Diagnostic Test

in

PR 101
(Pre-Review)
Instruction:
Encircle the letter of
your answer.
Erasures are strictly
not allowed.
CRIMINAL LAW,
JURISPRUDENCE
and PROCEDURE
(CLJP)
1. In accordance with the Absolute Theory of
International Law where Philippines has
adopted, if a crime is committed in an
aircraft, no matter how high, as long as it can
establish that it is within the Philippine
atmosphere, what law will govern?

a. PHIL. CRIMINAL LAW

b. UNITED NATIONS LAW
c. INTERNATIONAL LAW
d. FOREIGN LAW
2. French Rule provides that the nationality of
the vessel follows the flag which the vessel
flies, unless the crime committed endangers
the __________________ of a foreign country
where the vessel is within jurisdiction in
which case such foreign country will never
lose jurisdiction over such vessel.

a. FOREIGN SECURITY
b. LOCAL SECURITY
c. INTERNATIONAL SECURITY
d. NATIONAL SECURITY
3. John, Peter and Paul decided to commit
robbery in the house of Juana. Pursuant to
their agreement, John would ransack the
second floor, Paul was to wait outside and
Peter would stay on the first floor.
Unknown to Paul and Peter, John raped
Juana upstairs. They will be liable for..

a. THEFT AND ROBBERY

b. THEFT WITH RAPE
c. ROBBERY WITH RAPE
d. ROBBERY AND RAPE
4. Juan and Juana enters Aliwan Theater, a
public place, and then goes to the
darkest part of the balcony and while
there Juana started performing acts of
lasciviousness on Juan. If there was
mutuality, what crime was committed?

a. SLIPPERS & SANDAL

b. ALARMS & SCANDAL
c. PUBLIC SCANDAL
d. GRAVE SCANDAL
5. A complaint or information must charge
only one offense. This is the..

a. ABSOLUTE RULE.
b. GENERAL RULE.
c. SPECIFIC RULE.
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
6. When the imposable penalty is
death, reclusion perpetua or life
imprisonment, the accused can
post a bail if the evidence is..
a. BIASED.
b. STRONG.
c. NOT STRONG.
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE.
7. When the accused did not say
anything during arraignment, the
court records it as a..

a. GUILTY PLEA.
b. NOT GUILTY PLEA.
c. GUILTY PLEA TO LESSER OFFENSE.
d. PLEA BARGAINING.
8. The examination of a witness in the
court is in the following order..

a. DIRECT-CROSS-REDIRECT-RECROSS
b. DIRECT-REDIRECT-CROSS-RECROSS
c. CROSS-DIRECT-RECROSS-REDIRECT
d. CROSS-RECROSS-DIRECT-REDIRECT
9. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is the
required judgment of conviction
in..
a. CIVIL CASE.
b. CRIMINAL CASE.
c. BOTH CIVIL & CRIMINAL.
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
10. In murder or homicide, the
corpus delicti is the..
a. FACT OF FIREARMS
b. FACT OF MOTIVE
c. FACT OF DEATH
d. FACT OF WEAPON USED
11. In US v. Valdez, the offender had tried to
burn the premises by gathering jute sacks
laying these inside the room. He lighted these,
and as soon as the jute sacks began to burn, he
ran away. The occupants of the room put out
the fire.

A. CONSUMATED ARSON
B. FRUSTRATED ARSON
C. CONSUMATED MALICIOUS MISCHIEF
D. FRUSTRATED MALICIOUS MISCHIEF
12. When are light felonies punishable?

A. Light felonies are punishable in all stages of

execution.
B. Light felonies are punishable only when
consummated.
C. Light felonies are punishable only when
consummated, with the exception of those
committed against persons or property.
D. Light felonies are punishable only when
committed against persons or property.
13. Under the Three-Fold Rule, when a convict is
to serve successive penalties he will not actually
serve the penalties imposed by law. Instead, the
most severe of the penalties imposed on him shall
be multiplied by three and the period will be the
only term of the penalty to be served by him.
However, in no case should the penalty exceed..

A. 40 YEARS.
B. 30 YEARS.
C. 20 YEARS.
D. 10 YEARS.
14. Which of the following is a violation of
the right of the accused against self-
incrimination?

A. when he is required to give a specimen

of his handwriting.
B. when he is required to submit to a drug
test.
C. when he is required to give a sample of
his semen.
D. when he is required to submit into
DNA testing.
15. A judgment of conviction shall contain the
following, except.

A. The legal qualification of the offense & the

aggravating and mitigating circumstances.
B. The participation of the accused in the offense,
whether principal, accomplice or accessory.
C. The penalty imposed upon the accused.
D. The civil liability when there was reservation
to file separate civil action.
E. None of the above.
 LAW
ENFORCEMENT
ADMINISTRATION
(LEA)
1. Span of control refers to the number of
subordinates or resources that one police
supervisor can manage effectively during
emergency response incidents or special
events. This must be..
a. KEPT TO A MAXIMUM.
b. KEPT TO A MINIMUM.
c. KEPT TOLERATED.
d. KEPT ENHANCED.
2. Because of his contributions in the
modernization of police force, Sir Robert
Peel was considered as the..

a. FATHER OF POLICE.
b. FATHER OF MODERN POLICING.
c. FATHER OF LAW ENFORCEMENT.
d. FATHER OF MODERN COPS.
3. This should be undertaken by a
Security Officer before he can prepare a
comprehensive security program for his
industrial plan.

a. SECURITY SURVEY
b. SECURITY INSPECTION
c. SECURITY EDUCATION
d. SECURITY CONFERENCE
4. Police dogs are especially useful in high crime
areas, in dangerous search situations, in dealing
with street gangs, in dispersing a crowd, in taking
fleeing suspects into custody, in guarding suspects,
in searching alleys, parks, schools, and other large
building. A most recent use of police dogs is in the
search and detection of drugs in packages or on
suspects . Dog Patrol is known as..

a. F-4 PATROL.
b. B-1 PATROL.
c. K-9 PATROL.
d. C-9 PATROL
5. ODEX is a method of collecting
information wherein the investigator
mere uses his various senses. It
stands for..
a. OBSERVATION & EXPRESSION.
b. OBSERVATION & DESCRIPTION.
c. OBSERVATION & EXPECTATION.
d. OBSERVATION & DEVOTION.
6. When the source of information comes
from a police intelligence officer of long
experience and extensive background, the
evaluation of reliability of information is
labeled..
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
7. The most important technique in
community oriented policing is...
a. POLICE PATROL, AS POLICEMEN KNOW MOST
PEOPLE IN THE AREA
b. POLICE IMMERSION, AS WHEN POLICEMEN ARE
MERGED WITH THE PEOPLE AS THEY WOULD
KNOW ONE ANOTHER
c. POLICE SHOULD ACT AS POLITICIAN BY
SATISFYING ALL WHAT THE PEOPLE WANT
d. PERFORM THEIR DUTIES WELL
8. In accordance with RA 8551, what
is the maximum tenure of the
Regional Director?

a. 4 YEARS
b. 5 YEARS
c. 6 YEARS
d. 9 YEARS
9. The 2nd in command of the PNP
with the rank of Deputy Director
General is the..
a. CHIEF OF THE P.N.P..
b. DEPUTY CHIEF FOR ADMINISTRATION.
c. DEPUTY CHIEF FOR OPERATION.
d. CHIEF OF DIRECTORIAL STAFF.
10. In the PNP, the compulsory
retirement age is 56 while the optional
retirement age is..

a. 10 YRS. OF SATISFACTORY SERVICE.

b. 20 YRS. OF SATISFACTORY SERVICE.
c. 30 YRS. OF SATISFACTORY SERVICE.
d. 40 YRS. OF SATISFACTORY SERVICE.
11. The 1987 Philippine Constitution says that
the State shall establish and maintain one
police force, which shall be national in scope
and civilian in character, to be administered and
controlled by a national police commission,
particularly in..

A. Article 16, Section 6

B. Article 6, Section 16
C. Article 1, Section 6
D. Article 16, Section 1
12. Private Security Agency Law in the
Philippines is..

A. RA 8551
B. RA 4864
C. RA 4136
D. RA 5487
13. Patrol officers are considered as the
most valuable people in the police
department because..

A. all activities radiate from them.

B. all people are their friends.
C. all fellow officers salute them.
D. all their officials depend on them.
14. The act of secretly listening to the
private conversation of others
without their consent.

A. WIRETAPPING
B. EAVES DROPPING
C. PROPAGANDA
D. SNITCHING
15. DILG in the Philippines. In Australia, it is..

A. Ministers of Home Affairs

B. Minister of Northern Territory
C. Minister of Interior
D. Minister of Capital Territory
CRIMINALISTICS
(ForSci)
1. Fingerprints of probable suspects in the
crime can be forcibly taken as it does
not constitute a violation of the
Constitutional provision against self-
incrimination.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. NEITHER
d. DOUBTFUL
2. In the Primary Classification, if
all fingers are whorls then the
classification is..
a. 1/1
b. 31/31
c. 32/32
d. 2/2
3. Those characteristics of firearms
that are determinable after it has
been fired i.e., markings on fired
shells or bullets.
a. INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS
b. CLASS CHARACTERISTICS
c. PITCH OF RIFLINGS
d. BORE DIAMETER
4. In questioned document examination,
what is an OFF-HAND OPINION?
a. A conclusion that is not based
on scientific examination.
b. A mere speculation of facts
contained in the document.
c. A scientific findings as to the
content of document.
d. All of the Above.
5. One that is exhibited by the subject
to a particular question, which is a
deviation from the norm.

a. REACTION
b. STIMULUS
c. SPECIFIC RESPONSE
d. DECEPTION
6. In death investigation, livor mortis
is a means in determining the time
of death. It is..
a. A STIFFENING OF BODY.
b. A PURPLISH DISCOLORATION OF SKIN.
c. LEGAL MEDICINE.
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE.
7. As in most English-speaking countries,
Filipino fingerprint examiners
adopted the..
a. HENRY SYSTEM OF CLASSIFICATION.
b. HERSCHEL SYSTEM OF CLASSIFICATION.
c. VUCETICH SYSTEM OF CLASSIFICATION.
d. PURKINJE SYSTEM OF CLASSIFICATION.
8. A bifurcation is a..
a. FINGERPRINT PATTERN.
b. CORE & DELTA.
c. RIDGE INCLUSION.
d. RIDGE CHARACTERISTIC.
9. The diameter of the interior of
firearms barrel is called the bore,
while caliber is the diameter of the..
a. FIREARM.
b. BULLET.
c. CARTRIDGE.
d. TRIGGER.
10. While you do not need to be a
photography expert to take crime scene
photographs or testify in court about
these photographs, you do need to have a
solid understanding of the..
a. PROPER EDUCATION TO PHOTOGRAPH CRIME SCENE.
b. PROPER MOTIVATION TO PHOTOGRAPH CRIME SCENE.
c. PROPER WAY TO PHOTOGRAPH CRIME SCENE.
d. PROPER ATTITUDE TO PHOTOGRAPH CRIME SCENE.
11. One of the following is not an emulsion
speed rating of a black & white films.

A. ASA
B. ISO
C. ISA
D. DIN
E. None of the above
12. These are depressions or canals
between the ridges of a fingerprint which
maybe compared with the low area in a
tire tread.

A. Appendage
B. Bifurcation
C. Furrows
D. Delta
E. None of the above
13. The pivoting mechanical part of a
firearm that causes the firing pin to
ignite the cartridge's primer.

A. Action
B. Backstrap
C. Hammer
D. Breech
14. A term used by some document
examiners and attorneys to characterize
known material.

A. Basis
B. Exemplar
C. Xerox copies
D. Reproduced
15. An erroneous decision that a
person is being deceptive when he
or she is actually being truthful.

a. FALSE POSITIVE
b. FALSE NEGATIVE
c. PARTIAL NEGATIVE
d. PARTIAL POSITIVE
 CRIME
DETECTION,
INVESTIGATION
& PREVENTION
(CDIP)
1. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove
anything at the crime scene until the
evidence has been __________ through
notes, sketches and photographs, with
proper measurements. This refers to the
golden rule in investigation.

a. IN CUSTODY
b. PROCESSED
c. TURNED-OVER
d. KEPT
2. The continues accountability of persons
handling evidences, and having
responsibility of taking care and preserving
the evidences from the time it was found
until brought to court for presentation is
called..
a. CHAIN OF EVENTS.
b. CHAIN OF CUSTODY.
c. CHAIN OF EVIDENCE.
d. CHAIN OF COMMAND.
3. It is a police collection of pictures or
photographs of criminals and suspects
kept for identification purposes.

a. ROGUES GALLERY
b. DOSSIER FILE
c. POLICE FILE
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
4. In the examination of the scene of
accident, which of the following
evidence will show how the accident
happened?
a. hole on the road pavement
b. driver under influence of liquor
c. point of impact
d. vehicle has break failure
5. A person can escape from the scene
of the accident on one of the
following grounds:
a. offense committed is serious
b. bringing the person to your custody
c. bring the suspect before the court to
answer a charge of violation
d. if the person is under imminent danger
6. The group of drugs that are considered
to be mind altering and gives the
general effect of mood distortion are
generally called..

a. SEDATIVES
b. HYPNOTIC
c. HALLUCINOGENS
d. TRANQUILIZERS
7. Section 15 of RA 9165 is..
a. USE OF DANGEROUS DRUGS.
b. POSSESSION OF DANGEROUS DRUGS.
c. SALE/TRADING OF DANGEROUS DRUGS.
d. MANUFACTURE OF DANGEROUS DRUGS.
8. Under RA 9165, any person who is found
guilty of "planting" any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential
chemical, regardless of quantity and purity,
shall suffer the penalty of..

a. RECLUSION PERPETUA.
b. LIFE IMPRISONMENT.
c. LIFE SENTENCE.
d. DEATH.
9. If they are in school or within its immediate vicinity,
or even beyond such immediate vicinity if they are
in attendance at any school or class function in
their official capacity as school heads, supervisors
and teachers, they are empowered to apprehend,
arrest or cause the apprehension or arrest of any
person or student who shall violate any of the
provisions of RA 9165, pursuant to Section 5, Rule
113 of the Rules of Court, as..
a. PERSONS IN AUTHORITY.
b. AGENTS OF PERSONS IN AUTHORITY.
c. POWERFUL PERSONS IN SCHOOL.
d. INFORMANTS OF P.D.E.A..
10. This shall be conducted as a pre-
requisite to grant permits and/or
license by local governments or other
government agencies.
a. FIRE SAFETY INSPECTION
b. FIRE PROTECTION ASSEMBLY
c. FIRE ALERTING SYSTEM
d. FIRE SERVICE
11. He was known to be the creator of the
"bow street runners", a group of police
officers attached to the Bow Street
Court, and not in uniform, performing
criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
12. Conductors of passenger buses need
not be licensed.
A. Yes, they should not.
B. Yes, maybe.
C. No, they should.
D. Im doubtful.
13. In consorting together on a
continuing basis to participate in
illegal activities for gain, organized
crime operation usually involve..

A. 1 person and below

B. above 0 but below 1 person
C. 1 person
D. 2 or more persons
14. Group of drugs that when introduced
into the system of the body can
produce mental alertness and
wakefulness.
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of the above
15. The rapid chemical combination of a
substance with oxygen involving the
production of heat and light.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
 SOCIOLOGY OF
CRIME, ETHICS &
HUMAN RELATION
(CrimSocio)
1. The principle which states that
man, by nature, always tries to
maximize pleasure and avoid pain.
A. Utopia
B. Hedonism
C. Socialism
D. Atavism
2. A doctrine which criminals were seen as
distinct types of humans who could be
distinguished from non criminals by certain
physical traits.
A. theory of biological inferiority
B. theory of natural selection
C. theory of differential association
D. theory of evolution
3. It is defined as a crime where a person of
respectability and high social status in the
course of his/her occupation commits the
criminal act.
A. Labor Crime
B. Organized Crime
C. High Collar Crime
D. White Collar Crime
4. It means not only observed acts of crime
but the results of a crime, which triggers the
operation of the criminal justice process.
A. commission of a crime
B. solution of a crime
C. detection of a crime
D. adjudication of a crime
5. It refers to anti social act which
deviates from normal pattern of
rules and regulations.
A. Recidivism
B. Reiteration
C. Delinquency
D. Crime
6. What is the legal doctrine establishing
court as determiner of best environment
for raising child which is an alternative to
the Parens Patriae doctrine?

A. Rights of Society
B. Miranda Doctrine
C. Best Interest of the Child Rule
D. Parental Obligation
7. In Section 20 of RA 9344, the custody
of a Child In Conflict with the Law
(CICL) aged 15 years old & below shall
automatically be with the..
A. CICLs parents.
B. DSWD Office.
C. Punong Barangay
D. Police Station
8. The apprehension or taking into
custody of a CICL by law enforcement
officers or private citizens is termed as..

A. Arrest
B. Initial contact
C. Child custody
D. All of the above
9. Phenomenon in a hostage
situation where the hostages
become sympathetic to the
hostage takers.
A. Oslo Syndrome
B. Stockholm Syndrome
C. Hostage Syndrome
D. Helsinki Syndrome
10. The recital of the rights of a
suspect during custodial
investigation.
A. Bill of Rights
B. Miranda Warning
C. Code of Ethics
D. Policemans Code
11. Which of these refers to the scientific analysis
of the causes of crime?
A. Criminal Psychology
B. Criminal Sociology
C. Criminal Psychiatry
D. Criminal Etiology
12. A component or pillar of the Criminal
Justice System which is involved in the
administration of appropriate sanctions in
keeping with the sentence handed down.
A. Corrections
B. Prosecutions
C. law enforcement
D. court
13. The nature of complaint against any PNP
member is called..
A. Individual Complaint
B. Public Complaint
C. Citizens Complaint
D. Administrative Complaint
14. The exchange of sexual favors for money or
other material goods without any emotional
involvement involving a person under
the age of 18 years is called..
A. Child prostitution
B. Child trafficking
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are wrong
15. To explain human behavior, social learning
theorists place great emphasis on cognitive
variables. Social learning reflects the theorys
strong assumption that we learn primarily by
observing and listening to people around us.
A. the social environment
B. the stimulus that elicit response
C. the mental state and brain-mediation processes.
D. the reinforcements for behavior
CORRECTIONAL
ADMINISTRATION
and PROBATION
(CAP)
1. BJMP is under the administration of..

A. Executive Department
B. P.N.P.
C. D.I.L.G.
D. D.O.J
2. When an inmate is given a shakedown before
admission, it means..

A. He has taken the process of identification,

record, fingerprint and photograph
B. He has been examined for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to records clerk
D. None of the above
3. Prisoners whose sentences are from
one day to six months are..

A. municipal prisoners
B. provincial prisoners
C. city prisoners
D. insular prisoners
4. Pardon is exercised when the person is..

A. already convicted
B. about to be convicted
C. not yet convicted
D. serving the sentence
5. Upon receipt of the probation officers
investigation report, the court shall
resolve the application for probation not
later than..

A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 5 days
6. Parole in the Philippine is governed by..

A. Determinate Sentence Law

B. Indeterminate Sentence Law
C. Board of Pardon and Parole
D. Parole and Probation Admin
7. Following are forms of executive
clemency, except..

A. Commutation
B. Reform Model
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
8. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent
in the state which exempts an individual from
the punishment which the law imposes or
prescribes for his crime, extended by the
President thru the recommendation of the
Board of Pardons and Parole is called..

A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation
9. The form of conditional release that is
granted after a prisoner has served a
portion of his sentence in a prison.

A. Pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation
10. In accordance with RA 10592 on Good Conduct
Time Allowance, during the third to the fifth year,
inclusive, of the prisoners imprisonment, he shall
be allowed a reduction of __________ for each
month of good behavior during detention.

a. 20 DAYS
b. 23 DAYS
c. 25 DAYS
d. 30 DAYS
11. The basis of this old school of penology is the
human free-will.
A. Penology School
B. Classical School
C. Neo-classical
D. Positivist
12 The following are the justifications
of punishment, except..
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Redress
D. Expiration or atonement
13. Giving punishment to a person so
to serve as an example to others is the
theory of..

A. Self-defense
B. Social defense
C. Exemplary
D. Equality
14. All but one are the factors considered
in diversification.

A. Age of offenders
B. Mother of offender
C. Sex of offenders
D. Medical condition
15. For prisoners whose sentences were
adjusted to a definite prison term of 40
years in accordance with the provisions of
Article 70 of the Revised Penal Code, as
amended, the prisoner to be considered for
commutation of sentence should have
served at least..
A. 10 years.
B. 12 years.
C. 15 years.
D. 20 years.
- End of Test -