1 SEDATIVES & HYPNOTICS

DRUGS
Questions (the best answer

1. Which one of the following statements is

CORRECT?
A. Benzodiazepines directly open chloride channels.
B. Benzodiazepines show anesthesia action
C. Clinical improvement of anxiety requires 2-4 weeks of treatment with
benzodiazepines
D. All benzodiazepines have some sedation.
E. Benzodiazepines, like other CNS depressants, readily produce general
anesthesia.
Questions

2. All of the following respond to treatment with

benzodiazepines EXCEPT:
A. Muscle disorders

B. Parkinson’s disease

C. Epileptic seizures

D. Insomnia

E. Anxiety
Questions

3. Which one of the following is a short-acting hypnotic?

A. phenobarbital

B. diazepam

C. chlordiazepoxide

D. triazolam

E. flurazepam
Questions

5. Which one is the action mechanism of

benzodiazepines?
A. Causing the sodium channel close
B. Decreasing the entry of Na+ depolarizing cell
C. Binding BZ receptor and enhancing GABA to bind the GABAA receptors,
resulting in a greater entry of chloride ion
D. Increasing degradation of GABA
E. Increasing the release of GABA
Questions

6. Which one is can be used intravenously to induce

anesthesia?
A. thiopental
B. diazepam
C. amobarbital
D. triazolam
E. phenobarbital
7. Compare the hypnotic action of Diazepam and phenobarbital, which
drug is better?

8. What is the detail mechanism of benzodiazepines?

2 DRUGS USED TO TREAT
EPILEPSY
Questions

1. For which one of the follow drug is the

therapeutic indication INCORRECT?
A. Ethosuximide: Absence seizures
B. Phenobarbital: Seizures in childern
C. Diazepam: Status epilepticus
D. Phenytoin: Absence seizures
E. Carbamazepine: Tonic seizures
Questions

2. Which of the following statement concerning

phenytoin is INCORRECT?
A. It causes less sedation than phenobarbital
B. It causes gingival hyperplasia.
C. It is abnormalities of vitamin D metabolism.
D. It is mainly excreted unchanged through urine.
E. The adverse effects are in dose-dependence manner.
Questions

3. All the following drugs are useful in treating

complex partial seizures EXCEPT:
A. Ethosuximide
B. Phenobarbital
C. Carbamazepine
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproic acid
Questions

4. Which following drugs/effect pairs is

INCORRECT?
A. Phenobarbital Sedation
B. Carbamazepine Liver toxicity
C. Phenytoin Gingival hyperplasia.
D. Valproic acid hepatotoxicity
E. Diazepam Anesthesia
Questions

5. Which following mechanism of phenytoin is

INCORRECT?
A. Decreasing the influx of sodium ions with use-dependent

B. Reducing the influx of calcium ions during depolarization.

C. Reducing the release of glutamate .

D. Inhibition of metabolism of GABA

D. Enhancing of responses to GABA

3 DRUGS TREATED WITH
PARKINSON’S DISEASE
Questions

1.“on and off” is a side effect of which

following drug?

A. L-Dopa B. Carbidopa
C. Selegiline D. Pergolide
E. Benztropine
2.Which drug is belong to Antimuscarinic drugs ?

A. L-Dopa B. Caibidopa
C. Selegiline D. Pergolide
E. Benztropine
3. Which drug is a dopamine decarboxylated
inhibitor ?

A. L-Dopa B. Caibidopa
C. Selegiline D. Pergolide
E. Benztropine
4.It is often coadministrated L-DOPA with
Carbidopa in clinic use, why ?
4 Drugs for Psychiatric Disorders
Question
1. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Coadministration of L-dopa and monoamine oxidase
inhibitor(MAOI) can produce hypotension.
B. Vitamine B6 increase the effectiveness of L-dopa.
C. Administration of dopamine is an effective treatment of
Parkinson’s disease in all time.
D. L-dopa-induced tachycardia is increased by carbidopa.
E. L-dopa-induced hypertension is increased by carbidopa.
Question
2. Which one of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
A. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by an increased ratio of
dopaminerigic/cholinergic activity in the neostriatum.
B. VB6 can diminish the efficacy of L-dopa
C. Carbidopa can increase the efficacy of L-dopa
D. “On and off” is an important adverse effect of L-dopa
E. MAOI-B can treatment of Parkinson’s disease
Question
3. All of the following statements about the
extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs are
correct EXCEPT
A. They are caused by blockade of dopamine receptor in
nigrostriatal
B. They are less likely to be produced by clozapine than by
chlorpromazine
C. They can be decreased to some degree by antimuscarinic
drugs
D. Haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal disturbance
E. antipsychotic drugs may cause tardive dyskinesia
Question

4. All of the following are observed in patients taking

antipsychotic (Chlorpromazine) drugs EXCEPT
A. Mouth dry
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Altered endocrine function
D. Constipation
E. Orthostatic hypotension
Question

5. Detail the action and mechanism of chlorpromazine

6. Detail the mechanism of extrapyramidal effects of
antipsychotic drugs
7. What are the characteristics and mechanism of
chlorpromazine effecting body temperature ?

8. What are the clinic uses of chlorpromazine ?

9. What are the adverse reactions of chlorpromazine?

Question
1. Which one of the following statements is correct
EXCEPT?
A. Coadministration of L-dopa and monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) may
lead to hypertension crisis.
B. Vitamine B6 increase the peripheral side effects of L-dopa.
C. L-dopa is an effective treatment of Parkinson’s disease in all time.
D. L-dopa is effective to Parkinson’s disease in initial time.
E. L-dopa increased anti-PD by carbidopa.
Question
2. Which one of the following statements is
CORRECT?
A. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by an increased ratio of
dopaminerigic/cholinergic activity in the neostriatum.
B. VB6 can enhance the efficacy of L-dopa
C. Carbidopa can increase the adverse effects of L-dopa
D. “On and off” is an adverse effect of Carbidopa
E. MAOI-B can treatment of Parkinson’s disease
Question
3. All of the following statements about the
extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic drugs are
correct EXCEPT
A. They are caused by blockade of dopamine receptor in nigrostriatal
B. They are less likely to be produced by clozapine than by chlorpromazine
C. They can be decreased to some degree by antimuscarinic drugs
D. Haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal disturbance
E. antipsychotic drugs may cause tardive dyskinesia
Question

4. All of the following are observed in patients taking antipsychotic

(Chlorpromazine) drugs EXCEPT
A. galactorrhea
B. hypertension
C. infertility
D. constipation
E. orthostatic hypotension
5. If someone has hypotension caused by chlorpromazine, which drug can be
used
A. dopamine
B. L-dopa
C. norepinephrine
D. adrenaline
E. isoproterenol
6. If someone has hypotension caused by chlorpromazine, which drug can not be
used
A. dopamine
B. phenylephrine
C. norepinephrine
D. methoxamine
E. epinephrine
7. If someone has extrapyramidal effects caused by chlorpromazine, which drug
can be considered to used
A. thioridazine
B. thiothixene
C. clozapine
D. haloperidol
E. dipdenylbutylpiperidine
Question

8. Detail actions and their mechanisms of chlorpromazine

9. Detail the mechanism of extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic

drugs

10. What are the characteristics and mechanism of chlorpromazine effecting

body temperature ?

11. What are the clinic uses of chlorpromazine ?

12. What are the adverse reactions of chlorpromazine?

OPIOID ANALGESICS
 Question

1. Which one is not the action of Morphine in CNS

A. Analgeasia
B. Sedation,
C. Depression of cough reflex
D. Depression of respiration
E. Hypertension
 Question

2. Which patient is treatment with Morphine?

A. with brain trauma

B. with toothache,
C. woman with baby delivery
D. intensive pain caused by operation
E. intensive pain in myocardia infarction with
hypotension
 Question

3. What is the action of Morphine ?

A. Analgeasia, Sedation , Anti- Vomiting

B. Analgeasia, Sedation, Depression of respiration
C. Analgeasia, Sedation, Anti-inflammation
D. Analgeasia, relaxing Gastrointestinal smooth
muscles
E. Analgeasia, euphoria, enlarging pupil
 Question

4. To patient with kidney angina, which agent can be used

in treating with morphine ?

A. α-R agonist
B. β-R agonist
C. M-R agonist
D. N-R agonist
E. M-R blocking agent
 Question

5. Which statement is not mechanism of morphine

treating Acute left heart failure ?

A. reduced perception of shortness of breath.

B. reduced patient anxiety

C. reduced cardiac preload

D. reduced cardiac afterload
E. hypertension
 Question

6. Which statement is not symptom of Overdose morphine?

A. coma
B. 2~3 times/min respiration
C. pin pupil
D. hypotension
E. fast respiration
 Question

7. Which statement is not symptom of therapeutic dose

morphine?

A. constipation
B. vomiting

C. miosis
D. hypertension
E. respiratory depression
 Question

8. Which following are contraindication of morphine EXCEPT?

A. asthma
B. brain injured
C. pregnancy
D. hypertension
E. impaired hepatic or renal function
9. Detail actions and their mechanisms of morphine

10. Detail mechanisms of treating acute left heart failure by

morphine (pethidine)

11. What are the characteristics of codeine ?

12. What are the clinic uses of morphine (pethidine)?

13. What are the adverse reactions of morphine?

 Question

1. Which one is not the action of Morphine

A. Analgeasia
B. Sedation,
C. Antiemesis
D. Depression of respiration
E. Miosis

06/27/2021 43
 Question

2. Which following can be treated with Morphine?

A. with brain trauma

B. with toothache,
C. woman with baby delivery
D. intensive pain caused by terminal cancer
E. intensive pain in myocardia infarction with
hypotension

06/27/2021 44
 Question

3. What are the actions of Morphine ?

A. Analgeasia, Sedation , hypertension

B. Analgeasia, Sedation, Antitussive
C. Analgeasia, Sedation, Antiemesis
D. Analgeasia, Relaxing bronch smooth muscles
E. Analgeasia, Euphoria, Hypertension

06/27/2021 45
 Question

4. To patient with renal colic, which agent can be

used in treating with morphine ?

A. α-R agonist
B. β-R agonist
C. M-R agonist
D. N-R agonist
E. M-R antagonist

06/27/2021 46
 Question

5. Which statement is not mechanism of morphine

treating Acute left heart failure ?

A. reduced perception of shortness of breath.

B. reduced patient anxiety
C. reduced cardiac preload
D. reduced cardiac afterload
E. hypertension

06/27/2021 47
 Question

6. Which statement is not symptom of Overdose

morphine?

A. coma
B. 2~3 times/min respiration
C. pin pupil
D. hypotension
E. hypertension

06/27/2021 48
 Question

7. Which statement is not symptom of therapeutic dose

morphine?

A. diarrhea
B. vomiting
C. miosis
D. hypotension
E. respiratory depression

06/27/2021 49
 Question

8. Which following are contraindication of morphine

EXCEPT?

A. asthma
B. brain injured
C. pregnancy
D. Terminal cancer
E. impaired hepatic or renal function

06/27/2021 50
 9. Which following are opioid agonists EXCEPT?

A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. naloxone
E. Pethidine

06/27/2021 51
 10 Which following is partial opioid agonist?

A. Codeine
B. Pentazocine
C. Methadone
D. naloxone
E. Pethidine

06/27/2021 52
10. When someone was given overdose of morphine,
which following is be used?

A. Codeine
B. Pentazocine
C. Methadone
D. naloxone
E. Pethidine
06/27/2021 53
 11. Detail morphine’s actions and their mechanisms
12. Detail mechanisms of treating acute left heart failure
by morphine (pethidine)
11. What are the characteristics of codeine ?

12. What are the clinic uses of morphine (pethidine)?

13. What are the adverse reactions of morphine?

14. What are the characteristics of Methadone ?

06/27/2021 54
 definition

Tolerance

Psychological dependence

Physiological dependence

Addiction

06/27/2021 55
 Norsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs,
Nonopioid Anlgesia, Antipyretic-analgesic and
antiinflammatory drugs
 Question
1. About aspirin, which one of the following statements
are correct EXCEPT?
A Aspirin reduces elevated temperature of body.
B Aspirin has no effect on normal body temperature..
C Aspirin strongly inhibits thermoregulatory centers.
D Aspirin inhibits COX in thermoregulatory centers.
E Aspirin decreases PGs in thermoregulatory centers.

06/27/2021 57
Question
2. About aspirin, which one of the following
statements is CORRECT?
A. Analgesic action is in periphery.
B. It has dependence.
C. Analgesic action is very strong.
D. It has addiction.
E. It can be use to treat with intense pain .

06/27/2021 58
Question
3. About aspirin, which one of the following
statements is correct EXCEPT?
A. It can be used to treat with headache.
B. It can be used to treat with toothache.
C. It can be used to treat with stomachache.
D. It can be used to treat with neuralgia.
E. It can be use to treat with menstrual pain .

06/27/2021 59
 4. Which drug has a low inhibition of COX in
peripheral?
A. aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Indomethacin
D. naproxen
E. celecoxib

06/27/2021 60
 5. Which drug has a less gastric upset ?
A. aspirin
B. naproxen
C. Indomethacin
D. Acetaminophen
E. celecoxib

06/27/2021 61
 6. Which drug belong to selective inhibition of
COX-2?
A. aspirin
B. naproxen
C. Indomethacin
D. Acetaminophen
E. celecoxib

06/27/2021 62
 7. The reasons of asthma caused by aspirin are
following?
A. Ach
B. bradykinnin
C. LTs and PGs
D. Histamine
E. NE

06/27/2021 63
 8. Aspirin can treat with following diseases EXCEPT?

A. Pain caused by bone fracture.

B. neuralgia.
C. unstable angina.
D. coronary artery thrombosis.
E. rheumatic fever.

06/27/2021 64
 9. Low dose (75-250mg) of aspirin can treat with
following diseases ?

A. Pain caused by bone fracture.

B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. Fever
D. Terminal cancer
E. coronary artery thrombosis.
F. rheumatic fever.

06/27/2021 65
10. What’s different effects on body temperature and
their mechanisms between chlorpromazine and aspirin?

11. Compare the difference of analgesic action between the

morphine and aspirin.

12. Compare the different mechanism of analgesic action

between the morphine and aspirin.

13. What are mechanism of gastric upset caused by aspirin?

14. Why aspirin can be used in coronary heart disease ?

06/27/2021 66
β-lactam antibiotics and other inhibitors of β-
lactam antibiotics and other inhibitors of cell
wall synthesisell wall synthesis
 Study Question
• Disease can NOT be treated by penicillin G is:

• A. Synphilis
• B. Typhoid
• C. Tetanus
• D. Leptospirosis
 Study Question
• Which one of penicillins can be used to treat
typhoid?

• A. Ticarcillin
• B. Ampicillin
• C. Nafcillin
• D. Penicillin V
• E. Carbenicillin
 Study Question
• Which of the following penicillins can be
administrated orally?

• A. Penicillin V
• B. Methicillin
• C. Carbenicillin
• D. Piperacillin
• E. Penicillin G
 Study Question
• The charactericstics of 3rd generation of
cephalosporins is:

• A. Mainly used in less severe respiratory or urinary

infections.
• B. Very strong activity against G- bacteria.
• C. Stability on β-lactamase is higher than 1st and 2nd
generations.
• D. Renal toxicity is higher than 1st and 2nd generations.
• E. Low ability to penatrate into tissues.
 Study Question
• Which one of the following drugs is both
penicillinase-resistant and effective by oral
administration?

• A. Methicillin
• B. Carbenicillin
• C. Penicillin V
• D. Amoxicillin plus clavulanic acid
• E. Piperacillin
 Study Question
• Which one of the following antibiotics have least
possibilities to cause superinfections:

• A. Vancomycin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Cefazolin
• D. Cefapime
• E. Tetracycline
Protein synthesis inhibitor
 Question 1
• All of the following properties are exhibited by
aminoglycosides EXCEPT:
A. They are poorly absorbed from gastrointestinanl tract.
B. They have bactericial properties.
C. They can achieve adequate serum levels after oral
administration.
D. They bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit.
E. they are not accumulated by anaerobic microorganisms.
 Question 2
• Which one of the following drugs inhibits
bacterial protein synthesis, preventing the
translocation step via its interaction with the
50S ribosomal subunit?

A. Clindamycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Imipenim
E. tetracycline
 Question 3
• To treat pseudomembranous colitis caused by
tetracycline, which one should we use?

A. cephalosporins
B. lincomycin
C. chlortetracycline
D. vancomycin
E. penicillin G
 Question 4
• Which one of the following can be used to
treat typhus? (more than one choice)

• A. tetracycline
• B. streptomycin
• C. chloramphenicol
• D. clindamycin
• E. sulfamethoxazole
 Question 4
A 60-year old women who had undergone chemotherapy for
lymphoma the week previously is brought to the emergency room. She
has a fever of 38.5℃ and is confused. Respiration is rapid and blood
pressure is 78/40. She is neutropenic. Gram stains of the urine and
sputum are negative. Which one of the following actions is most likely to
be beneficial to the patient?

A. Send a clinical sample to the laboratory for identification and then

administer an appropriate antibiotic.
B. Administer a broad spectrum antibiotic like tetracycline.
C. Administer a combination such as clindamycin and an
aminoglycoside
D. Administer clindamycin
E. Administer aztreonam
Artificial synthetic antibacterial
drugs
 Questions
• All of the following statements concerning
sulfonamides are correct EXCEPT:
A. They require actively growing cultures for maximum antimicrobial
activity
B. Allergic reactions are frequent adverse effects.
C. Treatment of patients with severe renal insufficiency may lead to
crystalluria.
D. They dimish activity of warfarin.
E. They compete with p-aminobenzoic acid for the enzyme
dihydropteroate synthetase.
 Questions
• Sufonamides increase the risk of neonatal
kernicterus because they:

A. diminish the production of plasma albumin.

B. increase the turnover of red blood cells.
C. inhibit the metabolism of bilirubin.
D. compete for bilirubin binding sites on plasma albumin.
E. depress the bone marrow.
 Questions
• Ciprofloxacin and tetracycline have all of the
following properties in common EXCEPT:

A. Resistant organisms have an increased ability to pump out the drugs.

B. Absorption can be decreased by concurrent administration with
aluminum or magnesium containing antacids.
C. Both can cause severe phototoxicity.
D. Both accumulate with decreased renal function.
E. Both are desposited in developing bones and teeth.
• ANTIMYCOBACTERIAL DRUGS
 Question
• All of the following statements about isoniazid are correct
EXCEPT:

• A. It produces age-dependent hepatotoxicity.

• B. It readily penetrates into infected cells.
• C. It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in susceptible mycobacteria.
• D. It may induce the symptoms of cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12)
deficiency.
• E. It potentiates the adverse effects of phenytoin when the patients
receives both medications concurrently.
 Question
• All of the following statements about rifampin are correct
EXCEPT:

• A. It is frequently used prophylactically for household members exposed to

meningitis caused by meningococci or Haemophilus influenzae.
• B. It colors body secretions orange-red.
• C. It disrupts bacterial lipid metabolism as its major mechanism of action.
• D. Although rare, it can cause serious hepatotoxicity.
• E. When used alone, there is a high risk of the emergence of resistant
strains of mycobacteria.
• Antifungal Agents,
Antiviral Agents and
Cancer Chemotherapy
 Question 1
• Which one of the following drugs is not used for the
treatment of systemic fungal infections?

• A. Amphotericin B
• B. Flucytosine
• C. Ketoconazole
• D. Griseofulvin
• E. Fluconazole
 Question 2
• All of the following statements correctly describe
ketoconazole EXCEPT:

• A. It inhibits the conversion of lanosterol to

ergosterol.
• B. It may produce gastrointestinal upsets.
• C. It can cause gynecomastia in males.
• D. It penetrates into the cerebrospinal fluid.
• E. It should not be combined with amphotericinB.
 Question 3
• A 30-year-old male has had a heart transplant and is being maintained
on the immusuppressant, cyclosporine. He develops a Candida infection
and is treated with ketoconazole. Why is this poor therapy?

• A. Ketoconazole is not effective against Candida.

• B. Ketoconazole reacts with cyclosporine to inactivate it.
• C. Ketoconazole has a potential for cardiotoxicity.
• D. Ketoconazole inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzymes that inactivate
cyclosporine.
• E. Ketoconazole causes gynecomastia in the male.
 Question 4

• All of the following statements about acyclovir are

correct EXCEPT:
• A. It is the treatment of choice for influenza infections.
• B. It is incorporated into the viral DNA causing premature DNA chain
termination.
• C. It is the treatment of choice in herpes simplex encephalitis.
• D. It reduces the duration of lesions associated with genital herpes
infections.
• E. It inhibits only actively replicaing viruses, not latent ones.
 Question 5
• Which one of the following agents shows cytotoxicity
that is cell-cycle specitic?

• A. Methotrexate
• B. Dactinomycin
• C. Cisplatin
• D. Mechlorethamine
• E. Doxorubicin