On DC Generator, Where Is The Pigtail Located? A.feather Spring B.conductors C.brush Holder D.spiral Adjusting Spring

On DC generator, where is the pigtail located?
a.Feather spring
b.Conductors
c.Brush holder
d.Spiral adjusting spring
When cargo turbine’s governor malfunctions affecting the
speed of the unit you should ________.
a.Shutdown the turbine

b.Locate the problem
c.Make entry into log book
d.All of these choices
When will be back pressure trip occur in a cargo pump
turbine?
a.Oil pressure is too low

b.Discharge pressure of pump to high
c.Gland leak off is too high
d.Exhaust pressure rises above preset limit
The main throttle valve on a turbine admits steam directly
into the __________.
a.Steam chest
b.Nozzles
c.Blades
d.Shaft
In a diesel engine governor, a mechanical or hydraulic action
preventing the overcorrection of the fuel supply is called
_________.
a.Stability
b.Hunting
c.Compensation
d.Sensitivity
Rotating flyweights acting against a spring force will
provide a simple type of ________.
a.Feed water regulator

b.Governor
c.Safety valve
d.Control valve
A pilot valve and servomotor in a governor are used to
__________.
a.Create hunting
b.Open fuel or steam valve
c.Increase speed
d.Reduce speed
A constant speed governor is usually installed on
a ________.
a.Generator engine
b.Cargo pump
c.Electric motor
d.Wheelhouse
In any governor, there is a small range of speed in which no
corrective action occurs. This range is called the governor
dead band and is caused by ________.
a.Friction in the governor linkage
b.Excessively sensitivity
c.Compensation adjustment
d.Hydraulic pressure
The fuel injection pumps on a diesel engine are
controlled by a linkage system attached to the _______.
a.Governor
b.Fuel injector
c.Camshaft
d.Crankshaft
Irregular engine speed of a diesel generator engine can
be caused by ______.
a.High generator load

b.Poor fuel viscosity
c.Poor fuel injectors
d.Big clearance in the fuel linkage
If diesel start but failed to reach normal speed, the cause
maybe _________.
a.Insufficient fuel supply

b.Faulty governor
c.Improper fuel pump timing
A large, low speed main propulsion diesel engine is operating at rated load and
speed while the vessel is in a calm sea. As the sea waves increases, the engine
governor maintains the same RPM but the load indicator will show ________.
a.Increase in load
b.Decrease in load
c.Load remains the same
d.None of these choices
When a vessel encounters rough seas but the main
propulsion diesel engine is steel set to run at normal load, the
operator shall immediately take this action.
a.Increase the load limit setting
b.Decrease the load limit setting
c.Increase engine RPM
d.Ignore the situation
The ability of the governor to prevent fluctuations in
engine speed is called ________.
a.Sensitivity
b.Stability
c.Promptness
d.Speed droop
What device used to limit engine torque at various engine
speed?
a.Speed limiting governor

b.Variable speed governor
c.Constant speed governor
d.Load limiting governor
A change in engine speed is required before a governor is able to
make corrective movement of fuel rack. This aspect of governing
is commonly expressed as a percent and is known as __________.
a.Governor sensitivity
b.Governor promptness
c.Speed droop
d.Isochronous governing
The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of
electromagnetic induction is the _________.
A. Diode
B. Transformer
C. Transistor
D. Rheostat
In addition to monitory flame quality, flame scanner are
used in combustion ____.
A. Stop the fuel from entering the burner upon detect

of flame failure
B. Secure the force draft in case of flame failure
C. Automatically stop the fuel service pump
D. Adjust fuel/air ratio for non efficient combustion
If transformer will be connected to a DC source, the
transformer will overload at the __________.
A.contacts
B.secondary coil
C.core
D.primary winding/coil
Step-down transformer_____.
A.voltage and current will both be increased

B.voltage decrease as current increases
C.voltage and current will both be decreased
D.voltage increases as current decreases
Step-up transformer;
A.voltage and current will both be decreased

B.voltage and current will both be increased
C.voltage increase as current decreases
D.voltage decreases as current increases
A device with high input voltage and delivers low output
voltage is __________?
A.step-up transformer
B.primary transformer
C.step-down transformer
D.secondary transformer
A device with low input voltage and delivers high output
voltage is _______?
A.primary transformer
B.secondary transformer
D.step-up transformer
A transformer that uses a single winding for voltage
transformation?
A.Step-up transformer
B.Step-down transformer
C.Auto-transformer
D.Isolation transformer
An open coil in a transformer is indicated by?
A.‘Zero’ resistance accompanied by high inductance

B.No resistance accompanied by stray inductance
C.Infinite resistance in addition to normal inductance
D.Infinite resistance and no inductance
Four lamps are connected in parallel in a single circuit. If
one of the lamp burns out, the others will __________.
A.all go out
B.become dimmer
C.burn with original intensity
D.become brighter
To properly seat the brush on slip rings you
should ______.
A.sand paper
B.crocus cloth
C.emery cloth
D.all of the above

Which of the following materials is recommended for
finishing the slip rings after grinding or turning?
A.Grade 00 sand paper
B.Canvas wiper
C.Crocus cloth
D.Smooth file
The most practical method used for resurfacing a ship’s
service motor commutator is to _______.
A.turn it down in the ship’s lathe
B.use a grinding rig
C.use a hand stone
D.burnish it with commutator stones

For routine cleaning of commutator, you should apply
_______.
A.course sand paper in a slow back and forth motion

across the commutator slots
B.an emery cloth parallel to the axis of the machine
C.a canvas wiper to the machine while running
D.cotton swabs between the commutator bars

A full wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open
condition. What will be the output characteristic of the
device?
A.Zero
B.Half-wave rectified
C.Full-wave rectified
D.Equal to AC input
Sound pressure is measured in decibels (d13). The healthy
human ear can hear frequencies ranging from ________.
A.20-20,000 Hz
B.100,000-200,000 Hz
C.200,000 Hz = 1 MHz
D.1 MHz-20 MHz

Compressed air should not be used to clean motor
controller because ____________.
a.it may force metallic particles into coil insulation

b.the air blast dries out insulation quickly
c.the air mask and respirator would be required
The removal of paint from electrical equipment,
such as generator, should cautiously undertaken
because ________.
a.the paint dust is composed of abrasive and semi-
conducting materials which impair insulation
b.the mechanical shock of paint removal lessens the
dielectric strength of the insulation
c.paint dust build up has a tendency to cause
corrosion
d.phase windings frequently become isolated from
each other due to dust interference at the terminals
Before working on an electric cargo winch master switch
or controller, you should ______.
a.open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag

b.spray the gasket surface with solvent
c.drain condensate from the box
d.heat the switch box to remove any moisture
Which of the following statements represents the FIRST
precaution to be taken prior to working on any installed
electrical component.
a.open the supply circuits and tag the switch
b.wear rubber gloves and boots
c.use only approved non-conducting tools
d.ground the case of the machine before beginning
any repair
Before any work on electronic and electrical equipment is
performed, which of the following precaution should be
carried out _______.
a.secure and tag the supply circuit breaker in the open
position
b.de-energize the applicable switchboard bus.
c.By-pass the interlock
d.Station a man at the circuit supply switch
Capacitors are used on the output of the power supply in
today’s console to _________.
a.filter out ripples

b.prevent overloads
c.act as a permanent load
d.decrease the average value of the output voltage
Which of the spaces listed in defined as a location requiring an
exceptional degree of protection when considering the
installation of shipboard electrical equipment?
a.machinery spaces
b.chart room
c.console room
d.accommodation space
Which of the listed precaution should be taken when
cleaning the internal of a motor with compressed AIR.
a.open the machine with both ends so as to allow the

air and dust to escape
b.be certain that the circuit breaker is open and tagged
on the feeder panel
c.be certain that the air is clean and dry as possible
d.all of the above
Which of the following represent the accepted method of
cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical equipment
while limiting damage to electric component.
a.using a vacuum cleaner to remove debris from the
component
b.carefully wiping off the component with a soft cotton
rag
c.blowing a high velocity stream of compressed air
rapidly across the component
d.using carbon tetrachloride as a cleaning solvent to
clean the components
Which of the following electric motor would be the safest and
most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel in foul
weather condition.
a.seal motor
b.drip proof motor
c.enclosed motor
d.watertight motor
In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit breaker,
maintenance should include all of the following
except_______.
a.changing out of magnetic and thermal heaters yearly
b.checking for corrosion, accumulation of dirt and
thermal fatigue
c.inspecting for loose or missing parts
d.making sure foreign matter does not block tripping
element
When maintenance personnel are working on electrical
equipment, all supply switches should be secure in the open
position and tagged specially by the ___________.
a.watch engineer
b.chief engineer or first engineer
c.chief electrician
d.person performing the repair
What is the approximate voltage produced by a NICKEL-
CADMIUM battery cell.
a.1.25v
b.1.5v
c.2.20v
d.6.05v
A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from being
parallel with the ship’s service generators
by ________.
a.an electrical interlock system
b.an automatic paralleling trip switch
c.the synchronizing oscilloscope
d.the reverse current relay
The air gap provided in induction motors should be checked
periodically with a feeler gage to detect an unequal air gap
and _________.
a.decreased motor magnetizing current
b.hysteresis losses
c.increased power factor
d.mechanical damage to the rotor
Which of the following problems is indicated if a lead acid
battery begins to gas violently when it is first placed on
charge?
a.insufficient compartment ventilation is being provided
b.a short circuit exists in one of the battery cells
c.the battery is undergoing its normal charging rate
d.an excessive charging rate is being applied to the
battery
Complete maintenance of electric motors should include
periodic check for machine __________.
a.Vibration
b.Water tight integrity
c.Speed droop
d.Reactive power
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be suitable
for use on an oil fire (Class B), but dangerous on an electrical
fire?
a.Co2
b.Water fog / spray
c.Halon
d.Dry chemical
Which of the following causes electric
static forces?
a.Shampooing
b.Rubbing
c.Exercise
d.Vibration
Regarding battery charging room’s ventilation should be
provided __________.
a.At the lowest points of the room

b.Horizontally near the batteries
c.At the highest point of the room
d.Only when charging is in progress
Two 100 watt light bulbs are connected in parallel across a
100 volt power supply. The total power developed in the
circuit is __________.
a.200 watts
b.100 watts
c.50 watts
d.equal to the product of the amperes times the
voltage in each branch
Which substance listed should be applied to battery
terminals to help prevent corrosion?
a.Zinc chromate
b.Lead hydroxide
c.Naval jelly
d.Petroleum jelly
When a lead acid battery explodes, what is the direction
of explosion?
a.Side ways
b.Upwards/top
c.Downward
d.In all direction

Prior to starting an AC generator prime mover, the voltage
regulator cutout switch should be placed in
the ________.
a.manual position
b.bus neutral position
c.raise voltage position
d.transfer position
Automatic voltage regulators functions to ________.
I – Compensate the current

II – Compensate the voltage
III – Filter out ripples
a.I only
b.II only
c.III only
d.I, II & III

Atoms with equal/same numbers of electrons and
protons is referred to as ________.
a.equal
b.balance
c.neutral
d.unbalance
A circuit breaker for a 300 kw alternator is rated at 470 amperes
of full continuous load. The amount of overcurrent allowed is
125%. Which of the following conditions will trip the breaker?
a.Sustained current flow of 470 amperes
b.Sustained current flow of 500 amperes for 10 minutes
c.Momentary starting load of 550 amperes
d.Sustained current flow of 590 amperes

After rubbing a glass rod and fur, it will become _______.
a.heated
b.electrified
c.fused together
d.no reaction
What electrical component that covers the junction box,
fuse box, switch box etc?
a.Circuit breaker
b.Power supply
c.Cover
d.Capacitor
Which of the following statement is true regarding electric
receptacle outlets?
a.Sufficient number of receptacle outlets in the crew

accommodation for an adequate level of habitability
b.Each receptacle outlet must be compatible with the
voltage and current of the circuit
c.A receptacle outlet must not have any exposed live parts
d.All of the above

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding
requirements for receptacle outlets aboard vessels?
a.Each receptacle outlet operating at 100 volts or more just

have a grounding pole
b.Outlets connecting a lifeboat and the vessel electrical system

must have threaded plug
c.Machinery space must contain sufficient outlets for lighting all

machinery with a portable light having a 50 ft flexible cord
d.All of the above

An ohmmeter can be used to measure _______.
A.current flow in circuit
B.voltage between two points in a circuit
C.circuit continuity
D.power
Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a constant
speed mechanical governor, will cause the engine speed to
initially ________.
A.increase
B.decrease
C.fluctuate
D.remain constant
Which of the listed sections of an emergency switchboard is
used to supply power for alarm signals under emergency
conditions?
A.The generator and bus transfer section
B.The 450 volt, 60 cycle, 3 phase bus
C.The 120 volt, 3 phase, 60 cycle bus
D.The 24 volt DC bus

Grease coatings on electrical contact surfaces increase
contact resistance and should be removed with
a/an _______.
A.small wire brush
B.compressed air jet
C.clean dry cloth
D.10% solution carbon solvent and water

If a transformer is connected to a DC source, the
transformer will overload at the _______.
A.contacts
B.primary coil
C.secondary coil
D.core
In a 60 Hz AC system, the current will pass through one
completes cycle in __________.
a.60 seconds
b.6 seconds
c.7 seconds
d.0.016 second
The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery
is _________.
a.harder than copper

b.softer than copper
c.the same hardness the copper
d.softer than copper but wears away at a slower
Voltage will always lead current in a/an _______.
a.capacitive circuit
b.inductive circuit
c.magnetic circuit
d.resistive circuit
A burned-out “LED” should be indicated by ______.
a.Excessive output
b.A slight glow in the crystal
c.Excessive illumination
d.No illumination
When discharging fuses and the spring clips are found to
have lost their grip, they should be replaced or _______.
a.tightened firmly with insulated pliers

b.clip clamps should be used
c.wired closed with uninsulated varnished copper wire
d.carefully bent back to their original shapes
A shore circuit breaker should be closed only _______.
a.when the ship’s generators have been directly

paralleled to those on shore
b.when the ship’s generator have been removed from
the bus
c.exactly 450 volts must be supplied from the shore
d.exactly 60Hz must be provided by the terminal
The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC generator, resulting
from an increase in load and prior to the automatic voltage regulator
correcting the situation, is called voltage _______________.
a.droop
b.drop
c.dip
d.regulation
In a hollow glass or clean plastic cylinder – type fuse design
the glass or clear plastic case allows a visual check if the
fuse is_________?
a.Blown
b.Clean
c.Dirty
d.Charge
In a rectifier with capacitor , the current though the load is
supplied by the capacitor when the diode is_________?
A . Cut – off
B. “On”
C. Neutral
D. None of these choices
USCG Regulation 46 CRF require the emergency lighting
and power system_______?
a.Must be tested under load from emergency

generator before sailing
b.Must be tested & inspected weekly & the date
recorder
c.Batteries must be tested annually & the date
recorded
d.Must be capable of sustaining the emergency load
for 48 hours
When working on electrical circuits containing large
capacitors, in addition to de- energizing the circuit , which of
the listed precautions should also taken?
a.Ground the capacitor terminals
b.Check capacitor circuit polarity
c.Keep all radio equipment away
d.Measure capacitor insulation resistance
If both “high level” and “ low level” alarms come on the same
address of a centralized control console , the most likely
problem is a/an_____?
a.Failed alarm
b.Extremely low level
c.Sensor failure
d.Extremely high level
The output of a rectifier is a ________?
a.Pulsating DC current
b.Pulsating signal current
c.Pulsating DC voltage
d.Pulsating DC ampere
Defects in wiring permit current to jump from one wire to
another before the intended path has been completed are
called______.
a.grounds
b.shorts
c.break
d.open
In an unmanned main engine, an engine failure occurs. An
audible alarm is indicated or located in the_____________.
I - at each station
II - C/E cabin
III - Navigating bridge

A.I, II & III
B.I only
C.II only
D.III only
Magnetic fluxes are lines of force of the magnet that
travel from_____.
A. North to South pole

B. south to North pole
C. Positive to Negative bodies
D. Negative to positive bodies
Whenever an atom losses an electron (-) charge and has
an overall positive (+) charge, it became______.
A. Cation
B. Anion
C. Anode
D. Cathode
A. Positive ion
B. lighter
C. Moves faster
D. Moves slower
Who operate the machine____.
A.Fitter
B.Chief Engineer
C.Master
D.Operator
As a result of a mechanical malfunction in one of the ships service generators operating in parallel , you
must secure that generator. In order to prevent a possible overload, to the remaining generator, which
of the following sequential courses of action should be
taken _________.
A.Trip all non-vital distribution feeder circuit breakers ,

the malfunctioning generator’s circuit breaker, & the
prime mover throttle trip
B.Trip the malfunctioning generators circuit breaker and
prime mover throttle trip.
C.Trip the malfunctioning generator’s circuit breaker and
distribution feeder circuit breakers
Non-adjustable molded case circuit breakers and classified
by frame size, ampere rating and interruption capacity. The
frame size is expressed in______.
A. Degree centigrade
B. Circular mills
C. Amperes
D. Volts
D/C motor & generator commutator is made of _______.
A.Copper segments insulated from each other with

hardened mica
B.Copper Segments insulated with soft mica
Time delayed or delayed action fuses are designed
to_______.
A.prevent ground in branch circuit

B.prevent an open in motor circuit
C.permit momentary overload without melting
D.guard lighting & electric circuit
Which of the listed procedures is the best way to tell if a
motor become overload?
A.Measure the current flow & compare it with the motor

full load current flow as shown on the nameplate
B.Feel the motor & judge by the temperature
C.Watch for signs of smoke coming from the motor
D.If the installation is properly designed, there is no
cause for overload
Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT by
turning or grinding a commutator with a rigidly supported
tool?
A.Sparking brushes
B.Eccentricity
C.High mica
D.Blackened commutator
The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from the
standpoint of power loss, even when placed in series with the
load, is the use of a/an __________.
A.Resistor
B.Inductor
C.Capacitor
D.Transistor
A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor response to
reduced engine load with an immediate
increase ________.
A.pilot valve oil pressure
B.speeder spring force
C.compensation needle valve clearance
D.centrifugal force on the flyweight
AC and DC generators are similar in the sense that they
are ______.
a.Both producing alternating voltages

b.Both control the delivery of voltages
c.Both supply 3 – phase power
d.Constructed at the same size for the same KW rating
A DC shunt generator has its field windings connected
in ______.

a.Series with series windings

b.Parallel with the rheostat
c.Series with armature windings
d.Parallel with the armature windings
What will the phase relationship of a six – pole,
three – phase, rotating field generator?
a.60 degrees
b.120 degrees
c.180 degrees
d.360 degrees
In an AC generator, direct current from a separate source is passed through the windings of
the
rotor ____________.
a.By means of slip rings and brushes

b.By means of commutator
c.By means of rotating bar magnet
d.By means of rotating coil
The main purpose of an electric space heater fitted on large AC generators is to
______________.
a.Keep the unit warm for immediate starting

b.Prevent moisture from accumulating in the windings
during shutdown
c.Prevent windings from getting brittle
d.Prevent dirt from entering the windings
One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is the _____________.
a.Armature coil of windings

b.Number of magnetic poles
c.Strength of the material used
d.Output current
The frequency output of an operating alternator is controlled by the
____________.
a.Speed of the motor poles

b.Armature coil windings
c.Strength of the materials used
d.Output voltage
The cycle per second developed by the alternator aboard ship depends on
_______.
a.Speed of engine driving the alternator

b.Resistance applied to the transformer
c.Speed of the induction motor
d.Voltage regulator output
To raise the frequency of an AC generator in service, the operator should
__________.
a.Increase the feed to the transformer

b.Increase the speed of the diesel engine driving the
AC generator
c.Reduce the load in the system
d.Increase the number of magnetic poles
The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means of the
______________.
a.Governor control of the diesel engine driving the AC

generator
b.Transformer adjustment
c.Raise or lower load in the system
d.Raise field excitation
What will happen to the prime mover of AC generator if the load is removed?
a.Speed of the engine will increase slightly then return

to original speed
b.Speed of the engine will decrease slightly then return
to original speed
c.Speed will remain the same
d.Engine will shut down
As load is added to an AC generator, the prime mover speeds will ______________.
a.Increase
b.Decrease
c.Remain the same
The slowing down of AC generator prime mover speed every time a load
is added will be raised to original speed by the _______________.
a.Governor
b.Nozzle valve
c.Stop engine
d.Field rheostat
When securing an AC generator, you are obliged
to ______________.
a.Reduce the load on the circuit

b.Trip the generator circuit breaker
c.Stop the engine
d.Switch the voltage regulator to “manual”
A change in field excitation of an alternator operating in parallel will bring change
to its ___________.
a.Frequency
b.Current output
c.Voltage output
d.Kilowatt load
A vessel is equipped with two ship’s service generators.
Generator #1 is rated at 900 KW and the generator #2 is
rated at 600 KW. During parallel operation and a total ship
power load of 1,000 KW, the KW load on generator #2 will
be __________________.
a. 100 KW
b. 200 KW
c. 400 KW
d. 600 KW
Solution:
How is the DC output obtained from a brushless exciter?
a.Directly from the commutator by induction

b.By the use of ship rings mounted on the armature
c.By the use of semiconductor rectifier mounted on the
exciter armature
d.By the use of semiconductor rectifier mounted on the
stator
Chattering of the slip ring brushes on a generator maybe remedied by
____________.
a.Brush holders lubrication

b.Re-insulating the brushes
c.Increasing the length of pigtail
d.Cleaning the slip rings
If an AC generator experience voltage failure, the cause may be ______________.
a.An open in the field circuit

b.Brushes shifting out of place
c.Rotating slip ring out of contact
d.Excessive locked-rotor current
Voltage failure of an AC generator may be caused
by ___________.
a.Failure of the exciter generator

b.A tripped bus circuit breaker
c.High mica segments on the stator bus bar
d.Excessive prime mover speed
An alternator will fail to produce line voltage as result
of ____________.
a.Open circuit breaker

b.Exciter generator failure
c.Wrong position of the brushes
d.Worn out slip rings
Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in parallel. One with zero speed droop
setting and the other with 5% speed droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit that has
zero setting will ____________.
a. Take smaller share of load

b. Have poor power output
c. Have poor power characteristics
d. Maintain the frequency of the system
When paralleling two AC generators, the frequency of the incoming generator prior
to closing its breaker should be___________.
a.Higher than bus frequency

b.Lower than bus frequency
c.Same as bus voltage
d.Slightly higher than bus frequency
You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the synchroscope pointer is
revolving fast in the clockwise direction. It means that the incoming AC generator
frequency is _______________.
a.Higher than the bus frequency

b.Lower than the bus frequency
c.Same as bus frequency
d.Much higher than the bus frequency
The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generator engines operating in parallel
are mostly dependent on their governor ____________.
a. Speed droop setting

b. Load limit setting
c. Speed limit setting
d. Idle speed setting
The diversion of load between two parallel running generators is determined by
the ____________.
a.Characteristics of governors
b.Field excitation of the engines
c.Number of poles in the alternator
d.All of the choices
The kilowatt load is evenly distributed between two
alternators just placed in parallel by adjusting its
______________.
a.Balance flywheel
b.Governor settings
c.Transformer output
d.Field excitation
Equal load factors on paralleled AC generators are
maintained by an automatic _____________.

a.Voltage regulator
b.Power relay
c.Governor switch
d.Reverse current relay
Why is it desirable to operate paralleled AC generators at
the same power factor?

a.Circulating currents are kept to a minimum

b.Field excitation losses are kept to a minimum
c.Generator governors are less likely to hunt
Attempting to parallel an AC generator that is out of
phase with the bus will result in ___________.
a.A breaker trip

b.KW increase
c.Synchronization lamp damage
d.Non – working power factor
After closing the circuit breaker to place the two similar
alternators in parallel, the next step is to balance the
_______________.
a.Power factor
b.Voltage load
c.Current load
d.Kilowatt load
Two parallel alternators are operating near rated load. If one
trips out mechanically, the operator should immediately
________.
a.Restart the tripped machine

b.Switch off all non – essential loads in the circuit
c.Start the generator
You are attempting to parallel two AC generators and the
synchroscope pointer is revolving in the counterclockwise direction.
This indicates that the incoming generator frequency is __________.
a.Higher than bus

b.Lower than bus
c.Same as bus
d.Out of order
Which of the following problem will occur if the
circuit breaker of the incoming alternator is closed
and it is 180 degrees out of phase with the loaded
alternator?
a.The rotor of the incoming alternator will hunt
b.The rotor of the incoming alternator will stop
c.It could damage the incoming alternator due to
severe cross current
d.Both alternators will be out of phase by 180º
When paralleling two alternators, the synchroscope pointer
approaches 0 degree position. This indicates that the
alternator frequencies are ______________.
a.180º out of phase

b.Incoming alternator is in phase with the bus
c.Synchroscope lamps are broken or damaged
d.Incoming alternator is running too fast
When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamp
grows dim. This indicates that the incoming alternator
is _______________.
a.Ready for closing the circuit breaker

b.Voltage is 180º out of phase
c.Synchronization lamp is defective
d.Running too slowly
The number of complete cycles of AC or voltage completed
each second is called
the _____________.

a.Frequency
b.Period
c.Wave length
d.Hour
Which of the following statements does not represent
Electromagnetic field intensity factor?

a.The number of turns of wire in the coil

b.The amount of current flowing in the conductor
c.The ratio of the coil length to the coil
d.The resistance in series with the load
When applying the left-hand rule for generators, your
thumb will point to the ___________.
a.Direction of rotation
b.Direction of magnetic flux
c.Direction of current flow
d.Direction of induced voltage
forefinger will point to the ___________.
b.Direction of current flow
c.Direction of magnetic flux
middle finger will point to the ___________.
The characteristic of an electrical circuit that opposes the
starting, stopping or changing of current flow is called a/an
___________.
a.Inductance
b.Capacitance
c.Electromotive force
d.Magnetic field
This is developed whenever there is relative motion or action
between a magnetic field and a conductor. It is called
__________.
a.Electromotive force
b.Electromagnetic field
c.Current
d.Voltage
Which of the following statements will affect the
capacitance value of a capacitor?
a.The area of the plates

b.The distance between the plates
c.The dielectric constant of the material between the
plates
d.The flow of current in the circuit
Capacitance is measured in units called __________.
a.Farads
b.Capacitor
c.Henry
d.Electrons
The following is a device that transfers electrical energy from
one circuit to another by electromagnetic induction. It is a
___________.
a.Transformer
b.Battery
c.Generator
d.Rectifier
The part of a transformer whose function is to deliver the
load received is called the __________.
a.Primary winding
b.Magnetic flux
c.Secondary winding
d.Rectifier
The part of a transformer whose function is to receive
power from the electric source is called the _______.
a.Primary winding
b.Secondary winding
c.Core
d.Enclosure
The total voltage induce into the secondary windings of a transformer is
determined mainly by the ratio of the number of turns in the primary to the
number of turns in the secondary and by the_________.
a.Amount of voltage applied to the primary windings

b.Amount of current applied to the primary windings
c.Amount of resistance applied to the primary windings
d.Length of wire in the primary winding
Depending on their atomic structure, different materials have different
quantities of free electrons. Therefore, the various conductors used
in electrical applications have different values of__________.
a.Resistance
b.Sizes
c.Weight
d.Length
In electrical circuit, the resistance unit of measure is
specified in ___________.
a.Ohm
b.Farad
c.Volts
d.Watt
The heat dissipating capability of a resistor is measured
in ______________.
a.Watt
b.Ohm
c.Ohm
d.Ampere
Which of the following electronic component store
electrical energy?
a.Capacitor
b.Transistor
c.Resistor
d.Diode
Assume that a 208 volt is applied to the autotransformer and there is a 10.4
resistive load connected to the secondary winding of the transformer. The output
voltage of the secondary winding is 104 volts. The load current should be
____________.
a.10 amperes
b.1.0 amperes
c.2.0 amperes
d.20 amperes
The direction of rotation of an induction motor
is___________________.
a.Opposites the rotating field direction

b.The same as the direction of the rotating field
c.Determined by the number of poles
d.Determined by the staggering of the brushes
A switchboard for an AC electrical distribution system will
be provided with which of the following components?
a.Frequency meter
b.Ammeter
c.Voltmeter
The numbers cells in a 12 – volt lead acid battery is
____________.
a.3 cells
b.4 cells
c.6 cells
d.12 cells
a.Feather spring
b.Conductors
c.Brush holder
If a DC generator was rotated in the wrong direction, it would
fail to come up to voltage because
the _______________.
a.Armature field would oppose the field current
b.Generator would burn out
c.Brushes would burn out
d.Circuit breaker would not energize
A generator operates on the principles
that_________________.
•
a.When the field revolves, current is generated

b.When an armature revolves, a magnetic field is
induced
c.Voltage is induced when a conductor cuts a
magnetic field
d.A small voltage in the primary high voltage because
of the large number of coils in the secondary
Frequency of an operating alternator is controlled by
the_______________.
a.Relative speed of the rotor poles

b.Number of turns of wire in the armature coil
c.Strength of the materials
d.Output voltage
The line voltage generated by an alternator is adjusted
by varying the___________.
a.Prime mover speed

b.Equalizer bus
c.Excitation voltage
d.Residual magnetism of the shield
The voltage of an operated AC turbo generator is raised
or lowered by adjusting the __________.
a.Generator field exciter

b.Phase sequence switch
c.Generator governor controls
d.Synchronizing switch
What is overall result of increasing the load on the
secondary of a transformer?
a.Decrease in the primary current

b.Decrease in the primary voltage
c.Increase in the primary voltage
d.Increase the primary current
In DC circuits, power is expressed as the product of
________________.
a.Volts and amperes

b.Ohms and amperes
c.Volts and coulombs
d.Amperes and coulombs
A horseshoe magnet has ______________.
a.2 poles
b.3 poles
c.4 poles
d.1 pole
Retentivity is the power a metal has retained_________.
a.The current in a circuit

b.Magnetic lines force
c.Electron plow within the circuit
d.Electricity when moving at high speeds
How many cells are there in a 12 – volt battery?
a.6
b.4
c.2
d.8
If the specific gravity of a 12 – volt battery at 80oF is
1.225, the battery is _________.
a.Dead
b.Fully charged
c.Shorted
d.Partially charged
Counter electromotive force is measured
in ______________.
a.Volts
b.Ohms
c.Amperes
d.Coulombs
Which of the following expression correctly states Ohms
law?
a.Volts equal amperes times resistance

b.Amperes equals to volts divided by resistance
c.Resistance equals volts divided by amperes
In a parallel circuit, which of the following is the same
throughout the circuit?
a.Impedance
b.Current
c.Voltage
d.Resistance
When using Ohms law, V divided by R would solve
for________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
When using Ohm’s law, V divided by I would solve
for___________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
Volts times amperes equals______________.
a.Kilowatts
b.Watts
c.Ohms
d.Watts - hours
The unit of electrical force is the ________.
a.Volt
b.Amperes
c.Watts
d.Ohm
Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel
engines functions to stop the engine by_____________.
a.Shutting off fuel supply

b.Shutting off air supply
c.Shutting off cooling water supply
d.Shutting off lube oil
Before starting an electric motor after a long stoppage,
the operator shall ensure that is ___________.
a.Dust – free
b.Dry
c.Moving freely by hand
d.Wet
The insulation resistance of an electric of an electric
motor is measured by___________.
a.Voltmeter
b.Megger
c.Ammeter
d.Ampere meter
Your contact resistance – to – ground is substantially
reduce when you step on a __________.
a.Wet floor
b.Humid floor
c.Dry floor
• Note;
The bodies resistance is greatly reduced when wet.
Insulation resistance decreases when wet or with
the presence of moisture.
Battery rooms must be adequately ventilated
to___________.
a.Dissipate explosive gases

b.Keep room cool
c.Supply fresh air
d.Protect equipment
The electrolyte in a lead - acid storage battery consists
of distilled water and _______________.
a.Electrochloric acid
b.Sulfuric acid
c.Hydrochloric acid
d.Muriatic acid
A fuse will blow when the current flow_____________.
a.Exceeds the rated value

b.Remove from the equipment
c.Cause the fuse to overheat
d.Increase suddenly
Etched or burned marks on the brushes contact surfaces
could be caused by__________.
a.Wrong alignment of brushes

b.High rotation of rotor
c.High rotation of rotor
d.Brushes improperly positioned
In order to comply with the class regulation, the main
switchboard onboard modern ships shall
have_______________.
a.No sharp objects exposed
b.No live parts exposed
c.Protection covers
Most of the switchboards main bare parts are insulated
with______________.
a.Synthetic resin
b.Plastic film
c.Rubber paint
d.None of the above
The purpose of a main switchboard reverse power trip is
to ___________.
a.Prevent main circuit overload

b.Prevent circuit breaker coil from being damage
c.Prevent alternator motorization
d.Prevent blackout
The purpose of the reverse power relay is to trip the
circuit in case of _________.
a.Main circuit overload

b.Circuit breaker coil from blowout
c.Alternator motorization
d.Blackout
A generator is prevented from being motorizes by the use
of a/an________________.
a.Over speed trip

b.Reverse power relay
c.Back pressure trip
d.Over current trip
A bus disconnect link is used to
isolate________________.
a.One bus from another

b.The generator circuit from the bus
c.Other circuits from main switchboards
d.Defective alternator
A switchboard for an AC electrical system requires the
use of which device?
a.Frequency meter
b.Ohmmeter
c.Induction voltage regulator
d.Current transformer governor
The grounded neutral conductor of a three – wire feeder, in
dual voltage 220/110 volt DC switchboard should
be _______________.
a.Left unprotected for excess current
b.Protect with a 115 amp link fuse
c.Protect with a 220 amp link fuse
The part of the new electrical system that controls the power
distribution to the branch circuit is called________________.
a.Bridge control panel

b.Main switchboard
c.440/220v feeder panel
d.Starter panel
Equipment with temporarily wiring arrangements in cabins,
engine rooms and other locations onboard is
called________________.
a.Unauthorized electrical equipment
b.Personal electrical equipment
c.Ship’s property
All switchboards and distribution system must be
examined in accordance with _________.
a.Company’s preventive maintenance system

b.Maker’s recommendation
c.Chief engineer’s order
Periodical insulation test shall be carried out within the
intervals specified in _______.
a.Chief engineer order book

b.Manufacturer’s instruction book
c.Ship’s record book
d.Preventive maintenance system
When passing through restricted waters, such as Panama
Canal, Suez Canal or rivers, or in condition of heavy weather
it is prudent to use ____________.
a.Two generators in parallel
b.Three engine watch keepers
c.Slow down the engine
d.The pilot services
To ensure that it is ready in case of emergency and for the
efficient operation of the emergency generator the engine
shall be started once every ______________.
a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
The on – load of emergency generator / alternator must be
carried out must be carried out at least
every _________.
a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
All tests done on shipboard emergency components
should be entered into the___.
a.Engine log book

b.Bell book
c.Electrician’s record book
d.Chief engineer’s record book
To ensure that the emergency generator is always ready for
immediately use, its associated component below shall be
kept fully charge at all times.
a.Main starting air bottle
b.Emergency starting air bottle
c.Emergency hydraulic tank
d.Auxiliary starting air bottle
For maintenance of non-sealed batteries, below
statements are TRUE except ____________.
a.Only the correct electrolytes are to be used

b.Cells are regularly inspected and topped up as
necessary
c.Use only pure distilled water for topping up
d.It should be placed in a tightly closed compartment
For “maintenance – free” batteries, which one statement
below is NOT TRUE?
a.Only correct electrolytes are to be used

necessary
c.Use only tap water
d.Use only sulfuric acid
To protect the radiators of emergency generator sets located
external to the main machinery space from very cold weather
it must be filled with__________.
a.Alcohol
b.Distilled water
c.Anti – freeze solution
d.Anti – boil solution
All electrical equipment in potentially hazardous
atmosphere must be certified as _________.
a.Intrinsically safe equipment

b.Fool proof equipment
c.Tamper proof equipment
d.Long lasting equipment
Before insulation testing is to be done on equipment in
hazardous location, the area concerned must be certified
as__________.
a.Gas free
b.Well - ventilated
c.Ready for use
d.Ready for entry
Which of the following is NOT considered
part of shipboard safety equipment?
a.Emergency alarm system
b.Fire detection system
c.Gas detection system
d.Engineer call system
The cold storage room for meat shall be maintained at
_______________.
a.– 18oC or better

b.– 12 or better
c.– 8oC or better
d.– 4oC or better
The vegetable room temperature shall be maintained as
near to as:
a.– 2oC
b.0oC
c.+2oC
d.+5oC
When using electric arc equipment, whenever it is necessary
for additional leads to extend the range of operation only
correct grade of cable shall be fitted with approved_________.
a.Weather proof connectors

b.Fully insulated leads
c.Cables wires
During welding and similar operation, the welder must wear
protective clothing such as, but not limited
to ___________.
a.Welding apron
b.Safety shoes
c.Safety helmet
Goggles and welding masks are worn to protect the
welder from ___________.
a.Sun rays
b.Sparks
c.Heat
d.Strong wind
On Ships designated for UMS operation, the engineer on
watch must be satisfied that this/ these equipment is / are in
good working order before leaving the engine room.
a.Automatic controls
b.Alarm system
c.Fire detection system
The fire detection system covering any space shall be
kept activated except _____.
a.Authorized hot work is taking place

b.Testing the system
c.Cooking is going on
d.It is necessary to isolate the system
Before shutting down the fire detection system, who shall
give prior approval?
a.Officer on watch
b.Engineer on watch
c.Chief engineer
d.Master
Who is the person responsible for the safe, efficient operation
and maintenance of the vessel’s electrical system including
but not restricted to ____________.
a.Chief engineer
b.Designated electrical officer
c.Engineer on duty
d.Master
As per USCG 33 CFR 164.35, the vessel is not permitted to
be operated in US waters unless it has onboard and in
properly operating condition _______________.
a.Two radars
b.Evaporating plant
c.Sewage plant
d.Oil bilge separator
Electric shock is often accompanied by falling, which may
cause additional physical injury and
required__________.
a.Hospitalization
b.First aid action
c.Emergency treatment
Which of the following statements is correct when you
are in contact with a live wire having a 1 ma current?
a.Usually harmless but will produce a slight tingling

sensation or involuntary movement
b.Result in loss of muscle control. This can result in
an ability to let go of the energy source, thus
increasing the degree of injury
c.Enough to result in death
d.Can cause internal organ damage and internal
burns. Cardiac arrest and respiratory failure may
occur.
get in contact with a live wire having a 5 – 10 ma
current?
a.Usually harmless but will produce a slightly tingling
c.Enough current to result in death
occur.
get in contact with a live wire having a 75 – 300 ma
current?
occur.
Which of the following statements is correct when you get in
contact with a live wire having 2 amp and above current?

occur.
Which of the following is recommended for the rescue
and care of shock victim?
a.Remove the victim from contact at once

b.De – energize the affected circuit and use only non –
conductor object to drag or push the victim to safety
c.Touch a shock victim who is still in contact with
energized circuit
One of the easiest ways to create a static charge
is ______________.
a.By friction
b.By lighting
c.By applying heat
d.By applying electricity
If transformer are being worked on or inspected, which of
the following rules shall apply?
a.Remove the transformer from all power source in the

primary and secondary circuit
b.Removed all the fuses from the power source
c.Trip the circuit breaker and take action to prevent
their accidental resetting
A breakable mercury filled thermometer should not be used in
a lead acid battery to measure the electrolyte temperature as
an accidental breakup can cause ____.
a.Severe sparkling and explosion
b.Rapid oxidation of the battery plate
c.Violent gassing at the positive plates
d.Corrosion in the battery terminals
Flame scanner as used with boiler combustion control
system to monitor flame quality and to:
a.Shut off the fuel supply of flame is detected

b.Occur fuel service pimp in the event of floor fire
c.Serviced the forced draft fan in the event of flame
failure
d.Regulate the fuel air ration for more efficient
combustion
In addition to monitoring flame quality, flame scanners
are used in combustion
a.Stop the fuel from entering the burner upon detect of

flame failure
b.Secure the force draft in case of flame failure
c.Automatically stop the fuel service pump
d.Adjust fuel / air ratio for non efficient combustion
Which of the following represents a limitation to be aware of
when the boiler auto combustion control is operated in “hand
mode”?
a.Boiler safety interlocks are by-passed
b.Burner is not capable of full capacity firing rate
c.Flame failure is deactivated
d.Solenoid valves remain in auto mode
An over speed trip serves to ______________.
a.Stop the engine by cutting off air supply

b.Stop the engine by cutting off fuel supply
c.Stop the engine by cutting off cooling water supply
d.Slow the engine but not stopping it
An over speed trip stops the diesel engine when the
engine
a.Runs out of fuel

b.Exceeds the set maximum speed
c.Has high cooling temp
d.Has high exhaust temperature
The over speeding of the diesel engine diving an electric
generated could cause _________.
a.Damage to windings
b.Reverse poser to trip
c.Over current to trip
d.Excessive exhaust temperature
The over speed device installed in some engines is
automatically actuated by______.
a.Expiry force
b.Solenoid
c.Hydraulic pressure
d.Centrifugal force
An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a
_________.
a. Small generator mounted as engine

b. Bimetallic sensing device
c. Slip ring activated
d. Stroboscopic sensing device
Another device that detects engine speed is the
________.
a.Speed pick-ups mounted at the engine flywheel

b.Grounding system slip rings
c.Laser light system mounted on the propeller shaft
d.Electric governor
When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its useful
life, it should be replaced immediately on the resulting
flashing may_________.
a.Blow the lamp’s circuit breaker
b.Explode, causing glass to fly in all directions
c.Short circuit the ballast transformer
d.Damage the starter and the ballast
Alternating current circuits developed resistance, capacitance
and voltage; the capacitance of capacitor is expressed in
______.
a.Ohm
b.Henry
c.Mho
d.Farad
Current flowing only in one direction is called
___________.
a.Alternating current
b.Omni directional current
c.Direct current
d.Sinusoidal current
Electric motors intended for use outside the engine room and
boiler are frequently rated at a designated ambient temp. of
40C. What is the equivalent in Fahrenheit?
a. 52 F
b. 104 F
c. 72 F
d. 129.6 F
The rated temperature rise of electric motors is
the __________.
a.Average temperature at any given latitude

b.Temperature rise above ambient temperature at
rated load
c.Temperature rise to resistance above 10 overload
d.Permissible difference in the ambient temperature of
the motor due to existing weather conditions
Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit that
resists or opposes amp charge of the _____.
a.Current in the circuit

b.Voltage in the circuit
c.Inductance in the circuit
d.Resistance in the circuit
Ambient temperature is the _______.
a.Normal operating temperature, less the room

temperature
b.Temperature of the room where the motor is located
c.Amount of temperature rise developed by an
operating motor
d.Temperature of the outside air
A circuit which a fuse has blown would be categorized as
a / an ________.
a.Short circuit
b.Open circuit
c.Bonded circuit
d.Grounded circuit
A circuit is a considered an open circuit
when ____________.
a.A fuse blown

b.It is not in use
c.The supply is in “off” position
Electric circuits are protected against overloads and short
circuits by means of a/an _________.
a.Circuit breaker
b.Amplifier
c.Diode
d.Capacitor
Incandescent lamps are classified according
to _______________.
a.Shape and type of service

b.Size and style of base
c.Operating voltage
The cross-sectional area of a shipboard electrical cable
as expressed on ________.
a.Millimeter
b.Number gage
c.Centimeter
d.Circular mills
When electrical cables generated watertight
bulkheads _________.
a.They should be grounded on either side of the

bulkheads
b.They must be bent to radius of six diameters
c.A watertight stuffing tube capable of accepting
packing should be employed
d.They should be secured by clamp
All electrical cables passing through watertight bulkheads
must be __________.
a.Installed with watertight tubes

b.Grounded a both sides of the bulkhead
c.Welded on both sides of the bulkhead
d.Fitted with unions on each side of the bulkhead
Copper is often used as an electrical
conductor because of ____.
a.Has high resistance at low temperature
b.Has a highly polished surface
c.Has good conductivity
d.Holds insulation together well
Electric cables are formed of stranded wires to________.
a.Increase the current carrying capacity for a given

size wire
b.Increase their flexibility
c.Decrease the weight of the wire
d.Assure good conductivity at bend points
Which of the following characteristics is most critical in
determining the size of the cable to be used in a particular
circuit?
a.Voltage rating
b.Weight per unit length
c.Current rating
d.Inductance for unit length
The electrical energy necessary to power an emergency
sound power telephone small vibrating bell obtained
from _________.
a.Emergency batteries from the general alarm
b.Each station’s hand-cranked generator
c.Emergency switchboard
d.Normal 115/220V power supply
The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person’s voice
air an emergency sound powered telephone circuit is
obtained from:
a.Dry cell batteries
b.Ship service switchboard
d.Speaker’s voice
The purpose of an impressed current cathodic system
aboard ship is to ____.
a.Prevent corrosion of the hull propeller, rudder and

line shafting
b.Neutralize the vessel’s stray magnetic fields which
would interfere with radar
c.Protect the engine room and deck machinery from
oxidation and salty air
d.Maintain cleanliness of superstructure
For more complete vessel protection when using an
impressed current cathodic system ________.
a.All ship’s alternators have temperature sensing

device installed
b.Straps connected at the propeller shaft and
grounded through a ship ring/brush arrangements
c.Hull’s magnetic field is aligned with true north
d.Machinery on deck and engine room is coated with
zinc chromate
In an impressed current cathodic protection system the
anode is _________.
a.Connected to the hull and deteriorates with tie

b.Insulated from the hull and does not waste away
c.Connected to the hull last does not waste away
d.Insulated from the hull but deteriorates with time
Impressed current cathodic protection is used on vessels
instead of ________.
a.Fire alarm system

b.Repeated painting
c.Sacrificial zincs
d.Vacuum tube degaussing system
Automatic voltage regulators provided a
switch board functions to ____.
a.Regulate to AC load on the generator
b.Protect the switchboard from high voltage
c.Govern prime mover speed to control voltage
d.Vary the field excitation to the generators
In cold weather, the specific gravity of a
battery __________.
a.Rises
b.Lowers
c.Remains the same
If the emergency switchboard pilot light is “ON” it
means __________.
a.The generator is on line

b.The power is available from the generator
c.The generator is in parallel with the bus generator
d.Pilot exciter is malfunctioning
Under voltage trips are frequently on switchboard circuits
breakers to trip _______.
a.Out the generator in the event of severe arching or

sparkling
b.Out the generator when there is a reversal of power
c.Out the generator when there is a low voltage in the
main circuit
d.The breaker of the generator over speed by 5%
The most common type of AC service generator found
aboard ship is the stationary __________.
a.Electromagnetic field, revolving armature type

b.Electromagnetic field, oscillator armature type
c.Armature, oscillatory electromagnetic field type
d.Armature, rotating electromagnetic field type
Brushless AC generators are designed to operate without
the use of _________.
a.Brushes
b.Slip rings
c.Commutators
Voltage generated by most AC generators is fed from the
machine to the bus by means of ____________.
a.Brushes on a commentator
b.Brushes on a ship rings
c.Ship rings on a commentator
d.Direct connection from the stator
The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means
of the ________.
a.Main alternator field rheostat

b.Exciter field rheostat
c.Prime mover governor control
d.Equalizing reactor
H2SO means ________.
a.Sulphuric acid
b.Hydrochloric Acid
c.Hydraulic Acid
d.Muriatic Acid
One important difference between Y – connected and Delta
connected generators is that delta connections
have_____________.
a.Line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase
voltages
b.Phase voltage 90 out of sync
c.Line current equal to the phase current
d.Line voltage equal to the phase voltage
It is a good practice to have the frequency of the incoming
alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of the bus
frequency because _________.
a.This allows the oncoming-machine to accept load
immediately
b.This prevent the machine from floating on the line
c.The reverse power relay is prevented from activating
If two AC generators have been placed in paralleled, the
three power load is initially distributed evenly
by ________.
A. Balance coil
B. Changing field excitation
C. Adjusting the generator control settings
D. Rheostat
The KW load can be adjusted on parallel generators by
using the ___________.
a.Balance coil
b.Rheostat
c.Field excitation
d.Governor control
If the field excitation is suddenly lost as alternator
operating in parallel, that alternator will __________.
a.Supply excessive current in the bus

b.Operate at the same load
c.Lose its load and end to over speed
d.Become overloaded and stop
When two AC generators are being paralleled, the breaker
should be closed with the Synchroscope pointer rotating in
the _______.
a.Slow, clockwise direction, just before 12 o’clock
position
b.Fast, clockwise direction, just after 12 o’clock
position
c.Slow, counter clockwise direction after 12 o’clock
position
d.Fast, counter clockwise direction after 12 o’clock
position
When parallel, AC generators must have the
same ______.
a.Frequency
b.Number of phases
c.Phase rotation
When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps
remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches “0”. This
indicates the ______.
a.Incoming alternator is running too last
b.Alternator voltages are 180 apart
c.Synchroscope is defective or broken
d.Alternator power are in phase
When paralleling two alternators using three synchronizing
lamps, the flicking of all three lamps progressively slower and
slower. This means the ______.
a.Frequency of the incoming generator is approaching

that of the bus
b.Frequency of the incoming generator is less than
that of the bus
c.Phase rotation of the incoming alternators is
opposite that of the bus
d.Terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is
approaching that of the bus
Motorizing of an alternator is undesirable ___________.
a.Alternator will be damaged

b.It puts additional load on the bus
c.High voltage pulses are induce in the bus
When shore power is being connected to a ship in dry-
docks __________.
a.The ship generator are parallel with shore power to

provide continuous power
b.Proper phase sequence must be established
c.Exactly 450V must be supplied from shore
d.Exactly 60Hz must be provided by the terminal
When two generators are on the line and are sharing the
load equally they are said to be operating in________.
a.Frequency
b.Series
c.Parallel
d.Resonance
The primary function of an electric motor is to ______.
a.Develop torque
b.Generate high voltage
c.Produce a magnetic field
d.Generate high electrical resistance
Any electric motor can be constructed to be ________.
a.Short proof
b.Ground proof
c.Explosion proof
d.Over load proof
An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that
they __________.
a.Are less expensive

b.Require less maintenance
c.Can be started across the line
d.Offers an effective means of controlling the speed
The direction of rotation of a DC motors can be reverse
by _________.
a.Reversing the field connection

b.Reversing the armature connections
c.Wiring the field and armature in parallel
d.Wiring the field and armature in series
Uneven area of the commutator surface on direct current
generators can be caused by ________.
a.Rapid change is load

b.Excessive operation at light load
c.Incorrect position of brush
d.Unequal pole spacing
In general, DC motor brush sparkling can be
caused by ________.
a.Incorrect brush grade, pressure or position

b.Poor brush grade
c.Uneven commutator height
d.Over speeding motor
When is it necessary to renew brushes in a DC motor?
a.The whole set be replaced

b.Only those worn out more than 50% need to be
changed
c.Only chipped or brittle units need to be replaced
d.Lubricate the contact surfaces of brushes
The torque produced by a motor when its shaft will not turn
even through rated voltage is applied to the stator is known
as _________.
a.Locked rotor torque
b.Pullout torque
c.Breakdown torque
d.Torque margin
An operating characteristic appearing on the name plate
of shipboard AC motor is _________.
a.Type of winding
b.Input kW
c.Temperature rise
d.Locked rotor torque
The operator of electrical motors keep a constant check
on ________.
a.Low loads necessities frequent cleaning

b.Exceeding nameplate values shortens useful life
c.Energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized
d.Power factor correction methods are load dependent
When testing a three circuit electric motor for uses condition,
the motor should be stopped
because ___________.
a.Testing an un-energized circuit presents a hazard to
the testing personnel
b.A faulty fuse can go undetected with the motor
energized
c.Reversed polarity of the circuit would be indicated by
the voltage tester with the circuit energized
Discoloration of the motor bars in a squirrel-cage motor is
typical evidence of _______.
a.Moisture
b.Overheating
c.Vibration
The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be
reverse by _______.
a.Interchanging any two of the three line leads to the

starter
b.Disconnecting any three line leads to the starter
c.Switching the shunt field cool leads
d.Permanently disconnecting any two of the three line
leads to the stator
If a single phase induction motor fails to start, the
problem maybe _______.
A. An open in the main winding

B. A shorted shunt field
C. A closed centrifugal switch
D. Low voltage input
A machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical
energy by using the principle of magnetic induction is called a
____________.
a.Generator
b.Pump
c.Turbine
d.Motor
Which of the following is NOT classified as a DC
Generator according to their excitation methods?
a.Series wound
b.Shunt wound
c.Compound wound
d.Squirrel – cage wound
When the current load is more than can be carried by a single
generator, the problem may be solved
by ___________.
a.Paralleling two more generators
b.Reducing the load
c.Increasing the speed of prime mover
When precise speed control and varying load are
needed, you should use a/an ________.
a.Alternating current generator

b.Direct current generator
c.Electronic motor
d.Electric motor
In general, the COST of an AC motor as compare to DC
motor is that an Ac motor costs _______________.
a.Less
b.More
c.Same
d.Slightly more
The key for the rotor an AC motors to run in both
synchronous and induction type motor is that their stators
must have a/an__________.
a.Rotating magnetic field
b.Electric source
c.Rotating torque
The type of Ac motor employed on washing machines,
refrigerator, compressors, bunch grinders and pumps is often
a/an___________.
a.Induction motor
b.Synchronous motor
c.DC motor
d.Single phase motor
Amortisseur windings are installed in a synchronous
motor to __________.
a.Reduce eddy current losses

b.Produces a higher power factor
c.Provides a means for starting
d.Eliminate arcing, between the stator the motor
The multiple prefix “giga” (G) means _________.
a.Thousand (10 to the 3rd power)

b.Million (10 to the 6th power)
c.Billion (10 to the 9th power)
d.Trillion (10 to the 12th power)
The multiple prefix “kilo” means ________.

A motor controller contains three selector push buttons
labeled “start”, “jog”, and “stop”. When the “jog” button is
pushed, the motors __________.
a.Will run continuously after the “jog” button is
released
b.Will run until the “jog” button is released
c.Will not start until both the “jog” and “start” buttons
are pushed
d.Will not start unless the “stop” button is pushed
A “dead front” switch board is one ________.
a.Without switches on it
b.With insulated switches and no exposed terminals
c.Without circuit breaker
d.Without safely handrails nor rubber mats
When charging 100 amp hour lead – acid
battery ______.
a.The temperature of the electrolyte should not be

allowed to exceed 90oF
b.The charging rate should be no greater than 125% of
the battery amp-hour rating
c.The source of power charging should be 2.5 volts
per cells
d.Gassing within the battery decreases when nearing
full and it will be necessary to reduce charging
current to a law finishing rate.
When lead – acid batteries are charging, they always
give off hydrogen gas that is __________.
a.Considered inert
b.Highly explosive
c.Extremely toxic
d.Heavier than air
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead – acid
battery is measured _____.
a.Gould plate
b.Titration plate
c.Hydrometer
d.Litmus paper test
Which of the following activities occurs during the
charging process of a lead – acid storage battery?
a.The specific gravity of the acid increases

b.Both plates change chemically to lead sulfate
c.The specific gravity of the acid decreases
d.Hydrogen gas is absorbed
Which of the following devices are protected from being
motorized by a reverse-power relay?
a.Alternator
b.Wave guides
c.Exciters
d.Amplidynes
When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while
receiving a normal charge, the charging current
should ____________.
a.Be increased
b.Remain unchanged
c.Be decrease
d.Shut off
An ammeter reads slightly above “zero” when its leads
are disconnected, this a result of ____________.
a.Mechanical misalignment of the meter points

b.A poor ground for the meter case
c.Static electricity in the air
d.Resistor inside the meter storing charges
When an alternator is to remain idle for even a
few days ___________.
a.Lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails

b.Insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard
c.energize the heater circuit
d.Energize the exciter circuit
Proper storage battery maintenance includes
_________.
a.Keeping connections tight and casing surfaces clean

b.Making sure electrolyte level is below the separator
plates
c.Insulating the terminals with naval jelly
d.Maintaining a high charging rate at all ties
Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery is
in the form of organic compounds which contain some
amount of ________.
a.Asbestos
b.Water
c.Fiber
d.Plastic
Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time lag
fuses (or dual-element fuses) are necessary for use in
__________.
a.Main lighting circuits
b.Motor starting circuits
c.Emergency lighting circuits
d.General alarm circuits
Which of the following materials is a good electrical
insulator?
a.Wood
b.Silver
c.Copper
d.Gold
The plates of a NiCad storage battery are made of ____.
a.Potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric

acid
b.Lead and lead peroxide
c.Silver oxide and lead sulfate
d.Combinations of nickel powder and nickel and
cadmium salts
Routine maintenance of ship’s service alternator should
include _____________.
a.Changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly

b.Megger testing of all rectifying diodes
c.Lubricating excitation slip rings
d.Periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens
Nickel –cadmium storage batteries are superior to lead-
acid batteries because they _________.
a.Put out higher voltages and require no maintenance

b.Can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long
time
c.Need fewer cells in series and use less mounting
space
Which of the listed ranges represents specific gravity
corrected for temperature for the electrolyte of a fully charge
portable lead-acid battery?
a.1.100 to 1.150
b.1.180 to 1.200
c.1.280 to 1.300
d.1.750 to 2.000
The state of charge of a lead-acid battery is best
indicated by the ________.
a.Individual cell voltage

b.Ampere-hour capacity
c.Electrolyte specific gravity
d.Total cell voltage
To test fuses in an energized circuit, you should used
a _______.
a.Low voltage light bulb

b.Megohmmeter
c.Voltmeter
d.Resistance meter
The main engine auxiliary blower shall be in this position in
order to change – over engine control from engine control
room ____________.
A. Manual
B. Auto
C. Remote
D. Service
When engine starting is under control, the starting air feed is
halted every time engine revolution
reaches _____________.
a.Dead slow ahead
b.Cut–off setting
c.Fuel is supplied
d.Engine running in fuel
Every time the auto acceleration and auto deceleration device for main
engine for main engine rpm are in service in a vessel fitted with engine speed
control program, they are indicated in the control console by ________.
a.“Program in progress “ lamp is “on”

b.“Program in auto “ lamp is “on”
c.“Program running” lamp is “on”
d.“Program running in remote control “ lamp is “on”
The engine speed acceleration or speed deceleration
program at the bridge control console is cancelled
____________.
a.By pressing the program by-pass button
b.By moving Telegraph handle to a different position
c.By moving the telegraph handle to maneuvering
speed
d.By doing any of these choices
The rpm of the main engine can do no longer be raised
when it reached the below preset limit
a.RPM limit
b.Speed limit
c.Over speed
d.Governor limit
To avoid the main engine from being exposed to a prolonged harmful vibrations
during maneuvering, a quick RPM passage device is fitted to keep the engine
RPM at ________.
a.Below or above the critical speed limit

b.Within the critical speed limit
c.Operator’s speed option
d.Maker’s speed option
The engine starting fuel setting of the governor is usually
set at _______.
a.Dead slow ahead

b.Slow ahead
c.Half ahead
Starting of main engine cannot be started due to
interlocking device such as _______.
a.Turning gear safety device

b.Fuel cut – off device
c.Emergency trip device
Starting of main engine cannot be made when this
condition is reached.
a.Telegraph lever in “stop” position

b.Starting air pressure is at alarm point
c.Telegraph lever in ahead/astern position
The main engine speed can be gradually accelerated from
full maneuvering speed to full navigation speed by using the
__________.
a.Load program
b.Telegraph handle
c.Governor control
d.Fuel handle
The main engine speed can be gradually reduce from
navigation full speed to maneuvering speed by using
the ____________.
a.Load program
b.Telegraph handle
c.Governor control
d.Fuel handle
When the main engine fails to start, the telegraph lever shall
be placed at this position before a second starting can be
effected.
a.Stop
b.Run
c.Ahead
d.Astern
During normal engine speed (navigation full speed) condition,
the fuel can be cut-off instantaneously by pressing the
_______.
a.Emergency trip button
b.Main engine trip button
c.Manual trip button
The main engine fuel supply will be automatically cut-off
when this condition is reached.
a.Over speed
b.Main lube oil low. Low pressure
c.Camshaft lube oil low, low pressure
Main engine will automatically slow down when this
a.Main engine lube oil pressure low

b.Crankcase oil mist density high
c.Camshaft lube oil low
d.Exhaust gas temperature low
If the engine is running at the direction opposite of the
telegraph transmitter command, this alarm is activated.
a.Wrong Speed
b.Wrong direction
c.Wrong way
d.Wrong position
The alarms in the engine control system are in “repose”
when the telegraph is at this position.
a.Finish with engine

b.Standby engine
c.Bridge control
d.Engine control
The equipment that provides the monitoring and printing of transmitter positions,
date and time, whenever the telegraph transmitter position is changed is
called _________.
a.Telegraph logger
b.Telegraph printer
c.Transmitter position logger
What color appears to warn the user that the paper needs to
be renewed when the amount of thermal paper in the longer
reaches near the end?
a.Blue
b.Red
c.Yellow
d.Brown
Which of the following main engine safety device is NOT
a start interlock device?
a.Fuel cut – off

b.M/E trip in operational
c.Turning gear disengage
d.Control air low
The bridge control simulation safety device test can only
be affected when the main engine is at this position.
a.Stop
b.Ahead
c.Astern
d.None of these
In a NAVCO type bridge control system, the speed control of
the main engine is not executable from the bridge control
console when the electric signal to this device is not normal.
a.Electric governor
b.Electric telegraph
c.Electric control console
d.Electric actuator
At extremely low temperatures, a semiconductor is
basically an _______.
a.Conductor
b.Insulator
c.Electron
d.Element
An electron has a ____________.
a.Negative charge
b.Neutral charge
c.Positive charge
d.No charge
The resistance of a semiconductor material compared to
the resistance of ceramic or glass material is:
a.More
b.Less
c.Equal
The three most common semiconductor devices are:
a.Transistor, diodes, ic
b.Transistor, pcb, relays
c.Transistor, diodes, capacitors
d.Transistor, diodes, relay
The cargo pump turbine of generator over speed relay
initiates closing of the throttle valve when an excessive
centrifugal force or speed causes:
a.Spring loads weight to trip a valve hatch
b.Spring loaded fly balls actuate a control lever
c.Oiled pump develops pressure to open a spring
loaded relay valve
d.Lube oil control temperature actuates a solenoids
valve
The over speed tripping device installed on an auxiliary
turbine is automatically actuated by ________.
a.Applied spring force

b.Hydraulic pressure
c.High back pressure
d.Centrifugal force
The governor of turbo generator maintains constant speed by
oil flow pressure and directly changing the position of
governor.
a.Throttle valve
b.Lever
c.Steam chest
d.Back pressure
Constant speed governors are normally employed
with ________.
a.Generator engines
b.Turbines
c.Electric motors
d.Main engines
The steady frequency of an alternator attached to a
generator engine is maintained by:
a.Throttle control mechanism

b.Governor with variable speed control
c.Governor/nozzle control valve
d.Constant speed governor
When a ship service generator equipped with centrifugal type
hydraulic governor load increases, that action will occur in the
governor internal mechanism.
a.Weight will more inward
b.Lifting will have inward
c.Pilot valve pushing into the cylinder
d.Oil is pumped into the cylinder
If two generator will the same no load speed setting are
operated in a parallel, the unit that has lesser speed drop will
______.
a.Get less load
b.Get larger share of a load
c.Have poor speed control
d.Have poor power response
The portion of the engine speed control has manual
positioning but with automatic indexing can be found
in a _______.
a.Rheostat
b.Governor
c.Hand wheel
d.Engine telegraph
The metal that is often used in coating food containers is
the _____.
A.Tin
B.Lead
C.Zinc
D.Steel
The metal that is bolted to the ship’s hull to preserve the
steel against pitting is the ______.
A.Zinc
B.Lead
C.Steel
D.Tin
A kind of metal that has a strong anodic potential in
marine service is the _____.
A.Tin
B.Copper
C.Zinc
D.Lead
A material that is considered as ferrous metal is the
____.
A.Steel
B.Brass
C.Manganese
D.Tin
A material that is NOT belong to classifications of non-
ferrous metal is the _____.
A.Steel
B.Brass
C.Manganese
D.Tin
Which of the following properties of a material has the
ability to resists deformation usually by indention?
A.Hardness
B.Malleability
C.Plasticity
D.Ductility
To anneal a copper is done by heating into a cherry red
color and a _____.
A.Cooling slowly in air

B.Dousing in cold water
C.Dousing in hot water
D.None of the above
A property of metal that has the ability to resists being
permanently deformed when a load is applied is ______.
A.Hardness
B.Ductility
C.Strength
D.Malleability
The purpose of tempering is to make a metal ____.
A. Harder
B. Softer
C. Less brittle
D. Ductility
Reheating a hardened metal to a temperature lower than
the temperature and then cooling it is known as ______.
A.Temperature hardening
B.Brittleness
C.Tempering
D.Strength
The rate of heat transfer from the hot region to a cold
region is affected most by the _____.
A.Size of the heat sink

B.Temperature difference between the regions
C.Temperature hardening
D.Brittleness
When a metal is tempered, it becomes ________.
A.Less brittle
B.Harder
C.More brittle
D.Softer
The internal force of a material, which tends to resists
deformation when subjected to external forces, is known
as _____.
A.Stress
B.Hardness
C.Strain
D.Brittleness
The result of material after annealing is to make it ___.
A.Softer
B.Harder
C.Tougher
D.Smoother
The process of reheating hardened STEEL to
temperature lower than the hardening temperatures and
then cooling it, it termed _______.
A.Tempering
B.Hardening
C.Annealing
D.Malleability
If steel is heated at a temperature a 85Oo-950oC and then
cooling it SLOWLY either the furnace or an insulated
space is called _______.
A.Annealing
B.Heating
C.Tempering
D.Hardening
The kind of metal that is light, strong and corrosion-
resistant usually used as plate material in plate-type heat
exchanger is the _______.
A.Bronze
B.Copper
C.Titanium
D.Silver
The result when either of two bodies in motion is in
contact with each other is called ________.
A.Potential energy
B.Tension
C.Friction
D.Kinetic energy
A kind of non-metallic minerals that can withstand very
high temperatures and unaffected by steam, petrol
paraffin, fuel oil and lubricants, is the ____.
A.Asbestos
B.Lignum vitae
C.Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
D.Steel
The wearing away of corrosive metal by abrasion is
called ______.
A.Erosion
B.Tension
C.Corrosion
D.Stress
The reduction of metals by chemical or electro chemical
reactions within their surrounding is known as ______.
A.Erosion
B.Tension
C.Corrosion
D.Stress
Often use as a joining materials for fresh and sea water
pipes and also for water lubricated bearing is ________.
A.Rubber
B.Steel
C.Asbestos
D.Lignum vitae
A hard brittle substance that is insoluble in water is
the _______.
A.Nylon
B.Resin
C.Glass reinforced plastics
D.Asbestos
Bronze is an alloy of copper and ________.
A.Tin
B.Zinc
C.Bronze
D.Silver
Brass is an alloy of copper and ________.
A.Manganese
B.Zinc
C.Silver
D.Tin
The process of using zinc, a metal that is resistant to
atmospheric corrosion when using as coating for
protecting steel is called ______.
A.Dezincification
B.Corrosion
C.Galvanizing
D.Erosion
The metal that is used as an alloying material in the
manufacture of various special steels is the _______.
A.Zinc
B.Titanium
C.Vanadium
D.Copper
The vibration incurred by the main engine, is transferred
to the hull of the ship by the ________.
A.Thrust bearing
B.Freezing temperature
C.Reduction gear
D.Boiling temperature
The variable gas pressure within the cylinders and the
connecting rod mechanism during the working cycle
creates _______.
A.Torsional vibration
B.Critical vibration
C.Longitudinal vibration
D.None of the above
An excessive vibrations created by the main propulsion
machinery are detrimental to the _________.
A.Electronic equipment
B.Pumps
C.Galley equipment
D.All of the above
The maximum stress to which a material can be
subjected without causing permanent deformation is
called _________.
A.Elastic limit
B.Tension
C.Maximum strain
D.Stress
The maximum stress applied to rupture a material is
called _________.
A.Ultimate strength
B.Elastic limit
C.Compression strain
D.Maximum strain
The amount of internal force on which a material resists a
change in shape is known as ________.
A.Stress
B.Strain
C.Strength
D.Torsion
One of these statements is CORRECT concerning
welding sequence, it is ___.
A.First, weld the joints that will tend to contract the

most
B.First, weld attachments which will restrain points of
maximum contraction
C.Lower fuel pressure
D.Quantity of fuel injected increased
The procedure to ensure a good weld, post heating is
required whenever an arc weld repair is made ________.
A.With a reverse polarity rod

B.To a cast component casting
If welding or burning with oxygen-acetylene, the
acetylene, the acetylene working pressure must NOT
exceed ________.
A.1 kg/cm2
B.0.25 kg/cm2
C.0.50 kg/cm2
D.0.05 kg/cm2
In securing an oxyacetylene cutting outfit for an extended
period, you should close the ______.
A.Cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5

pounds of pressure in the hose
B.Cylinder valves and close torch valves when
pressure in hose and regulators is zero
The steps you should do when using an oxyacetylene
outfit for welding, is to ___.
A.Open the acetylene valve until the hose pressure is

2 kg/cm2
B.Open the acetylene cylinder valve only ¼ to ½ turn
and leave the wrench on the valve stem
C.Cylinder valves and close torch valves with 4 to 5
pounds of pressure in the hose
D.None of the above
Regarding oxyacetylene welding outfit, each cylinder has
a regulator and two pressure gages. One pressure gage
indicates cylinder pressure and the other is used to
indicate which the ________.
A.Tip pressure
B.Valve pressure
C.Hose pressure
D.None of the above
If welding is being done on mold steel with a shielded
metal-arc electrode and getting only shallow penetration,
you should _______.
A.Use larger electrodes
B.Increase the amperage
C.Tip pressure
D.First, weld attachments which will restrain points of
maximum contraction
Soft solders have relatively low melting points and
consist mainly of ______.
A.Silver base alloys

B.Paraffin base oil
C.Lead base alloys
D.None of the above
When solders are used for joining metals surfaces,
should have a ________.
A.Fusing point much higher than that of the metals

being joined
B.Melting point lower than that of the metals being
joined
C.Increase the amperage
D.None of the above
If other elements are added to iron during the refining
process, the resulting metal is termed _________.
A.Carbon steel
B.Alloy steel
C.Cast iron
D.None of the above
The product of remelting a pig iron and scrap iron in a
furnace and removing some of the impurities from the
molten metal by using various fluxing agents is
called ___________.
A.Carbon steel
B.Alloy steel
C.Cast iron
D.None of the above
The metals usually used in incandescent lights aboard
ship are the _______.
A.Platinum
B.Vanadium
C.Tungsten
D.Aluminum
A material usually used in grinding wheel aboard ship is
the _______.
A.Silicon carbide
B.Tungsten
C.Carbon
D.Platinum
The composition of Babbitt metal includes _______.
I – Tin II – Lead III – Antimony IV – Copper
A.I, II and III

B.I, II, III and IV
C.II and III and IV
D.I, II, III and IV
The fusion of two metals joined together to produce a
strong bind as one metal is called _______.
A.Welding
B.Galvanizing
C.Soldering
D.None of the above
The factor that governs the intensity of heat required for
any given welding job is _________.
A.The type of metal being joined only

B.The type of metal being joined and the welding
process used
C.Fusing point much higher than that of the metals
being joined
D.None of the above
If maintenance is undertaken at sea, the engine
personnel shall take precaution to ________.
A.Sudden roll of the ship

B.Increase the amperage
C.Fill fuel service tank
D.Compression strain
When the manhole of the lubricating sump tank opened,
what precautions should be erected and posted?
I – Hand rails II – Use ladders III – Warning signs
A.I and III

B.I only
C.III only
D.I and II
If an area is made slippery by snow during bunkering and
fixing the hose connection on deck, the material that
should be spread over the snow is ________.
A.Pebble
B.Sand
C.Sawdust
D.Salt
With no permission of the master and chief engineer
officer, no console alarms should be ________.
A.Isolated
B.Lower fuel pressure
C.Tested
D.None of the above
If safety hazards are recognized and reported,
appropriate action should be taken to minimize
__________.
A.Repair
B.Danger
C.Tested
D.Removed
Which of these are fire hazards in the machinery
spaces?
I – Warm water in the cascade tank

II – Arc welding activity at the lowest flat
III – Exposed exhaust manifold
A.I and II
B.II and III
C.I and III
D.I, II and III
Which of these are atmospheric hazards in an enclosed
space?
I – Presence of hydrocarbon
II – Existence of toxic
III – Adequate ventilation
IV – Deficiency in oxygen

A.I, II and III
B.II, III and IV
C.I, II and IV
D.I, III and IV
That where the ventilation is NOT functioning on around
the clock basis is the _________.
A. Enclosed space
B. Opened space
C. Machinery space
D. All of the above
An area considered an enclosed space is the ________.
A.Cofferdam space
B.Battery space
C.Machinery space
D.None of the above
Before entering an enclosed space is the ________.
I – Entry permit must be approved by the master

II – The space be thoroughly ventilated
III – Sufficient flammable gasses be present
IV – There must be adequate oxygen

A.I, II and III
B.II, III and IV
C.I, III and IV
D.I, II and IV
What equipment are used before entering an enclosed
space?
I – Life lines II – Sparkling tools III – Hard hats

A.I and II
B.I and III
C.II and III
D.I, II and III
Which of these are hot work hazards?
I – Fire
II – Explosion
III – Glare injury
IV – Heat injury

A.I, II and III
B.II, III and IV
C.I, III and IV
D.I, II, III and IV
The safest place to do hot work in the engine room is in
the _____.
A.Electrical shop
B.Welding shop
C.Work shop
D.None of the above
If hot work is being done on the lowest flat in the engine
room, the fire alarm sensor should be switched off on
the _________.
A.Lowest flat
B.Engine room
C.Highest flat
D.Deck
The usual practice is avoided because it is prone to fire
hazard is _______.
A.Smoking in the machine shop

B.Stowing oily rags in a paint locker
C.Increase the amperage
D.Presence of hydrocarbon
In electrical fires, the best extinguishing agent is ______.
A.CO2
B.C2O
C.Dry chemical
D.None of the above
The practice that should be avoided to minimize fire
hazard is _______.
A.Stowing oily rags in a paint locker

B.Stowing portable acetylene bottles in the vertical
position
C.Smoking in the machine shop
D.All of the above
The hard file generally used for finishing is
the _______.
A.Double cut file
B.Single cut file
C.Bastard cut file
D.Double bastard cut file
The statement that best defines DEPTH of cut lathe work
is ________.
A.The distance to tool point advances with each

revolution of the work
B.The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut
surface of the work piece
C.The type of metal being joined only
D.The type of metal being joined and the welding
process used
In machine shop practice, a center gage is used for
checking the angle of ____.
A.Screw thread pitch

B.90o thread cutting tools
C.60o thread cutting tools
D.None of the above
The main difference between a common lathe dog and a
safety lathe dog is the latter ________.
A.Has a headless set screw

B.Has a head set screw
C.Allows for misaligned center holes
D.None of the above
A lathe dog, fitted with a headless set screw is known as
a ______.
A.Clamp lathe dog

B.Tailstock
C.Safety lathe dog
D.None of the above
The proper way to use a lathe crotch center to drill an oil
hole in a bushing, you should mount the crotch center in
the ______.
A.Tailstock
B.Chuck
C.Lathe dog
D.File
In machining a work held between lathe centers, and the
lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first ________.
A.Lubricate the center

B.Screw head pitch
C.Stop the lathe
D.None of the above
A follower rest should be used in a lathe to machine ___.
A.Large diameter stock between centers

B.Thread a long slender shafts
C.Lubricate the center
D.None of the above
Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathes
centers is usually held in a __________.
A.Chuck
B.Lathe dog
C.Tailstock
D.File
The type of fits used in assembling a rotating shafts and
bearing is the _____.
A.Clearance fits
B.Interference fits
C.Transitional fits
D.Sleeve fits
The type of fits be observed when assembling the end
bell and housing of an electric motor is the _________.
A.Transitional fits
B.Clearance fits
C.Interference fits
D.Sleeve fits
What type of fits is necessary in the assembly of mating
parts with the use of hydraulic press?
A.Transitional fits
B.Clearance fits
C.Interference fits
D.Sleeve fits
The precautions you should do in using the hydraulic
press to prevent damage of parts is _________.
A.Determine the exerted pressure by watching the

pressure gauge
B.Do not heat external part to be mated
C.Lubricate the center
D.Increase the amperage
For fitting mating the parts with the use of hydraulic
press, what precaution/s should be observed?
• I – Part being pressed can reach the breaking point without
visible indication
• II – Consider interference allowance between mating parts
• III – Ensure that the work is adequately supported
• IV – Use lubricant between the mating parts to prevent seizing
A.I and II
B.II and III
C.III and IV
D.I, II, III, and IV
If the load is increased on a bearing, the distance
between the surfaces will be _______.
A.Decreased
B.Increased
C.The same
D.No effect
The type of bearing installed on the main bearing of a
diesel engine is the ___.
A.Sleeve bearing
B.Roller bearing
C.Ball bearing
D.Thrust bearing
The kind of bearings installed on the connecting rod
journal of a diesel engine is the _________.
A.Sleeve bearing
B.Thrust bearing
C.Roller bearing
D.Ball bearing
The bearing installed in the engine room supply blowers
is _____.
A.Ball bearing
B.Roller bearing
C.Thrust bearing
D.Sleeve bearing
The sea painter of an inflatable liferaft should be
_______.
A.free running on deck

B.faked out next to the case
C.secured to a permanent object via a weak link
D.starved near the raft
An oil fog lubrication system is recommended
for ________.
A.gear shaft bearings

B.high speed continuous operation of roller bearings
C.low and moderate speed ball bearings
D.heavily loaded and high speed ball bearing
If emergency repair must be made to the upper area of
the fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent compartments
may need to be _______.
A. gas freed
B. inerted
C. filled with water
D. all of the above are necessary
Which of the following weld faults can only be detected by a
method that examines the internal structures of a weld.
A.under cut
B.lack of reinforcement
C.overlap
D.lack of penetration
What is the equivalent tonnage of a refrigeration system
rated at 48,000 BTU/hr?
A.2.5 ton
B.3 ton
C.4 ton
D.5 ton
What defects of weldments is cause by water vapor, oil
or grease in the weld puddle.
A.porosity
B.incomplete penetration
C.undercutting
D.inclusion
When new section of shell plating is being installed, the
proper weld sequence must be followed to_______.
A.Minimize shrinkage stress and harmful distortion

B.Ensure that all weldments are down hand
C.Provide the greatest restrain in the weld
D.Ensure all horizontal weldments are completed
Where is the dry pipe located in the boiler?
A.At the superheater outlet

B.Behind the superheater screen tubes
C.In the top of the steam drum
D.Below the generation tube bank
At which of the listed tank locations should you obtain
oxygen content readings prior to tank washing?
A.At the hatch coaming and tank bottom

B.At the hatch coaming and middle of the tank
C.At the middle and bottom of the tank
D.At the center of the ullage and one meter below
deck
Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip off a
bolt head or nut?
A.Open end wrench

B.Box end wrench
C.Crescent wrench
D.Spanner wrench
A transfer pump which delivers the fuel to the high
pressure injection pump is called ___.
a. transfer pump
b. reciprocating pump
c. booster pump
d. Suction lift pump
A delivery valve in a port and helix fuel injection pump is
designed to ____.
a.produce a quick cut off fuel injection

b. normally maintain constant pressure in the discharge
line
c. meter quantity of fuel being injected
Fuel oil begins injection into the cylinder of a four-stroke
cycle diesel engine during the ___.
a.Intake stroke
b. Exhaust stroke
c. Power stroke
d. Compression stroke
Most fuel injector nozzles are opened by_________.
A. Fuel oil pressure

B. A cam operated followers
C. A spring-loaded pressure plate
D. Timing gears keyed to the crankshaft
A lube oil pump used in a diesel engine is a ________.
A. Volute pump
B. Centrifugal pump
C. Diaphragm pump
D. Gear pump
What is the purpose of crankcase ventilation system of
an engine?
A. It prevent spark generation.

B. Removes combustible gases in the crankcase
C. Determines the level of combustible gases
D. Provides inert gas generation in crankcase
are ______.

a.Feather spring
b.Conductors
c.Brush holder
If a DC generator was rotated in the wrong direction, it
would fail to come up to voltage because
the _______________.
that_________________.
•

induced
magnetic field
the_______________.

d.Output voltage
a.Prime mover speed

b.Equalizer bus


________________.
a.Volts and amperes

b.Ohms and amperes
a.2 poles
b.3 poles
c.4 poles
d.1 pole

a.6
b.4
c.2
d.8
1.225, the battery is _________.
a.Dead
b.Fully charged
c.Shorted
d.Partially charged
in ______________.
a.Volts
b.Ohms
c.Amperes
d.Coulombs
law?

a.Impedance
b.Current
c.Voltage
d.Resistance
for________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
for___________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
a.Kilowatts
b.Watts
c.Ohms
d.Watts - hours
a.Volt
b.Amperes
c.Watts
d.Ohm

a.Dust – free
b.Dry
d.Wet
a.Voltmeter
b.Megger
c.Ammeter
d.Ampere meter
a.Wet floor
b.Humid floor
c.Dry floor
• Note;
to___________.

b.Keep room cool
c.Supply fresh air
d.Protect equipment
b.Sulfuric acid
c.Hydrochloric acid
d.Muriatic acid

d.Increase suddenly

have_______________.
c.Protection covers
with______________.
a.Synthetic resin
b.Plastic film
c.Rubber paint
d.None of the above
to ___________.

d.Prevent blackout

d.Blackout
of a/an________________.
a.Over speed trip

d.Over current trip
isolate________________.

a.Frequency meter
b.Ohmmeter
The grounded neutral conductor of a three – wire feeder,
in dual voltage 220/110 volt DC switchboard should
be _______________.
The part of the new electrical system that controls the
power distribution to the branch circuit is
called________________.
b.Main switchboard
d.Starter panel
Equipment with temporarily wiring arrangements in
cabins, engine rooms and other locations onboard is
called________________.
c.Ship’s property


When passing through restricted waters, such as
Panama Canal, Suez Canal or rivers, or in condition of
heavy weather it is prudent to use ____________.
To ensure that it is ready in case of emergency and for
the efficient operation of the emergency generator the
engine shall be started once every ______________.
a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
The on – load of emergency generator / alternator must
be carried out must be carried out at least
every _________.
a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
a.Engine log book

b.Bell book
To ensure that the emergency generator is always ready
for immediately use, its associated component below
shall be kept fully charge at all times.

necessary
below is NOT TRUE?

necessary
To protect the radiators of emergency generator
sets located external to the main machinery space
from very cold weather it must be filled
with__________.
a.Alcohol
b.Distilled water

as__________.
a.Gas free
b.Well - ventilated
c.Ready for use
d.Ready for entry
_______________.

b.– 12 or better
c.– 8oC or better
d.– 4oC or better
near to as:
a.– 2oC
b.0oC
c.+2oC
d.+5oC
When using electric arc equipment, whenever it is
necessary for additional leads to extend the range of
operation only correct grade of cable shall be fitted with
approved_________.
c.Cables wires
During welding and similar operation, the welder must
wear protective clothing such as, but not limited
to ___________.
a.Welding apron
b.Safety shoes
c.Safety helmet
a.Sun rays
b.Sparks
c.Heat
d.Strong wind
watch must be satisfied that this/ these equipment is / are
in good working order before leaving the engine room.
b.Alarm system

a.Officer on watch
b.Engineer on watch
c.Chief engineer
d.Master
Who is the person responsible for the safe, efficient
operation and maintenance of the vessel’s electrical
system including but not restricted to ____________.
a.Chief engineer
c.Engineer on duty
d.Master
As per USCG 33 CFR 164.35, the vessel is not permitted
to be operated in US waters unless it has onboard and in
a.Two radars
b.Evaporating plant
c.Sewage plant
required__________.
a.Hospitalization
b.First aid action

occur.
contact with a live wire having a 5 – 10 ma current?

occur.

occur.
get in contact with a live wire having 2 amp and above
current?
occur.

energized circuit
is ______________.
a.By friction
b.By lighting
c.By applying heat

A breakable mercury filled thermometer should not be
used in a lead acid battery to measure the electrolyte
temperature as an accidental breakup can cause ____.

failure
combustion

flame failure
Which of the following represents a limitation to be aware
of when the boiler auto combustion control is operated in
“hand mode”?

engine
a.Runs out of fuel

a.Expiry force
b.Solenoid
d.Centrifugal force
_________.

________.

d.Electric governor
When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its
useful life, it should be replaced immediately on the
resulting flashing may_________.
Alternating current circuits developed resistance,
capacitance and voltage; the capacitance of capacitor is
expressed in ______.
a.Ohm
b.Henry
c.Mho
d.Farad
___________.
c.Direct current
Electric motors intended for use outside the engine room
and boiler are frequently rated at a designated ambient
temp. of 40C. What is the equivalent in Fahrenheit?
a. 52 F
b. 104 F
c. 72 F
d. 129.6 F
the __________.

rated load


temperature
operating motor
a / an ________.
a.Short circuit
b.Open circuit
c.Bonded circuit
d.Grounded circuit
when ____________.
a.A fuse blown

b.It is not in use
a.Circuit breaker
b.Amplifier
c.Diode
d.Capacitor
to _______________.

c.Operating voltage
a.Millimeter
b.Number gage
c.Centimeter
d.Circular mills

bulkheads
must be __________.


size wire
determining the size of the cable to be used in a
particular circuit?
a.Voltage rating
c.Current rating
from _________.
The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person’s
voice air an emergency sound powered telephone circuit
is obtained from:
d.Speaker’s voice

line shafting

device installed
zinc chromate
anode is _________.

Impressed current cathodic protection is used on vessels
instead of ________.
a.Fire alarm system

b.Repeated painting
c.Sacrificial zincs
d.Vacuum tube degaussing system
Automatic voltage regulators provided a
switch board functions to ____.
a.Regulate to AC load on the generator
b.Protect the switchboard from high voltage
c.Govern prime mover speed to control voltage
d.Vary the field excitation to the generators
In cold weather, the specific gravity of a
battery __________.
a.Rises
b.Lowers
c.Remains the same
If the emergency switchboard pilot light is “ON” it
means __________.
a.The generator is on line

b.The power is available from the generator
c.The generator is in parallel with the bus generator
d.Pilot exciter is malfunctioning
Under voltage trips are frequently on switchboard circuits
breakers to trip _______.
a.Out the generator in the event of severe arching or

sparkling
b.Out the generator when there is a reversal of power
c.Out the generator when there is a low voltage in the
main circuit
d.The breaker of the generator over speed by 5%
The most common type of AC service generator found
aboard ship is the stationary __________.
a.Electromagnetic field, revolving armature type

b.Electromagnetic field, oscillator armature type
c.Armature, oscillatory electromagnetic field type
d.Armature, rotating electromagnetic field type
Brushless AC generators are designed to operate without
the use of _________.
a.Brushes
b.Slip rings
c.Commutators
Voltage generated by most AC generators is fed from the
machine to the bus by means of ____________.
a.Brushes on a commentator
b.Brushes on a ship rings
c.Ship rings on a commentator
d.Direct connection from the stator
The frequency of an AC generator is adjusted by means
of the ________.
a.Main alternator field rheostat

b.Exciter field rheostat
c.Prime mover governor control
d.Equalizing reactor
H2SO means ________.
a.Sulphuric acid
b.Hydrochloric Acid
c.Hydraulic Acid
d.Muriatic Acid
One important difference between Y – connected and
Delta connected generators is that delta connections
have_____________.
a.Line voltages equal to the vector sum of the phase
voltages
b.Phase voltage 90 out of sync
c.Line current equal to the phase current
d.Line voltage equal to the phase voltage
It is a good practice to have the frequency of the
incoming alternator adjusted slightly higher than that of
the bus frequency because _________.
a.This allows the oncoming-machine to accept load
immediately
b.This prevent the machine from floating on the line
c.The reverse power relay is prevented from activating
If two AC generators have been placed in paralleled, the
three power load is initially distributed evenly
by ________.
A. Balance coil
B. Changing field excitation
C. Adjusting the generator control settings
D. Rheostat
The KW load can be adjusted on parallel generators by
using the ___________.
a.Balance coil
b.Rheostat
c.Field excitation
d.Governor control
If the field excitation is suddenly lost as alternator
operating in parallel, that alternator will __________.
a.Supply excessive current in the bus

b.Operate at the same load
c.Lose its load and end to over speed
d.Become overloaded and stop
When two AC generators are being paralleled, the
breaker should be closed with the Synchroscope pointer
rotating in the _______.
a.Slow, clockwise direction, just before 12 o’clock
position
b.Fast, clockwise direction, just after 12 o’clock
position
c.Slow, counter clockwise direction after 12 o’clock
position
d.Fast, counter clockwise direction after 12 o’clock
position
When parallel, AC generators must have the
same ______.
a.Frequency
b.Number of phases
c.Phase rotation
When paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing
lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches
“0”. This indicates the ______.
a.Incoming alternator is running too last
b.Alternator voltages are 180 apart
c.Synchroscope is defective or broken
d.Alternator power are in phase
When paralleling two alternators using three
synchronizing lamps, the flicking of all three lamps
progressively slower and slower. This means the ______.
a.Frequency of the incoming generator is approaching

that of the bus
b.Frequency of the incoming generator is less than
that of the bus
c.Phase rotation of the incoming alternators is
opposite that of the bus
d.Terminal voltage of the incoming alternator is
approaching that of the bus
Motorizing of an alternator is undesirable ___________.
a.Alternator will be damaged

b.It puts additional load on the bus
c.High voltage pulses are induce in the bus
When shore power is being connected to a ship in dry-
docks __________.
a.The ship generator are parallel with shore power to

provide continuous power
b.Proper phase sequence must be established
c.Exactly 450V must be supplied from shore
d.Exactly 60Hz must be provided by the terminal
When two generators are on the line and are sharing the
load equally they are said to be operating in________.
a.Frequency
b.Series
c.Parallel
d.Resonance
The primary function of an electric motor is to ______.
a.Develop torque
b.Generate high voltage
c.Produce a magnetic field
d.Generate high electrical resistance
Any electric motor can be constructed to be ________.
a.Short proof
b.Ground proof
c.Explosion proof
d.Over load proof
An advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that
they __________.
a.Are less expensive

b.Require less maintenance
c.Can be started across the line
d.Offers an effective means of controlling the speed
The direction of rotation of a DC motors can be reverse
by _________.
a.Reversing the field connection

b.Reversing the armature connections
c.Wiring the field and armature in parallel
d.Wiring the field and armature in series
Uneven area of the commutator surface on direct current
generators can be caused by ________.
a.Rapid change is load

b.Excessive operation at light load
c.Incorrect position of brush
d.Unequal pole spacing
In general, DC motor brush sparkling can be
caused by ________.
a.Incorrect brush grade, pressure or position

b.Poor brush grade
c.Uneven commutator height
d.Over speeding motor
When is it necessary to renew brushes in a DC motor?
a.The whole set be replaced

b.Only those worn out more than 50% need to be
changed
c.Only chipped or brittle units need to be replaced
d.Lubricate the contact surfaces of brushes
The torque produced by a motor when its shaft will not
turn even through rated voltage is applied to the stator is
known as _________.
a.Locked rotor torque
b.Pullout torque
c.Breakdown torque
d.Torque margin
An operating characteristic appearing on the name plate
of shipboard AC motor is _________.
a.Type of winding
b.Input kW
c.Temperature rise
d.Locked rotor torque
The operator of electrical motors keep a constant check
on ________.
a.Low loads necessities frequent cleaning

b.Exceeding nameplate values shortens useful life
c.Energy is wasted if full loading is not utilized
d.Power factor correction methods are load dependent
When testing a three circuit electric motor for uses
condition, the motor should be stopped
because ___________.
a.Testing an un-energized circuit presents a hazard to
the testing personnel
b.A faulty fuse can go undetected with the motor
energized
c.Reversed polarity of the circuit would be indicated by
the voltage tester with the circuit energized
Discoloration of the motor bars in a squirrel-cage motor is
typical evidence of _______.
a.Moisture
b.Overheating
c.Vibration
The rotation of a three-phase induction motor can be
reverse by _______.
a.Interchanging any two of the three line leads to the

starter
b.Disconnecting any three line leads to the starter
c.Switching the shunt field cool leads
d.Permanently disconnecting any two of the three line
leads to the stator
If a single phase induction motor fails to start, the
problem maybe _______.
A. An open in the main winding

B. A shorted shunt field
C. A closed centrifugal switch
D. Low voltage input
A machine that converts mechanical energy into
electrical energy by using the principle of magnetic
induction is called a ____________.
a.Generator
b.Pump
c.Turbine
d.Motor
Which of the following is NOT classified as a DC
Generator according to their excitation methods?
a.Series wound
b.Shunt wound
c.Compound wound
d.Squirrel – cage wound
When the current load is more than can be carried by a
single generator, the problem may be solved
by ___________.
a.Paralleling two more generators
b.Reducing the load
c.Increasing the speed of prime mover
When precise speed control and varying load are
needed, you should use a/an ________.
a.Alternating current generator

b.Direct current generator
c.Electronic motor
d.Electric motor
In general, the COST of an AC motor as compare to DC
motor is that an Ac motor costs _______________.
a.Less
b.More
c.Same
d.Slightly more
The key for the rotor an AC motors to run in both
synchronous and induction type motor is that their stators
must have a/an__________.
a.Rotating magnetic field
b.Electric source
c.Rotating torque
The type of Ac motor employed on washing machines,
refrigerator, compressors, bunch grinders and pumps is
often a/an___________.
a.Induction motor
b.Synchronous motor
c.DC motor
d.Single phase motor
Amortisseur windings are installed in a synchronous
motor to __________.
a.Reduce eddy current losses

b.Produces a higher power factor
c.Provides a means for starting
d.Eliminate arcing, between the stator the motor
The multiple prefix “giga” (G) means _________.

The multiple prefix “kilo” means ________.

A motor controller contains three selector push buttons
labeled “start”, “jog”, and “stop”. When the “jog” button is
pushed, the motors __________.
a.Will run continuously after the “jog” button is
released
b.Will run until the “jog” button is released
c.Will not start until both the “jog” and “start” buttons
are pushed
d.Will not start unless the “stop” button is pushed
A “dead front” switch board is one ________.
a.Without switches on it
b.With insulated switches and no exposed terminals
c.Without circuit breaker
d.Without safely handrails nor rubber mats
When charging 100 amp hour lead – acid
battery ______.
a.The temperature of the electrolyte should not be

allowed to exceed 90oF
b.The charging rate should be no greater than 125% of
the battery amp-hour rating
c.The source of power charging should be 2.5 volts
per cells
d.Gassing within the battery decreases when nearing
full and it will be necessary to reduce charging
current to a law finishing rate.
When lead – acid batteries are charging, they always
give off hydrogen gas that is __________.
a.Considered inert
b.Highly explosive
c.Extremely toxic
d.Heavier than air
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead – acid
battery is measured _____.
a.Gould plate
b.Titration plate
c.Hydrometer
d.Litmus paper test
Which of the following activities occurs during the
charging process of a lead – acid storage battery?
a.The specific gravity of the acid increases

b.Both plates change chemically to lead sulfate
c.The specific gravity of the acid decreases
d.Hydrogen gas is absorbed
Which of the following devices are protected from being
motorized by a reverse-power relay?
a.Alternator
b.Wave guides
c.Exciters
d.Amplidynes
When a lead-acid battery begins gassing freely while
receiving a normal charge, the charging current
should ____________.
a.Be increased
b.Remain unchanged
c.Be decrease
d.Shut off
An ammeter reads slightly above “zero” when its leads
are disconnected, this a result of ____________.
a.Mechanical misalignment of the meter points

b.A poor ground for the meter case
c.Static electricity in the air
d.Resistor inside the meter storing charges
When an alternator is to remain idle for even a
few days ___________.
a.Lift the brushes and disconnect the pigtails

b.Insulate the collector rings with strips of cardboard
c.energize the heater circuit
d.Energize the exciter circuit
Proper storage battery maintenance includes
_________.
a.Keeping connections tight and casing surfaces clean

b.Making sure electrolyte level is below the separator
plates
c.Insulating the terminals with naval jelly
d.Maintaining a high charging rate at all ties
Part of the insulation of practically all electrical machinery
is in the form of organic compounds which contain some
amount of ________.
a.Asbestos
b.Water
c.Fiber
d.Plastic
Due to the operating characteristics of the system, time
lag fuses (or dual-element fuses) are necessary for use
in __________.
a.Main lighting circuits
b.Motor starting circuits
c.Emergency lighting circuits
d.General alarm circuits
Which of the following materials is a good electrical
insulator?
a.Wood
b.Silver
c.Copper
d.Gold
The plates of a NiCad storage battery are made of ____.
a.Potassium hydroxide with a small amount of sulfuric

acid
b.Lead and lead peroxide
c.Silver oxide and lead sulfate
d.Combinations of nickel powder and nickel and
cadmium salts
Routine maintenance of ship’s service alternator should
include _____________.
a.Changing the pedestal bearing insulation yearly

b.Megger testing of all rectifying diodes
c.Lubricating excitation slip rings
d.Periodic cleaning of the air filters or screens
Nickel –cadmium storage batteries are superior to lead-
acid batteries because they _________.
a.Put out higher voltages and require no maintenance

b.Can remain idle and keep a full charge for a long
time
c.Need fewer cells in series and use less mounting
space
Which of the listed ranges represents specific gravity
corrected for temperature for the electrolyte of a fully
charge portable lead-acid battery?
a.1.100 to 1.150
b.1.180 to 1.200
c.1.280 to 1.300
d.1.750 to 2.000
The state of charge of a lead-acid battery is best
indicated by the ________.
a.Individual cell voltage

b.Ampere-hour capacity
c.Electrolyte specific gravity
d.Total cell voltage
To test fuses in an energized circuit, you should used
a _______.
a.Low voltage light bulb

b.Megohmmeter
c.Voltmeter
d.Resistance meter
The main engine auxiliary blower shall be in this position
in order to change – over engine control from engine
control room ____________.
A. Manual
B. Auto
C. Remote
D. Service
When engine starting is under control, the starting air
feed is halted every time engine revolution
reaches _____________.
a.Dead slow ahead
b.Cut–off setting
c.Fuel is supplied
d.Engine running in fuel
Every time the auto acceleration and auto deceleration
device for main engine for main engine rpm are in
service in a vessel fitted with engine speed control
program, they are indicated in the control console by
________.
a.“Program in progress “ lamp is “on”
b.“Program in auto “ lamp is “on”
c.“Program running” lamp is “on”
d.“Program running in remote control “ lamp is “on”
The engine speed acceleration or speed deceleration
program at the bridge control console is cancelled
____________.
a.By pressing the program by-pass button
b.By moving Telegraph handle to a different position
c.By moving the telegraph handle to maneuvering
speed
d.By doing any of these choices
The rpm of the main engine can do no longer be raised
when it reached the below preset limit
a.RPM limit
b.Speed limit
c.Over speed
d.Governor limit
To avoid the main engine from being exposed to a
prolonged harmful vibrations during maneuvering, a
quick RPM passage device is fitted to keep the engine
RPM at ________.
a.Below or above the critical speed limit
b.Within the critical speed limit
c.Operator’s speed option
d.Maker’s speed option
The engine starting fuel setting of the governor is usually
set at _______.
a.Dead slow ahead

b.Slow ahead
c.Half ahead
Starting of main engine cannot be started due to
interlocking device such as _______.
a.Turning gear safety device

b.Fuel cut – off device
c.Emergency trip device
Starting of main engine cannot be made when this
a.Telegraph lever in “stop” position

b.Starting air pressure is at alarm point
c.Telegraph lever in ahead/astern position
The main engine speed can be gradually accelerated
from full maneuvering speed to full navigation speed by
using the __________.
a.Load program
b.Telegraph handle
c.Governor control
d.Fuel handle
The main engine speed can be gradually reduce from
navigation full speed to maneuvering speed by using
the ____________.
a.Load program
b.Telegraph handle
c.Governor control
d.Fuel handle
When the main engine fails to start, the telegraph lever
shall be placed at this position before a second starting
can be effected.
a.Stop
b.Run
c.Ahead
d.Astern
During normal engine speed (navigation full speed)
condition, the fuel can be cut-off instantaneously by
pressing the _______.
a.Emergency trip button
b.Main engine trip button
c.Manual trip button
The main engine fuel supply will be automatically cut-off
when this condition is reached.
a.Over speed
b.Main lube oil low. Low pressure
c.Camshaft lube oil low, low pressure
Main engine will automatically slow down when this
a.Main engine lube oil pressure low

b.Crankcase oil mist density high
c.Camshaft lube oil low
d.Exhaust gas temperature low
If the engine is running at the direction opposite of the
telegraph transmitter command, this alarm is activated.
a.Wrong Speed
b.Wrong direction
c.Wrong way
d.Wrong position
The alarms in the engine control system are in “repose”
when the telegraph is at this position.
a.Finish with engine

b.Standby engine
c.Bridge control
d.Engine control
The equipment that provides the monitoring and printing
of transmitter positions, date and time, whenever the
telegraph transmitter position is changed is
called _________.
a.Telegraph logger
b.Telegraph printer
c.Transmitter position logger
What color appears to warn the user that the paper
needs to be renewed when the amount of thermal paper
in the longer reaches near the end?
a.Blue
b.Red
c.Yellow
d.Brown
Which of the following main engine safety device is NOT
a start interlock device?
a.Fuel cut – off

b.M/E trip in operational
c.Turning gear disengage
d.Control air low
The bridge control simulation safety device test can only
be affected when the main engine is at this position.
a.Stop
b.Ahead
c.Astern
d.None of these
In a NAVCO type bridge control system, the speed
control of the main engine is not executable from the
bridge control console when the electric signal to this
device is not normal.
a.Electric governor
b.Electric telegraph
c.Electric control console
d.Electric actuator
At extremely low temperatures, a semiconductor is
basically an _______.
a.Conductor
b.Insulator
c.Electron
d.Element
An electron has a ____________.
a.Negative charge
b.Neutral charge
c.Positive charge
d.No charge
The resistance of a semiconductor material compared to
the resistance of ceramic or glass material is:
a.More
b.Less
c.Equal
The three most common semiconductor devices are:
a.Transistor, diodes, ic
b.Transistor, pcb, relays
c.Transistor, diodes, capacitors
d.Transistor, diodes, relay
The cargo pump turbine of generator over speed relay
initiates closing of the throttle valve when an excessive
centrifugal force or speed causes:
a.Spring loads weight to trip a valve hatch
b.Spring loaded fly balls actuate a control lever
c.Oiled pump develops pressure to open a spring
loaded relay valve
d.Lube oil control temperature actuates a solenoids
valve
The over speed tripping device installed on an auxiliary
turbine is automatically actuated by ________.
a.Applied spring force

b.Hydraulic pressure
c.High back pressure
d.Centrifugal force
The governor of turbo generator maintains constant
speed by oil flow pressure and directly changing the
position of governor.
a.Throttle valve
b.Lever
c.Steam chest
d.Back pressure
Constant speed governors are normally employed
with ________.
a.Generator engines
b.Turbines
c.Electric motors
d.Main engines
The steady frequency of an alternator attached to a
generator engine is maintained by:
a.Throttle control mechanism

b.Governor with variable speed control
c.Governor/nozzle control valve
d.Constant speed governor
When a ship service generator equipped with centrifugal
type hydraulic governor load increases, that action will
occur in the governor internal mechanism.
a.Weight will more inward
b.Lifting will have inward
c.Pilot valve pushing into the cylinder
d.Oil is pumped into the cylinder
If two generator will the same no load speed setting are
operated in a parallel, the unit that has lesser speed drop
will ______.
a.Get less load
b.Get larger share of a load
c.Have poor speed control
d.Have poor power response
The portion of the engine speed control has manual
positioning but with automatic indexing can be found
in a _______.
a.Rheostat
b.Governor
c.Hand wheel
d.Engine telegraph

turbine?

into the __________.
a.Steam chest
b.Nozzles
c.Blades
d.Shaft
In a diesel engine governor, a mechanical or hydraulic
action preventing the overcorrection of the fuel supply is
called _________.
a.Stability
b.Hunting
c.Compensation
d.Sensitivity

b.Governor
c.Safety valve
d.Control valve
__________.
a.Create hunting
c.Increase speed
d.Reduce speed
a ________.
a.Generator engine
b.Cargo pump
c.Electric motor
d.Wheelhouse
In any governor, there is a small range of speed in which
no corrective action occurs. This range is called the
governor dead band and is caused by ________.
a.Governor
b.Fuel injector
c.Camshaft
d.Crankshaft

maybe _________.

b.Faulty governor
A large, low speed main propulsion diesel engine is
operating at rated load and speed while the vessel is in a
calm sea. As the sea waves increases, the engine
governor maintains the same RPM but the load indicator
will show ________.
a.Increase in load
b.Decrease in load
propulsion diesel engine is steel set to run at normal
load, the operator shall immediately take this action.
a.Sensitivity
b.Stability
c.Promptness
d.Speed droop
speed?

A change in engine speed is required before a governor
is able to make corrective movement of fuel rack. This
aspect of governing is commonly expressed as a percent
and is known as __________.
c.Speed droop
A. Diode
B. Transformer
C. Transistor
D. Rheostat

of flame failure
A.contacts
B.secondary coil
C.core


voltage is _______?
transformation?
C.Auto-transformer

A.all go out
B.become dimmer
D.become brighter
should ______.
A.sand paper
B.crocus cloth
C.emery cloth
D.all of the above

B.Canvas wiper
C.Crocus cloth
D.Smooth file
C.use a hand stone

_______.


device?
A.Zero
D.Equal to AC input
Sound pressure is measured in decibels (d13). The
healthy human ear can hear frequencies ranging from
________.
A.20-20,000 Hz
B.100,000-200,000 Hz
C.200,000 Hz = 1 MHz
D.1 MHz-20 MHz


because ________.
corrosion

any repair
position

b.prevent overloads
Which of the spaces listed in defined as a location
requiring an exceptional degree of protection when
considering the installation of shipboard electrical
equipment?
a.machinery spaces
b.chart room
c.console room

on the feeder panel
d.all of the above
cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical
equipment while limiting damage to electric component.
component
rag
Which of the following electric motor would be the safest
and most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel in
foul weather condition.
a.seal motor
b.drip proof motor
c.enclosed motor
d.watertight motor
except_______.
thermal fatigue
element
equipment, all supply switches should be secure in the
open position and tagged specially by the ___________.
a.watch engineer
c.chief electrician
a.1.25v
b.1.5v
c.2.20v
d.6.05v
A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from
being parallel with the ship’s service generators
by ________.
The air gap provided in induction motors should be
checked periodically with a feeler gage to detect an
unequal air gap and _________.
b.hysteresis losses
charge?
battery
a.Vibration
c.Speed droop
d.Reactive power
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be
suitable for use on an oil fire (Class B), but dangerous on
an electrical fire?
a.Co2
b.Water fog / spray
c.Halon
d.Dry chemical
static forces?
a.Shampooing
b.Rubbing
c.Exercise
d.Vibration

Two 100 watt light bulbs are connected in parallel across
a 100 volt power supply. The total power developed in
the circuit is __________.
a.200 watts
b.100 watts
c.50 watts
a.Zinc chromate
b.Lead hydroxide
c.Naval jelly
d.Petroleum jelly
of explosion?
a.Side ways
b.Upwards/top
c.Downward
d.In all direction

Prior to starting an AC generator prime mover, the
voltage regulator cutout switch should be placed in
the ________.
a.manual position
d.transfer position

a.I only
b.II only
c.III only
d.I, II & III

a.equal
b.balance
c.neutral
d.unbalance
A circuit breaker for a 300 kw alternator is rated at 470
amperes of full continuous load. The amount of
overcurrent allowed is 125%. Which of the following
conditions will trip the breaker?

a.heated
b.electrified
c.fused together
d.no reaction
a.Circuit breaker
b.Power supply
c.Cover
d.Capacitor
receptacle outlets?

d.All of the above




d.All of the above

D.power
Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a
constant speed mechanical governor, will cause the
engine speed to initially ________.
A.increase
B.decrease
C.fluctuate
D.remain constant
Which of the listed sections of an emergency
switchboard is used to supply power for alarm signals
under emergency conditions?

a/an _______.
A.small wire brush
C.clean dry cloth

A.contacts
B.primary coil
C.secondary coil
D.core
a.60 seconds
b.6 seconds
c.7 seconds
d.0.016 second
is _________.

b.inductive circuit
c.magnetic circuit
d.resistive circuit
a.Excessive output
d.No illumination


the bus
The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC
generator, resulting from an increase in load and prior to
the automatic voltage regulator correcting the situation, is
called voltage _______________.
a.droop
b.drop
c.dip
d.regulation
In a hollow glass or clean plastic cylinder – type fuse
design the glass or clear plastic case allows a visual
check if the fuse is_________?
a.Blown
b.Clean
c.Dirty
d.Charge
A . Cut – off
B. “On”
C. Neutral

recorder
recorded
for 48 hours
capacitors, in addition to de- energizing the circuit , which
of the listed precautions should also taken?
If both “high level” and “ low level” alarms come on the
same address of a centralized control console , the most
likely problem is a/an_____?
a.Failed alarm
c.Sensor failure
another before the intended path has been completed
are called______.
a.grounds
b.shorts
c.break
d.open
In an unmanned main engine, an engine failure occurs.
An audible alarm is indicated or located in
the_____________.
I - at each station
II - C/E cabin

A.I, II & III
B.I only
C.II only
D.III only
travel from_____.

A. Cation
B. Anion
C. Anode
D. Cathode
A. Positive ion
B. lighter
C. Moves faster
D. Moves slower
A.Fitter
B.Chief Engineer
C.Master
D.Operator
ships service generators operating in parallel , you must
secure that generator. In order to prevent a possible
overload, to the remaining generator, which of the
following sequential courses of action should be
taken _________.
Non-adjustable molded case circuit breakers and
classified by frame size, ampere rating and interruption
capacity. The frame size is expressed in______.
B. Circular mills
C. Amperes
D. Volts

hardened mica
to_______.


cause for overload
Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT
by turning or grinding a commutator with a rigidly
supported tool?
A.Sparking brushes
B.Eccentricity
C.High mica
The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from
the standpoint of power loss, even when placed in series
with the load, is the use of a/an __________.
A.Resistor
B.Inductor
C.Capacitor
D.Transistor
A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor response
to reduced engine load with an immediate
increase ________.
in ______.


a.60 degrees
b.120 degrees
c.180 degrees
d.360 degrees
the
rotor ____________.

______________.

during shutdown
One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator
is the _____________.

d.Output current
____________.

d.Output voltage
_______.

__________.

AC generator
______________.

generator

to original speed
to original speed
As load is added to an AC generator, the prime mover
speeds will ______________.
a.Increase
b.Decrease
c.Remain the same
a.Governor
b.Nozzle valve
c.Stop engine
d.Field rheostat
to ______________.

c.Stop the engine
to its ___________.
a.Frequency
b.Current output
c.Voltage output
d.Kilowatt load
rated at 600 KW. During parallel operation and a total
ship power load of 1,000 KW, the KW load on generator
#2 will be __________________.
a. 100 KW
b. 200 KW
c. 400 KW
d. 600 KW
Solution:

exciter armature
stator
____________.

If an AC generator experience voltage failure, the cause
may be ______________.

by ___________.

of ____________.

Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in
parallel. One with zero speed droop setting and the other with
5% speed droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit that
has zero setting will ____________.

You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the
synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise
direction. It means that the incoming AC generator
frequency is _______________.

The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generator
engines operating in parallel are mostly dependent on
their governor ____________.

the ____________.
______________.
a.Balance flywheel
b.Governor settings
d.Field excitation

a.Voltage regulator
b.Power relay
c.Governor switch


a.A breaker trip

b.KW increase
_______________.
a.Power factor
b.Voltage load
c.Current load
d.Kilowatt load
Two parallel alternators are operating near rated load. If
one trips out mechanically, the operator should
immediately ________.

synchroscope pointer is revolving in the counterclockwise
direction. This indicates that the incoming generator
frequency is __________.
a.Higher than bus

b.Lower than bus
c.Same as bus
d.Out of order
alternator?
When paralleling two alternators, the synchroscope
pointer approaches 0 degree position. This indicates that
the alternator frequencies are ______________.

is _______________.

The number of complete cycles of AC or voltage
completed each second is called
the _____________.

a.Frequency
b.Period
c.Wave length
d.Hour


starting, stopping or changing of current flow is called
a/an ___________.
a.Inductance
b.Capacitance
d.Magnetic field
This is developed whenever there is relative motion or
action between a magnetic field and a conductor. It is
called __________.
c.Current
d.Voltage

plates
a.Farads
b.Capacitor
c.Henry
d.Electrons
The following is a device that transfers electrical energy
from one circuit to another by electromagnetic induction.
It is a ___________.
a.Transformer
b.Battery
c.Generator
d.Rectifier
a.Primary winding
b.Magnetic flux
c.Secondary winding
d.Rectifier
a.Primary winding
b.Secondary winding
c.Core
d.Enclosure
The total voltage induce into the secondary windings of a
transformer is determined mainly by the ratio of the
number of turns in the primary to the number of turns in
the secondary and by the_________.
Depending on their atomic structure, different materials
have different quantities of free electrons. Therefore, the
various conductors used in electrical applications have
different values of__________.
a.Resistance
b.Sizes
c.Weight
d.Length
a.Ohm
b.Farad
c.Volts
d.Watt
in ______________.
a.Watt
b.Ohm
c.Ohm
d.Ampere
electrical energy?
a.Capacitor
b.Transistor
c.Resistor
d.Diode
Assume that a 208 volt is applied to the autotransformer
and there is a 10.4 resistive load connected to the
secondary winding of the transformer. The output voltage
of the secondary winding is 104 volts. The load current
should be ____________.
a.10 amperes
b.1.0 amperes
c.2.0 amperes
d.20 amperes
is___________________.

a.Frequency meter
b.Ammeter
c.Voltmeter
____________.
a.3 cells
b.4 cells
c.6 cells
d.12 cells
the _______________.
are ______.

in ______.



turbine?

into the __________.
a.Steam chest
b.Nozzles
c.Blades
d.Shaft
a.Feather spring
b.Conductors
c.Brush holder
the _______________.
that_________________.
•

induced
magnetic field
the_______________.

d.Output voltage
a.Prime mover speed

b.Equalizer bus


________________.
a.Volts and amperes

b.Ohms and amperes
a.2 poles
b.3 poles
c.4 poles
d.1 pole

a.6
b.4
c.2
d.8
1.225, the battery is _________.
a.Dead
b.Fully charged
c.Shorted
d.Partially charged
in ______________.
a.Volts
b.Ohms
c.Amperes
d.Coulombs
law?

a.Impedance
b.Current
c.Voltage
d.Resistance
for________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
for___________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
a.Kilowatts
b.Watts
c.Ohms
d.Watts - hours
a.Volt
b.Amperes
c.Watts
d.Ohm

a.Dust – free
b.Dry
d.Wet
a.Voltmeter
b.Megger
c.Ammeter
d.Ampere meter
a.Wet floor
b.Humid floor
c.Dry floor
• Note;
to___________.

b.Keep room cool
c.Supply fresh air
d.Protect equipment
b.Sulfuric acid
c.Hydrochloric acid
d.Muriatic acid

d.Increase suddenly

have_______________.
c.Protection covers
with______________.
a.Synthetic resin
b.Plastic film
c.Rubber paint
d.None of the above
to ___________.

d.Prevent blackout

d.Blackout
of a/an________________.
a.Over speed trip

d.Over current trip
isolate________________.

a.Frequency meter
b.Ohmmeter
be _______________.
called________________.
b.Main switchboard
d.Starter panel
called________________.
c.Ship’s property


a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
every _________.
a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
a.Engine log book

b.Bell book

necessary
below is NOT TRUE?

necessary
with__________.
a.Alcohol
b.Distilled water

as__________.
a.Gas free
b.Well - ventilated
c.Ready for use
d.Ready for entry
_______________.

b.– 12 or better
c.– 8oC or better
d.– 4oC or better
near to as:
a.– 2oC
b.0oC
c.+2oC
d.+5oC
approved_________.
c.Cables wires
to ___________.
a.Welding apron
b.Safety shoes
c.Safety helmet
a.Sun rays
b.Sparks
c.Heat
d.Strong wind
b.Alarm system

a.Officer on watch
b.Engineer on watch
c.Chief engineer
d.Master
a.Chief engineer
c.Engineer on duty
d.Master
a.Two radars
b.Evaporating plant
c.Sewage plant
required__________.
a.Hospitalization
b.First aid action

occur.

occur.

occur.
current?
occur.

energized circuit
is ______________.
a.By friction
b.By lighting
c.By applying heat


failure
combustion

flame failure
Which of the following represents a limitation to be aware
of when the boiler auto combustion control is operated in
“hand mode”?

engine
a.Runs out of fuel

a.Expiry force
b.Solenoid
d.Centrifugal force
_________.

________.

d.Electric governor
When a fluorescent lamp has reached the end of its
useful life, it should be replaced immediately on the
resulting flashing may_________.
Alternating current circuits developed resistance,
capacitance and voltage; the capacitance of capacitor is
expressed in ______.
a.Ohm
b.Henry
c.Mho
d.Farad
___________.
c.Direct current
Electric motors intended for use outside the engine room
and boiler are frequently rated at a designated ambient
temp. of 40C. What is the equivalent in Fahrenheit?
a. 52 F
b. 104 F
c. 72 F
d. 129.6 F
the __________.

rated load


temperature
operating motor
a / an ________.
a.Short circuit
b.Open circuit
c.Bonded circuit
d.Grounded circuit
when ____________.
a.A fuse blown

b.It is not in use
a.Circuit breaker
b.Amplifier
c.Diode
d.Capacitor
to _______________.

c.Operating voltage
a.Millimeter
b.Number gage
c.Centimeter
d.Circular mills

bulkheads
must be __________.


size wire
determining the size of the cable to be used in a
particular circuit?
a.Voltage rating
c.Current rating
from _________.
The electrical energy necessary to transmit a person’s
voice air an emergency sound powered telephone circuit
is obtained from:
d.Speaker’s voice

line shafting

device installed
zinc chromate
anode is _________.

In a diesel engine governor, a mechanical or hydraulic
action preventing the overcorrection of the fuel supply is
called _________.
a.Stability
b.Hunting
c.Compensation
d.Sensitivity

b.Governor
c.Safety valve
d.Control valve
__________.
a.Create hunting
c.Increase speed
d.Reduce speed
a ________.
a.Generator engine
b.Cargo pump
c.Electric motor
d.Wheelhouse
In any governor, there is a small range of speed in which
no corrective action occurs. This range is called the
governor dead band and is caused by ________.
a.Governor
b.Fuel injector
c.Camshaft
d.Crankshaft

maybe _________.

b.Faulty governor
A large, low speed main propulsion diesel engine is
operating at rated load and speed while the vessel is in a
calm sea. As the sea waves increases, the engine
governor maintains the same RPM but the load indicator
will show ________.
a.Increase in load
b.Decrease in load
propulsion diesel engine is steel set to run at normal
load, the operator shall immediately take this action.
a.Sensitivity
b.Stability
c.Promptness
d.Speed droop
speed?

A change in engine speed is required before a governor
is able to make corrective movement of fuel rack. This
aspect of governing is commonly expressed as a percent
and is known as __________.
c.Speed droop
A. Diode
B. Transformer
C. Transistor
D. Rheostat

of flame failure
A.contacts
B.secondary coil
C.core


voltage is _______?
transformation?
C.Auto-transformer

A.all go out
B.become dimmer
D.become brighter
should ______.
A.sand paper
B.crocus cloth
C.emery cloth
D.all of the above

B.Canvas wiper
C.Crocus cloth
D.Smooth file
C.use a hand stone

_______.


device?
A.Zero
D.Equal to AC input
Sound pressure is measured in decibels (d13). The
healthy human ear can hear frequencies ranging from
________.
A.20-20,000 Hz
B.100,000-200,000 Hz
C.200,000 Hz = 1 MHz
D.1 MHz-20 MHz


because ________.
corrosion

any repair
position

b.prevent overloads
Which of the spaces listed in defined as a location
requiring an exceptional degree of protection when
considering the installation of shipboard electrical
equipment?
a.machinery spaces
b.chart room
c.console room

on the feeder panel
d.all of the above
cleaning dust and foreign particles from electrical
equipment while limiting damage to electric component.
component
rag
Which of the following electric motor would be the safest
and most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel in
foul weather condition.
a.seal motor
b.drip proof motor
c.enclosed motor
d.watertight motor
except_______.
thermal fatigue
element
equipment, all supply switches should be secure in the
open position and tagged specially by the ___________.
a.watch engineer
c.chief electrician
a.1.25v
b.1.5v
c.2.20v
d.6.05v
A diesel driven emergency generator is prevented from
being parallel with the ship’s service generators
by ________.
The air gap provided in induction motors should be
checked periodically with a feeler gage to detect an
unequal air gap and _________.
b.hysteresis losses
charge?
battery
a.Vibration
c.Speed droop
d.Reactive power
Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be
suitable for use on an oil fire (Class B), but dangerous on
an electrical fire?
a.Co2
b.Water fog / spray
c.Halon
d.Dry chemical
static forces?
a.Shampooing
b.Rubbing
c.Exercise
d.Vibration

Two 100 watt light bulbs are connected in parallel across
a 100 volt power supply. The total power developed in
the circuit is __________.
a.200 watts
b.100 watts
c.50 watts
a.Zinc chromate
b.Lead hydroxide
c.Naval jelly
d.Petroleum jelly
of explosion?
a.Side ways
b.Upwards/top
c.Downward
d.In all direction

Prior to starting an AC generator prime mover, the
voltage regulator cutout switch should be placed in
the ________.
a.manual position
d.transfer position

a.I only
b.II only
c.III only
d.I, II & III

a.equal
b.balance
c.neutral
d.unbalance
A circuit breaker for a 300 kw alternator is rated at 470
amperes of full continuous load. The amount of
overcurrent allowed is 125%. Which of the following
conditions will trip the breaker?

a.heated
b.electrified
c.fused together
d.no reaction
a.Circuit breaker
b.Power supply
c.Cover
d.Capacitor
receptacle outlets?

d.All of the above




d.All of the above

D.power
Increasing the load on an engine equipped with a
constant speed mechanical governor, will cause the
engine speed to initially ________.
A.increase
B.decrease
C.fluctuate
D.remain constant
Which of the listed sections of an emergency
switchboard is used to supply power for alarm signals
under emergency conditions?

a/an _______.
A.small wire brush
C.clean dry cloth

A.contacts
B.primary coil
C.secondary coil
D.core
a.60 seconds
b.6 seconds
c.7 seconds
d.0.016 second
is _________.

b.inductive circuit
c.magnetic circuit
d.resistive circuit
a.Excessive output
d.No illumination


the bus
The instantaneous reduction in voltage of an AC
generator, resulting from an increase in load and prior to
the automatic voltage regulator correcting the situation, is
called voltage _______________.
a.droop
b.drop
c.dip
d.regulation
In a hollow glass or clean plastic cylinder – type fuse
design the glass or clear plastic case allows a visual
check if the fuse is_________?
a.Blown
b.Clean
c.Dirty
d.Charge
A . Cut – off
B. “On”
C. Neutral

recorder
recorded
for 48 hours
capacitors, in addition to de- energizing the circuit , which
of the listed precautions should also taken?
If both “high level” and “ low level” alarms come on the
same address of a centralized control console , the most
likely problem is a/an_____?
a.Failed alarm
c.Sensor failure
another before the intended path has been completed
are called______.
a.grounds
b.shorts
c.break
d.open
In an unmanned main engine, an engine failure occurs.
An audible alarm is indicated or located in
the_____________.
I - at each station
II - C/E cabin

A.I, II & III
B.I only
C.II only
D.III only
travel from_____.

A. Cation
B. Anion
C. Anode
D. Cathode
A. Positive ion
B. lighter
C. Moves faster
D. Moves slower
A.Fitter
B.Chief Engineer
C.Master
D.Operator
ships service generators operating in parallel , you must
secure that generator. In order to prevent a possible
overload, to the remaining generator, which of the
following sequential courses of action should be
taken _________.
Non-adjustable molded case circuit breakers and
classified by frame size, ampere rating and interruption
capacity. The frame size is expressed in______.
B. Circular mills
C. Amperes
D. Volts

hardened mica
to_______.


cause for overload
Which of the listed faults cannot be eliminated, EXCEPT
by turning or grinding a commutator with a rigidly
supported tool?
A.Sparking brushes
B.Eccentricity
C.High mica
The most inefficient method of voltage reduction, from
the standpoint of power loss, even when placed in series
with the load, is the use of a/an __________.
A.Resistor
B.Inductor
C.Capacitor
D.Transistor
A spring-loaded centrifugal flyweight governor response
to reduced engine load with an immediate
increase ________.
a.60 degrees
b.120 degrees
c.180 degrees
d.360 degrees
the
rotor ____________.

______________.

during shutdown
One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator
is the _____________.

d.Output current
____________.

d.Output voltage
_______.

__________.

AC generator
______________.

generator

to original speed
to original speed
As load is added to an AC generator, the prime mover
speeds will ______________.
a.Increase
b.Decrease
c.Remain the same
a.Governor
b.Nozzle valve
c.Stop engine
d.Field rheostat
to ______________.

c.Stop the engine
to its ___________.
a.Frequency
b.Current output
c.Voltage output
d.Kilowatt load
rated at 600 KW. During parallel operation and a total
ship power load of 1,000 KW, the KW load on generator
#2 will be __________________.
a. 100 KW
b. 200 KW
c. 400 KW
d. 600 KW
Solution:

exciter armature
stator
____________.

If an AC generator experience voltage failure, the cause
may be ______________.

by ___________.

of ____________.

Two AC generators of the same capacity are operating in
parallel. One with zero speed droop setting and the other with
5% speed droop. If its capacity is not exceeded, the unit that
has zero setting will ____________.

You are attempting to parallel two AC generators, and the
synchroscope pointer is revolving fast in the clockwise
direction. It means that the incoming AC generator
frequency is _______________.

The load sharing characteristics of two diesel generator
engines operating in parallel are mostly dependent on
their governor ____________.

the ____________.
______________.
a.Balance flywheel
b.Governor settings
d.Field excitation

a.Voltage regulator
b.Power relay
c.Governor switch


a.A breaker trip

b.KW increase
_______________.
a.Power factor
b.Voltage load
c.Current load
d.Kilowatt load
Two parallel alternators are operating near rated load. If
one trips out mechanically, the operator should
immediately ________.

synchroscope pointer is revolving in the counterclockwise
direction. This indicates that the incoming generator
frequency is __________.
a.Higher than bus

b.Lower than bus
c.Same as bus
d.Out of order
alternator?
When paralleling two alternators, the synchroscope
pointer approaches 0 degree position. This indicates that
the alternator frequencies are ______________.

is _______________.

The number of complete cycles of AC or voltage
completed each second is called
the _____________.

a.Frequency
b.Period
c.Wave length
d.Hour


starting, stopping or changing of current flow is called
a/an ___________.
a.Inductance
b.Capacitance
d.Magnetic field
This is developed whenever there is relative motion or
action between a magnetic field and a conductor. It is
called __________.
c.Current
d.Voltage

plates
a.Farads
b.Capacitor
c.Henry
d.Electrons
The following is a device that transfers electrical energy
from one circuit to another by electromagnetic induction.
It is a ___________.
a.Transformer
b.Battery
c.Generator
d.Rectifier
a.Primary winding
b.Magnetic flux
c.Secondary winding
d.Rectifier
a.Primary winding
b.Secondary winding
c.Core
d.Enclosure
The total voltage induce into the secondary windings of a
transformer is determined mainly by the ratio of the
number of turns in the primary to the number of turns in
the secondary and by the_________.
Depending on their atomic structure, different materials
have different quantities of free electrons. Therefore, the
various conductors used in electrical applications have
different values of__________.
a.Resistance
b.Sizes
c.Weight
d.Length
a.Ohm
b.Farad
c.Volts
d.Watt
in ______________.
a.Watt
b.Ohm
c.Ohm
d.Ampere
electrical energy?
a.Capacitor
b.Transistor
c.Resistor
d.Diode
Assume that a 208 volt is applied to the autotransformer
and there is a 10.4 resistive load connected to the
secondary winding of the transformer. The output voltage
of the secondary winding is 104 volts. The load current
should be ____________.
a.10 amperes
b.1.0 amperes
c.2.0 amperes
d.20 amperes
is___________________.

a.Frequency meter
b.Ammeter
c.Voltmeter
____________.
a.3 cells
b.4 cells
c.6 cells
d.12 cells
that_________________.
•

induced
magnetic field
the_______________.

d.Output voltage
a.Prime mover speed

b.Equalizer bus


________________.
a.Volts and amperes

b.Ohms and amperes
a.2 poles
b.3 poles
c.4 poles
d.1 pole

a.6
b.4
c.2
d.8
1.225, the battery is _________.
a.Dead
b.Fully charged
c.Shorted
d.Partially charged
in ______________.
a.Volts
b.Ohms
c.Amperes
d.Coulombs
law?

a.Impedance
b.Current
c.Voltage
d.Resistance
for________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
for___________________.
a.Amperage
b.Voltage
c.Resistance
d.Watts
a.Kilowatts
b.Watts
c.Ohms
d.Watts - hours
a.Volt
b.Amperes
c.Watts
d.Ohm

a.Dust – free
b.Dry
d.Wet
a.Voltmeter
b.Megger
c.Ammeter
d.Ampere meter
a.Wet floor
b.Humid floor
c.Dry floor
• Note;
to___________.

b.Keep room cool
c.Supply fresh air
d.Protect equipment
b.Sulfuric acid
c.Hydrochloric acid
d.Muriatic acid

d.Increase suddenly

have_______________.
c.Protection covers
with______________.
a.Synthetic resin
b.Plastic film
c.Rubber paint
d.None of the above
to ___________.

d.Prevent blackout

d.Blackout
of a/an________________.
a.Over speed trip

d.Over current trip
isolate________________.

a.Frequency meter
b.Ohmmeter
be _______________.
called________________.
b.Main switchboard
d.Starter panel
called________________.
c.Ship’s property


a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
every _________.
a.Week
b.Month
c.Semi-annually
d.Two weeks
a.Engine log book

b.Bell book

necessary
below is NOT TRUE?

necessary
with__________.
a.Alcohol
b.Distilled water

as__________.
a.Gas free
b.Well - ventilated
c.Ready for use
d.Ready for entry
_______________.

b.– 12 or better
c.– 8oC or better
d.– 4oC or better
near to as:
a.– 2oC
b.0oC
c.+2oC
d.+5oC
approved_________.
c.Cables wires
to ___________.
a.Welding apron
b.Safety shoes
c.Safety helmet
a.Sun rays
b.Sparks
c.Heat
d.Strong wind
b.Alarm system

a.Officer on watch
b.Engineer on watch
c.Chief engineer
d.Master
a.Chief engineer
c.Engineer on duty
d.Master
a.Two radars
b.Evaporating plant
c.Sewage plant
required__________.
a.Hospitalization
b.First aid action

occur.

occur.

occur.
current?
occur.

energized circuit
is ______________.
a.By friction
b.By lighting
c.By applying heat


failure
combustion
To start a cut more easily by a hacksaw blade is
to ________.
A.Turn the saw blade at right angles to the saw frame

B.File a nick where the cut is to be started
C.Form a tapered hole in the bottom of the work piece
D.Angle of taper formed by the centerline of the screw
and crest of the thread
To use a hacksaw for cutting is more effective when
pressure is applied on the _________.
A.Backward stroke
B.Sideward stroke
C.Forward stroke
D.All of the above
If using a chisel or similar tool, you should _______.
A.Be certain it is non-sparkling type

B.Wear safety glasses
C.Allow movement in other direction
D.Control the diameter of thread cut
The temper is likely to be drawn out on the chisel edge
when you _________.
A.Grind the cutting angle too small

B.Grind it for long period of time with much pressure
C.Control the diameter of thread cut
D.Be certain it is non-sparkling type
The thing to do with chisel that has a mushroomed head
is to ________.
A.Remove the ragged edges by grinding

B.Do not strike the mushroomed head portion
C.Grind the cutting angle too small
D.Control the diameter of thread cut
To clean a metal file that has become clogged with fillings
is said to be PINNED by using a _______.
A.Pick
B.Oil stone
C.Dressing tool
D.Chisel
A file that will produce a fine finish when draw filling is the
______.
A.Mill cut file

B.Second cut file
C.Double cut file
D.All of the above
The outcome when the high PPM alarm is actuated in an
automatic oily bilge water separator is that
the _________.
A.Fuel oil purifier will stop
B.Bilge pump suction is shut
C.Overboard discharge is shut
D.All of the above
What is the purpose of the expansion tank in a closed
type jacket cooling water system of a diesel engine?
A.To accommodate for an increase in water volume

B.To increase the pressure of the jacket cooling
C.To prevent seawater leakage to stuffing box
D.To cool the shaft
The type of electric light fittings is used in pipe tunnels
is _______.
A.Shock proof
B.Flame proof
C.Water proof
D.All of the above
The cause if there is a charge air pressure drop in a
generator engine is ____.
A.Turbocharger air filter fouled

B.Fouled nozzle ring of the turbocharger
C.Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer can
hear
D.Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the
control room
In coolers zinc anode protects ________.
A.Iron
B.Bronze
C.Platinum
D.Copper
In a seven day period, the minimum standard rest of an
officer in charge of the engineering watch must
be _______.
A.50 hours
B.60 hours
C.70 hours
D.80 hours
The minimum standard rest of rating forming part of an
engineering watch with in a 24 hour period should
be _________.
A.10 hours
B.8 hours
C.6 hours
D.12 hours
In relieving time, the outgoing in charge of the
engineering watch should ____.
A.Check that there reliever is capable to carry out

watch keeping duties
B.Stop the main engine before relieving time
C.Hand over the main engine telegraph
D.None of the above
If there is sufficient basis that the relieving officer is NOT
capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in charge
of the engineering watch should ______.
A.Notify the chief engineer officer
B.Stop the main engine immediately
C.Hand over the main engine telegraph
D.Fouled nozzle ring of the turbocharger
Every member of the engineering watch should have
adequate knowledge of the _________.
• I – Use of appropriate internal communication

• II – Escape routes from machinery spaces
• III – Location of fire fighting equipment
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
Before to taking over the engineering watch while the
ship is underway, relieving officers of the engineering
watch should satisfy themselves regarding _______.
I – Special requirements to sanitary system disposal
II – Availability of fire fighting appliances
III – State of completion of engine room log
IV – Standing orders of the chief engineer officer

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
Relieving engineer watch officers when underway should
be familiar with the _________.
• I – Condition of main and auxiliary system
• II – Level of fuel in the service tank
• III – Potential adverse condition resulting from bad weather
• IV – Nature of work being performed on the machinery

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
In maneuvering situation and at bridge control mode,
what precaution should be observed?
A.Chief Engineer Officer and the Officer-In-Charge of

the Engineer Watch should be in the machinery
spaces
B.Chief Engineer Officer and Second Engineer Officer
must be at the bridge
C.Second Engineer Officer and the Third Engineer
Officer shall be doing maintenance
D.None of the above
The master or person-in-charge of a vessel is required to
submit a casualty report of an international grounding
under what condition?
A.At the owner’s discretion
B.If it creates a hazard to navigation
C.If the grounding lasts over 48 hours
D.None of the above
The FIRST medical response is to check to electrical
burn victims that have subjected to electric shock
is _______.
A.Indication of broken bones
B.Breathing and heartbeat
The emergency care for an electrical burn victim is to
_______.
A.Flood the burn with water for two minutes

B.Brush away the charred skin and wrap the burned
area
C.Cover the burned area with a clean cloth and
transport the patient to medical facility
D.All of the above
The class of fire that probably occur on the boiler room
bilges is a ____.
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class C
D.Class D
In a typical automatic fire alarm system, which of the
listed action/s will cause an indication of a fire to be given
in the enunciator cabinet?
• I – A rise in temperature will activate the thermostat
• II – The fire alarm test push – button is operated
• III – A manual fire alarm box is activated

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
Usually fire hose should be stowed with the ________.
A.Female end connected to the fire hydrant

B.Male end attached to the fire hydrant
C.Both male and female end connected to the fire
hydrant
D.None of the above
To avoid the spread of fire by convection is to ______.
A.Close all openings to the area

B.Shut off all electrical power
C.Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the
control room
D.Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode
To do in the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck
occurring while fueling, is to ____.
A.Cover the area with saw dust

B.Cover the area with foam
C.Close all opening to the area
D.All of the above
The appropriate precautions that should be taken when
an engineer on duty enters a UMS – mode operated
engine room due to an ALARM is to ________.
A.Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the
control room
B.Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode
C.Cover the area with saw dust
D.Cover all the opening to the area
What component in the control room is the entire housing
of the computers, controls, and visual signals are
located?
A.Console
B.Deck
C.Controller
D.Engine
What deck to be the pressure of emergency fire pump
tested?
A.Highest deck
B.Lowest deck
C.Main deck
D.All of the above
When there is a fire inside the engine room, the fuel oil
service pump be switched off at _________.
A.Accessible place outside the engine room

B.The CO2 room
C.The emergency generator room
D.Main deck
The reason why the bowl of a fuel oil purifier fails to open
for sludge discharge is ____.
A.Clogged strainer of operating water high pressure

side
B.The operating water tank is full of water
C.There is a mixture of seawater in the operating
water line
D.Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
The boiling point of Freon-22 at atmospheric pressure
is _______.
A.– 41oF
B.– 31oF
C.– 21oF
D.– 51oF
The part in refrigeration that is used to continuously
circulate the refrigerant to the system is the ______.
A.Compressor
B.Condenser
C.Receiver
D.Evaporator
The thermo bulb of solenoid valve in provision
refrigeration is connected _______.
A.Before the evaporator coil

B.Inside the cooling chambers
C.Outside the meat room
D.All of the above
The device used to keep moisture from passing through
the refrigeration system is called _______.
A.Dehumidifier
B.Aerator
C.Dehydrator
D.All of the above
The sensor bulb of the expansion valve is situated in
Freon system at _____.
A.Middle of the evaporator coils

B.Lowest side of the evaporator coil
C.Near the outlet of the evaporator coil
D.Inside the cooling chamber
Gasket material/s used in Freon system is/are:
• I – Asbestos II – Rubber III – Metallic

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I and III
If there is a leak in Freon system, the flame color of the
halide torch will turn to ____.
A.Red
B.Violet
C.Green
D.White
The filter drier in a Freon system is filled with ________.
A.Activated alumina
B.Sodium nitrate
C.Sodium compound
D.All of the above
Passages are drilled at the diesel engine crankshaft to
provide lubricating oil into the _____.
A.Jacket water inlet

B.Pumps
C.Piston rod bearings
D.Valve
The factor that tends to increase scale formation at the
salt water side of the heat exchanger is by ______.
A.Operating the engine with a high seawater outlet

temperature
B.Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
C.Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS model
D.All of the above
Perfect vacuum is represented by ______.
A.30 in. Hg
B.25 in. Hg
C.15 in. Hg
D.10 in. Hg
Purpose of the injection pump delivery check valve is
to _________.
A.Prevent carbon deposits from forming at the

injection nozzle
B.Help the injector needle reseat without dribbling at
the nozzle holes
C.Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
D.Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS model
A port and helix injection pump having upper and lower
plunger helixes is designed to ______.
A.Vary fuel delivery and return pressure

B.Vary the beginning and ending of injection
C.Baffle plates that have been bent prior to removal
D.All of the above
A unit type fuel injector is used on a diesel engine
to ________.
• I – Meter the fuel

• II – Produce fuel pressure
• III – Atomize the fuel
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
Fuel leakage in high pressure fuel pipe between the
injections pumps and fuel nozzle needs immediate repair
because of the _____.
A.High cost of fuel
B.Clogging of the orifices
C.Serious fire hazard
D.Distortion of the spray pattern
The broken nozzle pintle in a fuel injector usually
causes ________.
A.Clogging of the orifices

B.High cost of fuel
C.Distortion of the spray pattern
D.Serious fire hazard
Distorted spray pattern from a fuel injector can cause a
diesel engine to have ___.
A.Lower fuel pressure

B.Clogging of the orifices
C.Less power output
D.High cost of fuel
The cause if there is a change in quality of fuel
atomization by a diesel engine fuel injector is ______.
A.Leaking needle valve

B.Lower fuel pressure
C.Reducing cylinder turbulence
D.Less power output
A multi-orifice fuel injection nozzle is usually used with
what type of combustion?
A.Open combustion chamber

B.Pre combustion chamber
C.Turbo charger
D.Engine
DEFECTIVE nozzle in a propulsion diesel engine can
cause _________.
• I – Engine power loss

• II – Smoke due to unburned fuel
• III – High exhaust temperature reading

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
An overhauling a jerk-type pump, you musty replace the
pump plunger. The other must also be replaced
is _________.
A.Delivery check valve
B.O – ring
C.Pump barrel
D.All of the above
If the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is LOWER
THAN that specified by the engine manufacturer, the
_______.
A.Quantity of fuel injected decrease
B.Quantity of fuel injected increased
D.None of the above
Fuel oil to the diesel engine cylinder is atomized at
the _________.
A.Turbocharger
B.Carburetor
C.Injector nozzle tip
D.None of the above
In the disassembly or assembly of an injection pump
plunger and barrel, you should ___.
• I – Keep the parts immersed in diesel fuel
• II – Always keep the plunger and barrel together to avoid
interchanging
• III – Work over linoleum – type surface, as a steel bench could
cause a bur
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
If the opening pressure of a diesel fuel injector is
GREATER THAN specified by the engine manufacturer,
the expected effect is ______.
A.Quantity fuel injected tends to decrease
B.Duration of injection will always be longer
C.Quantity of fuel injected increased
D.Lower fuel pressure
Carbon deposits building up in and around the injection
nozzle tip are LEAST to occur when using what type of
nozzle?
A.Multihole
B.Multipoint
C.Pintle
D.None of the above
What causes FAULTY operation of diesel engine fuel
injection nozzles?
A.Water in the fuel oil supply

B.Leakage past the plunger into the oil drain
The cause of DEFECTIVE fuel injection nozzles of diesel
engine is _____.
A.Sediment of the fuel supply

B.Distortion of the fuel spray pattern
C.Quantity fuel injected tends to decrease
The outcome if there is DIRT lodged on the nozzle valve
seat of a fuel injection nozzle is __________.
A.Fuel leakage into the nozzle drain line

B.Fuel leakage before and after injection
C.Sediment of the fuel supply
The majority of fuel injection nozzles are opened
by ______.
A.Fuel oil pressure

B.Lubricator
C.A cam operated follower
D.Separator
Alternation of the pump control rack in a fuel injection
system having individual plunger-type
pumps _________.
A.Changes the position of the fuel inlet ports
B.Changes the length of the pump stroke
C.Quantity fuel injected tends to decrease
The machinery that is used to segregate impurities,
remaining water, sludge and traces of acid from fuel is
the ______.
A.Lubricator
B.Boiler
C.Separator
D.Heater
A machine that is used to convert heat energy into
mechanical work is a/an ____.
A.Engine
B.Heater
C.Boiler
D.Lubricator
In a 4-stroke cycle engine, in what stroke when the
product of combustion is discharged?
A.Power
B.Compression
C.Exhaust
D.Pump
In diesel engines, which of the following is an equivalent
of one horsepower?
A.0.5457 kw
B.0.6457 kw
C.0.7457 kw
D.0.8457 kw
In a 4-stroke cycle diesel engine, the intake and exhaust
valves are actuated by ____.
• I – Cams II – Push rods III – Rocker arms
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
The type of engine when high-grade fuel mixed with air
by a carburetor ad ignites it by an electric spark is a
_______.
A.Diesel engine
B.Gasoline engine
C.Steam engine
D.All of the above
The horsepower and speed capability utilized by the
engine without interruption is the ________.
A.Maximum rating
B.Continuous rating
C.Intermittent rating
D.All of the above
In a diesel engine, the fuel consumption is expressed
in _______.
A.Grams per horsepower per hour

B.Liters per horsepower per hour
C.Tons per day
D.None of the above
The function/s of the fuel injection system of a diesel
engine is/are to ______.
• I – Measure the correct quantity of the fuel

• II – Time the injection of the fuel
• III – Atomize of the fuel
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
A sensitive device that automatically controls the speed
of an engine which is the function of the ________.
A.Synchroscope
B.Governor
C.Injector nozzle
D.Pumps
The part that is common to both diesel and gasoline
engines are _______.
A.Pistons
B.Carburetors
C.Injectors
D.Valves
The oil scraper ring of a 4 stroke engine piston is
installed at the _____.
A.Top ring
B.2nd ring
C.Lowest ring
D.None
The refrigerating effect that is equal to the melting of 1
ton of ice in 24 hours is _______.
A.288,000 BTU
B.188,000 BTU
C.388,000 BTU
D.488,000 BTU
A ton of refrigerating is equivalent to________.
A.100 BTU/min
B.200 BTU/min
C.300 BTU/min
D.400BTU/min
What is the temperature when the water changes from
liquid to gas in marine boiler?
A.Freezing temperature
B.Boiling temperature
C.Atmospheric temperature
D.None of the above
Inside the galley of a ship, which of the following types of
compressor is being used in the refrigerator?
A.Hermetic compressor
B.Reciprocating compressor
C.Rotary compressor
D.None of the above
In refrigeration, what type of compressor is used when
the driving motor is sealed in a dome?
A.Air compressor
B.Rotary compressor
C.Hermetic compressor
D.All of the above
The heat energy absorbed in the process of changing the
form of a substance without any change in temperature
or pressure is known as ______.
A.Latent heat
B.Specific heat
C.Sensible heat
D.Total heat
In a Freon-12 system flow, what part is installed between
the filter drier and evaporator?
A.Reefer compressor
B.Expansion valve
C.Tube compressor
D.Rotary compressor
In a refrigeration cycle, the part that is found between the
condenser and solenoid valve is the ______.
A.Receiver
B.Evaporator
C.Tube compressor
D.Motor
The condenser of provision refrigeration aboard ship is
cooled by ______.
A.Fresh water
B.Sea water
C.Cold Freon
D.Liquid Freon
It is a ductile and malleable metal usually corroded by air
or water is the _____.
A.Tin
B.Aluminum
C.Titanium
D.Copper
The ability of a material to permanently deform without
rupture under tensile load is called _____.
A.Plasticity
B.Hardness
C.Ductility
D.Malleability
The characteristic of a material to suddenly break with
little or no prior deformation is called ______.
A.Brittleness
B.Toughness
C.Malleability
D.Hardness
The ability of metal to resists indentation, abrasion, wear
and cutting is called ____.
A.Ductility
B.Hardness
C.Plasticity
D.Brittleness
Which of the following is the property of a material that
enables it to resists strain when stress is applied?
A.Strength
B.Brittleness
C.Hardness
D.Plasticity
The material that composed of large amount of chromium
and nickel is the ____.
A.Vanadium steel
B.Stainless steel
C.Tungsten steel
D.Aluminum steel
Material that can be easily bent, cut and does NOT
exhibit great tensile strength as compared with other
materials is the _____.
A.Cast iron
B.Mild steel
C.Wrought iron
D.Tin
A metal that has strong reaction to magnet is the ____.
A.Steel
B.Lead
C.Brass
D.Copper
Rapid identification of the metal can be determined
through the following physical observations:
• I – Surface appearance
• II – Reaction to magnet
• III – Length of the material
A.I only
B.II only
C.I and II
D.I and III
Metals usually used in machinery parts are stronger than
mild steel is the ______.
A.Medium carbon steel

B.High carbon steel
C.Stainless steel
D.Aluminum steel
The ferrous metal that is commonly used as cutting tools
is the ____.
A.High carbon steel

B.Low carbon steel
C.Medium carbon steel
D.Stainless steel
A metal alloy that is more resistant to corrosion is
the _____.
A.Stainless steel
B.Nickel steel
C.High carbon steel
D.Medium carbon steel
Corrosion to resistant metal is an alloy with large amount
of nickel and _______.
A.Chromium
B.Aluminum
C.Vanadium
D.Tungsten
For marine use, which of these alloys is more resistant to
acid and scaling?
A.Mild steel
B.Cast iron
C.Stainless steel
D.Alloy
A kind of iron that has a composition of about 93% iron is
the ______.
A.Pig iron
B.Cast iron
C.Wrought iron
D.Stainless steel
What is the purpose of crankcase ventilation system of
an engine?
a. It prevent spark generation.

b. Removes combustible gases in the crankcase
c. Determines the level of combustible gases
d. Provides inert gas generation in crankcase
Crankcase ventilation
One type of scavenging process has the incoming air
directed upwards and pushing the exhaust gases before
it. The exhaust gases then travel down and out of the
exhaust exhaust ports which is actually located opposite
the inlet ports. This type is called ___.
A. Loop
B. Cross-Flow
C. Uniflow
Which method is normally used to lubricate bearings in a
small high-speed diesel engine?
A. Splash lubrication
B. Pressure lubrication
C. Sight feed lubricators
D. Mechanical lubricators
Types of lubrication
Splash lubrication Wet sump lubrication

Which of the listed diesel engine systems is likely to
create the problem of a cylinder regularly misfiring?
A. Lubrication
B. Cooling
C. Fuel
D. Electric ignition
In a diesel engine, the time taken to heat the fuel
particles, turn them into vapor and bring about
combustion is called ______.
A. injection lag
B. ignition delay
C. compression ignition
D. turbulence lag
A diesel engine has been operating normally but
experiences a sudden loss in speed accompanied by and
the speed remaining below normal. The probable cause
is _____.
A. engine overload
B. leaky valve
C. stuck or broken piston rings
D. low air injection pressure
In a steam engine, the main throttle valves on the
turbines admit the steam directly to the _____.
A. Blades
B. Nozzles
C. Steam chest
D. Shaft
A heat engine does a 350 J of work and rejects 700 J of
heat. What is the efficiency of the engine?
a. 32%
b. 35%
c. 36%
d. 46%
Solution
Efficiency = Output x 100%
Input
= ___350 J__
350J + 700J
= 0.33 x 100%
= 33%
All energy received as heat by a heat engine cannot be
converted into mechanical work is a demonstration
of ________.
A. The 2nd law of thermodynamics
B. The third law of thermodynamics
C. Superheated steam
D. Newton's 3rd law of motion
Which of the devices listed is used to convert thermal
energy to useful mechanical work?
A. Turbine
B. Condenser
C. Air ejector
D. Each of the above
As steam accomplishes work in an engine or turbine,
it expands and ________.
A. Increases in superheat
B. Decreases in superheat
C. Decreases in volume
D. Decreases in moisture content
As steam accomplishes work in an engine or turbine, the
pressure of the steam is reduced because it ___.
A. Diminishes in volume
B. Becomes saturated again
C. Expands in volume
D. Becomes superheated again
The object of all heat engines is to convert heat
into ____.
A. Combustion energy
B. Internal energy
C. External energy
D. Mechanical work or energy
A cycle of changes which the working substance have
undergone and completed within the power plant itself as
in the case of condensing steam turbine is called_____.
A. Closed cycle
B. Opened cycle
A cycle of changes which the working substance have
undergone and is virtually completed outside the power
plant, as with an engine or turbine exhausted to
atmosphere is called _________.
A. Closed cycle
B. Open cycle
In a small appliance using HFC-134a you would expect
to see the greatest temperature drop across the ______.
A. Evaporator
B. Capillary tube
C. Compressor
D. Receiver
The refrigerant gas returning to the compressor should
be _______.
A. Superheated
B. Saturated
C. Dense
D. Flooded
The low pressure side of the refrigeration system is
considered to exist from the ____.
A. expansion valve to the compressor

B. receiver to the expansion coil
C. expansion valve to the evaporator
D. condenser to the expansion valve
When the refrigerant leaves the receiver, it flows next on
to the ____.
A. evaporator coils
B. liquid strainer
C. Compressor
D. condenser
Which of the following is not part of the high side of the
refrigeration system?
A. Condenser
B. Receiver
C. Accumulator
D. liquid line
In a vapor compression type refrigeration cycle, the
refrigerant temperature decreases the most in
the _______.
A. Evaporator
B. Condenser
C. Compressor
D. expansion valve
The component of a refrigerating system in which
the refrigerant vaporizes and absorbs heat is known as
the ________.
A. Condenser
B. vapor generator
C. Accumulator
D. evaporator
Which of the listed refrigeration system components
keeps the refrigerant circulating through the system?
A. Expansion valve
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor
Which of the listed components is considered to separate
the high pressure side of a refrigeration cycle from a low
pressure side of the cycle?
A. The condenser and the expansion valve
B. The king valve and the solenoid valve
C. The compressor and the expansion valve
D. The condenser and the solenoid valve
Two important considerations for the proper lubrication of
a diesel engine includes delivery of the oil in sufficient
amount and appropriate ____.
A. Cetane number
B. Pour point
C. Viscosity temperature
D. Quality of the oil
Which equipment allows for the change in volume of the
cooling water in the propulsion diesel engine closed
cooling system?
A. Fresh water expansion tank
B. Sea water expansion tank
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Jacket cooler accumulator
Scavenging in the four-stroke cycle diesel engine occurs
during the ____.
A. last part of the exhaust stroke, and the first of intake

stroke
B. last part of the intake stroke only
C. early part of the injection stroke only
D. early part of the power stroke
In a two-stroke cycle diesel engine, the process of
scavenging begins as the _____.
A. piston nears and passes TDC

B. latter part of the down stroke
C. piston passes BDC
D. early part of the downstroke
On most modern diesel engines, the main connecting
rod bearings receive their lubricating oil by ________.
A. Banjo feed
B. Splash feed
C. Gravity feed
D. Pressure feed
A measure of the mechanical perfection of an engine
expressed as the ratio between the indicated power and
the brake power is termed as ______.
A. specific fuel consumption
B. brake thermal efficiency
C. mechanical efficiency
What do you call the part of a diesel engine where
burnt gases pass through before it reach the funnel?
A. Chimney
B. Air cooler
C. Turbocharger
D. Exhaust gas manifold
Which term is used to describe the readings which are
obtained from between the webs of individual crank
throws as the crankshaft is rotated?
A. Inclination
B. Deflection
C. Clearance
Which engine part is included in the classification of
running gear?
A. Bedplate
B. Piston
C. Cylinder liner
Heat for igniting the fuel oil in the cylinder of a diesel
engine is generated by _____.
A. electronic ignition system

B. compression of air by the piston
C. friction in the fuel injector
D. fuel oil heating system
If fuel injection in a diesel engine begins earlier than the
design start of the injection, ignition may be delayed
because the ______.
a. fuel oil injection pressure may not be high enough
b. cylinder compression pressure may not be high
enough
c. cylinder compression temperature may be too high
d. scavenge and purge process is incomplete
Combustion knock occurring in a diesel engine can be
caused by ___.
a. low coolant temperature

b. insufficient fuel
c. high ambient temperature
d. carbon buildup on the injector tips
What determines the number of events occurring in a
cycle of operation in an internal combustion engine?
a.Crankshaft revolution
b. Type of engine (diesel or gasoline)
c. Distance a piston travels during a stroke
What determines the number of events occurring in a
cycle of operation in an internal combustion engine?
A. Crankshaft revolution
B. Method of air charging a cylinder and expelling exhaust gases
C. Distance a piston travels during a stroke
D. Number of pistones
Air compressor is equipped with an intercoooler and
an aftercooler to ______.
A. inject water vapor into the compressed air

B. prevent overheating of the first stage valve
C. increase compressor efficiency and economy
D. reduce the compressed air charge density
The cylinders and intercoolers of most low pressure air
compressors are by ___.
A. Water
B. Oil
C. Air
D. CO2
If the intercooler of a low pressure air compressor
becomes fouled either internally or externally,
the ________.
A. total capacity will be reduced
B. volumetric efficiency will be decreased
C. discharge pressure will decrease
D. normal running time will be decreased
For any given volume of compressed air produced by a
multistage, interstage cooling will _______.
A. increase the power required for compression

B. decrease the power required for compression
C. allow isothermal compression of the air charge
D. allow the compressed air volume to remain constant
The unloading system on an air compressor will ____.
A.increase compressor discharge pressure on demand

B. Increase compressor operating speed as necessary
C. reduce the compressor motor load below the designed
operating values when starting
D. reduce the compressor frictional load when starting
Air compressor cylinder unloaders enable the
compressor to _________.
A. vary their speed according to temperature and load

B. start and come up to speed before air compressor
begins
C. change speed according to overload demands
D. reduce compressed air charge density
Unloading of a low pressure, reciprocating, air
compressor at start-up can be accomplished by _____.
A. holding the L.P. discharge valve open

B. the use of a precharged accumulator
C. using a permanently enlarged clearance expansion
volume
D. temporarily discharging back to the compressor intake
The pressure developed in the high pressure cylinder of
a reciprocating air compressor in order to assure an
output near the end of its compression stroke is ___.
A. the same as the line discharge pressure
B. below the line discharge pressure
C. constant throughout the discharge period
D. above the line discharge pressure
Moisture and impurities can be removed from pneumatic
systems by using ___.
A. Air intake heaters

B. Desiccated suction strainers
C. Multi-orificed suction valves
D. Blowdown valves and filters
Air line lubricators are used in compressed air
systems to lubricate _________.
A. the suction and discharge valves

B. tools and equipment serve by compressed air
C. air line reducing valve
D. all answers are correct
The property of a fuel oil which is a measurement of its
available energy is known as is ___.
A. cetane number
B. heating value
C. carbon number
D. cetane index
Misfiring in a diesel engine at light loads can be caused
by ________.
A. high lube oil temperature

B. low lube oil temperature
C. excessive cylinder cooling
D. high air injection pressure
The minimum fuel oil delivery pressure required for diesel
engine injection depends primarily on __.
A. degree of cylinder air turbulence

B. firing pressure in the engine
C. quality of fuel to be injected
D. duration of the ignition delay period
The longer the ignition delay period resulting from
improper use of low cetane fuel, the _________.
A. less fuel will enter the cylinder

B. lower will be cylinder compression temperature
C. more complete will be fuel combustion
D. more rapid will be the rise in combustion pressure
The efficient burning of fuel in a diesel engine is
dependent upon the ________.
A.Temperature of compression
B.Atomization of the fuel
C.Penetration of the fuel
D.All are correct
Which conditions listed would cause simultaneous high
cylinder firing pressure and low exhaust temperature?
A. Improper fuel rack positioning

B. Lengthy opening of the exhaust valve
C. Excessively early injection timing.
D. Extended light load.
If fuel injection occurs too early, a diesel engine will lose
power because the ___.
A. fuel will not be properly atomized in the cylinder

B. ignition will be delayed due to low compression
pressure
C. maximum fuel expansion will occur on the
compression stroke
D. fuel will ignite after top dead center
The burning of fuel oil in a diesel engine having a high
sodium content will cause ___.
A. corrosion and grooving of exhaust valves

B. corrosion and gumming of the fuel injection pump
C. salt deposits in the exhaust manifold
D. slag deposits in the fuel injection equipment
Air motion is induced in a four-stroke/cycle diesel engine
cylinder to improve air fuel mixing, and is known
as _______.
A. Supercharging
B. Scavenging
C. Turbulence
D. swept volume charging
Turbulence in the combustion chamber of a diesel
engine can be induced by ___.
A. delayed ignition
B. increased clearance volume
C. directional intake ports
D. multi-orificed fuel nozzles
A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel
engine greatly affects the ___.
A. air turbulence
B. fuel penetration
C. fuel spray tip angle
D. fuel injection rate
The ability of a fuel particle to travel into the
combustion chamber before burning is called _______.
A. Penetration
B. Permanence
C. Turbulence
D. atomization
Which of the following statements concerning fuel
atomization in a diesel engine cylinder is correct?
A.The greater the atomization, the greater the

penetration.
B. The greater the atomization, the lesser the
penetration.
C. The degree of atomization has nothing to do with the
degree of penetration.
D. Atomization and penetration are one and the same
A change in the degree of fuel atomization in a diesel
engine cylinder has the greatest effect on the ___.
A. cylinder air turbulence

B. fuel spray
C. fuel injection rate
D. combustion in that cylinder
Most fuel injection nozzles are opened by ________.
A. fuel oil pressure

B. a cam operated follower
C. a spring-loaded follower
D. timing gears keyed to the crankshaft
A leaking diesel engine fuel injector will cause ________.
A. prolonged maintenance intervals

B. Improved atomization
C. greater fuel economy
D. incomplete combustion
Fuel oil penetration into the cylinder of a diesel engine
is _________.
A. dependent on air turbulence

B. reduced by finer atomization
C. increased by finer atomization
D. nonexistent in the precombustion chamber system
Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine combustion
chambers will ________.
A. Affect the combustion pressure

B. Improve combustion
C. Reduce compression
D. Decrease power output
Maintaining the proper fuel oil temperature will
result in __________.
A. the elimination of valve wear

B. improved atomization
C. a decrease in cylinder blow-by
D. an increase in cylinder blow-by
The rate of fuel injection in a diesel engine cylinder
depends primarily on ___.
A. the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle

B. timing of the pump
C. supply pressure to the pump
D. shape of the combustion chamber
One function of burner atomization steam is to _______.
A. Maintain a constantly high fuel pressure

B. Prevent overheating of the atomizer when secured
C. maintain a constant high fuel temperature
D. impart swirling motion to the oil for efficient
combustion
Boiler fuel oil atomizer parts should be cleaned by
soaking the tip in kerosene or diesel fuel and _______.
A. polished with emery cloth

B. brushed with a steel brush
C. scraped with a non-abrasive tool
D. scraped with modified table knife
What will happen if there is an excessive accumulation of
carbon deposits on the boiler burner throat ring and
diffuser?
A. Too much excess combustion air
B. Reduced boiler fuel oil pressure.
C. Decrease in boiler efficiency.
D. Increase heat transfer and overheating.
Which of the following conditions is responsible for the
fuel oil to atomize when using a steam atomizer in an
auxiliary boiler?
A. Expansion of steam in the furnace.
B. Expansion of the steam in the whirling chamber.
The substance primarily responsible for heat loss in the
combustion process is ___.
A. Sulphur
B. Carbon
C. Hydrogen
D. nitrogen
Which of the following represents the proper color of the
flame farthest from an atomizer during normal
operations?
A. Bright yellow or orange
B. Dark brown
C. Light brown haze
D. Dazzling white
Black smoke issuing from the boiler stack can be caused
by an improper fuel/air ratio and by ______.
A. excessively high fuel ratio/pressure

B. low fuel temperature
C. high fuel temperature
D. low fuel pressure
If a boiler is smoking black, and increasing the excess air
does not reduce the smoke, the cause can be _______.
A. forced draft fan failure

B. dirty atomizer
C. heavy sooth on tubes
D. high ambient air temperature
If the temperature of fuel oil entering an atomizer is too
low, the burner will ___.
A. dribble fuel and smoke white

B. require more fuel for atomization
C. produce heavy black smoke at any load condition
D. require more excess air for combustion
When too much excess air is supplied to an operating
boiler, the ____.
A. heat loss will be reduce

B. heat loss will be reduce
C. flame will impinge on the burner cone
D. flame will be deep red color
Which color burner flame would indicate too much
excess air?
A. Orange yellow or red

B. Yellowish orange
C. Bright red
D. Incandescent white
Which of the following boiler stack (smoke color)
condition indicates efficient combustion?
A. Black haze
B. White haze
C. Brown haze
D. Yellow haze
The greatest single overall steam plant and boiler
efficiency loss results from ___.
A. heat lost in the main condenser
B. poor heat transfer in feed water heater
C. mechanical losses in the atomization process
D. permanent poor combustion in the boiler
Mixing of fuel oil from different sources should be
avoided due to possible problem of ____.
A. Incompatibility
B. Dilution
C. foaming
Who should be invited to witness soundings of the
vessel's tanks before and after bunkering?
A. Master of the vessel

B. Ship's agent
C. Supplier of bunker
When there is a considerable discrepancies as to the
quantity of fuel supplied, what procedure should the ship
(receiver) will initiate?
A. File a complaint to supplier
B. Inform the port authority
C. File "Letter of Protest"
What is the most crucial aspect of fuel quality
monitoring?
A. Taking the representative samples.

B. Testing of fuel oil sample
C. Labelling and sealing of samples.
Which of the following containers should never be used
in taking F.O. samples?
A. Metallic
B. Aluminium
C. Plastic
Chemical additives are not to be used onboard, unless
advised to do so by ___.
A. Surveyor
B. ship's agent
C. head office
Fuel service tanks should be kept at a certain
temperature in order to allow reliable pumping of high
viscosity fuels. What is the ideal temperature?
A.30 deg. C
B. 45 deg. C
C. 15 deg. C
Two possible leakages may occur in the tank heating
systems. How is this detected?
A. Oil spotted in the feed water system

B. Increased of fuel oil tank level
C. Both A and B
What is the main difference between the purifier and the
clarifier?
A. Purifier is for diesel oil and clarifier is for fuel oil.

B. The clarifier does not remove water.
C. There is no difference.
Which components in F.O. that can not be removed
by purifiers?
A. Sulphur and vanadium

B. Aluminium and silicon
C. Water and sediment
The main operating characteristics of a diesel engines
which distinguishes them from other internal combustion
engines is the ____.
A. method of supplying air
B. cooling system
C. method of igniting fuel
D. valve operating mechanism
The two strokes of a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine
are ________.
A. power and intake

B. intake and exhaust
C. exhaust and compression
D. compression and power
A sequence of events which recur regularly and in the
same order is called ___.
A. combustion process
B. Cycle
C. firing order
When the position of the piston is farthest away from the
cylinder head, it is at ___.
A. top dead center

B. bottom dead center
C. dead center
The purpose of compressing the air within the cylinder of
a diesel engine is to ___.
A. produce the heat of ignition

B. decrease injection lag
C. increase ignition delay
D. aid in exhausting burnt gases
The compression ratio of a diesel engine refers to the
ratio between the _________.
A. Piston area to connecting rod length

B. Cylinder volumes at top dead center and at bottom
dead center
C. Engine cylinder size to piston size
D. The number of compression strokes for a given
horsepower
What will happen if the compression ratio is increased on
a diesel engine?
A. The expansion ratio will decrease

B. Combustion will be slowed down
C. Thermal efficiency will decrease
D. Thermal efficiency will increase
How does the maximum horsepower of a diesel engine is
attained?
A.When the engine RPM is pulled down by overload

B. At rated engine RPM
C. At 95% of rated engine RPM
D. At 95% of a properly adjusted governor RPM with the
engine under full load
In a two-stroke cycle diesel engine, the cycle of events is
completed is _________.
A. One revolution of the crankshaft

B. Two revolutions of the crankshaft
C. Three revolutions of the crankshaft
D. Four revolutions of the crankshaft
What is the main difference between two-stroke and four-
stroke/cycle diesel engine?
A.The filling of cylinder with a fresh air charge

B. The firing order
C. A and b only
For a given size engine, the two-stroke/cycle diesel
engine will deliver more power than a four-stroke/cycle
diesel engine because ___.
A. it has a longer power stroke
B. more air gets into the cylinder each stroke
C. it develops twice as many powers strokes at the same
speed
D. higher combustion pressure is developed
A grease lubricating ball or roller bearings will run cooler if the grease____________.
A.Has a low grease penetration number

B.Fills 10% of all avoid space within the bearing
C.Is heated prior to packing the bearing
D.Is thinned with a suitable lubricating oil
Engines which run with petrol (or paraffin) as the fuel are sometimes called
as___________.
A.Gasoline engines
B.Internal combustion engine
C.Light oil engines
D.Petrol engines
How is tubing measured and sized?
A.Cross-sectional area
B.Outside diameter
C.Normal wall thickness
D.Inside diameter
A tail stock ‘dead center’ has been given that name because it ____________.
A.Must be removed by clamping in the chuck

B.Does not revolve
C.Is dead centered on the tail stock spindle
D.Fits into the dead center of the work piece
A dirty intercooler on the ship’s service air compressor will result in____________.
A.Decreased compression ratio

B.Water in the lubricating oil
C.Higher than normal power consumption
D.Unloaded malfunction
When steel is tempered it becomes ________?
A.Softer
B.Less brittle
C.More brittle
D.Harder
Which of the following may be determined by conducting a simple spot test of
engine lube oil?
A.Approximately degree of contamination

B.Approximately lube oil viscosity
C.Percent of fuel dilution of lube oil
D.NB number
A mechanical property of material which enables it to be
drawn easily into wire form like elongation and
contraction from tensile test is called____________.
A.Plasticity
B.Malleability
C.Elasticity
D.Ductility
Cutting tools used in planer work are the same as those used in______________.
A.Circular saw
B.Grinder
C.Shaper
D.Lathe
A machine tool which uses an abrasive wheel as a cutting tool to obtain a very high
degree of accuracy and a smooth finish on a metal part.
A.Milling
B.Grinding
C.Shaper
D.Lathe
If you are taking a roughing cut on a steel workpiece in a
lathe machine and see blue chips coming of the
workpiece, you should _________.
A.Decrease the flow of lubricating oil to the tool

B.Reduce the cutting tool height above the center
C.Reduce the tool feed or the depth of cut
D.Decrease the cross compound speed
One method of accurately checking the alignment of
lathe centers is by moving the dial indicator securely
mounted on compound rest between the two positions
indicated on the test bar. If the dial indicator reading on
the tailstock end of the test bar shows a higher (plus)
reading than the dial indicator reading at the headstock
end, you should move the tailstock ___________.
A.Away from you to correct alignment
B.Toward you to correct alignment
C.Closer to the headstock to reduce offset
D.Away from the headstock to decrease misalignment
Workpiece has been mounted between centers and a test cut machined at each end to check
alignment of the lathe centers. If a test cut on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on the
headstock end, the tailstock must be moved __________.
A. Away from you to correct alignment

B.Toward you to correct alignment
C.Closer to the headstock to reduce the amount of offset
D.Away from the headstock to decrease the misalignment
If you are machining a work held between lathe centers, and the lathe centers begin to squeal, you should first
_________.
A.Lubricate the center

B.Stop the lathe
C.Change the cutting bit
D.Run the lathe at a slower speed
When a stock is turned in a lathe, the outside diameter is reduced by an amount equal to ________.
A.The depth of cut

B.One half the depth of cut
C.Twice the depth of cut
D.Twice the rate of feed
Which of the statement best described the term “depth of cut” in lathe work?
A. The distance to tool point advances with each revolution

of the work
B. The distance from the bottom of the cut to the uncut
surface of the workpiece
C. The distance the workpiece circumference past the
cutting tool point in 1 minute
D. The chip length that will be removed from the work in 1
minute
The dead center of the work can properly be used only after the end of the work piece
has been __________.
A. Counter bored
B. Tapered
C. Center drilled
D. Convexed
Which lathe operation is best done with the carriage locked in position?
A. Facing work held in chuck

B. Turning work held between centers
C. Threading internal threads
D. Boring an angled hole
When drilling a hole in the piece of work being chucked, you should mount the chuck drill
in the _________.
A. Compound rest
B. Cross feed
C. Tailstock
D. Headstock
The maximum size of fillet weld can be used at
_________.
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 0.5 mm
D. 10 mm
An example of active flux is _________.
A. Potassium oxide
B. Sodium peroxide
C. Zinc chloride
D. Calcium nitride
A process whereby two metals is to be heated to produce a joint which is strong or stronger than the parent
metal is called __________.
A. Making bonding
B. Arc welding
C. C. Soldering
D. Gas welding
The heat of brazing melts the borax to form a protective _________.
A. Dye penetrant
B. Slag
C. Coat
D. Base
The weld used to join shell plates in flush construction is
known as ________ welds.
A. Fillet
B. Butt
C. Continuous
D. Seam
The first metal used in steel ship construction is _________.
A. Brass
B. Wrought iron
C. Pig iron
D. Cast iron
The maximum stress at which the material can support without failure is known as
______ strength.
A. Ultimate
B. Ductile
C. Breaking
D. Compressive
A kind of packing used in steam joints is _________.
A. Asbestos
B. Copper gasket
C. Elastic packing
D. Diathermal packing
The capability of a material to be able to absorb large quantity of energy before fracture
is called __________.
A. Toughness
B. Ductility
C. Elasticity
D. Free stress
Which material is excellent for use as seals and
diaphragm for water lubricated bearings?
A. Rubber
B. Titanium alloy
C. Silicon
D. Uranium
The proportionality of stress and strain under certain condition is called _________.
A. Hooke’s law
B. Luminous intensity
C. Newton’s law
D. Mutual inductance
The casing of lead-acid battery is made of __________.
A. Hard rubber
B. Hard asbestos
C. Soft copper
D. Soft bismuth
A strong plastic which is machinable for use in fabrication of gears, bushing, washers, spacers,
etc. is __________.
A. Teflon
B. Nylon
C. Polymer
D. Silicon
Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and _________.
A. Cooling slowly in air

B. Dousing in oil
C. Dousing in cold water
D. Dousing in hot water
Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by cold ________.
A. Heading
B. Rolling
C. Swagging
D. Turning
Silver solder is an alloy of silver and _________.
A. Tin or lead
B. Brass mixed bronze
C. Copper and zinc
D. Bronze or tin
The product of mechanical efficiency and the
compression efficiency is known as _______ efficiency.
A. Pascal’s
B. Overall
C. Mechanical-electrical
D. Compression-mechanical
The process of mixing oil and water is called
___________.
A. Contamination
B. Filtration
C. Emulsification
D. Vaporization
All energy received as heat by a heat engine cannot be converted into mechanical
work is a demonstration of ___________.
A. The 2nd law of thermodynamics

B. The 3rd law of thermodynamics
C. Superheated steam
D. Newton’s 3rd law of motion
The form of energy associated with the random motion of large numbers of molecule is known as _________.
A. Heat
B. Work
C. Young’s modulus of elasticity
D. X-ray
A metal used in piping on board ships that is more durable than copper pipes and is also used in cooling water
installations, sanitary installations, oil coolers, and heat exchangers, heat coils etc. is called ___________.
A. Aluminum brass (Yorcalbro)

B. White meal (Babbitt Metal)
C. Cunifer
D. Bronze
How is annealing process carried out?
A. By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and time

in a furnace and then allowing it to cool as slowly as possible
B. By cooling the material in a furnace and then heating it again
as slowly as possible
C. By slowly heating the material at a prescribed temperature
and time inside the furnace and then applying abrupt cooling
D. By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower temperature
and finally allowing it cool as slowly as possible
How is hardening process carried out?
A. By heating the material at a prescribed temperature and

time in a furnace and finally allowing it to cool in still air
B. By melting the material in the furnace and then allowing
it to cool inside the furnace
C. By slowly heating the material at a prescribed
temperature and time inside the furnace and then
applying abrupt cooling
D. By reheating the material in a furnace at a lower
temperature and finally it to cool as slowly as possible
Why do we apply tempering process on metals?
A. To increase the hardness and lessen the ductility of

the material
B. To soften the material for easy pressing or bending
purposes
C. To remove some of the hardness, making the steel
less brittle and more tough
D. To produce a hard strong steel with a refined grain
structure
What is meant by the term “pig iron”?
A. The basic material used in the manufacture of various

steel and iron
B. Sand channel into which molten metals flow
C. The molten iron collected in the hearth of the furnace
D. A crude, high-carbon iron produced by reduction of
iron ore in a blast furnace
Which statement is true regarding the purpose/use of the alloying element chromium?
A. Used in removing the possibility of embrittlement in

steel
B. It does not greatly reduce ductility until 8% chromium
is reached
C. It is extensively used in heat exchangers, usually of
the plate type variety
D. Increases grain size, induces hardness, improves
resistance to corrosion and erosion
Why are metallurgical tests carried out upon materials?
A. For maintenance purposes

B. To test the mechanical properties of the materials
C. So that the life span of the material will be known
D. To determine their suitability for use in engineering
Which is not true about non-destructive testing?
A. Special test pieces are used which are damaged

during the process
B. These tests are carried out on components, not test
pieces
C. These tests give no indication of mechanical
properties
D. They are used to detect flaws or imperfections during
manufacture or those that develop during service
A method of detecting surface defects (e.g. cracks) by the use of microscope or hand lens is called _________.
A. Radiography
B. Visual examination or inspection
C. Oil and whitewash
D. Magnetic crack detection
What is the main reason for using glass fiber as a filler
material in polymers?
A. For reducing electrical conductivity

B. To improve corrosion resistance
C. For strength
D. To improve heat resistance
Rubbers are used ________.
A. For choking engines, winches, pumps, etc.

B. As a framework to give strength, produce insertion
jointings and also used in packing
C. As seals in place of bronze wear rings in sea water
pumps
D. For fresh and salt water pipe joints, water lubricated
bearings and is used for bucket rings in feed pumps
What are the factors/material properties to consider in
the use of Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)?
A. Resistant to corrosion and a good electrical conductor

B. Unaffected by steam, petrol, paraffin, fuel oils and
lubricants
C. Unaffected by waters and oils
D. Resistant to water and chemicals, and is a good
electrical insulator
What are some of the uses of nitrile on board ships?
A. It is used in place of rubber, can be used for anti-

vibration mountings, jointings, etc.
B. It is used as thermal insulation
C. It is used for pipes and fittings, electrical conduits, for
cable and wire insulation, etc.
D. It is used for water lubricated bearings, gland rings,
jointing tape, etc.
How is “electric arc” produced in electric arc welding process?
A. By closing the circuit thereby allowing the continued

flow of electricity
B. By touching the electrode and then withdrawing it
C. By lowering the voltage and increasing the electric
current
D. By passing an electric current between two electrodes
separated by a small gap
Which statement is NOT true about brazing process ?
A. Brazing process is used to join similar or dissimilar

metals
B. Brazing filler metals are lead & tin or aluminum & zinc
alloys
C. Brazing filler metals are alloys of copper, nickel, silver
and aluminum
D. Brazing uses a flux to dissolved or remove oxides
What is the appropriate action for the plate edge of a metal that has acquired local hardness due to rapid cooling
after the gas cutting operation?
A. Plate edges should be machined or grinded

B. Plate edges should be heat treated by means of the
torch
C. Plate edges should be treated (plated) with chromium
D. Plate edges should be soaked in a hot water
The change in length of an object in some direction, not necessarily the same that is
produced by an externally applied load is called __________.
A. Tension
B. Contraction
C. Strain
D. Stress
When a material on one side pushes on the material on the other side of the surface with
a force parallel to the surface, the stress is said to be a __________.
A. Shearing stress
B. Compacting stress
C. Tensile stress
D. Resisting stress
How is the “vertical position welding” carried out?
A. By positioning the weld with the axis perpendicular to

the ground
B. By placing the weld with the axis parallel to the ground
C. By starting to weld only the lower portion of the joint
going up
D. By welding on the upper side of the joint with the face
of the weld parallel to the ground
The composition of hazardous fumes will depend on the
following EXCEPT the ____________.
A. Filler material
B. Method of welding
C. Weld slag
D. Base material
Melting, cutting or welding of lead can cause “lead poisoning” because lead fumes _________.
A. Enter the blood stream if inhaled

B. Enter and irritates the skin when exposed for a period
of time
C. Enter the lungs and clog the air sac
D. In large concentration can cause asphyxiation
How can we prevent incomplete fusion in a weld?
A. By pre – heating the workpiece before the start of

weld
B. By careful pre – weld cleaning, correct current and
good welding technique
C. By not allowing the slag to get in front of the molten
metal
D. By using the correct variations weave weld pattern
How are gas pressures regulated in the cylinder tanks of gas welding and cutting operations?
A. By attaching a safety device and other accessories

necessary for the required operation
B. By attaching regulators to the cylinder top valves and
then setting it to the recommended working pressure
C. By “cracking” the top valve of the gas cylinder tank and
then adjusting it to a required operating pressure
D. By directly connecting the welding hoses on the outlet
and letting the torch valve regulate and control the gas
pressure
When cutting a piece of material, the size of the cutting
tip will depend on the ________.
A. Center orifice of the nozzle

B. Thickness of the material to be cut
C. Position of the pre – heat orifices
D. Type of metals to be cut
You were about to start oxy – acetylene gas cutting operation to
create a slot and holes in the middle portion of a metal plate.
What is the correct and proper approach when conducting the
piercing operation at the start of a cut?
I. Direct then preheat flame against the starting point slightly above
the surface plate until the portion is red to white hot.
II. Press the preheat lever immediately at the very start of the
cutting operation directly at the top of the plate.
III. Lift the nozzle slightly above the preheat position, press down
the cutting lever and then bring down the torch tip slightly above the
plate to start the cut.
IV. Move the torch tip immediately in contact with the metal plate to
the direction of travel and guide the torch steadily along the line.
A. I only B. Both I and III C. Both II and IV D. II, III and IV
When starting the bevel cut, the torch tip should be _________.
A. Exactly in vertical position

B. Horizontal position
C. Perpendicular to the metal surface
D. Inclined to a desired/required
The following statements holds true for tempering process EXCEPT ______.

A.It is carried out after hardening process is done on the material
B.The cooling process for tempering can be done in several
ways.
C.After heating, the process of tempering can be applied
immediately to the material.
D.The main purpose of tempering is to lessen the hardness and
brittleness of the material
The science of measurement is called ________.
A. Numerology
B. Meteorology
C. Mensuration
D. Metrology
Which statement is true about crankshaft deflection gage?
A. It is the simplest and the most accurate method of

checking alignments
B. It used for measuring linear dimensions, thickness or
diameter
C. A tool for measuring angles formed by lines on the
plane
D. An instrument for measuring narrow slots, small gaps
and clearances
What is the main difference between British standard threads
and the Metric standards threads for a variety of sizes?
A. The British standard threads uses 55º thread angle

while Metric standards uses 60° thread angle.
B. The British standard threads have the lower depth of
thread as compared with Metric Standards thread.
C. The British standard threads has a flat root while
the Metric standards has a rounded root.
D. The British standard threads have rounded crest
while the metric standard threads have flat crest.
What is the principle involved in bonding materials using
adhesives?
A. The sealing and bonding of two or more materials

temporarily either metallic or nonmetallic by capillary
means
B. The joining or establishing permanent bond on similar
or dissimilar materials by the application of pressure
C. The fastening together of two or more solids with or
without the application of heat
D. The bonding together of a wide variety of like and unlike
materials by resins and their chemical combinations
What will happen to an elastic material if loaded above a
point known as the elastic limit?
A. The material will return to its original dimensions when

the load is removed.
B. The material will not return to its original dimensions
and will be permanently deformed when the load is
removed
C. The material will sustain then load conditions without
failure.
D. The material will break easily when given a sudden
blow.
The main difference between ferrous metals from nonferrous metals is ________.
A. Its substantial amount of alloying elements

B. The amount of carbon content
C. The presence of other impurities
D. Its substantial amount of iron
What is your observation and conclusion regarding the
effect of carbon content w hen comparing the tensile
strength, ductility, and hardness low-, medium-,and high -
carbon steel?
A. As the carbon content increases, the hardness, tensile
strength and ductility also increases.
B. As the carbon content increases, the hardness also
increases but the tensile strength and ductility
decreases.
C. As the carbon content increases, the tensile strength,
hardness and ductility decreases.
D. As the carbon content increases, the hardness and
tensile strength also increases but ductility decreases.
What is the main purpose of Alloy?
A. To change the grain structure of the material

B. To create a new chemical element
C. To enhance the mechanical property of the material
D. To eliminate carbon content
Which is true about the uses of gray cast iron?
A. It is used for axle and differential housing and gears.

B. Suitable material for cylinder heads, and break and
clutch applications in motor vehicles.
C. It is wanted for such product as rail wheels, rolls for
crushing grains and jaw crusher plates.
D. Used for pipe fitting, frame sockets, and steering –
column housing.
The main purpose of a grinding machine is for
___________.
A. Cutting small amount of material to bring the work to a

very fine and accurate finish
B. Removing very large amount of material to bring the
work to near finish
C. Removing large amount of material to bring the work
to close finish
D. Removing small amount of material to bring the work
to a smooth finish
Why it is important to obtain accuracy when measuring
materials/workpieces?
A. To obtain closeness of agreement among repeated

measurement of same characteristics by same
characteristics by same method under same condition
B. To get the permissible deviation from a basic dimension
C. To bring about the best possible feature outcome for a
particular material or workpiece
D. To meet and comply with the standard requirements/s
needed for the job
When applying linear measurement (e.g. to determine
length, width, height, depth, etc.), it is usually made
________.
A. Indirectly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of
the material or workpiece
B. Directly with the measuring tools on the surfaces of the
material or workpiece
C. Using measuring tools with contact points only on the
material/workpiece
D. Using measuring tools with contact surfaces only on
the material/workpiece
Which statement is true when obtaining correct
measurement using a steel tape rule?
A.Start the measuring tool setting from one end to any point
of the steel rule to obtain correct measurement reading
B.Use the hook and extend the tape in any position directly
on the surface of the material or workpiece
C.Place the steel tape rule in any position directly on the
surface of the material or workpiece
D.Start the tool setting from the 1 in. line (10mm.line for
metric) or other major graduations, rather from one end of
the rule
Which statement is true when using outside caliper on a
round stock to get the correct measurement?
A.Slightly drag the caliper leg points against the

outside diameter (so it lightly touches the center line)
of the stock
B.Clamp the caliper leg points very tightly against the
outside diameter of the stock
C.Move the caliper leg points in and out the hole gently
D.Adjust the caliper leg points loosely against the
outside diameter of the stock.
Which does the term “marking out” refer to?
A. Locating lines, circles, arcs, points of drilling holes

B. Measuring different lines on the workpiece/s
C. Scratching of lines on the surface of a workpiece
D. Indenting of lines on the workpiece
Laying out” means ________.
A. Measuring lines, circles, arcs, points for drilling holes

and making cuts on workpiece/s
B. Locating and scribing points for machining and
forming operations
C. Removing or chipping off some portions in a
workpiece
D. Transferring drawing dimensions to the workpiece
Which statement best describes the purpose of a
scriber?
A. A sharp piercing tool for drawing wide lines on any

workpiece/s
B. Any writing implement for making lines on a workpiece
C. Any sharp pointed object that can mark out lines on a
metal workpiece
D. A sharp pointed tool used to make clean narrow lines
on a metal workpieces
You were tasked to mark out circles and arcs on a metal
workpiece. Which marking tool are you going to use?
A. Compass
B. Divider
C. Trammel
D. Scriber
A center punch is used to _________.
A. Locate the centers of a round stock

B. Make a slight indentation on a workpiece to locate the
intersection of center lines
C. Produce holes in metals
D. Make starting mark for drill when hole are to be drilled
on metal workpieces
Straightedge is used for _________.
A. Measuring long irregular shape surfaces for accuracy

B. Checking long flat surfaces for accuracy
C. Testing small and short flat surfaces for accuracy
D. Checking flat and square surfaces for accuracy
Clamps are used for ________.
A. Holding small object, bending and shaping wires

B. Joining two or more workpiece/machine parts
temporarily
C. Gripping and locking small parts together
D. Binding and pressing two or more parts together,
holding them firmly in their relative position
Pliers are generally used for _________.
A. Holding parts together while they are worked on

B. Holding and/or positioning material while it is
being worked
C. Holding small object and cutting, bending and
shaping wire
D. Binding and pressing two or more pieces
together
You were tasked to file keyway and other smaller square
or rectangular holes with 90 degrees sides. What would
do to accomplish the job?
A. Use any file to finish the job
B. Select a suitable square file to accomplish the job
C. Get the triangular file to the corners holes
D. Use a bastard file to accomplish the job.
You were given the task to scrape an internal curved surface and to remove the sharp edges from curved surfaces and holes. Which type/s of scrapers are you going to
use?

A. Flat scraper, half-round scraper and triangular (three-

square) scraper
B. Flat scraper and half-round scraper only
C. Half round scraper and triangular (three-square)
scraper only
D. Half-round scraper only
Which statement is NOT true regarding the proper use of
chisel employing safety precautions?
A. Remove any chisel head mushrooming by grinding

becomes dangerous
B. Wear any type of eye protection equipment against
flying chips
C. Edges cut on metal with a chisel are sharp and can
cause bad cuts. Remove them by grinding or filing
D. Hold chisel so that if you miss the hammer it will
not strike the injure your hand
Threading dies are used for cutting __________.
A. Internal threads
B. Small holes
C. External threads
D. Big holes
What will be the most logical thing to do after identifying
the hazards in your work place such as the machine
shop?
A. Control the hazards
B. Evaluate and eliminate the hazards
C. Wear personal and protective equipment (PPE)
D. Follow rules and regulations
Why is it necessary to wear a pair of safety shoes when
performing an electric arc welding operation?
A. Because it will protect the wearer against slippages

B. Because it can relied upon for protection against
falling objects and floor obstructions
C. Because the wearer can depend on it against sharp
objects
D. Because it can protect the wearer against excessive
heat on the floor area
“Electric arc” welding means _______.
A. A welding terminology which means a filler metal and

base metal, or base metal only, melting together to
form a weld
B. Simply that the welding is done with an arc between a
covered metal electrode and the work
C. A welding process in which the joint is heated to fusion
by a large electric current
D. To establish an arc for welding and cutting by the use of
electrical current
Which statement is true about the function of an
electrode as an essential part of a typical arc welding
circuit?
A. It carries electric current from the power source to melt
the parent metal
B. An essential part through which the current flow s
between the electrode holder and the arc
C. The filler metal used for filling in the gap to fused metal
parts together.
D. The part of an arc welding circuit that is produced by
passing an electric between two electrodes separated
by a small gap.
Carbon or Tungsten welding electrodes which establish
the arc and maintain it without being melted are classified
as ________ electrodes.
A. Consumable
B. Non-consumable
C. Coated
D. Rutile
The materials used to prevent, dissolve or help remove
oxides or undesirerable materials from weld are called
_________.
A.Coatings
B.Fluxes
C.Fillers
D.Metal cores
Which statement is true regarding the difference/s between alternating current (AC) and direct current
(DC)?

I - AC uses transformer to lower the voltage while DC uses rectifier to

elevate the current
II - AC continuously vary in value and reverses its direction of flow at
regular intervals while DC current flowing in one direction, from a
negative pole to a positive pole
III - AC cannot be sent long distances and its energy is lost along the way
while DC can be sent long distances in almost all power distribution
system.
IV - AC flows at the same strength until it is turned off while DC flows in
a variable manner.
A. I only B. II only C. Both III and IV D. Both II andIV
•
What is the effect of straight polarity in a given
workpiece?
A. It produces a higher electrode melting rate.

B. It provides a wider weld surface area.
C. It increases penetration of weld.
D. It does not have any effect at all on the workpiece.
The minimum required number of fire axes that must be
carried on a vessel is _________.
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
For a vessel with longitudinal inclination, an increase in
‘GM’ would cause the _________.
A.List to stabilize at an angle of loll

B.Trim to stabilize at an angle of loll
C.Trim to decrease
D.By cooling the surface
The equipment required to be included in the fireman’s
(emergency) outfit is ______.
A.Approved work vest

B.Self-contained breathing apparatus
C.Five cell approved flashlight
D. List to stabilize at an angle of loll
Set of equipment required to be used, when entering the
pump room of a tank vessel to rescue an unconscious
person is:
A.Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask
B.Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines
C.Trim to stabilize at an angle of loll
D.List to stabilize at an angle of loll
The treatment used for traumatic shock is to ________.
A.Administer CPR
B.Administer fluids
C.Open clothing to allow cooling of the body
D.Self-contained breathing apparatus
In case the height of the metacenter is the same as the
height of the center of gravity, the upright equilibrium
position is:
A.Stable
B.Neutral
C.Unstable
D.During drilling operation
When does smoking in bed on a vessel prohibited?
A.At all times

B.During evening hours
C.During drilling operation
D.Stable
What will happen to the center of buoyancy when a
vessel is inclined at a small angle?
A.It will remain stationary

B.It will move toward the low side
C.It will move toward the high side
D.During drilling operation
In the flooding of any ship’s compartment, resulting in a
serious loss of reserve buoyancy, will _________.
A.Increase the trim

B.Decrease ship stability
C.Cause a serious list
D.It will remain stationary
The fireman’s outfits required on a vessel _________.
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
The type of stability of a vessel when the height of
metacenter is greater than the height of the center of
gravity is:
A.Positive
B.Neutral
C.Negative
D.She will capsize
The outcome to a floating vessel with an initial negative
metacentric height is ________.
A.She will capsize

B.She will incline further
C.She may lie at an angle of loll
D.Wear a lifeline
The result if you wear extra clothing when entering the
water after abandoning a vessel is _________.
A.It will preserve body heat

B.It will reduce your body heat
C.It will make it more difficult to breathe
D.Generator space
The additional precautions should be taken when making
temporary repairs to a vessel and hydrogen sulfide is
present, us to _________.
A.Remove all bulk materials from the P-tanks
B.Provide respiratory protection and monitoring
C.All of these
D.It will reduce your body heat
The area that is considered an enclosed space is _____.
A.Cofferdam space
B.Machinery space
C.Battery space
D.Generator space
Prior to entering an enclosed space, what precautions
should be done?
I – Entry permit must be approved by the master
II – The space be thoroughly ventilated
III – Sufficient flammable gasses be present
IV – There must be adequate oxygen
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II and IV
Hot work hazards are the __________.
I – Fire
II – Explosion
III – Glare injury
IV – Heat injury

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III and IV
When hot work is being done in the machinery spaces,
what injury hazards are present?
I – Glare
II – Heat
III – Shock
A.I and II
B.II and III
C.I and III
D.I, II and III
If hot work is being done on the lowest flat in the engine
room, the fire alarm sensor should be switched off on
the _________.
A.Lowest flat
B.Highest flat
C.Engine room
D.Water fog
The extinguishing agent that is best for electrical fire
is __________.
A.Foam
B.CO2
C.Dry chemical
D.Water fog
The fire prevention in welding or burning aboard a vessel
should include __________.
I – Posting a fire watch in the immediate area
II – Providing an extinguisher which is ready for immediately
III – Requiring the fire watch to remain on post for 30 minutes
after the
completion of welding or burning

A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
When there is sufficient reason that the relieving officer is
NOT capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in
charge of the engineering watch should ________.
A.Notify the chief engineer officer
B.Stop the main engine immediately
C.At the poop deck and wait for the call of the able
seaman
D.In a ship compartment that has an alarm
Before taking over the engineering watch while the ship
is underway, relieving officers of the engineering watch
should satisfy them regarding ________.
I – Special requirements to sanitary system disposal
II – Availability of fire fighting appliances
III – State of completion of engine room log
IV – Standing orders of the chief engineer officer

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III, and IV
When the machinery spaces are in the periodic
unmanned conditions, the designed duty officer of the
engineering watch shall be ________.
A.In a ship compartment that has an alarm
B.At the poop deck and wait for the call of the able
seaman
C.Stop the main engine immediately
D.Notify the chief engineer officer
When the machinery spaces are in manned condition
while the ship is underway, the officer in charge of the
engineering watch should be ready to __________.
I – Response for changes of the course of the ship
II – Attend to various main propulsion speeds
III – Use damage control gear in machinery space

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II, and III
The minimum flash point of marine fuels to be delivered
on board as regarded by SOLAS convention is
________.
A.60C
B.65C
C.55C
D.70C
Considered as the correct action for the rescue of an
unconscious person from a compartment containing
unsafe gases is to ____________.
A.Wear an approved self-contained breathing
apparatus
B.Attach a lifeline to the rescuer
C.Have someone stand by outside the compartment
D.All of these
When extinguishing an oil fire using foam can be
effectively done through _____.
A.Cooling
B.Dampening
C.Smothering
D.Flash point
What is the lowest temperature at which the vapor
formed from a liquid ignites and continues to burn
steadily in the presence of an ignition source?
A.Flash point
B.Fire point
C.Upper explosive limit
D.Cooling
Where does fire add lifeboat stations required to be
listed?
A.Ship’s articles
B.Seaman’s card
C.Station bill
D.Certificate of inspection
When a vessel loses its reserve buoyancy, it will ______.
A.Float upright with the main deck awash

B.Capsize and float on its side
C.Most likely sink
D.Upper explosive limit
The procedures that is always recommended in the
rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment
containing an unsafe environment is to __________.
A.Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained
breathing apparatus
B.Have the rescuers carry in a set of splint for the
victim
C.Avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic
movement
D.Preserve present body heat
In treating a person for shock, you should wrap the victim
in warm coverings to _______.
A.Preserve present body heat

B.Avoid self-inflicted wounds caused by spastic
movement
C.Have the rescuers carry in a set of splint for the
victim
D.Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained
breathing apparatus
When reducing the free surface of a liquid within a tank,
has the effect of lowering the _______.
A.Virtual height of the center of gravity

B.Metacenter
C.Metacentric height
D.Mildly toxic
As accumulations of hydrogen sulfide gas on a vessel
can be dangerous to personnel, it is important to know
that this gas is ________.
A.Heavier than air
B.A yellow gas that is easily recognized
C.Mildly toxic
D.Metacentric height
Function of the inclining experiment on a vessel is to
determine _________.
A.Lightweight and lightweight center of gravity location

B.The position of the center of buoyancy
C.Virtual height of the center of gravity
D.Preserve present body heat
Reserve buoyancy of a vessel varies directly with
changes in the vessel’s ____.
A.Freeboard
B.Rolling period
C.None of these
D.Diagrams
What is the reason why sense of smell cannot be
depended upon to detect hydrogen sulfide?
A.Because of paralysis to the olfactory nerves

B.Because it is better to rely on eye irritation as a
detector
C.Because they can cause involuntary skeletal muscle
contractions
D.It increases the virtual height of the center of gravity
NOT a mandatory requirement of the shipboard oil
pollution emergency plan is _______.
A.Diagrams
B.Steps to control a discharge
C.National and local coordination
D.Reporting requirement
The effect of increasing the free surface of a confirmed
liquid is ______.
A.It increases the virtual height of the center of gravity

B.It increases the metacenter
C.Because they can cause involuntary skeletal muscle
contractions
D.Because they ca paralyze your breathing system
Why is high concentration of hydrogen sulfide gas
dangerous to personnel?
A.Because they can cause involuntary skeletal muscle

contractions
B.Because they can paralyze your breathing system
C.It increases the metacenter
D.It increases the virtual height of the center of gravity
The outcome of free surface on initial stability depend
upon the surface area dimensions of the free liquids and
the ________.
A.Volume of liquid in the tank
B.Volume of displacement of the vessel
C.Location of the tank in the vessel
D.It increases the metacenter
Where can we find the fire alarm signal onboard a
Philippine flag merchant vessel that is a continuous blast
of the whistle for a period of not less than 10 seconds,
supplemented by the continuous ringing of the general
alarm bell for not less than 10 seconds?
A.Certificate of Inspection
B.Station bill
C.SOLAS Safety Construction Certificate
D.National and local coordination
Reserve buoyancy of a ship consist of __________.
A.The void portion of the ship below the waterline

which is enclosed and watertight
B.All cofferdam, double bottoms, and wing tanks that
are slack
C.The part of the enclosed and watertight portion of a
vessel above the waterline
D.Nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
Most horrible atmospheric condition for the dispersion of
hydrogen sulfide is ________.
A.Nearly calm, clear nights or early morning

B.Full sun with high winds
C.All cofferdam, double bottoms, and wing tanks that
are slack
D.The void portion of the ship below the waterline
which is enclosed and watertight
Following an accident, the victim may go into shock and
die. Which of the following actions should be taken to
help avoid shock?
A.Keep the person awake
B.Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable
temperature
C.Give the person a stimulant to increase blood flow
D.Nearly calm, clear nights or early morning
Decreasing the free surfaces within a vessel, reduces
the ________.
A.Natural roll period

B.Metacentric height
C.Waterplane area
D.Full sun with high winds
In the air concentrations of substances such as hydrogen
sulfide, under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly
exposed without adverse effects are called ____.
A.Concentration limits
B.Threshold limit values
C.Substance limit values
D.Treat for shock
FIRST response you should do while you are fighting a
fire in a smoke-filled compartment and one of your
shipmates falls sustaining a severe laceration and
ceases breathing is to __________.
A.Remove him from the compartment
B.Begin artificial respiration
C.Treat for shock
D.Concentration limits
The firefighting agents that produces a buoyant blanket
to separate the burning vapors from air is ________.
A.CO2
B.Low-expansion foam
C.Water fog
D.Treat for shock
Where will you check the number of portable fire
extinguishers required on a vessel?
A.Hot work permit

B.Certificate of Inspection
C.Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
D.Concentration limits
Mandatory on the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan
is _________.
A.Reporting requirements
B.Removal equipment list
C.Plan exercises
D.Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
What is the major cause of shock in burn victims?
A.Increase in body temperature and pulse rate

B.Massive loss of fluid through the burned area
C.Low-expansion foam
D.Remove him from the compartment
What is the difference between the initial trim of a vessel
and the trim after alter in load occurred?
A.Trim
B.Change of trim
C. Change of draft
When hydrogen sulfide exposure is anticipated, fixed
monitoring devices aboard a vessel should have a low
level concentration alarm to alert personnel when
concentrations of this gas first reach _________.
A.10 ppm
B.30 ppm
C.40 ppm
D.50 ppm
The method in controlling external bleeding is
to ________.
A.Apply direct pressure on the wound
B.Apply pressure on a pressure point
C.Elevate the wounded area
D.Call for medical assistance
FIRST thing you should do when a person is lying prone,
not breathing and an electric wire is touching the victim is
to ___________.
A.Switch off the power
B.Call for medical assistance
C.Immediately begin cardiac massage
D.Fire dampers only
First device to be utilized to tackle a galley grease fire
is _________.
A.The range hood extinguishing system

B.Fire dampers only
C.Water
D.At the vent header
The location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on tanker
vessels, mostly be ________.
A.In the pump room

B.At the main deck manifold
C.At the vent header
D.Fire dampers only
NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire is _________.
A.Water
B.Dry chemical
C.Foam
D.CO2
Spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through
a vessel’s ventilation system, the heat transfer is
called _________.
A.Convection
B.Radiation
C.Conduction
D.Dry chemical
In water hammer, can be avoided in cooling water
systems pipes by __________.
A.Operating the valve gradually

B.Starting the system with open valves and empty
pipes
C.The alarm should be blocked and the engine room is
change to manual mode
D.To refill the tank and the entire system is checked for
leakages
The proper time for operating the crankcase door when
oil mist alarm is activated and the engine has been
stopped is ______.
A.After 20 minutes
B.After 10 minutes
C.After 5 minutes
D.After 30 minutes
In the execution of standard UMS- check, the engineer
on duty is experiencing a “low water level” ALARM in a
cooling water expansion tank. What will be the
appropriate immediate action?
A.To refill the tank and the entire system is checked for
leakages
B.The alarm should be blocked and the engine room is
change to manual mode
C.The set point for the level alarm in the tank is
temporarily readjusted for later action
D.Starting the system with open valves and empty pipes
If the main engine is running steady. The normal auto
slow down temperature for scavenge air boxes “FIRE
alarm’ is ________.
A.120 degrees Celsius
B.130 degrees Celsius
C.50 degrees Celsius
D.150 degrees Celsius
Prior to engaging the turning gear, precaution should be
taken to _______.
A.Shut off the starting air supply and open the indicator
cocks
B.Transfer M/E control to emergency control console of
the engine
C.Close the inlet and outlet valves for cooling water
D.Starting the system with open valves and empty pipes
During main engine is running steady. The normal auto
slow down temperature for “M.E. THRUST BEARING
SEGMENT “ is ______.
A.75 degrees Celsius
B.95 degrees Celsius
C.60 degrees Celsius
D.80 degrees Celsius
A health hazard, listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet
(MSDS), that can cause cancer in exposed individuals is
called:
A.Carcinogen
B.Cryogenic
C.Irritant
D.Holystone
If the cotton cover of a fire hose becomes oily or greasy,
it should be washed with a solution of mild soapy
freshwater and a ______.
A.Soft – bristled brush
B.Holystone
C.Canvas water
D.Cryogenic
The fusible link fire dampers are operated by
___________.
A.A mechanical arm outside the vent duct

B.The heat of fire melting the connection
C.A break- glass and pull- cable system
D.Flammable or toxic gases
The compartment is ‘gas free’ when there is an absence
of dangerous concentrations of ______.
A.All flammable liquids

B.Any combustible liquid
C.Flammable or toxic gases
D.A mechanical arm outside the vent duct
A fire DAMPERS prevent the fire spreading through the
process of ________.
A.Convection
B. Radiation
C. Direct contact
D. Be wetter
If compared to low- expansion foam, a high- expansion
foam will ______.
A. Be wetter
B. Be lighter
C. Be more heat resistant
D. Radiation
Burning AC motor would be considered as ______ fire.
A.Class ‘A’
B.Class ‘B’
C.Class ‘C’
D.Class ‘D’
The fire hose is subject to damage if the swivel on the
female coupling is lubricated with ________.
A.Graphite
B.Grease
C.Explosion proof lights
D.Gas freed
During emergency welding repairs must be made to the
upper area of a fuel tank, the tank and/or adjacent
compartments may need to be _________.
A.Gas freed
B.Inerted
C.Filled with water
D.All of these necessary
Proper effective warming treatment for a crew member
suffering from hypothermia is ______.
A.Running or jumping to create heat

B.A warm water bath
C.Mouth- to – mouth resuscitation
D.Gas freed
Fire may be spread by means of _____.
A.Conduction of heat to adjacent surfaces

B.Direct radiation
C.Convection
D.All of these
When the threads and gasket of a fire hose coupling are
in good condition, the minimum mechanical advantage
necessary for making watertight connection to another
hose coupling, can be developed with _________.
A.Your hands
B. A hose wrench
C. A monkey wrench
D. Starting the fire pumps
Fire and boat drill on a tanker vessel shall, by regulation,
consist of __________.
A.Starting the fire pumps

B.Checking fireman’s outfits and other personnel rescue
equipment
C.Checking relevant communication equipment
D.All of these
What should be given to a crew member suffering from
generalized hypothermia?
A.A small dose of alcohol

B.Treatment for shock
C.A large meal
D.Thermal action
Which of the following is necessary for a fire to exist
besides heat, fuel, and oxygen?
A.Chain reaction
B.Thermal action
C. A small dose of alcohol
D. Treatment for shock
If compared to a high expansion foam, a low – expansion
foam will ________.
A. Be dryer
B. Be less heat resistant
C. Not cling to vertical surfaces
D. Chain reaction
The class of fire considered as one involving electrical
equipment is ________.
A.Class ‘A’
B.Class ‘B’
C.Class ‘C’
D.Class ‘D’
What should you have in order to retrieve an inflatable
liferaft and place it on deck?
A.Righting strap
B.Sea anchor
C.Towing bridle
D.Chain reaction
In a midships house of your ship is constructed with an
interior stairtower from the main deck to the bridge.
Under which of the circumstances listed may the doors
from each deck to the stairtower be kept open when
underway?
A.They are to be kept closed at all times.
B.They may be kept open if the ventilation or air
conditioning system is shutdown
C.They may be kept open if they can be automatically
closed from the bridge
Indication of heat exhaustion are ___________.
A.Slow and strong pulse

B.Flushed and dry skin
C.Pale and clammy skin
D.Be drier
Which of the listed categories does fire are grouped into?
A.Class A, B, C and D
B.Type 1, 2, 3, and 4
C.Combustible solids, liquids and gasses
D.Flammable solids, liquids and gasses
If compared to low – expansion foam, a high – expansion
foam will _________.
A.Be drier
B.Be more heat resistant
C.Not cling to vertical surfaces
D.Locking wrench
The class of fire that would apply to a main switchboard
fire is _________.
A.Class ‘A’
B.Class ‘B’
C.Class ‘C’
D.Class ‘D’
The type of wrench used to disconnect fire hose coupling
is ________.
A.Locking wrench
B.Spanner wrench
C.Crescent wrench
D.Not cling to vertical surfaces
The event that shall be conducted during a fire and boat
drill is ________.
A.All watertight doors which are in use while the vessel is

underway shall be operated.
B.All lifeboat equipment shall be examined.
C.Fire pumps shall be started and all exterior outlets
opened.
D.All of these
What is the cause of heat exhaustion?
A.By excessive loss of body temperature

B.By excessive loss of water and salt from the body
C.By excessive gain in body temperature
D.All lifeboat equipment shall be examined
If treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned
area for at least _______.
A.Five minutes
B.Ten minutes
C.Two minutes
D.Fifteen minutes
The number of people onboard a vessel must be trained
in the use of the fireman’s outfit is ________.
A. One person
B. Two people
C. Three people
D. Four people
The fire in the fuel oil service tank is a ____________.
A.Class A fire
B.Class B fire
C.Class C fire
D.Class D fire
What is the FIRST firefighting attack should be done
when a heavy smoke is coming out from a partially open
door of the paint locker?
A.To secure the door and vents, then manually release
the CO2
B.To enter the use a portable extinguisher
C.Contamination of food with the extinguishing agent
D.Loss of ship stability
Major concern when fighting a galley fire is the _______.
A.Igniting of grease fire in the range hood ventilation

system
B.Contamination of food with the extinguishing agent
C.Loss of ship stability
D.To enter the use a portable extinguisher
Needed action/s to be done before entering the pump
room to rescue a crew victim who is down by toxic fumes
is/are __________.
I - Wear a lifeline
II - Have someone stand by the entrance
III - Put on a approved self contained breathing
apparatus
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I, II and III
If welding compartment on ships bulkhead, the fire watch
is situated ________.
A.On the other side of the bulkhead being welded

B.In the same compartment
C.No fire watch needed
D.Cooling down bulkheads
The FIRST phase on board fire fighting tactics,
is __________.
A.Evaluate
B.Rescue
C.Alert
D.Loss of ship stability
When fighting a fire, the activity to be avoided is ______.
A.Opening the ventilation

B. Cooling down bulkheads
C. Cooling down the fire
D. Reacting chemically with the fire
CO2 system extinguishes a fire in a protected space
by ________.
A.Depriving the fire of oxygen

B.Cooling down the fire
C.Reacting chemically with the fire
D.Cooling down bulkheads
What information will you find about the fire control plan
on board a vessel?
A.The location of the fire fighting appliances

B.How to use the fire fighting appliances correctly
C.How to respond in case of fire
D.Reacting chemically with the fire
The machinery operating features are designed to help
conserve energy. One of these will not contribute to
energy conservation?
A.Lubrication of moving parts
B.Elevation of condenser temperatures
C.Reduction of friction
D.Insulation of hot surfaces
The person – in – charge of a vessel is required to
under what condition?
A.At the owner’s direction
B.If it creates a hazard to navigation
C.If the grounding last over 48 hours
D.Lubrication of moving parts
When not attached to the nozzle, each low velocity spray
applicator on a vessel must be stowed _________.
A.In a protected area on the main deck

B.Inside a machinery space near the entrance
C.Next to the fire hydrant to which the fire hose is
attached
In supplementing to the lifejackets stowed in places that
are readily reachable, lifejackets must be stowed
at ________.
A.The mess room
B.Each manned watch station
C.Each fire station
D.Reacting chemically with the fire
Prior to entering any space that has been sealed, its
oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in
the space is equal to fresh air?
A.18.80%
B.24.80%
C.20.80%
D.22.80%
The cause of chemical burns is by the skin coming in
contact with ________.
A.Acids or alkalies
B.Acids, but not alkalies
C.Alkalies, but not acids
D.Acids
Every distress signal and self – activated smoke signal
must be replaced not later than the marked date of
expiration, or from the date of manufacture, not later
than ______.
A.12 months
B.24 months
C.36 months
D.42 months
When a line shaft bearing begins to overheat, the shaft
speed should be reduced. If overheating continues, you
should then_______.
A.Decrease lube oil pressure to the bearing
B.Apply emergency cooling water externally to the
bearing
C.Flood the bearing with a higher viscosity oil to provide
emergency lubrication and cooling
The substance involved in a class ‘B’ fire can be
burning _________.
A.Diesel oil
B.Magnesium
C.Electrical insulation
D.Chemical
Master of a vessel shall insure that each deck from which
lifeboats are launched is ______.
A.Roped off to prevent unnecessary access

B.Kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with
launching
C.Posted with a list of persons assigned to the life boat
Life preserver or buoyant work vest is required to be
worn on a vessel when a person is __________.
A.Working over water

B.Working on the pipe racks
C.Operating line throwing equipment
D.Only when it happens while underway
The master person – in – charge of a vessel is required
to submit a report of a loss of life, according to
regulations ________.
A.Only when it happens while underway
B.To the next of kin
C.To the nearest Marine Safety of Marine Inspection
Office
D.Working on the pipe racks
At the necessary fire drill conducted aboard a vessel, all
persons must report to their stations and demonstrate
their ability to perform the duties assigned to them
_____.
A.By the fire squad leader
B.In the station bill
C.At the previous safety meeting
D.Only when it happens while underway
The person on a vessel who is responsible for
maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and
sanitary condition is the:
A.Master, or person – in – charge
B.Chief engineer, or engineer – in – charge if no chief
engineer is required
C.Senior mechanic, or mechanic on duty if no senior
mechanic designated
Considered as a class ‘B’ fire is _________.
A.Waste rag fire in the engine room

B.Oil fire in the engine room bilges
C.Fire in the main switch board
D.By the fire squad leader
Document certifying the correctness of the load line
marks on a vessel is termed _____.
A.Certificate of Inspection
B.Load Line Certificate
C.SOLAS Certificate
D.Clearance papers
Load line is assigned to a vessel to ensure adequate
stability and ___________.
A.Riser tension
B.Lifesaving equipment
C.Structural strength
D.Owners representative
The compliance with the terms of the load line certificate
on a vessel is the job of the ________.
A.Barge Supervisor
B.Master or Offshore Installation Manager
C.Owners representative
D.Certificate of Inspection
When a person is unconscious as a result of an electric
shock, you should first remove the victim from the
electrical source and then ______.
A.Check for serious burns on the body
B.Determine if he or she is breathing
C.Is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf
D.Moves to new drilling location in U.S. waters
In the regulations implementing MARPOL, a vessel is
obligated to have an International Oil Pollution
Prevention (IOOP) certificate when the ship ________.
A.Is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf
B.Moves to new drilling location in U.S. waters
C.Engages in a voyage to a port of another country
which is a party of MARPOL
D.Check for serious burns on the body
International Oil Pollution Prevention Certificate on a
vessel is valid for a period of _______.
A.Two years from the date of issue

B.Three years from the date of issue
C.Four years from the date of issue
D.One year from the date of issue
Responsible to ensure that all records required by
regulations are retained onboard a vessel involved in
casualty is the:
A.Officer – in – charge, Marine Inspection
B.Owner
C.Engineer
D.Fire man
While electrical burns victims have been subjected to
electric shock, the first medical response is to verify
for ______.
A.Indication of broken bones
B.Breathing and heartbeat
C.Bleeding injuries
D.Under any condition
The person – in – charge of a vessel is required to
when _______.
A.It creates hazard to the vessel
B.It will last longer than 24 hours
C.It will last longer than 48 hours
D.It will last longer than 36 hours
Considered as substance for a class ‘B’ fire is _______.
A.Rags
B. Electrical insulation
C. Fuel oil
D. Chemical
Following the activation of the emergency position
indicating radio beacon, you should __________.
A.Turn it off for five minutes every half – hour

B.Turn it off during daylight hours
C.Leave it on continuously
D.Turn it off for 10 minutes every half - hour
The line throwing appliance is required to be tested on a
vessel ______.
A.Once a month
B.Once a year
C.Once every four months
D.Once every 6 months
If a rescuer discover a burn victim in the vicinity of
electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to ______.
A.Flush water over any burned area of the patient

B.Apply ointment to the burned areas on the patient
C.Shutdown electrical power in the area
D.Leave it on continuously
Which of the listed precautions should be taken when
testing a line throwing gun?
A.Never remove the line from the rocket

B.Fire it at angle of approximately 90 degrees to the
horizon.
C.Wear asbestos gloves.
D.All of these
Maximum allowable working pressure for each oil
transfer hose assembly must be at least _____.
A.100 psi
B.150 psi
C.200 psi
D.250 psi
Safe practice that is not recommended is _________.
A.Using tools for purpose for which they are not

designated
B.Securing equipment against slipping
C.Repairing loose handles on tools before using
Habit that must be ELIMINATED to prevent accident
is _______.
A.Unsafe actions
B.Good work practices
C.Orderliness
D.Good housekeeping
The situation that can CONTRIBUTE to accident is ____.
A.Unsafe conditions
B.Good housekeeping
C.Intelligent work habits
D.Orderliness
What is considered as the single greatest REASON of
accidents?
A.Human error
B.Speed
C.Goodwill
D.Orderliness
Specific gravity of fuel is measured at _______.
A.15 C
B.10 C
C. 25 C
D. 30 C
The practice to be done when a vessel is in port and
necessary to pump bilges is to pump only _______.
A.If the discharge is led to a shore tank or barge

B.During the hours of darkness
C.As much as necessary
Heated fuel oil gives off vapor heavier than air and
is ________.
A.Odorless
B. Explosive
C. Nontoxic
D. Goodwill
Every cargo hoses assembly must have least a minimum
bursting pressure of ______.
A.42 kg/cm2
B. 49 kg/cm2
C. 35 kg/cm2
D. 40 kg/cm2
A free surface effects of a partially filled tank in a floating
vessel, increase with the _______.
A.Surface area of the fluid in the tank

B.Displacement volume of the vessel
C.Draft of the vessel
Which of the listed fixed fire extinguishing systems is
most effective for use in the cargo holds?
A.Sprinkle
B.Chemical foam
C.Dry chemical
D.CO2
When a fixed firefighting system on a vessel is not of the
premix type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested
by _______.
A.The safety officer aboard the vessel
B.The designated person – in – charge of the unit
C.The manufacturer, or his authorized representative
If hydrogen sulfide has been encountered on a vessel, or
is anticipated, monitoring devices must sound an alarm
(differing from the lower concentration alarm) or
otherwise warn persons when the concentration of the
gas reaches or exceeds how many part per million?
A.20
B.50
C.100
D.200
To do fighting a fire on deck with foam is to __________.
A.Play the foam stream directly on the burning oil

B.Play the foam stream off nearby vertical vessel
structures
C.Only use the foam on flowing liquids
Difference between the starboard and port drafts due to
wind or seas is termed ________.
A.List
B.Heel
C.Trim
D.Flotation
If hydrogen sulfide is burned (flared) on a vessel, which
of t he following conditions can be expected to happen?
A.All the hydrogen sulfide will be converted to sulfur

dioxide
B.All the hydrogen sulfide will be converted to hydrogen
sand free sulfur
C.Only 80% of the hydrogen sulfide will be converted to
sulfur dioxide
What condition does a weather – tight door on a vessel
must not allow water to penetrate into the unit?
A.In 70 knot winds

B.1n 100 knot winds
C.In any sea condition
D.In 50 knot winds
Every firefighting equipment carried as extra to the
minimum requirements on a vessel must _______.
A.Meet the applicable standards

B.Be marked as additional equipment
C.All of these
Persons who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of
exposure to hydrogen sulfide can stand _________.
A.Unusually large concentration of hydrogen sulfide H2S

B.Smaller than normal concentrations of hydrogen sulfide
C.Moderate concentrations of hydrogen sulfide without
the usual reactions
D.Longer exposure to hydrogen sulfide concentrations
If fire occurs in a raptured oil cargo tank, caused by an
explosion or collision, the best firefighting agent to use is:
A.Water
B. CO2
C. Foam
D. Gas
Height measured from the bottom of the hull to the water
line is known as _______.
A.Tonnage
B. Draft
C. Freeboard
D. In the galley
The ship’s operation that is required to be logged in the
Oil Record Book is _______.
A.Cleaning of fuel oil tanks.

B.Shifting suction of main fuel pump to reserve fuel oil
tank.
C.Daily inspection of engine room bilges.
Self – closing doors are required on the vessel _______.
A.In the galley

B. In the stairway
C. To the engine room
D. Freeboard
Component/s that is/ are required equipment for a
lifeboat includes _________.
A. A boathook
B.Painter
C.Whistle
D.All of these
Crew has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a
reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. This
is an example of __________.
A.Minor burn
B.Extremity burn
C.First degree burn
D.Painter
In the upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance
between the keel and the ______.
A.Waterline
B. Plimsoll mark
C.Amidship section
D.Certification section
Fuel oil tank vents must be fitted with corrosion resistant
screens to avoid _______.
A.Escape of flammable vapors

B.Entry of sea water
C.Flames entering the tank
D.Waterline
Every ventilation system for an enclosed classified
location on a vessel must provide a complete change of
air every ________.
A.Three minutes
B. Five minutes
C. Seven minutes
D. Ten minutes
The Oil Record Book be maintained onboard the vessel
for _______.
A.Not less than 3 years and be readily available for

inspection.
B.6 months and then submitted to the nearest Marine
Safety Office for review.
C.An annual inspection.
Upper Explosive Unit (UEL) of a mixture of flammable
vapors and air is defined as _____.
A.The concentration above which just enough flammable

vapors exist to produce an explosion
B.The concentration above which the mixture is to rich to
burn
When inspecting a survival craft, it should checked to
ensure that the ______.
A.Hydraulic starting system has been drained

B.Hydraulic pressure is within the specified range
C.Steering controls are locked
Either can be used aboard a survival craft to _______.
A.Start the engine in cold weather

B.Prime the sprinkle r system
C.Prime the air supply
In the treatment of sunstroke consists principally
of _________.
A.Cooling and have the victim lay down

B.Bathing with rubbing alcohol
C.All of these
When the engine of a survival craft does not start, the
most possible cause is ______.
A.The fuel valve is still close

B.The air supply system is not open
C.Cooling and have the victim lay down
D.Prime the air supply
The procedure in loading a survival craft with crew if it
not loaded to its full capacity, the survival craft should
be ________.
A.Loaded more on port side to forward
B.Loaded equally on both sides with more forward
C.Loaded equally on both sides with more aft
D.Allowed to sit anywhere
A Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must
be _________.
A.Connected to the fire hydrant

B.Capped on the ends for protection
C.Supplied with a smooth bore nozzle
D.Loaded more on port side to forward
In preventing rags from spontaneous ignition is
to ________.
A.Discard as soon as possible

B.Keep it in the paint locker
C.Supplied with a smooth bore nozzle
D.Allowed to sit anywhere
To get the greatest lasting effect on the crew with respect
to safety is _______.
A.Incorporating safety practices in daily routine

B.Publishing complete qualification
C.Showing video tapes of actual accidents
D.Keep it in the paint locker
Following the use of paints and solvents aboard a vessel,
they should be ______.
A.Returned to the paint locker after each use

B.Continuously keep in closed containers at all times
C.Covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from
ignition sources
Precaution to prevent fire in the engine room is to _____.
A.Eliminate potential fuel sources

B.Improve personnel qualification
C.Eliminate trip hazards
To engine room bilge fire, the best way to extinguish it is
by _________.
A.Dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water

B.Foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
C.Covered with a fine mesh screen to protect from
ignition sources
D.Continuously keep in closed containers at all times
Danger should be prepared for next after an oil fire have
just been extinguished on the floor plates of the engine
room with 6.8 kg CO2 extinguisher is the __________.
A.Rekindling of the fire
B.Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room
C.Cooling the metal below its ignition temperature
D.Continuously keep in closed containers at all times
The necessity to cool the bulkheads and deck
surrounding a compartment where there is a fire is for the
purpose of _________.
A.Preventing the fire from spreading by the conduction of
heat
B.Cooling the metal below its ignition temperature
C.Stand on the outside of the craft to assist the person
being lifted
D.Remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to
the helicopter
If a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the
other individuals in the craft should _________.
A.Stand on the outside of the craft to assist the person

being lifted
B.Remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to
the helicopter
C.Remain seated inside the craft to provide body weight
for stability
D.Preventing the fire from spreading by the conduction of
heat
If a person is suffering from heat exhaustion, is effectively
treated by _________.
A.Put him in a tub of ice water

B.Give him sips of cool saline solution
C.Take his blood pressure
D.Cooling the metal below its ignition temperature
If an electrical fire has been extinguished with a dry
chemical agent, there is a possibility of the __________.
A.Electrical relays being rendered inoperative

B.Chemical crystals suffocating the fire fighter
C.Take his blood pressure
D.Cooling the metal below its ignition temperature
In maintaining fire hoses, you should __________.
A.Keep exterior linings damp by periodic wash downs

B.Keep them thoroughly drained after each use
C.Keep them partially filled with fresh water
D.Take his blood pressure
What should be done by the first person to arrive at the
survival craft during an abandonship or even during a
drill?
A.He should activate the emergency release handle
B.He should open the doors and prepare the craft for
boarding
C.Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog until the fire
is reportedly extinguished
D.Keep exterior linings damp by periodic wash downs
Which of the following methods should be used to
prevent a class ‘A’ fire from spreading to the adjacent
compartments in a topside compartment with steel
bulkhead?
A.Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog until the fire
is reportedly extinguished.
B.Sweep all exterior surfaces with water fog until steam
is no longer produced, secure the nozzle, and repeat
as necessary.
C.He should activate the emergency release handle
D.He should open the doors and prepare the craft for
boarding
The MAJOR disadvantage in the use of a dry chemical
fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is that the ________.
A.Powder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter

B.Dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may
render electrical equipment inoperative
C.Extinguisher will need to be recharged
Scuppers on deck during bunkering should be
plugged ___________.
A.Only if fixed containment drains are open

B.Whenever the vessel is being fueled
D.Powder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter
Class ‘C’ fire would most likely arise in the _________.
A.Main switchboard
B.Paint locker
C.Rag bin
D.Slop tank
In retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should
stop the winch and check __________.
A.That all personnel are seated in the craft

B.That the cable has not jumped any grooves on the
drum
D.Only if fixed containment drains are open
The limit switches are situated on the survival craft winch
systems for vessels to _________.
A.Stop the winch just before the craft reaches final

stowage position
B.Limit the amount of cable on the drum
Physical effort on the part of a person who has fallen into
called water can ________.
A.Be the best thing to try if there were no rescue in sight

B.Increase survival time in the water
C.Increase the rate of heat loss from the body
D.Limit the amount of cable on the drum
In fighting a fire with portable dry chemical extinguisher
you should always _______.
A.Direct the stream of chemical toward the base of the

fire
B.Attack the fire from the leeward side
C.Limit the amount of cable on the drum
D.Increase survival time in the water
Class ‘C” fire would happen in _____________.
A.Bedding
B.Paint
C.A generator
D.Navigational system
Every vessel personnel should be familiar with the
survival craft _________.
A.Boarding and operating procedures

B.Maintenance schedule
C.Navigational system
D.A generator
The statements concerning fire hose couplings is TRUE
is _______.
A.Fire hose couplings can be easily damage by dropping.

B.Fire hose couplings should be painted red
C.Only if fixed containment drains are open
D.Immerse the feet in warm water
Air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled
with _________.
A.Oxygen
B.Nitrogen
C.Compressed air
D.Gas
If crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of the
feet, you should ______.
A.Immerse the feet in warm water

B.Warm the feet with a heat lamp
C.Warm the feet at room temperature
D.A noxious environment
Sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut,
the survival craft will be sheltered from ______.
A.A noxious environment

B.A fire and toxic environment
C.Hurricane
Considered a class ‘C’ if it is burning _________.
A.Magnesium
B.Dunnage
C.Electrical insulation
D.Gas
Every fire hose should always be stowed at the fire
station in the hose rack _______.
A.After the hose has been completely drained

B.With the nozzle in the solid stream position
C.Warm the feet with a heat lamp
D.A noxious environment
Better treatment of frostbite is to __________.
A.Rub with ice or snow

B.Wrap tightly in warm cloths
C.Warm exposed parts rapidly
D.Warm the feet with a heat lamp
The source/s of ignition may cause fuel vapors to ignite
by ________.
A.Static electricity
B.An open and running motor
C.Loose wire
D.All of these
Fire hoses are tested on a vessel_________.
A.Once a month
B. Once a year
C. During each drill
D. Twice a year
What should you do if a vessel takes a sudden severe list
or trim from an unknown reason?
A.Determine first the cause before taking

countermeasures
B.Assume that the shift is due to off center loading
C.Controls the rate of discharge of carbon dioxide into
the engine room
D.Delays the release of carbon dioxide into the engine
room
The function of the small gas accumulator cylinder,
attached to the discharge piping of the engine room fixed
CO2 system is it ___________.
A.Absorbs the pressure shock to the piping resulting
from the initial release of carbon dioxide
B.Delays the release of carbon dioxide into the engine
room
C.Controls the rate of discharge of carbon dioxide into
the engine room
D.Assume that the shift is due to off center loading
During the patching holes in the hull of a vessel, pillows,
bedding, and other soft materials can be used as _____.
A.Caulking
B.Gaskets
C.Strongbacks
D.Bracing
What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first
aid?
A.It controls bleeding

B.It immobilizes fractured bone
C.It resets the bone
D.Righting moment
A Crude Oil Washing (COW) system is a ______.
A.Water operated Butterworth system

B.Mechanism which filters and purifies crude oil
C.Butterworth system using crude oil instead of water
as the cleaning medium
D.It immobilizes fractured bone
What is the abbreviation ‘GM’ is used to represent?
A.Height of the metacenter

B.Righting moment
C.Metacentric height
You can find your assigned emergency stations on board
ships on the ______.
A.Clearance papers
B.Certificate of inspection
C.Station bill
D.Righting moment
What do you call the process of strengthening damaged
structures on a vessel by using wood or steel?
A.Bracing
B.Battening
C.Shoring
D.Caulking
The thing you will do when a CO2 fire extinguisher
provided aboard a vessel has lost 10% of its charge
is _________.
A.It should be recharged
B.It should be weighed again in one month
C.Apply a tourniquet without delay
D.Alternately apply hot and cold compresses
The thing you will do if a person suffers a simple fracture
in the limb is to ________.
A.Prevent further movement of the bone

B.Apply a tourniquet without delay
C.Alternately apply hot and cold compresses
D.It should be weighed again in one month
The activity you will do when shoring a damaged
bulkhead on a vessel, is to spread the pressure over
a ________.
A.Maximum possible area
B.Minimum possible area
C.Station bill
D.Vessel’s logbook
Where can you find the location of your abandon ship
place of duty?
A.Certificate of inspection
B.Station bill
C.Vessel’s logbook
D.Minimum possible area
What is the objective of shoring the damaged area of a
vessel?
A.To force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections

back into place
B.To support and hold the area in its damaged position
C.To make a watertight seal at the damaged area
D.Control valve, then shut off the engine room
ventilation
The thing you do in order to release CO2 to the
machinery spaces is you must physically open the
engine room ________.
A.Control valve, then open the CO2 releasing valve
B.Control valve, then shut off the engine room
ventilation
C.To make a watertight seal at the damaged area
D.To force the warped, bulged, or deformed sections
back into place
In the fighting a vessel fire in a watertight compartment
with hoses could reduce the stability of the ship by
__________.
A.Reducing the level of drill water from the storage
tanks
B.Causing a list due to the water in the compartment
C.Reducing the KG to minimum allowable
D.To make a watertight seal at the damaged area
When a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system on a vessel
having a capacity of over 300 lbs. (136 kilograms) CO2, it
should protect spaces other than tanks, and have _____.
A.Two or more releasing stations
B.An audible alarm and time delay
C.An audible and visible alarm
What is a compound fracture?
A.A fracture in which more than one bone is broken

B.A fracture in which the same bone is broken in more
than one place
C.A fracture which causes external bleeding at the site
of the fracture
D.Reduce the water pressure on the hull
The functions of rags, wedges, or other materials are
used in conjunction with plugs, when plugging
submerged holes on a vessel, is to _____.
A.Reduce the water pressure on the hull
B.Reduce the water leaking in around the plugs
C.A fracture in which more than one bone is broken
D.A fracture in which the same bone is broken in more
than one place
You can find a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing or other
approved system installed on board a vessel _________.
A.In a space with an oil fired boiler

B.In paint lockers
C.All of the above
D.Where oil or chemical drums are stored
The thing to do when maintenance is undertaken at sea,
the engine personnel shall take precaution to
_________.
A.Sudden roll of the ship
B.Empty the bilges
C.Fill fuel service tank
D.Shiny rubber slippers
To protect toes against accidental falling of heavy parts,
the outfit to be used is ______.
A.Suitable footwear
B.Black boots
C.Shiny rubber slippers
D.Empty the bilges
During bunkering and fixing the hose connection on
deck, when the area is covered by snow, the material
that should be spread over the snow to avoid slipping is
____.
A.Pebble
B.Sand
C.Gravel
To do in the event of a small bunker oil spill on deck while
fueling is _________.
A.Wash down the area immediately with a fire hose

B.Cover the area with saw dust
C.Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode
D.The operating water tank is full of water
The appropriate precaution should be taken when an
engineer on duty enters a UMS-mode operated engine
room due to an ALARM is to _________.
A.Switch on the dead man alarm upon entering the
control room
B.Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS mode
C.Wash down the area immediately with a fire hose
D.Cover the area with saw dust
What deck be the pressure tested when testing the
emergency fire pump?
A.Highest deck
B.Lowest deck
C.Main deck
The reason why the bowl of a fuel oil purifier fails to open
for sludge discharge is ____.
A.Clogged strainer of operating water high pressure

side
B.The operating water tank is full of water
water line
D.To increase the pressure of the jacket cooling
What is the purpose of the expansion tank in a closed
type jacket cooling water system of a diesel engine?
A.To accommodate for an increase in water volume

B.To increase the pressure of the jacket cooling
water line
D.The operating water tank is full of water
The type of electric light fittings used in pump rooms
is _________.
A.Acid proof
B.Flame proof
C.Water proof
D.Shock proof
What precaution should be taken when an engineer on
duty is inspecting a UMS-mode operated engine room at
NIGHT?
A.Do not silence the alarm so the other engineer can
hear
B.Switch on the dead man’s alarm upon entering the
control room
C.The operating water tank is full of water
D.There is a mixture of seawater in the operating
water line
The effect of a decrease in “GM” to a vessel with a list
is ___________.
A.The angle of inclination will decrease

B.The angle of inclination increase
C.The angle of inclination will remain constant
D.Steam smothering system
The firefighting systems best suited for fighting a fire in
an oil tanker’s ballast control room is _________.
A.Steam smothering system

B.Dry chemical system
C.Carbon dioxide system
D.The angle of inclination will decrease
The true statement concerning chemical foam is ______.
A.It is formed as a result of the reaction between dry

powder and water
B.It is recommended for use on fires in main
propulsion electric motors
C.It is useful in fighting only chemical fires
D.Geometric center of the water plane area
The stability is determined principally by the location of
two points in a vessel, the center of buoyancy and
the ___________.
A.Metacenter
B.Geometric center of the water plane area
C.Center of gravity
D.Steam smothering system
The thing to do when a number of survivors is in the
water after abandoning a vessel is ______.
A.They should group to form a small circle of survivors

to create a warmer pocket of water in the center of
the circle
B.They should send the strongest swimming to shore
for assistance
C.They should form a raft by lashing their lifejackets
together
D.It is useful in fighting only chemical fires
The propellant cartridge of cartridge-operated dry
chemical fire extinguishers used on vessels should be
weighed every:
A.Six months
B.12 months
C.Two years
D.Three months
Except there is danger of further injury, a person with a
broken bone should not be moved until bleeding is
controlled and ________.
A.The bone has been set
B.The fracture is immobilized
C.Remain constant
D.Stabilize at an angle of loll
If the vessel is listing, an increase in ‘GM’ will cause the
inclination to _________.
A.Stabilize at an angle of loll

B.Decrease
C.Remain constant
D.The bone has been set
Each crew on the ship has a designated area to proceed
to in the event of a fire. This duty is shown clearly on the
ship’s:
A.Shipping articles
B.Certificate of inspection
C.Station bill
D.Vessel’s logbook
The fire watch should be stationed when welding a
compartment _________.
A.In the same compartment

B.No need to have a fire watch
C.Below the compartment
D.Outside the compartment
What material has the best heat conduction?
A.Metal
B.Gas
C.Liquid
D.Glass
In a vessel, a sprinkler system is normally used to protect
the ______.
A.Accommodation area
B.Engine room
C.Galley ducts
D.Navigational equipment
What is the time to get familiarized with the emergency
exits on board the vessel?
A.Immediately after boarding

B.Before boarding
C.When you have some extra time
D.In the same compartment
Where do you find the operation and maintenance
instructions for the extinguishers?
A.On the label of the extinguishers

B.On the emergency instructions
C.In the same compartment
D.Immediately after boarding
The sufficient capacity of operation of breathing air
apparatus that must be on board as per SOLAS
regulation shall have a duration for use at least _______.
A.30 minutes
B.20 minutes
C.45 minutes
D.50 minutes
The hot work that is considered as on board is ______.
A.Grinding
B.Dismantling a pump
C.Chipping
D.Flame detectors
What is the type of fire detectors that first to actuate if a
fire occurs on board?
A.Smoke detectors
B.Flame detectors
C.Heat detectors
D.Dismantling a pump
What are the components that have to be present in
order to have a fire?
I – Oxygen
II – Heat
III – Carbon dioxide
IV – Combustible material

A. I, II, and IV
B. I, II, and III
C. II, III, and IV
D. I, III and IV
In a class “A” fire, to normally remove the heat is by
the _________.
A.Use of water or foam

B.Use of CO2 or foam
C.Powder or CO2
D.Faulty electrical equipment
What is the most common CAUSE of fire in the engine
room?
A.Faulty electrical equipment

B.Oil leaks and hot surfaces
C.A rigid survival craft is in the area
D.There is burning oil on the water
In case of an evacuation from a vessel, an individual
without the option of a survival craft or life raft should
enter the water on the leeward side, except when _____.
A.There is burning oil on the water
B.Water temperature is below 5 Deg. C
C.A rigid survival craft is in the area
In the evacuation from a vessel, an individual without the
option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the water
on the leeward side, except when __________.
A.There is a rescue craft in the area
B.There is hydrogen sulfide present
C.Water temperature is below 5 deg. C
In case of evacuation from a vessel, an individual without
the option of a survival craft or liferaft should enter the
water on the leeward side, except when ________.
A.There is a rescue craft in the area
B.Water temperature is below 5 deg. C
C.There is a severe list to the windward side of the
vessel
D. A rigid survival craft in the area
Just after being launched from a vessel, a totally
enclosed survival craft which has been afloat over a long
period of time, requires ___________.
A.Frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh
air
B.Regular checks of bilge levels
C.There is hydrogen sulfide present
D.There is burning oil on the water
The in charged in appointing persons to be in command
of the lifeboats and/or liferafts on a vessels is the _____.
A.Ship superintendent
B.Company representative
C.Designated person-in-charge
D.Shipping articles
The self-righting survival craft will return to a upright
position provided that all personnel _____.
A.Are seated with seatbelts on and doors shut

B.Are seated with seatbelts on and doors open
C.Escape from the craft
D.Last man aboard
The class of fire would probably occur in the Boiler room
bilges is __________.
A.Class A
B.Class B
C.Class C
D.Class D
What is the purpose for the bag or box on top of some
survival craft?
A.To right it in case of capsize

B.To increase area for radar detection
C.To steady the craft in heavy seas
D.Escape from the craft
The one responsible for lowering the survival craft is
the _______.
A.First man aboard

B.Last man aboard
C.Helmsman
In activating an air regeneration canister on a survival
craft, you __________.
A.Put into an container of water

B.Tear off the tabs on the canister
C.Push “on” button
D.To steady the craft in heavy seas
If a patient has an electrical burn, after checking
breathing and pulse, __________.
A.Look for an second burn, which may have been

caused by the current exiting body
B.Locate the nearest water source and flood the burn
with water for five minutes
C.Apply ointment to the burn area and wrap with clean
cloth
D.Put into an container of water
What should the air regeneration canister on a survival
craft last?
A.One hour
B.Two hours
C.Three hours
D.Four hours
What should you do when abandoning a vessel, after the
launching of the survival craft?
A.Plot a course for the nearest land

B.Take a vote on which direction you should go
C.Stay in the immediate area
D. Put into an container of water
Which of the following substances would be burning in a
class ‘B’ fire on a tanker vessel?
A.Oil
B.Wood
C.Electrical wiring
D.Powder or CO2
What does fire detecting systems on merchant vessels
sense?
A.Smoke
B.Rate of temperature rise
C.Ionized particles
D.All of these
In stowing a fire hose, they are normally stowed with
the _______.
A.Female end connected to the fire hydrant

B.Female end connected to the nozzle
C.Female end and nozzle arranged to be quickly run
out to the fire
D.Take a vote on which direction you should go
What should you do if help has not arrived in 10 to 12
hours after having abandoned a vessel in a survival
craft?
A.Take a vote on which direction you should go
B.Shutdown the engines and set the sea anchor
C.Female end connected to the nozzle
D.Female end connected to the fire hydrant
To treat heat exhaustion of a person is by __________.
A.Moving to a shaded area and laying down

B.Bathing with rubbing alcohol
C.Placing patient in a tub of cold water
D.All these
What will be the outcome in steering a survival craft
broadside to the sea?
A.Capsize
B.Run smoother
C.Run faster
D. Smoke
The burning material/s would be described as a class ‘B’
fire is/are _________.
A.Acetylene
B.Lube oil
C.Grease
D.All of these
Typical automatic fire alarm system, all zone circuits are
always connected _______.
A.In parallel
B.In series
C.To the detecting cabinet
D.Run smoother
Good stowed fire hose is either faked or rolled into a rack
with the ___________.
A.Male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant

B.Nozzle end arranged to be easily run out to the fire
C.Cold and dry skin, low body temperature
D.Hot and moist skin, high body temperature
The symptom of heat stroke is __________.
A.Cold and dry skin, low body temperature

B.Hot and moist skin, high body temperature
C.Hot and dry skin, high body temperature
D. Male end attached to the adjacent fire hydrant
How does dry chemical extinguishing agents extinguish a
fire?
A.By smothering and removing the oxygen from the

fuel
B.By breaking up the molecular chain reaction
C.By removing the fuel by absorbing the heated
vapors
D.The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
The fuel aboard a survival craft should last at a speed of
six knots in __________.
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.24 hours
D.48 hours
The fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main
in a manner which will allow ________.
A.All sections to be quickly connected

B.The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
C.All sections to be quickly drained
D.They are for additional flotation
What is the use of bottles of compressed air in the
survival craft?
A.They are used for personnel air supply

B.They are for additional flotation
C.They are used for priming the sprinkler system
D.All sections to be quickly connected
When the air supply is on, the air pressure in the survival
craft will be __________.
A.Less than outside air pressure

B.Greater than outside air pressure
C.Equal to outside air pressure
D.They are for additional flotation
In case of small oil spills on deck, can be prevented from
contaminating any waters by ________.
A.Plugging all scuppers and drains

B.Placing floating booms around the ship
C.Regularly emptying all drip pans
D.They are used for priming the sprinkler system
After a safety hazards are recognized and reported,
appropriate action should be taken to minimize _______.
A.Work
B.Danger
C.Record
D.Hot gas
In cold weather, moisture trapped in the equipment may
freeze and cause valves to malfunction, that equipment
is thawed out by ___________.
A.Hot water
B.Welding torch
C.Hot gas
D.Danger
Who should inspect before use, to ensure that a welding
and flame cutting equipment is in a serviceable
condition?
A.Master
B.Chief engineer
C.Fitter
D.Competent person
The fire hazards in the machinery spaces are ________.
I – Warm water in the cascade tank

II – Arc welding activity at the lowest flat
III – Exposed exhaust manifold

A.I and II
B.II & III
C.I & III
D.I, II & III
What is the space where the ventilation is NOT
functioning on around the clock basis?
A.Enclosed space
B.Machinery space
C.Provision space
D.Accommodation space
The cause if there is a charge air pressure drop in a
generator engine is ________.
A.Turbocharger air filter fouled

B.Fouled nozzle ring of the turbocharger
C.Turbocharger tachometer damaged
D.Fuel supply too much
The cause of too high exhaust temperature in one
cylinder of a 6-cylinder generator engine is _______.
A.Timing of the fuel pump changed

B.Fuel supply too much
C.Fouled nozzle ring of the turbocharger
D.Turbocharger air filter fouled
During seven-day period, the minimum standard rest of
an officer in charge of the engineering watch must
be _________.
A.50 hours
B.60 hours
C.70 hours
D.80 hours
In relieving time, the outgoing in charge of the
engineering watch should __________.
A.Check that the reliever is capable to carry out watch

keeping duties
B.Stop the main engine before relieving time
C.Leave the engine room immediately
D.Activate the main bank all at once
What is the use of ‘pilot’ cylinders in a fixed CO2 system?
A.Activate individual groups of CO2 bottles in a

predetermined time delay sequence
B.Activate the main bank all at once
C.Automatically activate the main bank if an abnormal
heat rise is detected
D.Stop the main engine before relieving time
Which of the listed devices must be provided on a vessel
helicopter deck equipped with fueling facilities?
A.Fuel testing station

B.Foam fire protection system
C.Fire alarm
D.Fuel supply too much
What should you do in treating a shipmate with a
compound fracture in his/her lower arm?
A.Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line,

splint and apply a pressure dressing
B.Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the
bleeding, and splint
C.Apply a bulky, sterile, pressure dressing to control
bleeding, then apply a temporary splint and place the
victim in bed
D.Sweeping the fire before you with the foam
Method for effectively applying foam on a fire is
by __________.
A.Flowing the foam down in a vertical surface

B.Sweeping the fire before you with the foam
C.Apply traction to the hand to keep the bones in line,
splint and apply a pressure dressing
D.Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the
Fire on a vessel should be addressed _________.
A.Immediately after restoring vital services

B.Immediately
C.Following control of flooding
D.Stop the main engine before relieving time
What should you do to keep injured survivors warm in the
water after abandoning a vessel?
A.Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by

the other survivors in the water
B.Remove their lifejackets and hold on to the uninjured
survivors
C.Force the ends of the bones back into line, treat the
D.Sweeping the fire before you with the foam
The fire extinguishing agent is used, that involves
covering the burning surface by deflecting the agent from
a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation is ________.
A.Foam
B.Dry chemical
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Halon
What is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by a
vessel floating in sea water?
A.Weight required to sink the vessel

B.Total weight of the vessel
C.Displaced submerged volume
D.List to increase
Vessel with transverse inclination, an increase in ‘GM’
would make its ________.
A.List to decrease
B.Trim to decrease
C.List to increase
D.Displaced submerged volume
The emergency position-indicating radio beacon be
activated after abandoning a vessel _______.
A.Immediately
B.After on hour
C.Only when another vessel is in sight
D.Trim to decrease
The treatment that is NOT for traumatic shock is ______.
A.Have the injured person lie down

B.Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation
C.Relieve the pain of the injury
D.Keep the patient warm, but not hot
To use foam in extinguishing ‘class B’ fire is __________.
A.By cooling the surface

B.By replacing the fuel
C.By smothering the fire
D.All of the above
Used to designate the combination of all parts which
control the admission of the air charge and discharge of
exhaust gases in four stroke engines.
A.Valve gear
B.Valve union
C.Valve timing
D.Timing valves
When reciprocating pumps run by steam the power end
is called:
A.Steam end
B.Liquid steam
C.Steam base
D.Liquid rectifier
The sedimentation tank receives the fuel from the
storage tanks where after settling:
A.Daily purging is effectuated
B.Monthly purging is necessary
C.Gas purging is necessary
D.Hourly purging is effectuated
Of the following safety information’s which can be
found in the fire control plans posted:
A.Bridge station
B.Hall station
C.Location of fire doors
D.Escape tunnel
Is an eccentric projection on a revolving disc used for the
opening and closing of a valve through various
intermediate parts:
A.Piston
B.Cam
C.Nozzle
D.Oppressor
The temperature at which the oil vapor above oil will flash
when a small flame is applied:
A. Flash point
B. Quick point
C. Set point
D. Reaction point
An axial flow pump uses a:
A.Piston
B.Screw propeller
C.Oscillating vane
D.Volute
The oil system fails while underway, what is the first thing
to do?
A.Re-start the stand by lube-oil pump

B.Secure the boiler
C.Open the outlet value on the gravity tank
D.Tap the main engine
You are testing leaks in a newly repaired refrigeration circuit. Which substance
should not be used to develop pressure in the circuits?
A.Oxygen
B.Brine
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Aluminum gel
The term used when a number of individually small holes are bored within the
thickness of a part so that water can be passes closed to the heated surface.
A.Bore cooling
B.Reduce effect
C.Saturated cooling
D.Thermal cooling
In avoiding excessive pressure during bunkering,
you should:
A.Reduce the loading rate when topping off
B.Close main talk filling valves
C.Top of all tanks at the same time
D.Close non-return valve
It is essential to smooth operation?
A.Alignment
B.Under stress
C.Vibration
D.Torsion
What oil is passed by the relief valve and is turned
to the oil fan?
A.Mineral oil
B.Natural oil
C.Surplus oil
D.Linseed oil
What refrigerated that will operate on lowest pressure and therefore required the
lowest compressor power consumption.
A.Brine
B.Careen 707
C.Freon
D.A – 1309
This is a type if electrical thermometer which uses
resistance change to measure temperature:
A.Thermocouples
B.Watt meter
C.Optical pyrometer
D.Piezo – electric pyrometer
This is an inert vapor, non-poisonous, odorless
and has no corrosive action of the metals:
A.Carbon naphtha
B.Carbon dioxide
C.Carbon peroxide
D.Carbon monoxide
Immediately after any diesel engine is started the
engineer should check the ______.
A.Crankcase pressure
B.Lube oil pressure
C.Saltwater pressure
D.Exhaust temperature
What is the main reason why heavy fuel oil must
be pre-heated prior to use in a low speed engine?
A.Decreased moisture content
B.Increase cetane number
C.Decrease viscosity
D.Increase ignition quality
The cubic inch displacement of an engine or cylinder is
determined by the diameter of the piston and the ______.
A.Length of the crankshaft

B.Volume of the clearance space
C.Weight of the piston
D.Length of the stroke
One disadvantage of a two-stroke cycle diesel engine
is ________.
A. More power stroke per revolution

B. The use of scavenge air
C. More complicated value gear
D. Higher working temperature of piston and cylinder
A piston is said to be at top dead center when it is _____.
A.Opening the exhaust ports

B.Closing the fuel ports
C.Farthest from the cylinder head
D.Nearest to the cylinder head
Improper (poor) combustion in a diesel engine could be
cause by__________.
A.High compression pressure

B.Low intake air temperature
C.Low exhaust pressure
D.High scavenge air pressure
Cylinder lubrication oil for low speed propulsion diesel
engines is admitted to each cylinder during:
A.Power stroke
B.Compression stroke
C.Low load operation only
D.Periods of standby
Loop, uniflow and return flow are terms uses to describe
various types of:
A.Control air circuits

B.Super changing
C.Turbo changing
D.Scavenging
Normally the greatest cavitations erosion on the
waterside of wet cylinder liners is ______.
A.Throughput the lower one-half of the liner

B.Throughout the upper one-half of the liner
C.At DC opposite the thrust side of the liner
D.Near the middle of the thrust side of the liner
A substantial increase in crankcase pressure could be an
indication of a/an ______.
A.Worn cylinder liner

B.Faulty cylinder relief value
C.Excessive lube oil pressure
D.Excessive scavenge air pressure
What instrument is used to take crankshaft web
deflection readings?
A.A feeler
B.An outside micrometer
C.A strain gauge
D.A gauge block
In a diesel engine, blow by __________.
A.Increase exhaust back pressure

B.Causes excessive crankcase pressure
C.Can only be detected by a compression check
D.Decreases fuel consumption
An increase in crankcase pressure generally
indicates ________.
A.Worn connecting rod bearings

B.Worn engine cylinder liners
C.High cylinder firing pressure
D.Stuck spring loaded manhole covers
Wear is usually greatest at the top of the cylinder bore
of a diesel engine because the ________ there.
A.Side thrust is greatest

B.Skirt makes greatest contact
C.Highest pressures are exerted
D.Acceleration rate is greatest
In what portion of two cycle opposed piston diesel engine
cylinder does maximum wear occur?
A.Upper end
B.Lower end
C.Middle
D.Thrust side
A properly honed cylinder liner in an diesel engine
will __________.
A.Prevent piston ring wear

B.Shorten the ring break-in period
C.Prevent cylinder liner glazing
D.Appear slick and glazed
Which of the following will have the direct impact on the
rate of wear in cylinder liner _________?
A.Amount of scavenge air to the cylinder

B.Quality of fuel injected
C.Viscosity of the lube oil
D.Compression ratio of the piston
At what condition could cause cylinder relief valves on a
large diesel engine to lift?
A.Plugged injection nozzles

B.Excessive fuel injection
C.Very late injection timing
D.Incorrect crankshaft clearance
If the relief valve or a diesel engine cylinder lifts, the cause could be _______.
A.Liquid in the cylinder

B.Low compression in the cylinder
C.High exhaust temperature
D.Poor fuel penetration
When compression pressure is checked, the indicator is
connected to the _______.
A.Cylinder exhaust ports

B.Injection line
C.Cylinder indicator cock
D.Banjo oiler line
What is called the lower section of a piston?
A.Land
B.Skirt
C.Crown
D.Plate
The diameter of a piston is usually less at the crown than
at the skirt, this done to _________.
A.Facilitate the installation of a piston rings

B.Allow for the expansion of the piston during operation
C.Prevent crankcase vapors from entering the
combustion chamber
D.Reduce wearing of the upper cylinder lines
Turbulence in the compressed air charge increases____.
A.Ignition lags
B.Piston side thrust
C.The efficiency of the engine
D.Compression pressure
In an auxiliary diesel engine, the reason the piston skirt is
knurled to _______.
A.Improved skirt lubrication

B.Allow for expansion
C.Transmit forces evenly
D.Improve the piston seal
What would cause a diesel engine to use too much lube
oil?
A.Dirty lube oil filter

B.Too much piston ring wear
C.High lube oil viscosity
D.Low lube oil temperature
Black areas on the sealing surface of piston rings
indicates _______.
A.Lube oil pumping

B.Rotating rings
C.Gas pressure behind the ring
D.Hot gas escaping
Improperly fitted piston rings in a diesel engine can
cause ________.
A.Excessive lube oil consumption

B.Lower than normal lube oil temperature
C.Higher than normal exhaust back pressure
D.Excessive crankshaft end play
A burned exhaust valve may be detected by a higher
than normal _______.
A.Firing pressure
B.Exhaust temperature from a particular cylinder
C.Cooling water temperature
D.Compression pressure
The easiest way to locate defective exhaust valve in a
propulsion diesel engine is by:
A.Taking compression readings

B.Inspecting the valves visually
C.Exhaust pyrometer readings
D.Listening to the engine
Increasing the exhaust valve tappet clearance of a diesel
engine will result in the exhaust valve opening
A.Later and closing earlier

B.Later and closing later
C.Earlier and closing earlier
D.Earlier and closing later
In a diesel engine, the time period between full injection
and ignition is usually defined as:
A.Injection duration
B.Ignition timing
C.Pre combustion lag
D.Ignition delay
The low-pressure steam drain system drains to the
_______.
A.De-aerating feed water heater

B.Contaminated drain inspection tank
C.Atmospheric drain tank
D.Main condenser hot well
Testing the viscosity of engine lube oil where result may
indicate _______.
A.Fuel oil dilution

B.Oxidation of the lube oil
C.(Both a and b) oxidation and dilution
D.Salinity and hardness
A metal scribe should only be used to
A.Remove packing
B.Mark the metal
C.Punch gaskets holes
D.Clean file teeth
What is the tool used to removed a ball bearing from the
shaft of a motor?
A.Sluggish wrench
B.Gear puller
C.Drift pin
D.Came along
The term referring to the number of teeth per inch on a
hacksaw blade is known as the
A.Set
B.Rake
C.Pitch
D.Thread gauge
A twist drill gage can be used to measure the drills_____.
A.Length
B.Diameter
C.Clearance angle
D.Web thickness
Which materials can be drilled at the highest speed?
A.Aluminum
B.Medium cost iron
C.Copper
D.High carbon steel
When checking Zinc plates in the condenser cooler, you
should ______.
A.Replace the plates if 50% deteriorated

B.Paint and insulate the plates to prevent corrosion
C.Renew the plates
D.File the plates to change the negative value
What is that device used for preventing the passage of
flames into enclosed space?
A.Flame relief value

B.Flame/spark arrester
C.Flame stopper
D.Safety valve
Which of the listed decreases the total dissolve solids
concentration in the water of an auxiliary boiler?
A.Frequent compounding
B.Chemical cleaning
C.Bottom blowing
D.Hydrazine treatment of condensate
At normal operating conditions, the refrigerant enters the compressor in an R-12 refrigeration system
as
a ________.
A.Liquid
B.Super heated vapor
C.Dry saturated gas
D.Wet saturated gas
What harmful effect can result if a diesel engine is
operated at very high loads for lone period of time?
A.Increase carbon build up

B.Increase fuel consumption
C.Burning of intake bulb
D.Excessive firing pressure
What kind of lube oil on reciprocating pump rods?
A.Oil mixed with kerosene

B.Graphite and oil
C.Used engine oil
D.Cold grease
The amount of refrigerant in a storage cylinder is
measured by ________.
A.Pressure
B.Volume
C.Weight
D.Temperature
A secondary refrigerant commonly used in shipboard/air
conditioning system is ________.
A.Methyl chloride
B.Water
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Trichloro ethylene
Which is a secondary refrigerant?
A.Methyl alcohol
B.Brine
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Cuprous chloride
Refrigerant enters the condenser as an
A.High pressure liquid

B.Low pressure vapor
C.High pressure vapor
D.Low pressure liquid
When refrigerant leaves the receiver, it next goes to
the ________.
A.Evaporator coils
B.Liquid strainer
C.Compressor
D.Condenser
What will cause an automatically controlled R – 12
compressors to start?
A.Closing of the solenoid valve

B.Closing of the expansion valve
C.Increasing suction pressure
D.Decreasing suction pressure
The low-pressure side of a refrigeration system is from
the ________.
A.Expansion valve to the compressor

B.Receiver to the expansion coil
C.Expansion valve to the evaporator
D.Condenser to the expansion valve
In refrigeration plant purpose of the receiver is to ______.
A.Cool the refrigerant gas

B.Superheat the refrigerant liquid
C.Store the refrigerant
D.Condense the refrigerant
The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain
constant _______.
A.Flow
B.Temperature
C.Superheat
D.Pressure
In refrigeration system, silica gel is used in the:
A.Condenser
B.Dehydrator
C.Liquid strainer
D.Hygrometer
When air is at its dew point it is at its ______ humidity.
A.Lowest absolute
B.Lowest relative
C.Highest absolute
D.Highest relative
In an air-conditioning system, moisture system moisture
is removed from the air by _____.
A.Filters
B.Separator
C.Ducted traps
D.Dehumidifiers
Compressor crankcase sweating is an indicator of _____.
A.Insufficient lube oil

B.Excessive lube oil
C.Liquid refrigerant in the compressor
D.An overworked compressor
Efficient combustion in a boiler is indicated by a
________ haze.
A.White
B.Brown
C.Yellow
D.Black
Pulsating fires in a boiler furnace can be caused by ____.
A.Low fuel temperature

B.Too much air
C.Low fuel pressure
D.Too little air
Oil or scale in boiler tubes will cause ________.
A.Those tubes to overheat

B.Decreased boiler steam pressure
C.Increased boiler steam pressure
D.An explosion in the boiler
The fusible plugs used in the fire-tube auxiliary boilers
are installed in the _____.
A.Furnace
B.End bell
C.Stay tube
D.Crown sheet
The air cock on a boiler allows the _______.
A.Waterside to be purged of air

B.Boiler casing to be purged of air
C.Super heater to be completely vented
D.Economize to be vented
The bottom blow valve on a water tube boiler is usually
attached to the ______.
A.Steam and water drum

B.Boiler mud drum
C.Extend down comers
D.Floor tubes
Sodium phosphate in boiler water can be measured by
a/an _______ lost.
A.Alkalinity
B.Phosphate
C.Chlorinity
D.Calcium hardness
Phenolphthalein in indicator is used to test boiler water
for _______.
A.Dissolved oxygen
B.Alkalinity
C.Chloride content
D.Hardness
A sulfide test is conducted on boiler water to check
for _______.
A.Nitrates
B.Sulfates
C.Phosphates
D.Excess oxygen scavenging agents
The condensers located in the various stages of a flash
evaporator are cooled by ______.
A.Distillate
B.Sea water
C.Brine
D.Air
A drilled hole is accurately finished to size with a:
A.Center drill
B.Finish drill
C.Broach
D.Reamer
The drill size is marked on the _________.
A.Point
B.Shank
C.Margin
D.Flute
The tool used for cutting external pipe threads is called a
pipe _______.
A.Cutter
B.Stock and die
C.Tap
D.Chaser
To ensure the stock is running in a lathe you should use
a ______.
A.Center gage
B.Gage block
C.Dial indicator
D.Micrometer
The best hacksaw blade to use for cutting brass is
the ________.
A.Flexible blade
B.All-hard blade
C.All soft blade
D.Hollow care blade
A hacksaw blade with 14 teeth per inch should be used
to cut _____.
A.Angle icon and heavy pipe

B.Cost iron and soft steel
C.Thin tubing or sheet metal
D.Drill rod and tool sheets
File lengths are determined by the ______.
A.Over-all length of the file

B.Distance between the face and the edge of the file
C.Distance between the point and the heel of the file
D.Length of the tong only
Which of the files listed is produced with two safe edges?
A.Mile
B.Pillar
C.Half round
D.Knife
It is the name given to decrease in boiler metal thickness
in which this decrease appears as small holes eaten in
the metal.
A.Foaming
B.Pitting
C.Priming
D.Grooving
Fusible plugs are installed in fire tube boilers to:
A.Provide a means of draining the boiler

B.Cool the crown sheet at high firing rates
C.Warn the engineer of low water level
D.Open the burner’s electrical firing circuits
If a tube failure results from low water level and you
cannot maintain water in sight in the gauge glass, you
should ____________.
A.Immediately secure the force draft fans
B.Blow down the gauge glass to verify a low water
condition
C.Immediately secure the fuel oil supply to the burners
D.Increase the feed pump speed to maximum
Gasket leakage around boiler hand holes may be caused
by_______.
A.Pitted seating surfaces

B.Improper positioning of the gasket
C.Loose bolts
D.All of these
When a vessel is dry docked for inspection, which of the
following valves are required to be opened during this
period?
A.High and low suction valves on fuel oil settling tanks
B.Bottom blow skin valves to the main auxiliary boilers
C.Ballast pump manifold valves
D.Pooling water control valves on refrigeration
condensers
A broken intake valve on an operating air compressor is
indicated by _______.
A.Air blowing out through the inlet air filter

B.Excessive temperature in the after cooler
C.Excessive compression in the cylinder
D.Short cycling valve of the compressor
A leaking suction valve in the second stage of a two-stage,
high pressure air compressor can cause excessively
high_______.
A.Pressure in the after cooler
B.Second-stage discharge pressure
C.First-stage discharge pressure
D.Compressor discharge temperature
The rate of expansion of heated fuel varies with the
specific ____________.
A.Volume
B.Viscosity
C.Conductivity
D.Gravity
The process of minimizing the friction and wear between
moving metal parts by the formation of a film of oil between
them is called ______.
A.Lubrication
B.Atomization
C.Injection
D.Force feed
In Lathe machine, the gear between the driver and the
follower gears in a simple train is known as
a/an _________ or intermediate.
A.Pinion
B.Helical
C.Idler
D.Reduction
Milling consists of machining a piece of metal by bringing
it into contact with a rotating _________ with many
cutting edges.
A.Tool bit
B.Gear
C.Cutter
D.Shaper
It is the machining of a surface by moving the object
forward and backward under a stationary cutting tool.
A.Planning/Shaping
B.Reaming
C.Milling
D.Boring
The type of reamer that can outlast high speed reamers
many times in castings where sand or hard scale is
encountered.
A.Graphite steel
B.Carbon steel
C.High speed steel
D.Carbide
When working on an engine lathe, operators sleeve must
be rolled _________the elbow for safety.
A.Below
B.Up to
C.Above
D.At the wrist
Occasionally when drilling cast iron, it is advisable to rub
a little_________ on the lands of the drill.
A.Water
B.Oil or grease
C.Acid
D.Degreaser
A crack in the engine cylinder head will indicate?
A.Low lube oil temperature

B.Too high fuel pressure
C.Hunting of jacket cooling pressure and abnormal rise in
temperature
D.Decrease in fuel injection pressure
What is the effect if moisture that will enter a typical
refrigeration system.
A.Will cause sweating and frost in the evaporator coil

B.Will freeze in the expansion valve
C.Oil in the condenser
D.Will be remove by the strainer
If fuel is only burned from the starboard tanks the ship
will_____________.
A.Go down by the head

B.List to port
C.Trim by the stern
D.List to starboard
In a desk type centrifugal purifier the contaminated oil
enter to bowl.
A.At the top through the regulating tube

B.At the button through the oil inlet
C.Through the neck of the disk
D.Through the funnel body
The most crucial time for any bearing in regard to
lubrication.
A.After proper oil viscosity is reached

B.During starting
C.During low loads
D.After cleaning filter
More modern lathes are provided with____ for feeds and
thread leads.
A.Quick change gear

B.Reduction gears
C.Cutting tool
D.Pulley
Allowed to carry product oil but is prohibited from
carrying oil.
A.Product carrier
B.Bulk carrier
C.Automobile carrier
D.Crude tanker
What serves to relieve the strains set up by forging and
to give the steel an even close grain or texture?
A.Tempering
B.Hardening
C.Annealing
D.Hammering
The welded joint between two plates in the same stroke
of hull plating is called.
A.Map
B.Scarf
C.Bracket
D.Butt
Instrument used to measure diameters.
A.Viscosimeter
B.Thread gage
C.Tachometer
D.Caliper
Could determine leak in refrigeration system.
A.Halide torch
B.Water
C.Torch
D.Candle
Most synchronous motors are similar in construction to:
A.Alternator
B.Emergency unit
C.Dynamo
D.Feeders
The main features of different pumps of which they are
working under non-cavitating condition is:
A.Output is identically proportional

B.They are not self priming
C.It will develop a discharge pressure equal to the
resistance to be overcome in respectively of speed
D.Output is increased at increased pressure
Which of the following should be done so that fuel oil
viscosity at the atomizer can be reduced?
A.Increase the FO heater steam supply

B.Used lighter kind of FO
C.Increase deliver pressure of FO
D.Increase FO specific gravity
The lube oil plate of shell and lube type heat exchanger
are usually of:
A.Copper nickel tube

B.Naval brass
C.Aluminum brass
D.Aluminum bronze
The pump deal with large volumes liquid while running in
maintaining discharge pressure:
A.Rotary vain pump

B.Axial
C.Screw displacement pump
D.Close loop system
Boiler tube failure can result from:
A.Mechanical stress
B.Overheating
C.Corrosion
D.Leakage
Which of the following is the primary operational
difference between a huddling chamber safety valve and
a nozzle reaction safety valve?
A.Adjustment of lifting pressure
B.Valve relieving capacities
C.Principle in accomplishing blow down
D.Initial valve opening cause by steam pressure
As soon as a diesel engine starts; what operating
condition should be checked first.
A.Air box pressure

B.Raw water pressure
C.Lube oil pressure
On law temperature condition on air started the engine
turn over too slow and fails to start the probably cause:
A.High oil viscosity

B.Faulty air starting v/v
C.Low oil temperature
D.Low oil viscosity
In an air conditioning room if the people complained of
being too cool the problem might be:
A.Relative humidity to high

B.Air velocity is too low
C.Heater failure to cut out at proper temperature
D.Relative humidity too low
Ship found discharge water containing more than ____ of
oil can be heavily fined.
A.62.0 mg/liter
B.100.0 mg/liter
C.58.0 mg/liter
D.86.0 mg/liter
Ejector is simple reliable inexpensive effective
and ________.
A.Inexpensive
B.Utilized high grade of metal
C.Maintenance free
D.Heavy
The minimum internal diameter of main bilge piping
permitted on a vessel over 150 gross tons is:
A.4 cm
B.6.5 cm
C.9 cm
D.12 cm
R – 718 is known as:
A.Ammonia
B.Carbon dioxide
C.Water
D.dichlorodifluoromethane
When there is constant hissing sound at the thermal
expansion valve indicates:
A.Lack of refrigerant
B.Prop refrigerant control
C.A faulty refrigerant control valve
D.Liquid refrigerant passing to the evaporator
On low temperature condition on air started diesel engine
turn over too and fails to start the probable cause is:
A.High on viscosity
B.Faulty air starting valve
C.Low oil temperature
D.None of these is the answer
According to the text D/E piston are connected to the
crankshaft by:
A.Connecting rod
B.Push rod
C.Piston guide
D.Piston pin
As soon as diesel engine starts what opening condition
should be checked first?
A.Air box pressure

B.Lube oil pressure
C.Raw water pressure
What is the possible cause of a marine diesel engine
having a poor combustion?
A.Very high compression pressure

B.Exhaust pressure low
C.Low intake air temperature
D.High scavenge pressure
What is the use of a re-circulating line in the potable hot
water system?
A.Maintain desired water temperature to system

B.For constant speed of pumps
C.For return overflow
D.Maintain flow rate
What is provided for use on bilge systems evaporator
and gas fusing system on tankers?
A.Velocity pump
B.Ejectors
C.Convergent nozzle
D.Divergent nozzle
Which should be check before starting a diesel engine?
A.Crankcase oil level

B.Oil filter
C.Gas temperature
D.Oil filter
Cleaning of the Lathe machine should be done when the
machine is ________.
A.Running
B.Idle
C.On slow running
D.On low gear
The Shaper’s cutting tool has a _____ motion with the
work usually held in a vise:
A.Forward
B.Reciprocating
C.Vertical
D.Circular
Two stroke D.E pistons are connected to the crank shaft
by_______.
A.Connecting rod
B.Crank pin
C.Push rod
D.Piston guide
When the engine is running what part in a large slow
speed engine is under tension?
A.Bed plate
B.Tie rod
C.Column
D.Rod
What possible cause of an air-started engine turns too
slow and fails to start on cold weather?
A.Low compression
B.Faulty valve
C.Low temperature
D.High lube oil viscosity
What is the purpose of thrust bearing?
A.To control axial movement of the crankshaft

B.Absorb vibration
C.Transmit engine thrust
D.Prevent propeller thrust
What measures the degree of hardness of a substance?
A.Brinell scale
B.Simpson scale
C.Plimsoll scale
D.Bernoulli’s scale
Leaky valves in main air compressor may cause ______.
A.No air filter

B.High discharge pressure
C.Compressor running fast
D.Too much suction pressure
What is the main purpose why check valve is located
between economizer and steam drum?
A.Pressurize water flow

B.Prevent back pressure
C.Prevent steam and water drum losses should an
economizer casualty occur
D.Positive feed water flow
What provides the force required to vary the pitch of the
blades?
A.Hydraulic
B.Mechanical
C.Pneumatic
D.Electrical
What is the part found between engines and pinion?
A.Flexible coupling
B.Duplex coupling
C.Main coupling
D.Auxiliary coupling
Capability of safety valve must be _______.
A.Closing quickly
B.Remaining open until pressure drop
C.Opening gradually
D.Remain open
Freon 12 tends to short cycle when at ____.
A.Light loads
B.Normal condition
C.Starting
D.Heavy loads
What cause a safety valve to “pops up” continuously
even manually operating it close?
A.Clogged line
B.Damaged seat
C.Dirty seat
D.Poor adjustment
What causes excessive scale in an evaporating plant?
A.Low boiling temperature

B.Poor distillate
C.Low vacuum
D.Low pressure
What should be done for sudden loss of oil in crankcase
of reefer system?
A.Inspect oil separator

B.Renew oil
C.Adjust thermo-expansion valve
D.Check for leak
Next to the lathe, it is perhaps the most adaptable and
interesting machine in the shop.
A.Planer
B.Drill
C.Welding
D.Milling
What causes a pump fails to deliver liquid?
A.Air in suction line

B.RPM too high
C.Faulty relief valve
D.Damaged impeller
As per regulation, what is the minimum I.D of main bilge
pump for 150 GRT?
A.14 cm
B.90 cm
C.6.5 cm
D.7.0 cm
What causes lube oil pump unable to build pressure?
A.Suction valve closed

B.By pass valve closed
C.Discharge valve open
D.Suction valve high
Where will the sludge in a boiler accumulate?
A.Floor
B.Screen
C.Generating
D.Down comer
When a reefer is having high condensing pressure you
should _______.
A.Purge air from condenser

B.Check leaky valves
C.Decrease cooling water
D.Check thermo bulb
One special feature of ejectors is?
A.Maintenance free
B.High grade metal
C.Heavy weight
D.Light weight
What sewage treatment using bacteria acceptable for
discharge in water?
A.Bio-sewage plant
B.External flushing
C.Heavy weight
D.Treatment tank
Maceration refers to be sewage treatment for ________.
A.Chemical treatment
B.Decomposing waste
C.Chemical plant
D.Breaking up of solid matter
Speed of turbo charges depends on _____.
A.Engine load
B.Engine speed
C.Gas temperature
D.Cylinder
What may cause a leaky oil seal in a turbo charger?
A.Low scavenge temperature

B.Blow by
C.Over speeding
D.Insufficient air-fuel ration
The effect of defective injector nozzle in D.E. is:
A.Poor combustion
B.High exhaust temperature
C.Smoky exhaust
D.Late injection
What regulates the flow of refrigerant:
A.Expansion valve
B.Compressor
C.Evaporator
D.Condenser
What causes cylinder liner to crack?
A.Operating at low speed

B.Worn piston tings
C.Poor lubrication
D.Restricted cooling water passage
In a machine shop, it consists of laying out, assembling,
and the final fitting of parts.
A.Bench work
B.Bench mark
C.Deck work
D.Job order
What is the requirement for potable and non-potable
water system?
A.Never be connected by any means

B.Temporarily be connected with a removal spool
C.Connected if they are used only for wash water
D.Permanently connected through a double stop valve
What would happen if at low pressure a nozzle reaction
safety valve will lift?
A.Insufficient spring compression

B.Adjustment too high
C.Scale on seat
D.Broken valve seat
What is the variation from zero loads to full load of D.E?
A.Synchronization
B.Speed droop
C.Speed rate
D.Speed lag
What is used particularly in reference to movement of an
air in the cylinder and combustion chamber?
A.Silencer
B.Turbocharging
C.Scavenging
D.Generator
What important property of oil affects engine
performance?
A.Specific gravity
B.Flash point
C.Pour point
D.Viscosity
What is the purpose of the pneumatic pressure tank in a
sanitary system?
A.Provide higher-pressure
B.Reduce pressure fluctuation
C.Increase water flow
D.Prevent losing suction
These are three distinct stages in fire fighting?
A.Alarm control and detection

B.Control detection and alarm
C.Detection alarm and control
D.Alarm detection and control
This a device which uses a mercury manometer in
conjunction with a hemispherical belt and piping to
measure tank level;
A.Height glass
B.Float operated
C.Pneumatic gauge
D.Gauge glass
What engine part included in the classification of running
gears?
A.A – frame
B.Piston
C.Bed – plate
D.Cylinder liner
In starting up the lube oil cooler, what is the first thing to
do?
A.Open the cooling water pump discharge

B.Never close the gravity tank discharge
C.Start the lube- oil pump
D.Personally start the cooling water pump
The joining of two pieces of copper tubing of the same
diameter by expanding or stretching the end of one piece
of fit over the other so the joint may be soldered or base
is called:
A.Swaging
B.Vis – breaking
C.Expanding
D.Trimming
Cylinder lubricating has the primary function of forming a
film between liner and rings and to:
A.Have increase thermal expansion in liner and rings

B.Increase friction between liner and rings
C.Reduce friction between liner and rings
D.Totally add more pressure in the liner
To sure that the maintenance work is done properly and
according to the schedule for each engine for each
month of the current year, the operator should have a:
A.Watch clearance as indicated by engine builders
B.Schedule of engine equipment inspection
C.Log operating data
D.Maintenance log sheet
In a direct connected or geared main propulsion diesel
engine would be fitted with a:
A.Isochronous hunting governor

B.Rotating governor disc
C.Variable speed governor
D.Constant frequency governor
Pipes installed in salt water supply lines to plumbing
fixtures and plumbing drains also for bilge lines:
A.Copper pipe
B.Lead pipe
C.Brass pipe
D.Aluminum pipe
The instrument used to determine the velocity of the
lubricating oil:
A.Gage pressure
B.Flow meter
C.Say bolt viscosimeter
D.Hydrometer
A total measurement using zero pressure as datum:
A.Absolute pressure
B.Barometric pressure
C.Gauge pressure
D.Vacuum pressure
When building up speed a turbine start to vibrate, what
would you do?
A.Immediately stop engine

B.Built up high speed
C.Slow down immediately
D.Immediately transfer at stop speed
Present cooling of injectors that is more widely used is
by:
A.Blower
B.Air cooling
C.Fuel itself
D.Lubricant
In any modern system equipped with a variable pitch
screw, the blades are driven by:
A.Running in oil
B.Oil pressure
C.Air pressure
D.Butter with system
If fires go out in the boiler what is the first thing to do?
A.Call the engineer on watch

B.Resign all the bridge
C.The chief engineer
D.Secure the feed pump
What percentage of oil travels with the refrigerant?
A.25%
B.10%
C.11%
D.33%
This value not only a stop valve but also serves as check
to prevent flow reversal in the event of unbalanced
pressure:
A.Wedge nozzle valve
B.Non return valve
C.High pressure glove valve
D.Check operated valve
The most important single piece of equipment in any
steam power plant is?
A.Operators
B.Pumps
C.Boilers
D.Machine
A wheel located aft in the steering engine room and is
normally disconnected and if will be used in the vent the
telemotor become disable:
A.Magic-steering wheel
B.Strick wheel
C.Trick – steering wheel
D.Zenith steering wheel
Any water present in the refrigerant side of a Freon
refrigerating system causes a/an:
A.Cold sweating on trap

B.Clogged scale trap
C.Frozen expansion valve
D.Clogged oil trap
A space between a moving and a stationary part:
A.Space
B.Thrust
C.Clearance
D.Retrieve
The rate of at which a system will absorbed heat from
refrigerated space or substance is known as:
A.Coefficient of performance
B.Total heat
C.Refrigerating capacity
D.Displacement volume
The throttle valve jam or stick open should be closed by:
A.Gear teeth
B.Stop valve
C.Valve unit
D.Gear valve

On DC Generator, Where Is The Pigtail Located? A.feather Spring B.conductors C.brush Holder D.spiral Adjusting Spring

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On DC Generator, Where Is The Pigtail Located? A.feather Spring B.conductors C.brush Holder D.spiral Adjusting Spring

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On DC generator, where is the pigtail located?

a.Shutdown the turbine

a.Oil pressure is too low

a.Feed water regulator

a.High generator load

a.Insufficient fuel supply

a.Speed limiting governor

A. Stop the fuel from entering the burner upon detect

A.voltage and current will both be increased

A.voltage and current will both be decreased

A.‘Zero’ resistance accompanied by high inductance

C.burn with original intensity

D.all of the above

A.Grade 00 sand paper

A.turn it down in the ship’s lathe

B.use a grinding rig

C.use a hand stone

D.burnish it with commutator stones

A.course sand paper in a slow back and forth motion

B.an emery cloth parallel to the axis of the machine

C.a canvas wiper to the machine while running

D.cotton swabs between the commutator bars

D.1 MHz-20 MHz

a.it may force metallic particles into coil insulation

a.open the circuit breaker in the power supply and tag

a.filter out ripples

a.open the machine with both ends so as to allow the

a.At the lowest points of the room

d.In all direction

b.bus neutral position

c.raise voltage position

I – Compensate the current

d.I, II & III

a.Sustained current flow of 470 amperes

b.Sustained current flow of 500 amperes for 10 minutes

c.Momentary starting load of 550 amperes

d.Sustained current flow of 590 amperes

a.Sufficient number of receptacle outlets in the crew

d.All of the above

a.Each receptacle outlet operating at 100 volts or more just

b.Outlets connecting a lifeboat and the vessel electrical system

c.Machinery space must contain sufficient outlets for lighting all

d.All of the above

A.current flow in circuit

B.voltage between two points in a circuit

A.The generator and bus transfer section

B.The 450 volt, 60 cycle, 3 phase bus

C.The 120 volt, 3 phase, 60 cycle bus

D.The 24 volt DC bus

A.small wire brush

B.compressed air jet

C.clean dry cloth

D.10% solution carbon solvent and water

a.harder than copper

a.tightened firmly with insulated pliers

a.when the ship’s generators have been directly

a.Must be tested under load from emergency

A. North to South pole

A.Trip all non-vital distribution feeder circuit breakers ,

A.Copper segments insulated from each other with

A.prevent ground in branch circuit

A.Measure the current flow & compare it with the motor