Comp Review

Ana Corona, MSN, FNP-C

Nursing Instructor
August 2007
1
 A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor
recommended I increase my intake of folic acid.
What type of foods contain the highest
concentration of folic acids?”
A: Green vegetables and liver
B: Yellow vegetables and red meat
C: Carrots
D: Milk
Answer 1
 (A) Green vegetables and liver are a great
source of folic acid
 2
 A fragile 87 year-old female has recently been
admitted to the hospital with increased confusion
and falls over last 2 weeks. She is also noted to
have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the
following tests is most likely to be performed?
A: FBC (full blood count)
B: ECG (electrocardiogram)
C: Thyroid function tests
D: CT scan
Answer 2
 (D) A CT scan would be performed for
further investigation of the hemiparesis.
3
 The nurse is observing a LPN/LVN administer iron
dextran (DexFerrum) IM. It is MOST important for
the nurse to give which of the following
instructions?
A. “Massage the injection site for one minute after the
injection of the medicine.”
B. “Tap out the air bubble prior to administering the
medication.”
C. “Release the skin prior to withdrawing the needle.”
D. “Change the needle after drawing up the medication.”
Answer 3
 (D) Explanation of Answer: This ensures
that no solution remains on the outside of
the needle.
4
 The nurse is teaching a 45-year-old woman
how to increase the potassium in her diet.
The woman says she knows bananas are
high in potassium, but she doesn’t like their
taste. What foods should the nurse
recommend the client include in her diet?
A. Potatoes, spinach, raisins.
B. Rhubarb, tofu, celery.
C. Carrots, broccoli, yogurt.
D. Onions, corn, oatmeal.
Answer 4
(A) potassium content foods:
 Product Potassium Amount
 Potatoes 610 mg
 Carrots 221 mg
 Spinach 838 mg
 Broccoli 254 mg
 Raisins 1089 mg
 Yogurt 251 mg
 Rhubarb 548 mg
 Onions 318 mg
 Tofu 9 mg
 Corn 192 mg
 Celery 114 mg
 Oatmeal 132 mg
5
 The nurse is caring for clients in an orthopedic clinic.
Then nurse would be MOST concerned if which of
the following was observed?
A. A teenager who is 6’4” tall places the crutches about 6”
to the side of his feet when ambulating with crutches.
B. A school-aged child who is 4’8” tall flexes her elbows
about 20 degrees when ambulating with crutches.
C. A middle-aged adult, 5’10” tall, advances the crutches
first when walking down the stairs.
D. An older adult, 5’6” tall, uses a 4-point gait when
ambulating with crutches.
Answer 5
 (A) Explanation of Answer: Taller people
require a broader base of support.
6
 The physician orders codeine 60 mg and
aspirin grains X PO every four hours, as
needed for pain. Each codeine tablet
contains 15 mg of codeine. Each aspirin
tablet contains 325 mg of aspirin. Which of
the following should the nurse administer?
A. 2 codeine tablets and 4 aspirin tablets
B. 4 codeine tablets and 2 aspirin tablets
C. 3 codeine tablets and 3 aspirin tablets
D. 4 codeine tablets and 3 aspirin tablets
Answer 6
 (B) Explanation of Answer:
60/x = 15/1
x=4
10 grains = 600 mg
325/1 = 600/x
x=2
7
 The home care nurse is visiting an 82-year-old
woman living with her daughter. The client appears
malnourished and has multiple bruises on her
body. Which of the following actions, if taken by
the nurse, is MOST appropriate?

A. Place a home health aide with the patient to document

incidents of abuse.
B. Report the situation to the nursing supervisor.
C. Discuss the nurse’s observation with the client’s
children.
D. Request that another nurse visit the patient to assess
the situation.
Answer 7
 (B) State law requires this to be reported.
8
 The nurse in the same-day surgery
department cares for a 77-year-old woman
after a sigmoidoscopy. Which of the
following symptoms, if exhibited by the
woman an hour after the procedure, would
MOST concern the nurse?
A. The client complains of fullness and pressure
in her abdomen.
B. The client complains of grogginess and thirst.
C. The client complains of lightheadedness and
dizziness.
D. The client complains of mild pain and cramping
in her abdomen.
Answer 8
 (C) This could signify hypovolemic shock
due to bowel perforation
9
 The nurse is caring for a patient one day
after an abdominal–perineal resection for
cancer of the rectum. The nurse should
question which of the following orders?
A. Discontinue the nasogastric tube.
B. Irrigate the colostomy.
C. Place petrolatum gauze over the stoma.
D. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM for pain.
Answer 9
 (B) The colostomy begins to function 3–6
days after surgery
10
 A 1-year-old girl admitted to the hospital
with a fractured femur is placed in Bryant’s
traction. The nurse knows that the child
should be placed in which of the following
positions?

A. Buttocks slightly elevated off the bed.

B. Legs elevated at a 45° angle.
C. Knees slightly flexed.
D. Hips fully extended.
Answer 10
 (A) The child’s weight provides
countertraction
11
 A 72-year-old woman is admitted to the nursing
home setting. The client is occasionally confused
and her gait is often unsteady. Which of the
following actions, if taken by the nurse, is MOST
appropriate?

A. Ask the woman’s family to provide personal items such

as photos and mementos.
B. Select a room with a bed by the door so the woman
can look down the hall.
C. Suggest the woman eat her meals in the room with her
roommate.
D. Encourage the woman to ambulate in the halls twice a
day.
Answer 11
 (A) Photos and mementos provide visual
stimulation to reduce sensory deprivation
12
 An 84-year-old man is admitted with a diagnosis of
dementia. He attempts several times to pull out his
nasogastric tube. An order for cloth-wrist
restraints is received by the nurse. Which of the
following actions by the nurse is MOST
appropriate?

A. Attach the ties of the restraint to the bed frame.

B. Perform circulation checks to the extremities, which
are restrained once a shift.
C. Remove the restraints when the patient is up in a
wheelchair.
D. Explain the need for the restraints only to the family.
Answer 12
 (A) Attaching the ties of the restraint to the
bed frame allows the raising and lowering
of the side rail without causing injury to the
patient.
13
 A 14-year-old boy is brought to the
emergency room with a compound fracture
of the left femur. His vital signs are: BP
80/60, pulse 120, respirations 26,
temperature 99.0° F (37.2° C). Which of the
following fluids would the nurse expect the
physician to order initially?
A. D5 in water.
B. D5 in 0.45% NaCl.0.45%
C. NaCl.
D. Lactated Ringer’s
Answer 13
 (D) You need isotonic fluid to restore
circulating blood volume. You may also
use 0.9% NaCl.
 14 
 The nurse is caring for a 67-year-old man 4 days
after a suprapubic prostatectomy. The physician has
removed the Foley catheter. A suprapubic catheter
remains in place. Which of the following actions, if
taken by the nurse, is MOST appropriate?
A. Encourage the patient to void; measure the amount of
urine voided and drained from the suprapubic catheter;
document the results.
B. Clamp the suprapubic catheter for two hours, release the
clamp, allow it to drain to gravity; measure and
document the results.
C. Encourage the patient to void every two hours with the
suprapubic catheter clamped; open the clamp, allow the
catheter to drain to gravity, and document the results.
D. Clamp the suprapubic catheter; have the patient void;
unclamp the catheter, and allow it to drain to gravity;
measure and document the results.
Answer 14
 (D) This checks for residual urine in the
bladder after voiding. When residual urine
is 75 ml or less the S/P catheter is usually
removed.
15
 A nurse is supervising a group of elderly
clients in a residential home setting. The
nurse knows the elderly are at greater risk of
developing sensory deprivation for what
reason?

A. Increased sensitivity to the side effects of

medications.
B. Decreased visual, auditory, and gustatory
abilities.
C. Isolation from their families and familiar
surroundings.
D. Decreased musculoskeletal function and mobility
Answer 15
 (B) Gradual loss of sight, hearing, and
taste interferes with normal functioning.
16
 The nurse is performing discharge teaching on a
patient with chronic renal failure. The nurse knows
that teaching has been successful if the patient
selects which of the following menus?

A. 6 oz roast beef, baked potato, 1/2 broccoli, one orange,

and 16 oz of iced tea.
B. 4 oz baked ham, 1/2 potatoes au gratin, 1/2 cup canned
green beans, one apple, and 8 oz of milk.
C. 2 oz turkey, 1/2 noodles, 1/2 carrots, 1/2 cup blueberries,
and 8 oz cola.
D. Hot dog with bun, 1/2 cup pork and beans, 1 cup of
spinach salad, 1 banana, and 8 oz lemonade.
Answer 16
 (C) This meal has the appropriate amount
of HBV protein, low potassium fruit, and a
protein-free drink.
17
 Which of the following is not
considered a fat soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E
Answer 17
 (B) Vitamin B1
18
 Which of the following is not
considered a water soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin B3
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B12
Answer 18
 (C) Vitamin D
19
 Which of the following is not an underlying
cause of hypercalcemia?

A. Paget’s disease
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hartnup disease
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer 19
 (C) Hartnup disease
20
 Which of the following is caused by a
B5 deficiency?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Nausea
C. Dermatitis
D. Fever
Answer 20
 (C) dermatitis
21
 Which of the following is caused by a
B6 deficiency?
A. Excessive irritability
B. Nonproductive cough
C. Dry mouth
D. Depression
Answer 21
 (A) Excessive irritability
22
 Which of the following is caused by a
B12 deficiency?
A. Glossitis
B. Fever
C. Hypertension
D. Edema
Answer 22
 (A) Glossitis
23
 Which of the following is caused by a
Vitamin C deficiency?
A. Fever
B. Anemia
C. Headaches
D. Nausea
Answer 23
 (B) Anemia
24
 Which of the following is caused by a
Vitamin D deficiency?
A. Edema
B. Anemia
C. Lupus
D. Rickets
Answer 24
 (D) Rickets
25
 Which of the following is caused by a
Vitamin K deficiency?
A. Bruising
B. Optic Nerve degeneration
C. Anemia
D. Hemorrhage (infants)
Answer 25
 (D) Hemorrhage (infants)
26
 Another name for Vitamin B1 is ____ .
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Cobalamin
Answer 26
 (A) Thiamine
27
 Which of the following foods is not
high in potassium?
A. Oranges
B. Bananas
C. Tomatoes
D. Turnips
Answer 27
 (D) Turnips
28
 1 gram of protein is equal to ____ of
energy.
A. 3 kcals
B. 4 kcals
C. 5 kcals
D. 6 kcals
Answer 28
 (B) 4 kcals
29
 A protein restricted diet requires only
______ grams/day.
A. 20-40
B. 30-50
C. 40-60
D. 50-70
Answer 29
 (C) 40-60 GRAMS/DAY
30
 Which of the following vitamins will be the
most common in: oils from cereal seeds,
salad oils, margarine and shortenings?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Answer 30
 (C) Vitamin E
31
 Which of the following vitamins will
be the most common in: leafy green
vegetables, egg yolk and soy oil?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Answer 31
 (D) Vitamin K
32
 Which of the following vitamins will be
the most common in: fish liver oils,
milk, and egg yolk?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin K
Answer 32
 (D) Vitamin K
33
 Another name for Vitamin B12 is ____
A. Pantothenic Acid
B. Cyanocobalamin
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin
Answer 33
 (B) Cyanocobalamin
34
 Which of the following does not
contain a high concentration of
Niacin?
A. Yeast
B. Meat
C. Liver
D. Corn
Answer 34
 (D) CORN
35
 Which of the following does not
contain a high concentration of
Vitamin A?
A. Strawberries
B. Oranges
C. Green Vegetables
D. Yellow Vegetables
Answer 35
 (C) Green Vegetables
36
 A client hospitalized with a fractured mandible
is to be discharged. Which piece of equipment
should be kept on the client with a fractured
mandible?
A. Wire cutters
B. Oral airway
C. Pliers
D. Tracheostomy set
Answer 36
 Answer A is correct. The client with a fractured
mandible should keep a pair of wire cutters with
him at all times to release the device in case of
choking or aspiration. Answer B is incorrect
because the wires would prevent insertion of an
oral airway. Answer C is incorrect because it
would be of no use in releasing the wires. Answer
D is incorrect because it would be used only as a
last resort in case of airway obstruction.
37
 An elderly client who experiences nighttime confusion
wanders from his room into the room of another client.
The nurse can best help decrease the client's confusion
by:
A. Assigning a nursing assistant to sit with him until he falls
asleep
B. Allowing the client to room with another elderly client
C. Administering a bedtime sedative
D. Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night
shifts
Answer 37
 Answer D is correct. Leaving a nightlight
on during the evening and night shifts
helps the client remain oriented to the
environment and fosters independence.
Answers A and B will not decrease the
client’s confusion. Answer C will increase
the likelihood of confusion in an elderly
client.
38
 Which of the following conditions is most
likely related to the development of renal
calculi?
A. Gout
B. Pancreatitis
C. Fractured femur
D. Disc disease
Answer 38
 Answer A is correct. Gout and renal
calculi are the result of increased amounts
of uric acid. Answer B is incorrect because
it does not contribute to renal calculi
Answers C and D can result from
decreased calcium levels. Renal calculi
are the result of excess calcium; therefore,
answers C and D are incorrect
39
 An elderly client is hospitalized for a
transurethral prostatectomy. Which finding
should be reported to the doctor immediately?
A. Hourly urinary output of 40–50cc
B. Bright red urine with many clots
C. Dark red urine with few clots
D. Requests for pain med q 4 hrs.
Answer 39
 Answer B is correct. Bright red bleeding with
many clots indicates arterial bleeding that
requires surgical intervention. Answer A is within
normal limits; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer C
indicates venous bleeding, which can be
managed by nursing intervention; therefore, it is
incorrect. Answer D does not indicate excessive
need for pain management that requires the
doctor’s attention; therefore, it is incorrect.
40
 Which of the following nursing interventions
has the highest priority for the client scheduled
for an intravenous pyelogram?
A. Providing the client with a favorite meal for
dinner
B. Asking if the client has allergies to shellfish
C. Encouraging fluids the evening before the test
D. Telling the client what to expect during the test
Answer 40
 Answer B is correct. The contrast media
used during an intravenous pyelogram
contains iodine, which can result in an
anaphylactic reaction. Answers A, C, and
D do not relate specifically to the test;
therefore, they are incorrect.
41
 The doctor has prescribed a diet high in
vitamin B12 for a client with pernicious
anemia. Which foods are highest in B12?
A. Meat, eggs, dairy products
B. Peanut butter, raisins, molasses
C. Broccoli, cauliflower, cabbage
D. Shrimp, legumes, bran cereals
Answer 41
 Answer A is correct. Meat, eggs, and dairy
products are foods high in vitamin B12. Answer
B is incorrect because peanut butter, raisins,
and molasses are sources rich in iron. Answer C
is incorrect because broccoli, cauliflower, and
cabbage are sources rich in vitamin K. Answer D
is incorrect because shrimp, legumes, and bran
cereals are high in magnesium.
42
 The renal medulla is composed of
tissue called ______.
A. Renal pyramids
B. Nephrons
C. Renal sinus
D. Renal pelvis
Answer 42
 (A) Renal pyramids
43
 Which is found in the highest
concentration in the urine?
A. Uric acid
B. Urea
C. Glucose
D. Creatinine
Answer 43
 (B) UREA
44
 The primary function of the ascending
loop of Henle in the kidney is?
A. The active re-absorption of sodium
B. The active re-absorption of chloride ions
C. The passive re-absorption of potassium
D. The passive re-absorption of urea
Answer 44
 (B) The active re-absorption of chloride
ions
45
 The micturition reflex center is
located in the _____.
A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Lumbar plexus
D. Sacral plexus
Answer 45
 (D) Sacral plexus
46
 Which of the following match with the
definition: a poor output of urine?
A. Oliguria
B. Pyruia
C. Enuresis
D. Diuresis
Answer 46
 (A) OLIGURIA
47
 The primary function of the
descending loop of Henle in the
kidney is?
A. Reabsorption of sodium ions
B. Reabsoption of water by osmosis
C. Secretion of hydrogen ions
D. Secretion of potassium ions
Answer 47
 (B) Reabsoption of water by osmosis
48
 Which of the following is not
considered a component of kidney
stones?
A. Calcium phosphate
B. Uric Acid
C. Calcium oxalate
D. HCO3
Answer 48
 (D) HCO3
49
 Which of the following is not
considered a loop diuretic?
A. Bumetadine (BUMEX)
B. Furosemide (LASIX)
C. Chlorthiazide (DIURIL)
D. Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN)
Answer 49
 (C) Chlorthiazide (DIURIL)