Revision

Dr. Fayza Ahmed

 Choose the correct answer:
• A nurse specialist is developing a plan of care
for his patient high risk of pulmonary
embolism (PE). Which of the following is NOT
appropriate nursing intervention for this
patient?
A. Progressive ambulation.
B. Applying antiembolic stockings.
C. Administer analgesic drugs.
D. Adequate hydration.
• Which of the following is a common clinical
manifestation of pulmonary embolism (PE)?
A. Dyspnea.
B. Bradypnea.
C. Bradycardia.
D. Decreased respirations
• A critical care nurse is assessing a patient
with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS), which of the following nursing
interventions reduces risk for atelectasis?
A. Monitor vital signs every 1 to 2 hours.
B. Suction endotracheal airway.
C. Administer red blood cell transfusion.
D. Perform chest physiotherapy.
• Which of the following would the nurse expect
to find in a patient with acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A. Pallor.
B. Low arterial PaO2.
C. Elevated arterial PaO2.
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
• Backup pacemaker, located on the posterior
floor of the right atrium near the tricuspid
valve with Intrinsic rate: 40-60 bpm is referred
to:
A. SA Node.
B. AV Node.
C. Bundle of HIS.
D. Purkinje fibers
• What is used to identify the rate and
regularity of ventricular contractions?
A. PR interval.
B. RR interval.
C. QRS Complex.
D. P wave.
The quickest way(s) of assessing the heart
rate of this dysrhythmia is:

A. 6 second x 10 method.
B. 300 methods.
C. 1500 method.
D. A & B.
 What type of arrhythmia is labeled by the
arrows?

A. PACs (Premature Atrial contraction)

B. PVCs (Premature Ventricular contraction) .
C. PSVT (Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia)
D. LBBB (Left Bundle Branch Block).
• After open-heart surgery a client develops a
temperature of 38.9°C. The nurse notifies the
physician, because elevated temperatures:

A. Are related to diaphoresis and possible chilling.

B. May indicate cerebral edema.
C. Increase the cardiac output.
D. May be a forerunner of hemorrhage.
• Which of the following terms describes the
force against which the ventricle must expel
blood?
A. Afterload.
B. Cardiac output.
C. Overload.
D. Preload.
• What laboratory finding is the primary
diagnostic indicator for pancreatitis?
A. Elevated Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN).
B. Elevated serum lipase.
C. Elevated Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST).
D. Increased Lactate Dehydrogenase (LD).
• When teaching a client about pancreatic
function, the nurse understands that
pancreatic lipase performs which function?
A. Transports fatty acids into the brush border.
B. Breaks down fat into fatty acids and glycerol.
C. Triggers cholecystokinin to contract the
gallbladder.
D. Breaks down protein into dipeptides and
amino acids.
• Which intervention should the nurse include in the
care plan for a patient diagnosed with acute
pancreatitis?
A. Administration of vasopressin and insertion of a
balloon tamponade.
B. Preparation for a paracentesis and administration
of diuretics.
C. Maintenance of nothing-by-mouth status and
insertion of Nasogastric (NG) tube with low
intermittent suction.
D. Preparation for thoracentesis and administration of
diuretics.
• When caring for a client with septic shock,
which assessment by the nurse requires
immediate intervention?
A. Cool clammy skin.
B. Urine output of 40 ml in last 2.5 hours.
C. Blood pressure 98/60.
D. Temperature 40 OC.
• After falling from a 3-meter ladder, a patient is
brought to the emergency department. The
patient is alert, reports back pain, and difficulty
moving the lower extremities. Which additional
observation is an indication that the patient
may be experiencing neurogenic shock?
A. Cool and pale skin.
B. Increased systolic blood pressure.
C. Poor skin turgor.
D. Bradycardia.
• Which nursing diagnosis is a priority in the
client with anaphylactic shock?
A. Ineffective Breathing Pattern.
B. Ineffective tissue perfusion.
C. Anxiety.
D. Knowledge deficit.
• The nurse is assessing a client with
hypovolemic shock. Which assessment
finding needs intervention by the nurse?
A. Sacral edema.
B. Jugular vein distention.
C. Decreasing blood pressure.
D. Palpable bounding pulse.
Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal
thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the
nurse assesses the client, who now has nausea,
sweating, and a temperature of 40.5° C,
tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is
the most likely cause of these signs?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
B. Thyroid crisis.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Hyperglycemia.
• Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for
a female client with hyperthyroidism?
A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body
requirements related to thyroid hormone excess.
B. Body image disturbance related to weight gain
and edema.
C. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema,
skin fragility, and poor wound healing.
D. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body
requirements related to thyroid hormone excess.
• A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the
Emergency Room (ER) with Diabetic
Ketoacidosis (DKA). In the acute phase the
priority nursing action is to prepare to:
• A. Administer regular insulin intravenously.
• B. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously.
• C. Correct the acidosis.
• D. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor.
• Which finding is a characteristic of tension
pneumothorax?
A. Tracheal deviation towards the affected side.
B. Symmetry of chest and equal breath sounds.
C. Decreased heart rate and decreased
respirations.
D. Tracheal deviation towards the unaffected
side.
• The nurse caring for a male client with a chest
tube turns the client to the side, and the chest
tube accidentally disconnects. The initial nursing
action is to:
A. Call the physician.
B. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water.
C. Immediately replace the chest tube system.
D. Place the sterile dressing over the disconnection
site.
• A client who has lung contusion should be
observed for:
A. Respiratory alkalosis.
B. Hypoxemia.
C. Bradypnea.
D. Hyperthermia.
• Which of the following interventions should
the nurse give the highest priority to patient
with cerebral hemorrhage in coma?
A. Monitor vital signs.
B. Maintain an open airway.
C. Monitor pupil response and equality.
D. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance.
• Postoperative care of a patient undergoing
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) surgery
includes monitoring for which common
complication?
A. Dehydration.
B. Paralytic ileus.
C. Atrial dysrhythmias.
D. Acute respiratory distress syndrome.
• The patient with Acute Coronary Syndrome
(ACS) undergoes coronary revascularization
with balloon angioplasty with placement of a
drug-eluting stent. The physician prescribes a
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor Tirofiban
(Aggrastat). What is the main rationale for
administering this drug?
A. To promote vasodilation.
B. To inhibit ST elevation.
C. To prevent closure of the stent.
D. To inhibit hemorrhage.
• Before determining a patient's cardiac
output, the nurse reviews normal values and
realizes the value for cardiac output is :
A. 16-19 L/min.
B. 8-10 L/min.
C. 4-8 L/min.
D. 2-4 L/min.
• All of the following are considered a sign and
Symptoms of increasing intracranial pressure,
EXCEPT:
A. Decreased consciousness.
B. Headache.
C. Seizures.
D. Increased pulse rate.
• Which of the following is a characteristic of
Acute Respiratory Failure type II?

A. PaCO2< 42 mm Hg.
B. HCO3< 24mEq/L.
C. PaO2> 55.
D. PaCO2> 50 mm Hg.
• Which of the following modes is used in
weaning from mechanical ventilation?
A. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
B. Controlled mandatory ventilation (CMV).
C. Assist control ventilation (ACV).
D. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP).
• Which of the following modes of ventilation
reduces the work of breathing by overcoming
the resistance created by ventilator tubing?
A. Controlled Mandatory Ventilation.
B. Synchronous Intermittent Mandatory
Ventilation.
C. Assist Control Mode.
D. Pressure support Mode.
Which outcome would be the most appropriate
for a client in hepatic coma?
A. The client orients to time, place, and person.
B. The client exhibits no ecchymotic areas.
C. The client increases oral intake to 2,000
calories/day.
D. The client exhibits increased serum albumin
level.
Symptoms of Increased Intracranial pressure in
infants includes all of the following , EXCEPT:

• A. Vomiting.
• B. Headache.
• C. Drowsiness.
• D. Separated sutures in the skull.
• Which of the following test is used to determine
the cause or confirm the diagnosis of increased
intracranial pressure?
• A. Ultrasound.
• B. Lumbar puncture.
• C. MRI.
• D. X ray.
The following are nursing interventions for patient
with increased intracranial pressure, EXCEPT:
• A. Continuously stimulate the patient.
• B. Maintain proper position of patient.
• C. Avoid activities to increase ICP such as
suction.
• D. Decrease environmental stimuli to avoid
increase ICP.
Which of the following is NOT INCLUDED in the
three volume components of the brain?
• A. Brain tissues.
• B. Proteins.
• C. CSF.
• D. Blood.
Which of the following is a cause of Upper gastro
intestinal bleeding?
• A. Hemorrhoids.
• B. Esophageal varices.
• C. Diverticulitis.
• D. Infection colitis.
Which of the following is the common end
result of many chronic liver diseases?

• A. Hepatitis.
• B. Hepatic encephalopathy.
• C. Cirrhosis.
• D. Hypertension.
• Which of the following is defined as stool
consisting of partially digested blood (black
tarry, semi-solid, shiny and has a distinctive
odor?
• A. Hematemesis.
• B. Hematochezia.
• C. Melena.
• D. Vomitus.
• The Nursing management for patients with
gastro intestinal bleeding includes the
following, EXCEPT:
• A. Administering volume replacement.
• B. Offering heavy meals to the patient.
• C. Educating the patient and family.
• D. Observing for complications.
• Which of the following is defined as a group of
metabolic disease resulting from the
production of insufficient amount of insulin by
the pancreas?
• A. Diabetes mellitus.
• B. Gastric Ulcer.
• C. Pancreatitis.
• D. Cancer.
• It is an autoimmune disease and a metabolic
imbalance resulting from overproduction of
thyroid hormones.
• A. Thyrotoxicosis.
• B. Grave’s Disease.
• C. Euthyroidism.
• D. Hyperthyroidism.
• Symptoms of thyroid storm includes the
following, EXCEPT:

• A. Tachycardia.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Increased body temperature.
• D. Loose bowel movement.
• Which of the following is the most common
cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
• A. Shock.
• B. Burns.
• C. Sepsis.
• D. Hypothermia.
• Which of the following nursing interventions
should NOT be included in a plan of care to a
patient diagnosed with acute respiratory
distress syndrome?
• A. Auscultate breath sounds every 2 to 4 hours.
• B. Maintain oxygen saturation to 55 – 70 %.
• C. Conduct range-of-motion and strengthening
exercises when able.
• D. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4 hours,
if tolerated.
• Which of the following nursing interventions
should be included in a plan of care to prevent
desaturation to patient diagnosed with acute
respiratory failure?
• A. No limits in physical activity.
• B. Provide rest and recovery time.
• C. Elevate the head of bed 10to 15 degrees.
• D. Suction patient first before hyperoxygenate
• To evaluate the effectiveness of prescribed
therapies to a patient with acute respiratory
failure, which diagnostic test will be most
useful to a nurse?
• A. Bronchoscopy.
• B. Thoracic ultrasound.
• C. Arterial Blood Gas.
• D. Chest X-ray.
• When high-pressure alarm on the mechanical
ventilator triggers, the nurse starts to check
for the cause. Which condition triggers the
high-pressure alarm?
• A. An endotracheal cuff leak.
• B. Kinking of the ventilator tubing.
• C. A disconnected ventilator tubing.
• D. A change in the oxygen concentration
without resetting the oxygen level alarm.
• Which of the following nursing interventions
should be included in a plan of care to prevent
thrombus formation to patient at risk of
pulmonary embolism?
• A. Encourage patient to dangle his legs while
sitting.
• B. Encourage patient to ambulate as tolerated.
• C. Place feet in a dependent position while
sitting on the edge of the bed.
• D. Let the patient wear constricting clothing.
What is the best position to do ECG?

• A. Trendelenburg.
• B. Standing position.
• C. Supine position.
• D. Lithotomy.
• All of the following are functions of the liver,
EXCEPT:
• A. Metabolism of CHO, protein and fats.
• B. Absorbs nutrients.
• C. Storage/ activation of vitamins and
minerals.
• D. Formation/ excretion of bile.
• Which of the following is NOT INCLUDED in
the classification of liver diseases by
Etiology?
• A. Alcohol.
• B. Acute.
• C. Toxin.
• D. Viral.
• What is the first intervention for a client
experiencing MI?
• A. Surgical therapy.
• B. Auscultate heart sounds.
• C. Obtain an ECG.
• D. Administer morphine.
• Which of the following is/are characteristic/s
of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• A. Hyperglycemia.
• B. Acidosis.
• C. Ketonuria.
• D. All of the above.
• Which of the following organ is responsible
for filtering blood and making urine?
• A. Ureters.
• B. Kidneys.
• C. Bladder.
• D. Urethra.
• Which of the following is NOT a potential
complication of dialysis?
• A. Tremor.
• B. Confusion.
• C. Hypertension.
• D. Hypotension.
• All of the following laboratory diagnosis are
indicative of renal failure,EXCEPT:
• A. Increase Blood Urea Nitrogen.
• B. Increase Creatinine.
• C. Decrease Glomerular Filtration Rate.
• D. Increase Glomerular Filtration Rate.
• Which of the following is NOT an immediate
postoperative complication after cardiac
surgery?
• A. Infection.
• B. Bleeding.
• C. Arrhythmias.
• D. Hypotension.
• What stage of shock there is an increase in
the sympathetic responses, vasoconstriction
to the kidneys decrease urine output only?
• A. Irreversible shock.
• B. Profound shock.
• C. Compensated no progressive shock.
• D. Decompensated progress shock.
• Which of the following is an immediate
threat to life during acute anaphylatic shock?
• A. Flushing.
• B. Fever.
• C. Airway obstruction.
• D. Pruritus.
• Which of the following is NOT included in the
treatment of septic shock?
• A. Insertion of two large IV line.
• B. Control any bleeding.
• C. Supplemental oxygen.
• D. Antibiotics.
• Which of the following nursing diagnosis is the
priority in client with pneumothorax?
• A. Fear R/T Dyspnea.
• B. Alteration in Comfort (Pain) R/T Trauma,
Altered Chest Cavity Pressure and Chest Tube.
• C. Ineffective Breathing Pattern R/T decreased
lung expansion.
• D. High Risk for Infection R/T Traumatic Injury &
Chest Tube Insertion.
• Which of the following is defined as the total
pressure exerted within the skull?
• A. Osmotic pressure.
• B. Intra ocular pressure.
• C. Intra thoracic pressure.
• D. Intra cranial pressure.
• Which of the following classifications of
Increased Intracranial Pressure causes
Intracranial Hypertension?
• A. Rise in cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
• B. Increased pressure within the brain matter.
• C. Swelling within the brain matter.
• D. All of the Above.