) Chitradurgo (Karnataka) (d) Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu) 25. The 600 MW Loharing Pala power Project, Constructed by NTPC is in news recently. It is on the river of ? (a) Bhagirathi (b) Satluj (c) Chenab (d) Indus 26. Consider the following statements : 1. Indias Second moon mission, chandrayaan - II will carry Seven indigenous payloads. 2. The Rs. 425 Crore mission is Scheduled to be launched in 2013. 3. Chandryaan - 2, with a lift- off weight of 2, 650 kg will be launched by GSLV from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. 4. ISROs physical Research Laboratory is in Ahmedabad. Which of the above statements are correct. (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 2 and 4 (d) All of the above 27. Consider the following Statements : 1. The Fast Breeder test Reactor (FBTR) is at the heart of the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) at kalpakkam, and it is a forerunner to the second stage of the countrys nuclear power programme.

2. Fast Reactors use Fast (high energy) neutrons to sustain the fission process, in contrast to water colled reactors that use thermal (low energy) neutrons. Fast reactors are commonly known as breeders because they breed more fuel than they consume. Which of the above statements is /are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Consider the following statements regarding Indias Nuclear programme 1. In the first stage, India is using natural uranium as fuel to pressurised Heavy water Reactors (PHWR). 2. In the Second Stage, plutonium reprocessed from the spent fuel of the PHWRs, depleted uranium and thorium kept in the blanket form will be used as fuel to power a series of breeder reactors. Thorium used in the breeders gets converted into uranium- 233, a fissile material. 3. In the third stage, reactors will use thorium and uranium - 233 to generate electricity. 4. Indias Nuclear Fuel Complex is in Hydrabad. Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1 and 3, (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) All of the above 29. Indra is a bilateral military exercise between India and ? (a) Russia (b) U.S.A (c) France (d) None of the above. 30. Which of the following statement is incorrrect ? (a) Rustom I, a medium altitude and long- endurance Unmanned Aerial Vehichle (UAV).

(b) Lakshy (UAV) -A drone that is remotely piloted by a ground control station provides aerial subtargets for live fire training. (c) Nishant (UAV) is a Surveillance aircraft primarily tasked with intelligence gathering over enemy territory. (d) All the above UAV are developed by the Hydrabad -based Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE). 31. Indradhanush is a bilateral Air Exercise between India and ? (a) U.S.A. (b) France (c) U.K (d) Israel 32. Scorpian Submarins are built by the Mazagaaon Dock limited this is expected to be available to the Indian Navy in 2015. India got the scorpian Submarins from? (a) France (b) Russia (c) U.K. (d) Israel 33. What is Project 75-I ? (a) It is a project for building indigenous AWACS. (b) It is a project for developing Kaveri engine. (c) It is a project for developing Submarines. (d) It is a project for developing Arjun- Mark II Tank 34. Connect 2 Decode (C2D) Project is related with ? (a) It is related with the biological and genetic information relating to the mycobacterim tuberculosis (M+b) genome. (b) It is related with decoding of HYV virus. (c) It is related with the decoding of Bt brinjal and its effect on human health. (d) None of the above.

35. What is top kill operation ? (a) It is a military operation launched by NATO force in the Af-pak region to kill the top talibani leaders. (b) It is a military operation launched by the Israel force in the Gaza area to kill the top hamas leaders. (c) It is the use of heavy drilling fluids that would be injected into the well to stem the flow of oil and gas in the gulf of mexico. (d) It is a military operation launched by the Indian force to kill the top naxal leaders. 36. Consider the following Statements : 1. Rare earth elements are a select group of 17 elements that are crucial to many of the worlds most advanced technologies, including missiles, mp3, mobile phones. 2. China is estimated to account for more than 95% of the global supply of rare earth elements. Which of the above statement is/are correct ? (a) I only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above 37. Consider the following statements : 1. Calcium carbide is generally used to ripen fruits. 2. Clalcium Carbide, Popularly Known as masala, It has carcinogenic Properties and is used in gas welding for steel goods. 3. Other way to ripen fruits is include dipping fruits in a solution of ethephon or exposing fruits to ethylene gas. Which of the above statements is / are correct ? (a) 1 an d 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 38. India has joined the Thirty Metre Telescope (TMT) project, the next

generation astronomical observatory that will be located in ? (a) Hawaii (U.S.A) (b) Tegucigalpa (Honduras) (c) Managua ( Nicaragua) (d) Havana (Cuba) 39. Consider the following statements regarding Thirty Meters Telescope (TMT) 1. The proposal to join the TMT Project was initiated by three Indian institutes engaged in astronomy . The IUCAA, The Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) Bangalore, and the Aryabhata Research Institute of observational Sciences (ARIES) Nanital. 2. TMT is scheduled to begain operations in 2018. Which of the above statement is / are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 40. In which country the archeologists have uncovered an ancient clay fragment dating back some 3,400 years, the oldest ever sample of writing found ? (a) Jerusalem (Israel) (b) madurai (India) (c) Jakarta (Indonesia) (d) Athens (Greece) 41. Celebrating 15 years of mobility in India, which company has announced an initiative called project ujwal, It is to provide 100% house hold mobility in five villages in Raebareli. (a) Motorola (b) Nokia (c) Reliance (d) Tata 42. Consider the following statements : 1. The department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is get

permission to locate the India- based neutrino observatory (INO) at singara in Nilgiri district in Tamil Nadu. 2. The INO is a major underground experimental facility to study the elusive and nearly mass- less fundamental particles of nature called neutrinos. Which of the above statement is /are in correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Nither 1 nor 2. 43. Consider the following statements regarding Nagoya protocol ? 1. It is a new international treaty to ensure that the benefit of natural resources and their commercial derivatives were shared with local communities. 2. The protocol was Signed in the Japanese city of Nagoya, hence it is called Nagoya protocol. 3. United states one of the largest users of natural resources is not signed the protocol. 4. The next U.N. Summit on biodiversity is to be held in New Delhi in 2012. Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above 44. The first Indian Scientific Expedition to the south pole was launched recently the name of the India station on the antarctic is ? (a) Maitri (b) Sarada (c) Sptami (d) Tawangi 45. Consider the following statements : 1. Synchrotron - a high energy electron - accelerator typically hundreds of metres in diameter, where electrons move at a high speeds close to the speed of light through a circular tunnel generating bright beams of electromagatic radiation. 2. Indian Institute of science is going to install the Synchrotron in its campus. Which of the above statement is/are in correct .

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Match the following List I (wild life Sanctuary) List II (States) A. Majthal wild life sanctuary 1.Andhra pradesh B. Chambal river sanctuary 2. Himachal pradesh C. Kolleru lake Sanctuary 3. Rajas than D. Narayan sagar sanctuary 4. Gujrat ABCD (a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 1 2 3 47. Which Indias national park has the highest density of tigers in the world ? previously this status was held by Corbett Tiger reserve. (a) Kaziranga (b) Manas (c) Sundarban (d) Pench 48. Olive ridley turtle lay their eggs, generally at the nesting site in ? (a) Goa Coast (b) Orissa Coast (c) Bengal Coast (d) Tamil Nadu Coast 49. Consider the following statemens : 1. India has released its first green house gas emissions inventory Since 1994 Showing a 30% fall in the emissions intensity of the GDP from that date till 2007. 2. The 30% drop in the emissions per unit of GDP boded well for Indias voluntary target of reducing emissions intensity further by 20 to 25 % by 2025 3. In per Capita terms, emissions rose from 1.4 tonnes to 1.7 tonnes without

taking forestary compansations into account. Which of the above statements is/are Correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above 50. Whatis REDD + ? (a) It is the U.N.s programme for Reducing Emission from Deforestation and forest degradation. (b) It is the U.Ns programme for Research in Ecology in Developing world. (c) It is a programme launched by the Red cross Society for making awarness of blood donation. (d) It is a programme launched by India for Reducing Emission in Defence sector. 51. Consider the following statements : 1. Jarawas people are lived in Andaman Island. 2. Jarawas people lived with out contact with outsiders for probably about 55,000 years until 1998. Which of the above statement is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 52. Consider the following statements : 1. The nilgiri, Nanda Devi, Sundar bans, Gulf of mannar, Pachmarhi, Nokrek and simlipal reserves have been included in a world network of biosphere reserves. 2. Biosphere reserves are sites recognised under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme, which Innovate and demonstrate approaches to conservation and sustainable development. 3. In a biosphere reserve, a holistic approach is adoted for conservation of the core, buffer and transition areas to ensure sustainable development. Human occupants of the buffer and transition areas form an integral part of the reserve. 4. Great nicobar, manas and kanjan janga might be declared biosphere reserve

in India. Which of the above Statements are correct. (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) All of the above. 53. Consider the following statements regarding Vulture conservation : 1. Over the past decade nearly 99% of the vultures in India have been brought to the point of extinction with a veterinary drug, Diclofenac, which leads to kidney failure. 2. The valture conservation Breeding centre (VCBC) is in Pinjore (Haryana), Rajabhatkhawa (West Bengal) and in Assam. Which of the above statements is/ are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 54. Consider the following statements : 1. The Ministry of Environment and Forests and the defence Research and Development organisation have launched a major national initiative for Seabuckthorn cultivation in the highaltitude, cold desert ecosystems under the Leh declaration. 2. Sea buck thorn, also called the wounder plant and Ladakh gold has multipurpose medicinal and nutritional properties, and also helps in soil conservation and nitrogen fixation. 3. Long considered a hurble shrub of the himalayas, every part of the plant - fruit, leaf, twig, root and thorn- has been traditionally used for medicine, nutritional supplements, fuel and fencing. 4. The initiative is to be included in the submission on cold desert Ecosystems to be established under the green India mission- which is a part of the National Action plan on climate change. Which of the above statements are correct ? (a) 1, 2, and 3

(b) 2, 3, and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) All of the above 55. The 2000 - MW lower subansiri Hydro- Electric project of the national Hydroelectric power coporation (WHPC) is at ? (a) Assam (b) Arunachal Pradesh. (c) West Sengal (d) Bhutan. 56. Math the following : List I (Grass land) List II (State) A. Kuno - palpur wild life sanctuaries. 1. Assam B. Nauradehi wild life sanctuaries. 2. Rajasthan. C. Shahgarh Landscape 3. Madhy pradesh D. Manas 4. Madhy pradesh ABCD (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4 57. Consider the following statements : 1. Cheetah - the only large wild mammalian species that India has lost. 2. Cheetah will be reintroduced from middle East, where North African Cheetahs are bread. Which of the above statement is/ are incorrect ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 58. Consider the following statements : 1. The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) based in New Delhi has developed Oilzapper technology for containing the oil leak that happened from MSC chitra.

2. The process of using oilzapper technology is called bioremediation. In this process a combination of microbes or bacteria is used to clean the oil Spill. The microbes feed on oil and degrade it completely. These microbes die with in few hour and form food for other marine animal. 3. Another method is chemical method where emulsifyers are Sprayed over the slick. It does not clean up the oil, but makes it invisible, 4. Other method is creating makeshift bioremediation tanks near the affected area. In this method the contaninated Sand has to be physically scooped out and shifted to the tanks.

Answers
1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (a) 31. (c) 41. (b) 51. (c) 2. (d) 12. (a) 22. (d) 32. (a) 42. (c) 52. (d) 3. (d) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (c) 43. (d) 53. (c) 4. (a) 14. (c) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (a) 54. (d) 5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (a) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (b) 6. (c) 16. (b) 26. (d) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (c) 7. (a) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (c) 47. (a) 57. (c) 8. (c) 18. (a) 28. (d) 38. (a) 48. (b) 58. (d) 9. (b) 19. (d) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (d) 10. (c) 20. (c) 30. (d) 40. (a) 50. (a)

APPSC GROUP-2 INDIAN ECONOMY QUESTIONS

1. When the given values of x form geometric series and values of y form arithmetic series, the relationship between The variables is given by (A) Lemon function (B) Lemon homogeneous function (C) Binomial function (D) Exponential function 2. Statistical distrusts are due to? (A) Nature of statistics

( B)Limited scope of statistics (C) insufficient tools of statistics (D) Misuse of statistics 3. Circular test is satisfied by the following index (A) Laspeyres index (B) Pasches index (C) Fishers index (D) Kellys index 4.Which of the following is the largest component of Indias external debt? (A) Commercial borrowings (B) NRI deposits (C) Multilateral debt (D) Bilateral debt 5. Tobin tax is related with? (A) Black money transactions (B) Commodity transactions (C) Service transactions (D) Foreign exchange transactions 6. The terms Static and Dynamic in economics were first used by? (A)Malthus (B) Mill (C)Marshall (D) Walras 7. A metropolitan city is one which has a population size of more than? (A)10 lakh (B)15 lakh (C) 20 lakh (D) 25 lakh 8.According to fifth economic census, the highest number of industrial units in the country are located in the State of? (A) Maharashtra

(B) Gujarat (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu 9. Under perfect competition, the entrepreneurs power of control over the price of the commodity Is? (A)Total (B) Considerable (C)Some (D) None 10.Who has regarded the concept of ideal output as an indicator of economic welfare? (A)Hicks (B) Pareto (C)Pigou (D) Kaldor 11. The technique of presenting data by pictogram was developed by? (A) Croxton and Cowden (B) Johnson and Jackson (C) Otto Neurth (D) Horace Secrist 12 The monetization of economy is measured by? (A)M0/GDP (B) M1/GDP (C) M2/GDP (D) M3/GDP 13. The shape of average selling cost curve is? (A) Hyperbola shaped (B) Rectangular Hyperbola shaped (C) L-shaped (D) U-shaped

14.The National Institute of Training for Standardization (NITS) is located at? (A)Hyderabad (B) Nagpur (C)Chandigarh (D) Noida 15. NABARD is a? (A) Commercial Bank (B) Lead Bank (C) Refinance Bank (D) Cooperative Bank 16. Cost-plus principle is related with? (A)Production theory (B) Value theory (C) Marginal uti theory (D) Distribution theory 17. Which one of the following is not a feature of Stagflation? (A) High input cost (B) Excess in aggregate demand (C) High price level (D) High unemployment level 18.. The Hayek theory of trade cycle is related with? (A) Over-investment (B) Price fluctuation (C) Interaction of multiplier and accelerator (D) Interaction of saving and investment 19. Which one of the following is a two-dimensional diagram? (A) Pictogram (B) Histogram (C) Bar diagram (D) Line diagram 20. A firms learning curve shows the following relationship between average cost of production and total output over time (A) Decline in average cost with increase in total output

(B) Decline in average cost with decline in total output (C) Increase in average cost with decline in total output (D) Increase in average cost with increase in total output 21. Select the correct statement regarding Harrods accelerator and Domars accelerator and decide which one is true (A) Harrods accelerator is psychological and Domars accelerator is technological (B) Harrods accelerator is technological arid Domars accelerator is psychological (C) Harrods accelerator is psychological and Domars accelerator is also psychological (D) 1-larrods accelerator is technological and Domars accelerator is also technological 22. The transfer payment multiplier in the Keynesian system will be equal to? (A) MPC/MPS (B)MPS/MPC (C)MPS/(1-MPC) (D)MPC/(1MPS) 23. The difference between Natural rate and Market rate of interest has been done by? (A)Robertson (B) Keynes (C)Fisher (D) Wicksell 24. The quartile deviation for a normal distribution is always equal to? (A) (2/3) (B) (3/4) (C) (4/5) (D) (5/6) 25. Which of the following is not a shift factor of demand? (A)Income (B) Price

(C)Fashion (D) Taste Answers:

1D 2D 3D 4A 5A 6B 7A 8D 9D 10C 11C 12B 13D 14B 15C 16D 17B 18A 19B 20A 21D 22A 23D 24A 25B

APPSC GROUP-2 INDIAN ECONOMY (MACRO ECONOMICS) QUESTIONS

1. Assertion (A): An oligopolist faces demand curve which has a kink at the level of the prevailing price. Reason (R): The segment of the demand curve above the prevailing price level or kink is highly inelastic and the segment of the demand curve below the prevailing price level is elastic. Codes: (a) Both A and R are individually true and. R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and It are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Ans. (c) 2. Consider the following statements relating to marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS). 1. The MRTS in case of an isoquant measures the rate at which one input is substituted for the other. 2. The M of input X for input Y at a point on an isoquant is equal to the positive slope of the isoquant at that point. 3. The MRTS equals to the ratio of the marginal product of input V to the marginal product of input X. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 3. When is an isoquant L shaped? (a) When the two factors are complementary (b) When the two factors are perfect substitutes (c) When the two factors are used in fixed proportions (d) When the two factors are imperfect substitutes Ans. (c) 4. A firms average total cost is Its 60, its average variable cost is Rs. 55 and its output is 50 units. What is its total fixed cost? (a) Less than Rs. 200 (b) Between Rs. 200 and Rs. 300 (c) More than Rs. 300 (d) Firm has no fixed cost Ans. (c) 5. Under constant returns to scale, which one of the following is the nature of the long -run average cost curve? (a) Parallel to output axis (b) Upward rising

(c) Downward sloping (d) Identical to short-run average cost curve Ans. (a) 6. In the figure shown below, MN and QR are two straight line demand curves parallel to each other.

Consider the following statements 1. The slope and elasticity of demand is same on the demand curves MN and QR, at the price P0 2. The slopes are same but elasticity of demand is more on demand curve MN than demand curve QR, at price 3. Elasticities of demand are same but slope of demand curve MN is less than that of QR at the price P Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (b)

7. When the negative income effect is greater than substitution effect, it is the case of which one of the following? (a) Giffen goods (b) Inferior goods (c) Luxury goods (d) Normal goods Ans. (d) 8. Which one of the following statements is correct? Consumption possibility frontier is same as (a) the indifference curve (b) the budget line (c) the production possibility frontier (d) the demand curve Ans. (b) 9. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand (b) Inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand (c) Necessity has an income elasticity of demand that is less than one (d) Luxury goods have an income elasticity of demand that is equal to one Ans. (d)

10. A firm has certain initial equilibrium price, when demand function QD = 50 3P and supply function is 20 + 3P. If the firms demand function is shifted to C = 68 3P, what is the initial equilibrium price and the new equilibrium price, respectively? (a) 5 and 6 (b) 5 and 8 (c) 6and 8 (d) 8 and 5 Ans. (b) 11.Cournot model assumes which of the following? 1. There are two firms operating in the market. 2. The firms face a kinked demand curve. 3. Each firm acts on the assumption that their competitors will not react to her decision to change output. Select the correct answer by using the code given below (a) (b) 2 and 3 (c) l and 3 (d)1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) 12. Which one of the following statements is correct? The Sweezy mode of oligopoly assumes that price elasticity of demand

(a) is higher for a price increase than for a price decrease (b) is lower for a price increase than for a price decrease (c) cannot change for a price increase or price decrease (d) cannot change for a price decrease Ans. (a) 13. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Demand for factors of production is an independent demand (b) Demand for factors of production is a derived demand (c) Demand for factors of production is a reciprocal demand (d) Demand for factors of production is same as the demand for commodities Ans. (b) 14. What is the principle which is applied to redress the imbalance between distribution and welfare, known as? (a) Principle of taxation (b) Compensation principle (c) Principle of effective demand (d) Principle of supply Ans. (b) 15. The inconsistency of which one of the following criteria is labelled as Scitovsky Paradox? (a) Little Criterion

(b) Pareto Criterion (c) Bergson Criterion (d) Kaldor Flicks Criterion Ans. (d) 16. consider the following statements The distribution of two commodities between two individuals is Pareto optimal if 1. one individual cannot be made better off without making the other worse off. 2. the individuals are on their consumption contract curve. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c) 17. What is maximizing the level of satisfaction with the given level of inputs and technology, called? (a) Technical efficiency (b) Allocative efficiency (c) Economics of scale (d) X- efficiency Ans. (d)

18. Which one of the following statements is correct? An increase in money supply in Keynesian framework results in (a) a higher level of income and a higher rate of interest (b) a lower level of income and a lower rate of interest (c) a higher level of income and a lower rate of interest (d) a lower level of income and a higher rate of interest Ans. (c) 19. Which one of the following statements is correct? A fall in the money supply results in the (a) rightward shift in the IS curve (b) rightward shift in the LM curve (c) leftward shift in both the LM curve and the IS curve (d) leftward shift in the LM curve only Ans. (d) 20. Which one of the following statements is correct? The IS function indicates the (a) locus of the money market equilibrium (b) locus of the commodity market equilibrium (c) locus of the labour market equilibrium (d) locus of both money and labour market equilibrium Ans. (b)

21. Which one of the following statements is correct? According to Keynes, fresh investment would be possible only if (a) the marginal efficiency of capital exceeds the rate of interest (b) the marginal efficiency of capital is less than the rate of interest (c) the marginal efficiency of capital is positive (d) the marginal efficiency of capital is negative Ans. (a) 22. Which one of the following statements is correct? Autonomous investment is (a) functionally related to interest rate (b) functionally related to both income and interest rate (c) functionally related to income alone (d) independent of income and interest rate Ans. (d) 23. Consider the following statements 1. The MPC is higher in a poor country and lower in a rich country. 2. Higher the MPC, higher will be the value of multiplier. 3. Lower the M lower will be the value of multiplier. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 2 and 3 Ans. (a) 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists List I List -II (Economist) (Concept) A. A. C. Pigou 1. Liquidity Preference B. J.M. Key 2. Real Balance Effect C. J.R. Hicks-A.H. Hansen 3. Ratchet Effect D. J.S. Duesenberry 4. IS-LM Analysis Code: ABCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (a) 25. In the diagram given above, which one of the following is indicated by the point A lying below the IS curve?

(a) Excess demand in the commodity market (b) Excess supply in the money market (c) Excess supply in the commodity market (d) Equilibrium income and interest Ans (a) 26. In the. permanent income hypothesis of consumption, components of which one pair has a proportional relationship? (a) Permanent income and transitory income (b) Permanent income and transitory consumption (c) Permanent income and permanent consumption (d) Transitory income and transitory consumption Ans (c) 27. Which one of the following statements is correct? Crowding our in an economy can be avoided if (a) government finances its expenditure by new money supply

(b) government finances its expenditure by taxes (c) government finances its expenditure by buying outstanding bonds (d) government finances its expenditure by raising cash reserve ratio Ans. (c) 28. Which one of the following statement is correct? According to Says law of market. (a) demand creates its own supply (b) supply creates its own demand (c) demand and supply are always equal (d) demand and supply are never equal Ans. (b) 29. Which one of the following statements in respect of the National Income Accounting is correct? (a) Budget deficit is equal to savings-invest gap (b) Budget deficit is more than savings-investment gap (c) Budget deficit is less than savings-investment gap (d) Budget deficit is always zero Ans. (d) 30. Which of the following is/are included in National Income Accounting? 1. Purchase of shares and bonds. 2. Value of residential investment.

3. Value of production for self consumption. 4. Value of intermediate goods. Select the correct answer by using the codes given below: (a) l and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ans. (c) 31. Consider the following statements 1. The equilibrium between the aggregate demand and aggregate supply may take place at a point of less-than-full employment in an economy. 2. The .size of deficient demand is inversely proportional to the deflationary gap. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (a) 32. Assertion (A) : Gross National Product will always be more than the Gross Domestic Product. Reason (R): To get Gross National Product, not factor income from abroad is added to Gross Domestic product

Codes: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Ans. (d) 33. what is the empirically fitted relationship between the rate of change of money wages and rate of unemployment, known as? (a) Baumals Hypothesis (b) Keynesian Model (c) Friedmans Model (d) Phillips Curve Ans. (d) 34. In the simplified version of Friedmans quantity theory of money, velocity of circulation of money depends on which of the following? (a) Rate of interest and rate of price change (b) Rate of interest and rate of change of income (c) Rate of change of money supply and rate of change of consumption (d) Rate of change of price and rate of: change of investment Ans. (b) 35. Consider the following assets

1. Cash held by public 2. Equity shares of banks 3. Deposits of banks 4. RBI bonds Which of the above assets are considered as part of money supply? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (b) 36. which one of the following is stated by the quantity theory of money? (a) An increase in the nominal money supply causes a proportional increase in the price level (b) An increase in the real money supply causes a proportional increase in the price level (c) An increase in the nominal money supply causes a proportional increase in real GNP (d) An increase in the real money supply causes a proportional increase in real GNP Ans. (a) 37. Consider the following statements 1. Bond price and interest rate are positively related.

2. Bond price and interest rate are negatively related. 3. Credit creation varies directly with Cash Reserve Ratio (CER). 4. Credit creation varies inversely with Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 Ans. (d) 38. Suppose, due to an open market purchase of government securities, reserves in the commercial banks increase by Rs. 1,000. If the reserve ratio is 20 percent, what will be the increase in money supply? (a) Its. 5,000 (b) Rs. 4,000 (c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Rs. 1,000 Ans. (c) 39. Which one of the following is not a component of demand-pull inflation? (a) An increase in government expenditure with no change in tax rate (b) A downward shift h savings function (c) A rise in the money wage rate

(d) An upward shift of investment function Ans. (c) 40. Assertion (A) Indirect taxes promote inequality in the distribution of income. Reason (R): Poor bear more burden of indirect taxes. Codes: (a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Ans. (a) 41. which one of the following statements is correct? According to Peacock and Wiseman, public expenditure grows (a) steadily over a period of time (b) at a. constant rate in relation to GNP (c) in a step by step manner (d) at a lower rate in relation to GNP Ans. (c) 42. As compared to traditional budgeting, in case of Performance and Programme Budgeting System (PPBS), which one of the following statements is correct? (a) It stresses on outcome only

(b) It stresses on expenditure allocation only (c) It stresses more on outcome and less on expenditure allocation (d) It stresses less on outcome and more on expenditure allocation Ans. (c) 43. Which one of the following statements is coned? Zero-base budgeting implies that (a) it emphasizes physical targets rather than financial targets (b) spending on all programmes is re-examined and justified each year rather than following add-on every year (c) it is purely an evaluation of existing budget and there is nothing new in it (d) it focuses on centralization of expenditure Ans. (b) 44. Which one of the following statements is correct? The revenue from the imposition of an advolarem tax and that of a unit tax in a perfectly competitive market which results in the same price rise, are (a) more for advolarem tax (b) more for unit tax (c) equal for both the taxes (d) zero for both the taxes Ans. (c) 45. in which one of the following groups of taxes, do impact and incidence of tax coincide?

(a) Income tax and corporation tax (b) Income tax and excise duties (c) Corporation tax and custom duties (d) Excise duties and sales tax Ans. (a) 46. The concept of optional taxation, based on whatever criteria, has to. cover decision-making at which of the following levels? 1. The aggregate amount of taxations and its division between direct and indirect taxations. 2. The composition and rate schedules of direct and indirect taxes. 3. The composition and revenue schedules of indirect taxes. 4. The composition and revenue schedules of direct taxes. Select the correct answer by using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (c) 47. According to Cohn Clark, what is taxable capacity? (a) 20 percent of National income (b) 25 percent of National Income

(c) 30 percent of National Income (d) 35 percent of National Income Ans. (b) 48. Which one of the following is not the Canon of taxation as stated by Adam Smith? (a) Canon of equality (c) Canon of convenience (b) Canon of certainty (d) Canon of productivity Ans. (d) 49. Which curve shows that how much of its import commodity is required by a nation in exchange for various quantities of its export commodity? (a) Offer curve (b) indifference curve (c) Demand curve (d) Production possibility curve Ans. (a) 50. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of opportunity cost theory? 1. A straight line production possibility curve indicates constant opportunity cost. 2; The production possibility curve under increasing cost would be concave to the origin. Select the correct answer by using the code given below:

(a) l only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. (c)

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs FOR APPSC/UPSC EXAMS

1. The union government of India on 1 February 2012 gave the approval for setting up a National Council for Senior Citizens. It will be headed by the minister of____ a) External Affairs b) Social Justice and Empowerment c) Home d) Finance Answer: (b) 2. As per the latest Sample registration System( SRS) bulletin, December 2011 released by the Registrar General of India(RGI), it is noted that Infant Mortality Rate(IMR) dropped further from __ to __ infant deaths per 1000 live births during 2010. a) 50; 47 b) 52; 49

c) 53; 48 d) 48; 47 Answer: (a) 3. In the period from January to November 2011, Sri Lanka received just over 7.5 lakh tourists. Of this, over 1.5 lakh were Indians. Indians constituted about what per cent of the tourists to Sri Lanka in 2011? a. 20% b. 11% c. 27% d. 31% Answer: (a)

4. The Review Committee on the Delhi School Education Act and Rules 1973 submitted its report to Chief Minister Sheila Dikshit on 30 January 2012. Which of the following facts are not true in this regard? 1. The committee was chaired by legal expert Manish Kumar Gaur. The other members of the committee were Abha Joshi and Shailja Chandra. 2. The committees report is aimed at bringing about purposeful amendments to the Act and related rules 3. The committee, constituted in April 2011 was mandated to examine all issues related to DSEAR-73 4. It suggested a new concept of conducting school inspections with the primary focus being on the learning outcomes of children. a. 2 & 3 b. 3 & 4 c. Only 3 d. Only 1 Answer: (d) 5. Freedom fighter and one of the doyens of Indian diplomacy who was an architecht of of the 1971 Indo-Soviet Treaty passed away in New Delhi on 31 january 2012. Identify him. a. A K Damodaran b. Prakash Shah

c. Bali Ram Bhagat d. Shyam Nandan Prasad Mishra Answer: (a) 6. Which electronic gadget maker predicting a fourth consecutive year of losses, named Kazuo Hirai as chief executive officer, replacing Howard Stringer? a. Sony b. Samsung Electronics c. Videocon d. Hitachi Answer: (a) 7. Binani Industries, the holding company of Braj Binani group, cquired a Belgian fibreglass company for 275 million euros. The Belgian company is a leading manufacturer of fibreglass in Europe. Name the Belgian company. 1. 1B 2. 2B 3. 3B 4. F2B Answer: (c) 8. Which state run company signed an agreement with its trade unions for increase in the wages under which minimum guaranteed benefit would be 25% of gross? a. BHEL b. CIL c. IOC d. ONGC Answer: (b) 9. Which of the following banks filed a criminal complaint against Sterling Biotech, and its six directors, for allegedly defaulting on repayments on creditfacilities provided by the public sector lender? a. State Bank of Travancore b. State Bank of Mysore c. State Bank of Patiala d. State Bank of Indore

Answer: (b) 10. Shailesh Rao, managing director (media & platforms) at Googles Asia-Pacific operations, left the worlds biggest Internet search company to set up the international business of which of the following companies? a. Yahoo b. Rediffmail c. Skype d. Twitter Answer: (d) 11. United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN-DESA) data for 150 countries over 40 years showed which two countries as the only two countries in the world where female infant mortality is higher than male infant mortality in the 2000s? a. Venezuela & Cambodia b. Nigeria & Ghana c. China & India d. Indonesia & China Answer: (c) 12. The fifth edition of the world future energy summit was held in Abu Dhabi from 16 to 19 January 2012. Abu Dhabi is the capital of ___. a) UAE b) UK c) Iraq d) Iran Answer: (a) 13. Kamla Persad Bissessar visited India from 5 January 2012 to 14 January 2012. Consider the following statements on her. i) She is the seventh Prime Minister of Trinidad and Tobago. ii) She is the countrys first female Prime Minister. Choose the right option: a) Both i and ii are correct. b) Only i is correct. c) Only ii is correct.

d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a) 14. What is SHADE? a) A new pact among the naval forces of India, Japan and China b) A new pact among the armed forces of India, Japan and China c) A new pact among the naval forces of India, Japan and Russia d) A new pact among the armed forces of India, Japan and Russia Answer: (a)

15. Market regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on 28 January 2012 decided to enhance the minimum investment amount per client managed by portfolio managers. Which of the following facts are not true with respect to the above statement? 2. SEBI decided to enhance the minimum investment amount per client managed by portfolio managers to Rs.25 lakh from Rs.5 lakh 3. insurance companies and mutual funds, which are broad-based investment vehicles representing the interests of the public at large to be included in the provisions of SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations 4. As per the current norm, SEBI (ICDR) Regulations preclude companies from issuing preferential allotment to entities which have sold any of their holdings during the six months prior to the relevant date 5. SEBI approved changes in the SEBI (Mutual Fund) Regulations, 1996, which ask the asset management companies (AMCs) to ensure a fair treatment to all investors. a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Only 3 d. Only 4 Answer: (b) 16. The Union government in January 2012 decided to subscribe to preferentialequity shares issued by which of the two public sector banks? a. SBI & PNB b. PNB & Union Bank c. SBI & UCO

d. Bank of Baroda & Canara Bank Answer: (a) 17. According to the data released by the Commerce and Industry Ministry on 30 January 2012, the growth rate of eight core industries slowed down to what per cent in December 2011 from 6.3 per cent in December 2010? a. 2.5% b. 3.1 % c. 4% d. 5.2% Answer: (b) 18. The apex decision-making body of the communications ministry, the Telecom Commission decided to allow mobile phone companies to share spectrum. Identify the statement which is incorrect. 1. The Commission has however limited this facility to 3G airwaves alone 2. Only those operators that have airwaves in a particular region can share it. Spectrum can be shared only between two spectrum holders 3. Two companies can share airwaves only if their combined holdings do not exceed the limits prescribed in the M&A norms 4. Spectrum sharing deals will also have to be renewed every five years a. Only 4 b. Only 2 c. Only 1 d. 2 & 3 Answer: (c) 19. The Union government on 31 January 2012 revised the economic growth rate for 2010-2011 financial year to what percent in comparison to the previous estimate of 8.5 percent? a. 8% b. 8.4% c. 7.5% d. 7% Answer: (b)

20. Which team coached by R R Jadeja won its second consecutive Ranji Trophy title by defeating Tamil Nadu at the MA Chidambaram stadium on 23 January 2012? a. Karnataka b. West Bengal c. Andhra Pradesh d. Rajasthan Answer: (d) 21. Which Australian batsman was honoured with Austrlias highest civil honour - an officer (AO) in the general division of the Order of Australia for distinguished service to the sport of cricket as a leading player? a. Ricky Ponting b. Adam Gilchrist c. Michael Hussey d. Andrew Symonds Answer: (a) 22. The 2012 mens final of the Australian Open went past the 2008 Wimbledon final time record, finishing after 5 hours and 53 minutes of play. Who emerged winner in the epic final? a. Andy Murray b. Roger Federer c. Novak Djokovic d. Rafael Nadal Answer: (c) 23. Name the woman tennnis player who won her win first Grand Slam title by winning in the finals of of the Australian Open 2012. a. Victoria Azarenka b. Svetlana Kuznetsova c. Maria Sherapova d. Caroline Wozniacki Answer: (a) 24. Which of the following table tennis players won his maiden national title by

defeating a six time champion in the final of the 73rd Senior National and Inter-State Table Tennis Championships in Lucknow on 29 January 2012? a. A Sharath Kamal b. A Amalraj c. N Ganeshan d. T.Raju Answer: (b)

25. The White House on 10 February 2012 named India's renowned economist as the receipient of the 2011 US National Humanities Medal. Identify him. a. Montek Singh Ahluwalia b. C. Rangarajan c. Usha Thorat d. Amartya Sen Answer: (d) 26. Singer and actress Whitney Houston died on 11 February 2012 in a Beverly Hills hotel room California. Which of the facts about her are not true? 1. Houston is a winner of six Grammy Awards including record of the year for I Will Always Love You and album of the year for The Bodyguard 2. Houston's 1985 debut album Whitney Houston became the best-selling debut album by a female act at the time of its release. The album was named Rolling Stone's best album of 1986, and was ranked at number 254 on Rolling Stone's list of the 500 Greatest Albums of All Time 3. She had made her national televised debut alongside Davis on Gimme a Break. 4. She had won her first Grammy award for Best Pop Vocal Performance, Female for Saving All My Love for You. 5. She is the first artist to have two number-one Billboard 200 Album awards (formerly "Top Pop Album") on the Billboard magazine year-end charts. a. 1 & 5 b. Only 2 c. Only 5 d. 2 & 4 Answer: (c)

27. The sixty-fifth annual British Academy Film awards, the BAFTAs was held at the Royal Opera House in London 12 February 2012. Which film swept the award ceremony winning a total of 6 awards? a. The Iron Lady b. The Artist c. We Need to Talk About Kevin d. Hugo Answer: (b) 28. This British singer with six nominations, won all six awards at 54th Annual Grammy Awards held on 12 February 2012 for the album 21, thus tying Beyonc's record for most wins by a female artist in one night. Identify the singer. a. Bon Iver b. Lady Gaga c. Adele d. Whitney Houston Answer: (c) 29. Pakistani archaeologists discovered a rare Indus Valley civilization-era seal in steatite dating back to 2500-2000 BC from the Cholistan area of which of the following province in Pakistan? a. Punjab Privince b. Balochistan c. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa d. FATA Answer: (a)

30. There were as many as 1359 foreigners, who availed themselves of the Visa on Arrival scheme in January compared with 790 in January 2011. What was the per centage growth recorded in number of foreigners availing Visa on Arrival (VoA) scheme in January 2012? a. 70% b. 72% c. 75% d. 82%

Answer: (b) 31. As per the provisional figures of exports released on 9 February 2012, Indias exports in January 2012 rose to what per cent to $25.4 billion? a. 10.1% b. 7% c. 12.32% d. 8.3% Answer: (a) 32. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 14 February 2012, issued the Draft Circular for Deployment of White Label Automated Teller Machines (WLAs) from non-bank entities. Which of the following facts related to this statement is/are not true? 1. The WLA operator can choose the location of the WLA. However, it will have to adhere to annual targets and the ratio of WLA between Tier I &II and Tier III-VI centres that may be stipulated by the RBI. 2. Non-bank entities proposing to set up WLAs have to apply to the RBI seeking authorisation under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007 3. The non-banking entities should have a minimum net worth of Rs. 1000 crore at the time of making the application and on a continuing basis after issue of the requisite authorisation. 4. Being non-bank owned ATMs, the guidelines on five free transactions in a month for using other bank ATMs will not be applicable for transactions made on the WLAs. 5. The WLA operator will have to declare one Sponsor Bank, which will serve as the Settlement Bank for the settlement of all the service transactions at the WLAs. a. 2 & 5 b. Only 1 c. Only 3 d. Only 5 Answer: (c) 33. Empowered Group of Ministers (EGoM) headed by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 15 February 2012 approved the auction route for selling 5 per centstake in state-run oil major? a. IOC b. ONGC

c. HPCL d. BPCL Answer: (b) 34. As per official data released on 14 February 2012, headline inflation eased to a 26month low in January 2012 from 7.47 per cent in December 2011 on the back of further fall in vegetable prices. What did the headline inflation stand at in January 2012? a. 6.55% b. 5.33% c. 5.75% d. 7.1% Answer: (a) 1. Name the veteran hindi film music composer Rajesh Roshan was honoured with the Lata Manageshkar award by the Madhya Pradesh government on 8 February 2012. a. A R Rehman b. Rajesh Roshan c. Adnan Sami d. Leslie Lewis Answer: (b) 35. Noted Hindi writer Professor Ramdarash Mishra was selected for the 21st Vyas Samman for his poetry collection. For which of his poetry collection was he selected for the award? a. Pak gai hai dhoop b. Path ke Geet c. Kandhe par Suraj d. Aam Ke Patte Answer: (d) 36. Renowned Urdu poet and noted lyricist of Umrao Jaan, Akhlaq Mohammad Khan passed away in Aligarh on 13 February 2012 after battling lung cancer. Which of the facts about the poet given below are not true? 1. Akhlaq Mohammad Khan wrote under the pen name 'Shahryar' 2. Shahryar started his career as a literary assistant at Anjuman Tarraqqi-e-Urdu. He then went on to join Jamia Millia Islamia, as a lecturer in Urdu and rose to become the chairman of the Urdu Department

3. Shahryar had received the Jnanpith Award, India's highest literary award, in the year 2008. 4. He edited the literary magazine Sher-o-Hikmat. In 1987 he received the Sahitya Akademy Award in Urdu for his poetry collection, `Khwab Ka Dar Band Hai' a. 1 & 3 b. Only 3 c. Only 2 d. 3 & 4 Answer: (c) 37. 44th Session of Indian Labour Conference was held on 14 15th February, 2012 under the chairmanship of Shri Mallikarjun Kharge, Union Minister of Labour & Employment. Which of the facts given below are not true about the conference? 1. The conference was inaugurated by the Prime Minister Manmohan Singh 2. The Conference deliberated upon very topical and critical issues viz., (i) Minimum Wages, (ii) Social Security and (iii) Employability and Employment. 3. The first such tripartite consultation at the national level was held in 1942 as the Tripartite National Labour Conference subsequently renamed as Indian Labour Conference since 1944 4. 45 Sessions of Indian Labour Conference have been held so far to discuss prominent labour related issues. a. Only 4 b. 2 & 3 c. 1& 3 d. Only 3 Answer: (a) 38. Name the senior BJP leader and Higher EducationMinister of Karnataka who died in Bangalore on 14 February 2012 following a massive cardiac arrest. a. Katti Ramesh Vishwanath b. G.S.Basavaraj c. K.H. Muniyappa d. VS Acharya Answer: (d)

39. Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 1. He was the founder of Max Telecom 2. He is the founder and Chairman of Max India 3. He has been appointed the Non-Executive Chairman of Vodafone India 4. He is a veteran of Telecom Industry (a). Deepak Parekh (b). Sunil Bharati Mittal (c). KP Singh (d). Analjeet Singh Answer: (d) 40. Which of the following Indian Telecom company on 16 February 2012 nod for FCCB redemption? (a). Reliance Telecom (b). Uninor (c). Airtel (d). Vodafone Answer: (a) got the RBI

41. Cognizant which on 13 February 2012 inked a 5-year deal with Future Group is a (a). Logistic Company (b). Aviation Company (c). Online Retail Company (d). Technology Solution Company Answer: (d) 42. Kintetsu World Express of Japan and Gati on 13 February 2012 entered into a Joint Venture of which of the following sector? (a). Electronic Equipments (b). Supply Chain (c). Single Brand Retail (d). Technology Solution Answer: (b) 43. Legrand, the French electronic and digital equipments company on 9 February 2012

acquired the UPS business of which of the following Indian brand? (a). Luminous (b). Onida (c). Numeric Power (d). Invertabular Answer: (c)

44. Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 1. He is the Serbian National 2. He holds number one position in world Tennis ranking 3. He has been given the highest Serbian award, the Gold Star of Karadjordje on 15 February 2012 4. He has five grand slam titles in his name (a) Novack Djokovik (b) Rafael Nadal (c) Roser Federar (d) Leton Hewit Answer: (a) 45. Which of the following Indian company on 16 February 2012 withdrew its decision to quash all its ties with the BCCI (a) Reliance Industries (b) Essar (c) Sahara Group (d) Vodafone Answer: (c) 46. Who was sacked as the Bowling Coach of Indian Cricket Team on 13 February 2012? (a) Garry Kirsten (b) Venkatesh Prasad (c) Eric Simons (d) Brad Hogg Answer: (c)

47. India had appealed to the International Olympic Committee to withdraw the sponsorship of which company from the London Olympics (a) Dow Chemicals (b) Vodafone (c) General Motors (d) Google Answer: (a) 48. Andrew Symonds, who announced his retirement from all the formats of cricket on 16 February 2012, is the player of (a) England (b) Newzeland (c) Australia (d) South Africa Answer: (c)

49. Union Home Minister P. Chidambaram inaugurated the the fourth and final regional hub of the National Security Guard (NSG) in which of the following places on 23 February 2012 a. Mumbai b. Imphal c. Srinagar d. Vishakhapattnam Answer: (a) 50. As a part of the Chacha Nehru Sehat Yojna (CNSY) Delhi Chief Minister Sheila Dikshit on 20 February 2012 launched a major State-wide de-worming campaign. Which of the following facts are not correct with respect to the de-worming campaign? 1. The campaign aims to de-worm the children and save them from worm-infested diseases such as anaemia, malnutrition, and physical and mental retardation 2. Delhi Government had earlier conducted a study and found that the average prevalence of soil-transmitted worms was around 16 per cent 3. To overcome this, all school-age children of Delhi Government schools, Municipal Corporation Delhi schools, New Delhi Municipal Council schools, Delhi Cantonment Board schools, pre-school children in Anganwadi centres, and the adolescent girls of

SABLA programme was given one dose of the de-worming medication on 21 february 2012, the de-worming day. 4. The exercise was conducted in schools and Anganwadi centres, where the teachers and Anganwadi workers would administer mebendazole de-worming tablets to every child. 5. The Chacha Nehru Sehat Yojna was introduced in September 2010 to provide health check-ups and free treatment to students studying in Delhi government, New Delhi Municipal Council, Municipal Corporation of Delhi and Delhi Cantonment Board schools a. 3 & 4 b. Only 4 c. Only 5 d. 2 & 4 Answer: (c) 51. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel on priority sector lending on 21 February 2012 proposed increment in the target (priority sector) for foreign banks to 40% of net bank credit from the current level of 32 per cent with sub-targets of 15 per cent for exports and 15 per cent for the MSE sector. The committee was headed by which of the following members? a. M. V. Nair b. Dr. D. Subbarao c. Dr. K.C. Chakrabarty d. Subir Gokran Answer: (a) 52. The new version of MGNREGA included more than 25 agriculture and allied activities. The new version of the act will be implemented from___. a) 1 April 2012 b) 1 May 2012 c) 1 June 2012 d) 1 July 2012 Answer: (a) 53. The Vice President Mohammed Hamid Ansari released a collection of poems titled LAVA in New Delhi. The poems were written by___.

a) Javed Akhtar b) Hamid Ansari c) Salman Rushdie d) Salman Khan Answer: (a)

54. India asked which one of the following nations to bring in a national anti-piracy legislation for investigation and prosecution of suspected pirates? a) Somalia b) China c) Egypt d) Ghana Answer: (a) 55. India and Pakistan on 21 February 2012 agreed to extend the agreement to reduce the risk from accidents related to nuclear weapons for another___ years. a) Five b) Four c) Three d) Two Answer: (a) 56. The largest (12.76 carat) rough pink diamond ever found in Australia was discovered in a West Australian mine owned by Rio Tinto. What was diamond named? a. Argyle Pink Jubilee b. Williamson Pink c. Aurora Butterfly of Peace d. Eureka Diamond Answer: (a) 57. A phase-two study of the World Banks crisis response, presented in a report, titled The World Banks Response to the Global Economic Crisis: Phase II was released on 23 February 2012. Which of the following facts stated below is incorrect with respect to the report? 1. Low resource allocation at the start of the crisis and the assumption that all financing

demands could be accommodated from existing patterns of lending had played a role in the Banks ultimate lending decisions. 2. While equity-to-loan ratios of the Bank at the outset of the crisis were around 37.5 per cent, the recent financial figures released by the Bank for quarter closing September 2011 suggested it had come down to 29 per cent 3. while much of the budget-support lending that the Bank undertook in India had helped signal the strength of public sector banks in the country, yet many of these public sector banks had capital adequacy ratios conforming to Indian government norms at the outset of crisis 4. The lending phenomenon was driven by country demand for Bank lending, and hence countries that were most engaged with the Bank before the crisis tended to approach the Bank more and in some cases get loans more quickly a. 1 & 3 b. Only 2 c. 3 & 4 d. Only 4 Answer: (b) 58. Delhi High Court on 23 February 2012 dismissed a plea from the Centre challenging Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunals (TDSAT) authority to stop which of the following bodies from enforcing a ban on 3G roaming pacts between telcos? a. Supreme Court b. HRD Ministry c. DoT d. Finance Ministry Answer: (c)

59. Cabinet Committee for Economic Affairs approved the National Dairy Development Boards ambitious National Dairy Plan for the 12th Five-Year Plan to be initiated in 2012. Which of the following facts with regard to the statement is not true? 2. The project is aimed at boosting milk production using scientific breeding and feeding programmes covering about 2.7 million milch animals in 40000 villages 3. According to the National Dairy Development Board, the demand for milk is likely to be about 150 million tonne by 2016-17 and 200-210 million tonne by 2021-22. India

was the third largest milk producing nation in 2010-11 with a production of 100.2 million tonne. 4. Cooperatives currently procure about 16% of the national marketable milk surplus covering around 21% of the countrys villages and 18% of rural milk producing households 5. The cooperative sector is needed to achieve a procurement share of at least 20% of the marketable milk surplus by 2016-17 so as to retain an overall 50% share of the marketable surplus handled by the organised sector a. 1 & 3 b. Only 3 c. Only 2 d. 3 & 4 Answer: (c) 60. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on13 February 2012 changed the bank rate, a mediumterm signal rate after nine years with the objective to realign it with the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate as a one-time technical adjustment to link it with the main policy repo rate. What does the changed bank rate stand stand at? a. 9.5% b. 8.3% c. 10.1% d. 8% Answer: (a) 61. As per the first nationwide retail inflation data released by the Centre of Statistical Office on 21 February 2012, inflation based on the all India Consumer Price Index stood at what per cent in January 2012? a. 6.6% b. 7.65 c. 8.32% d. 5.50% Answer: (b) 62. The Prime Minister's Economic Advisory Panel (PMEAC) on 22 February 2012 projected 7.5 - 8 per cent growth rate for the fiscal 2012-13. Which of the following facts are true with respect to the above statement?

1. The economy recorded a growth rate of 8.4 per cent in 2010-11, which according to the CSO estimates is expected to moderate to 6.7 per cent in the current fiscal 2011-12 2. Inflation was projected to moderate to 6.5% by March 2012 and 5-6 per cent in 2012-13. 3. The manufacturing sector was projected to grow by 4.8 percent while construction segment is expected to expand by 5.3 percent. 4. Projected Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth for 2012 is substantially down from the budgetary target of around nine percent, and 8.4 percent expansion registered in 201 a. Only 4 b. Only 1 c. Only 2 d. 1, 2 & 4 Answer: (d) 63. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel on priority sector lending on 21 February 2012 proposed increment in the target (priority sector) for foreign banks to what per cent of net bank credit from the current level of 32 per cent with sub-targets of 15 per cent for exports and 15 per cent for the MSE sector? a. 53% b. 40% c. 46% d. 39% Answer: (b)

64. Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 2. He is the Chairman of HDFC 3. He has been given the Ernst & Young Lifetime Achievement Award 2011 4. He is one of the pioneer in the Housing Finance in the country 5. He is on the board of Castrol India Limited (a) Deepak Parekh (b) Rahul Bhatia (c) Ratan Tata (d) Analjeet Singh

Answer: (a) 65. Rahul Bhatia, who was chosen for Ernst & Young Entrepreneur of the Year Award is the Managing Director of (a) Qualcomm Communications (b) Jet Airways (c) Vodafone (d) InterGlobe Enterprises Answer: (d) 66. Etisalat Which has initiated the legal proceeding against the promoters of Swan Telecom, its joint venture partner in India, is a (a) Baharain Based Company (b) UAE Based Company (c) Australia Based Company (d) Russia Based Company Answer: (b) 67. The Competition Commission of India, under the Competition Act, 2002of Parliament, has been empowered to look into (a) high voltage merger and acquisition deals (b) market activities (c) security market tradings (d) client base of different companies Answer: (a) 68. Worlds largest two wheeler manufacturer Hero MotoCorp on 22 February 2012 inked a pact with Erik Buell Racing [EBR]. EBR is an (a) USA based company (b) UAE based company (c) Argentina based company (d) UK based company Answer: (a)

69.Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the

personality with whom these statements are associated 1. He is an Australian national 2. He led the Australian cricket team twice to the world cup victory 3. He has 30 centuries and 82 fifties in ODI in his name 4. He on 21 February 2012 announced his retirement from the One day cricket (a) Andrew Simonds (b) Shane Watson (c) Ricky Ponting (d) Kevin Pieterson Answer: (c) 70. Which of the following team defeated Indian women hockey team in the final match of London Olympic Qualifiers (a) South Africa (b) France (c) Australia (d) New Zealand Answer: (a) 71. Dow Chemicals whose sponsorship to the London Olympics was highly protested in India is the parent company of (a) Union Carbide (b) Etisalat (c) Vodafone (d) Coca Cola Answer: (b) 72. Sania Mirza and Elena Vesnina suffered a crushing defeat against top seeds Liezel Huber and Lisa Raymond and finished runners-up at the (a) Australian Open (b) WTA Dubai Open (c) Chennai Open (d) Korean Open Answer: (b) 73. Juan Martin Del Potro of Argentina won his 10th career ATP title by beating

(a) Roger Federar (b) Rafael Nadal (c) Novac Djokovick (d) Michael Llodra Answer: (d) 74. According to data released by the ministry of commerce and industry on 28 February 2012, output of eight core segments that comprise the manufacturing sector dipped to 0.5% in January 2012, marking the slowest growth in three months. What is the total weight of the eight core segments in the index for industrial production (IIP)? a. 42% b. 37.9% c. 53% d. 51.4% Answer: (b) 75. The union government decided to boost public spending in the health sector to what per cent of GDP from the current 1.4 per cent over five years (12th Five Year Plan period begining 2012)? a. 2.5% b. 3% c. 3.33% d. 4.5% Answer: (a) 76. As per the data released by the Central Statistical organisation (CSO) on 29 February 2012, Indias economic growth rate dipped to what percent in the third quarter (october-december ) of 2011-12 due to poor performance of the manufacturing, mining and farm sectors? a. 5.5% b. 3.2% c. 6.1% d. 6.6% Answer: (c) 77. As per the data released by the Controller General of Accounts on 29 February 2012, fiscal deficit was 105 per cent of the total annual target in the April-January period

of 2011-12. What did the deficit stand at? a. Rs 4 lakh crore b. Rs 3.33 lakh crore c. Rs 5.21 lakh crore d. Rs 4.34 lakh crore Answer: (d)

78. Scientists recently found the treatment for Glaucoma in rats. Glaucoma is an __ disease. a) Eye b) Ear c) Lung d) Skin Answer: (a) 79. Scientists identified two genes, which are linked to Parkinsons. The genes are called__. a) NACP and MAPT b) NCAP and MPAT c) NPAC and MTPA d) NNCP and MMPA Answer: (a) 80. Erosion and diversion of Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha's Ganjam district seem to be posing a serious threat to the annual mass nesting of the endangered Olive Ridley sea turtles. Consider the following statements: i) The olive ridley sea turtle is also known as the Pacific ridley. ii) It is a species of sea turtle. Choose the right option: a) Both i and ii are correct. b) Only i is correct. c) Only ii is correct. d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a)

81. Which one of the following state governments imposed restrictions on the visit of foreign tourists to the areas inhabited by Tribals? a) Odisha b) Bihar c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh Answer: (a) 82. Indian black eagle was spotted in the Aravali Biodiversity park after a gap of __ years. a) 90 b) 80 c) 70 d) 60 Answer: (a)

83. According to data released by the ministry of commerce and industry on 28 February 2012, output of eight core segments that comprise the manufacturing sector dipped to 0.5% in January 2012, marking the slowest growth in three months. What is the total weight of the eight core segments in the index for industrial production (IIP)? a. 42% b. 37.9% c. 53% d. 51.4% Answer: (b) 84. The union government decided to boost public spending in the health sector to what per cent of GDP from the current 1.4 per cent over five years (12th Five Year Plan period begining 2012)? a. 2.5% b. 3% c. 3.33% d. 4.5% Answer: (a)

85. As per the data released by the Central Statistical organisation (CSO) on 29 February 2012, Indias economic growth rate dipped to what percent in the third quarter (october-december ) of 2011-12 due to poor performance of the manufacturing, mining and farm sectors? a. 5.5% b. 3.2% c. 6.1% d. 6.6% Answer: (c) 86. As per the data released by the Controller General of Accounts on 29 February 2012, fiscal deficit was 105 per cent of the total annual target in the April-January period of 2011-12. What did the deficit stand at? a. Rs 4 lakh crore b. Rs 3.33 lakh crore c. Rs 5.21 lakh crore d. Rs 4.34 lakh crore Answer: (d)

87. Scientists recently found the treatment for Glaucoma in rats. Glaucoma is an __ disease. a) Eye b) Ear c) Lung d) Skin Answer: (a) 88. Scientists identified two genes, which are linked to Parkinsons. The genes are called__. a) NACP and MAPT b) NCAP and MPAT c) NPAC and MTPA d) NNCP and MMPA Answer: (a)

89. Erosion and diversion of Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha's Ganjam district seem to be posing a serious threat to the annual mass nesting of the endangered Olive Ridley sea turtles. Consider the following statements: i) The olive ridley sea turtle is also known as the Pacific ridley. ii) It is a species of sea turtle. Choose the right option: a) Both i and ii are correct. b) Only i is correct. c) Only ii is correct. d) Neither i nor ii is correct. Answer: (a) 90. Which one of the following state governments imposed restrictions on the visit of foreign tourists to the areas inhabited by Tribals? a) Odisha b) Bihar c) Madhya Pradesh d) Uttar Pradesh Answer: (a) 91. Indian black eagle was spotted in the Aravali Biodiversity park after a gap of __ years. a) 90 b) 80 c) 70 d) 60 Answer: (a)

92. According to data released by the government on 19 March 2012, retail inflation stood at what per cent in February 2012 as a result of higher prices of protein based items, edible oil products and manufactured goods? a. 8.83% b. 7.74% c. 7% d. 6.9%

Answer: (a) 93. The Union Finance Minister (FM) Pranab Mukherjee tabled the Union Budget in the Parliament of India on 16 March 2012 for the fiscal year 2012-13. The total expenditure for 2012-13 is estimated what amount? a. Rs 1400025 crore b. Rs 1490925 crore c. Rs 1451033 crore d. Rs 1444264 crore Answer: (b) 94. In the Economic Survey tabled by the Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 15 March 2012, Indian economy was estimated to grow by what per cent in 2011-12 mainly due to weakening industrial growth? a. 6.5% b. 6% c. 5.2% d. 6.9% Answer: (d) 95. The Union Railway Budget 2012-13 was presented in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012 by Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi. Which of the following facts related to the budget are not true? 1. The total union budget outlay for 2012-13 stood at Rs 60100 crore. 2. The fares were raised in the budget. The fares were raised 5 paise per km for suburban and ordinary second class. Fares for mail express second class was raised by only 2 paise per km 3. Union Railway budget 2012-13 proposed to allocate about Rs 4410 crore to capacity augmentation works 4. The Union railway proposed to electrify 6500 route kilometers during the 12th Plan period. This would include electrification of Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla line and hence provide pollution free traction to the pristine Kashmir Valley 5. Union railway Minister proposed to raise the allocation under passenger amenities from Rs 762 crore in 2011-12 to Rs 1102 crore in 2012-13 a. 3 & 5 b. Only 4

c. Only 2 d. 3 & 4 Answer: (c) 96. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukharjee presented the annual budget for the fiscal year 2012-13 in the parliament on 16 March 2012. The Union Minister of Finance came up with an increased budgetary allocation for various sectors including agriculture, rural development, defence etc. Which of the statements are not true with respect to the budgetary allocations? 1. Budgetary allocation for agriculture and allied activities 2012-13 increased by 16%. 9217 crore rupees allocated for Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana 2. 20,000 crore rupees allocated for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund 3. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan-Right to Education- 25555 crore rupees 4. 193407 crore rupees aallocated for Defence services including 79579crore rupees for capital expenditure 5. 20822 crore rupees National Rural Health Mission a. 1 & 5 b. Only 1 c. 2 & 5 d. Only 4 Answer: (b)

97. Consider the following statements using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 1. He has recently announced his retirement from International Test Cricket 2. He is the second highest run getter in international test cricket 3. He made his international debut on 20 June 1996 while playing at the Lords against England 4. He has the highest test catches to his credit (a) Sourav Ganguly (b) Adam Gilchrist (c) VVS Laxman (d) Rahul Dravid Answer: (d)

98. Which one of the following statements is wrong (a) Anjum Chopra will lead the Indian team in the limited-over series against Australia (b) Anjum Chopra is a leading hockey player (c) Indian women Kabaddi team won first women World Cup Kabaddi championship title (d) Akhil Kumar is a boxer Answer: (b) 99. Who among the following tennis players won Dubai Open Singles Title? (a) Rafael Nadal (b) Roger Federer (c) Novak Djokovic (d) Andy Murray Answer: (a) 100. Dav Whatmore was appointed as the principal coach by which of the following teams? (a) Pakistan (b) Australia (c) Zimbabwe (d) South Africa Answer: (a) 101. Indian Tennis pair of Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan Bopanna won the doubles title of Dubai Open on 3 March 2012. It was Bhupatis ..............career title. (a) 30th (b) 15th (c) 50th (d) 1st Answer: (c)

102. Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 1. He has recently joined the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited as its Chairman 2. He is one of the few outsiders to head HAL

3. He started his career with ONGC in 1976 4. He has also served as the head of Pawan Hans Limited (a) RK Sharma (b) RK Tyagi (c) AM Naik (d) Pratip Chaudhury Answer: (b) 103. Which of the following Indian company has formed a joint venture with South African firm Exxaro (a) Reliance Industries (b) Essar (c) Tata Power (d) Vodafone India Answer: (c) 104. Who has been appointed the new Managing Director of Hyundai India? (a) Bo Shin Seo (b) Andrew Mark (c) Anil Aggarwal (d) Anand Mahindra Answer: (a) 105. Admax, South Asias largest digital media network was acquired by which Indian company (a) Komli Media (b) Mindtree (c) Tata Teleservices (d) Google India Answer: (a) 106. James Murdoch, who on 29 February 2012 stepped down as Executive Chairman of News International is son of (a) Rupert Grint (b) Steve Murdoch (c) Mark Rupert

(d) Rupert Murdoch Answer: (d)

107. Consider the following statements using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 2. He has recently been appointed as the Chairman of Mindtree Limited 3. He is also the co-founder of Mindtree limited 4. He has replaced Ashok Soota as the Chairman of Mindtree Limited 5. He has also served as the Vice Chaiman of Mindtree (a) Subroto Bagchi (b) Vivek Hooda (c) Ashok Malik (d) Pradeep Rungta Answer: (a) 108. Which one of the following statements is wrong (a) Varun Berry resigned from the Pepsi Co India on 29 February 2012 (b) He was the Chief Executive Officer of PepsiCo India Food (c) He joined the company in 2006 (d) As the CEO of PepsiCo India Foods, he promoted brands like Lays, Quaker, Kurkure and Lehar Answer: (c) 109. Who has been appointed the new Managing Director of Hyundai India? (a) Bo Shin Seo (b) Andrew Mark (c) Anil Aggarwal (d) Anand Mahindra Answer: (a) 110. Company Law Board on 1 March 2012, returned the petitions of (a) Telenor and Unitech (b) Reliance Telecom (c) Etisalat DB (d) STel

Answer: (a) 111. Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman (a) Bank of Baroda (b) Allahabad Bank (c) State Bank of Maharashtra (d) Syndicate Bank Answer: (d)

112.Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated 1. He is an Australian national 2. He led the Australian cricket team twice to the world cup victory 3. He has 30 centuries and 82 fifties in ODI in his name 4. He on 21 February 2012 announced his retirement from the One day cricket (a) Andrew Simonds (b) Shane Watson (c) Ricky Ponting (d) Kevin Pieterson Answer: (c) 113. Which of the following team defeated Indian women hockey team in the final match of London Olympic Qualifiers (a) South Africa (b) France (c) Australia (d) New Zealand Answer: (a) 114. Dow Chemicals whose sponsorship to the London Olympics was highly protested in India is the parent company of (a) Union Carbide (b) Etisalat (c) Vodafone

(d) Coca Cola Answer: (b) 115. Sania Mirza and Elena Vesnina suffered a crushing defeat against top seeds Liezel Huber and Lisa Raymond and finished runners-up at the (a) Australian Open (b) WTA Dubai Open (c) Chennai Open (d) Korean Open Answer: (b) 116. Juan Martin Del Potro of Argentina won his 10th career ATP title by beating (a) Roger Federar (b) Rafael Nadal (c) Novac Djokovick (d) Michael Llodra Answer: (d)

117. In context with agriculture, 2012 is being launched as the year of ___? (a) Green Manure (b) Organic Farming (c) Horticulture (d) Sericulture Answer: (c)

118. Who among the following has won the Best actor Award in the 59th National Film Awards 2011? (a) Amir Khan (b) Nasiruddin Shah (c) Girish Kulkarni (d) Salman Khan Answer: (c) 119. The four leading countries in the recently held first women's World Cup Kabaddi

championship were as follows: (a) India, Iran, Japan, Russia (b) India, Iran, Japan, Thailand (c) India, Australia, Japan, Iran (d) India, Australia, Iran, Japan Answer: (b)

120. Recently, the Empowered Group of Ministers, EGoM has decided to allocate 700 megahertz spectrum for offering which among the following telecom services? (a) 2G (b) 3G (c) 4G (d) 5G Answer: (c)