PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION

Assessment of Learning
1. Xyz University wants an entrance test that can identify
the future outcomes or differences such as showing who
will graduate from college or who will dropout. The test
has ________.

a. Curricular validity
b. Content validity
c. Construct validity
d. Predictive validity
2. Which of the following types of validity reflects
the relationship between the content of the lesson
and instructional objectives of the program of
studies?

a. Criterion validity
b. Curricular validity
c. Content validity
d. Predictive validity
3. Which of the following types of test can
measure the range of achievement better?

a. Multiple-choice
b. Matching type
c. True or False
d. Short-answer item
4. Which of the following is the LEAST authentic
mode of assessing students performance?

a. Artistic production in the field of art

b. Paper and pencil test in vocabulary test
c. Oral performance in communication skills
d. Dissecting a frog in the class
5. Which of the activities below is correctly assessed
using a paper and pencil test?

a. Music Reading
b. Dissecting a frog
c. Vocabulary skills
d. Driving skills
6. What does grading on the curve mean in a grade
distribution of scores?

a. Most of the students receive low and high grades

b. All have average grades
c. Few students got low scores, and most students
got high grades
d. Large number with high grades, and few got low
and high grades
7. A test can measure what the teacher wants to
measures when the test is ________.

a. Reliable
b. Valid
c. Efficiency
d. Administrability
8. Which is true when the students test results has a
large standard deviation?

a. Scores are more spread

b. Scores are normally distributed
c. Scores are less spread
d. Scores are clustered together
9. Which statement can describe a positively skewed
distribution of students performance?

a. Few students got low scores

b. Most of the students got average scores
c. Most of the students got low scores
d. The scores are normally distributed
10. What does a discrimination index of 0.34 mean in
the test item analysis?

a. Test is reliable
b. More students from the upper group got the item
correctly
c. More students from the lower group got the item
correctly
d. Test is valid
11. Teacher X discovered that his students are weak
in writing skills. Which test should treachery X
administer to further determine in which other skills
are weak?

a. Formative assessment
b. Placement assessment
c. Diagnostic assessment
d. Summative assessment
12. A portfolio assessment requires a representation
of a collection of student’s work. What is the purpose
of the said activity?
I. To showcase the current abilities and skills of the
learners
II. To show growth and development of the learners
III. To evaluate the cumulative achievement of the
learners

a. I and II c. II and III

b. I and III d. I, II and III
13. Which statement can be determined by a criterion-
referenced test?

a. Performance higher than the group

b. Performance of the students in a large group
c. Performance of students in a small group
d. Preferred level of performance of students in a
group
14. The facility index of test items 13 is 0.50. what
does this mean?

a. Moderately difficult
b. High reliability
c. High validity
d. Essay
15. Which of the following statements describes
performance-based assessment?
I. Measures broad range of contents
II. Evaluates complex learning outcomes
III. Encourages the application of learning to real life
situation

a. I and II c. I and III

b. II and III d. I, II and III
16. Principal YG used machine-scored tests. What factor
in scoring does this add to make test more reliable?

a. Objective scoring
b. Administration is easy
c. Ease in checking
d. Time-consuming
17. Which is indispensable with the current emphasis on
performance-based assessment and portfolio
assessment?

a. Letter grading
b. Scoring rubric
c. Numerical grading
d. Authentic assessment
18. Louie obtained a stanine score of 5 in the National
Achievement Test in Mathematics. How can we describe
the performance of Louie?

a. Below Average
b. Average
c. Above Average
d. Between Average And Above Average
19. JM obtained a NAT percentile rank of 96 in English.
This means that ________.

a. JM belongs to the 96% of the group who took the test

b. JM answered 96% correctly
c. JM surpassed 96% of his group who took the test
d. 96% of the students are better than JM
20. Mr. Palma, a secondary school teaching in
Mathematics conducted a chapter assessment in
“Polynomial function and Equation”. He found out that
most of his students obtained high scores. Which
measures of central tendency is most appropriate to
describe the center of the distribution?

a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Mean and Median
21. Mr. Charcos, an elementary teacher in Science,
administered a quarterly assessment for his grade 6
science in two sections. The mean of Sections A and B
are 25 respectively. The standard deviation of A is 1.25
while B is 3. which of the two sections is more dispersed?

a. Section A
b. Section B
c. Both A and B
d. Can’t be determined
22. In a normal distribution curve, what does a T-score of
40 mean?

a. One standard deviation below the mean

b. One standard deviation above the mean
c. Two standard deviations below the mean
d. Two standard deviations above the mean
23. Which of the following assessment techniques is
most appropriate when teacher Mark wants to find out
how well his pupils know each other?

a. Teacher Observation
b. Checklist
c. Sociometric Technique
d. Guess-who Technique
24. Which of the following assessment techniques most
appropriate used to describe student's opinion or beliefs
on a particular issue or subject?

a. Semantic-Differential Scales
b. Checklist
c. Likert Scales
d. Rating Scales
 Item Number Difficulty Index Discrimination Index
10 0.55 0.67
11 0.75 0.12
12 0.05 -0.25
13 0.45 0.08
14 0.25 -0.10

25. Which of the following item above should be retained

from this pool of items?

a. No. 10 c. No. 12
b. No. 11 & 13 d. No. 14
 Item Number Difficulty Index Discrimination Index
10 0.55 0.67
11 0.75 0.12
12 0.05 -0.25
13 0.45 0.08
14 0.25 -0.10

26. Which of the following item above should be revised

from his pool of items?

a. No. 10 c. No. 12
b. No. 11 & 13 d. No. 14
 Item Number Difficulty Index Discrimination Index
10 0.55 0.67
11 0.75 0.12
12 0.05 -0.25
13 0.45 0.08
14 0.25 -0.10

27. Which of the following item above should be

discarded from his pool of items?

a. No. 10 c. No. 12
b. No. 11 & 13 d. No. 14
28. Given the following scores: 88, 83, 83, 87, 88, 80, 76,
81, 83, and 84. What does 83 in the score distribution
imply?

a. Mode
b. Median
c. Median and Mode
d. Mean, Median and Mode
29. Which of the following groups of score distribution is
the most spread?

a. SD = 2.5
b. SD = 2.75
c. SD = 3.00
d. SD = 3.25
30. In a normal distribution, which of the following
statements below is TRUE?

A. The mean, and median are equal but not equal to

mode
B. There are more scores at the upper end of the
distribution
C. There are more scores at the lower portion of the
distribution
D. More students got with average scores and few with
low and high scores.
31. Which of the following is the main purpose of
criterion-referenced testing?

a. A student performance will be compared to his

classmates
b. A student must attained the passing mark of 75%
c. A student gained the skills and competence needed
d. All of the above
32. Which of the following can measure the internal
consistency of the test results?
I. Test-retest method
II. Split-half method
III. Parallel method
IV. Kuder-richardson formula

a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I and III
d. I, II, III and IV
33. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the
group when talking about projective personality test?

a. Thematic apperception test

b. Interview
c. Sentence completion test
d. Word association test
34. Which assessment tool can diagnose more specific
learning difficulties?

a. Moral values
b. Sociogram
c. Holistic rubrics
d. Analytic rubrics
35. Statistical item analysis can be done _______.

a. Before the test is conducted

b. During the test
c. After the test
d. B and C
36. Teacher Renz will develop a periodic tests in English.
Which of the following must he do first?

a. Develop the Table of Specification

b. Decide the number of test items to be given
c. Determine the type of test to be given
d. Go back in the instructional objectives
Directions: Match A and B. write only the letter of your answer at the blank
before the number.

Column A
_______1. Mean
_______2. Median
_______3. Mode
_______4. Percentile
_______5. Quartile
37. What is wrong with the test item?
A. It is not valid
B. It is not reliable
Column B
A. The centermost score in the distribution
B. Most stable measures of central
tendency
C. Score/s that occurs most in the
distribution
D. It is score point that divides the scores in
the distribution into 4 equal parts
E. It is score point that divides the scores in
the distribution into 100 equal parts
c. It contains only 5 items
d. Description and options are in wrong place
Column A Column B
____1. The centermost score A. Mean
in the distribution B. Median
____2. Most stable measures C. Mode
of central tendency
____3. Score/s that occurs most
in the distribution
38. Which is the best way to improve the matching type of
test?
a. Add one or two items at column B
b. Add 5 items to both columns
c. Add two or more items in column A
d. Add 10 items in both columns to be more comprehensive
39. Teacher G conducted a test after discussing the
lesson “Item Analysis” to check whether the students
learned something about lesson. The results is not a part
of the computation of grade but to get feedback only.
Which type of assessment Teacher Y applied?

a. Placement assessment
b. Diagnostic assessment
c. Formative assessment
d. Summative assessment
40. The district supervisor is talking about “grading on the
curve” in a district meeting. What does this expression
mean?

a. A student grade compared to his potential

b. A student grade compared to his achievement
c. A student grade determined whether or not attained a
defined standard
d. A student grade compares to the achievement of the
other students in the class
41. Which of the statements below are TRUE about
scoring rubrics?
I. It has a criteria of level of achievement to serve as
standard
II. It has a clear descriptions of performance in each
level
III. It has a rating scheme
IV. It limits to only 4 levels of achievement

a. I and II c. I, II and III

b. II, III and IV d. I, II, III and IV
42. Which of the following is TRUE about portfolio
assessment?

a. It has a valid and reliable assessment

b. It shows growth and development of the learners
c. It considers students’ suggestions in the assessment
d. It involves students in the development of the
questionnaires
43. Which statement about performance-based
assessment is FALSE?

a. They emphasize merely on process

b. They stress on doing, not only on knowing
c. They accentuate on both process and product
d. Essay test is an example of performance-based
assessment
44. Which error is committed by the teacher when he
tends to overrate the performance of the students who
belongs to the upper performing group?

a. Severity error
b. Central tendency error
c. Generosity error
d. Both A and C
45. Which statements are true about constructing
matching type of test?
I. The options and descriptions not necessarily
homogeneous
II. The options must be greater that the descriptions
III. The directions must state the basis of matching
IV. The descriptions must be in Colum A and options
in Column B

a. I only c. II, III, IV

b. II and IV d. I, II, III, IV
46. Which of the following test items can effectively
measure HOTS cognitive learning objectives?

a. Objective test
b. Achievement test
c. Completion test
d. Extended essay test
47. Which of the following statements describes
performance-based assessment?
I. Measures broad range of outcomes
II. Evaluates complex learning outcomes
III. Encourages application to real-life situations

a. I, II, III c. II and III

b. I and II d. I and III
48. Which of the following is TRUE about the grading
system of K-12 Curriculum based from DepEd Order No.
73, series of 2012?

a. Utilized letter grade in reporting the performance of the

learners
b. There are three levels of learning outcomes
c. There are four levels of proficiency to describe the
performance of the learners
d. Cumulative method is utilized in the computation of
final grades
49. In his tests, Teacher Raffy made tests that were either
too difficult or too easy. What was wrong with his tests?

a. Inappropriate level of difficulty of the test items

b. Identifiable pattern of answer
c. Unclear directions
d. Ambiguity
50. Principal Sulit introduced machine-scored tests in his
school. What factor in scoring this add to make tests
more reliable?

a. Objective scoring
b. Cost-saving
c. Ease in checking
d. Time-economics
51. For easier corrections of his test, Teacher Niccolo
prepared the True and False items in alternating 1, 3, 5,
7, etc True and 2, 4, 6, etc. False. What is wrong in the
test in terms of Usability?

a. Improper arrangements of items

b. Identifiable pattern of answers
c. Ambiguity
d. Poor constructed test items
52. When developing test items, it should be aligned with
________?

a. Monitoring and evaluation

b. Instructional objectives
c. Instructional media
d. Content and process
53. What kind of assessment helps teachers determine
gaps in learning of a subject matter?

a. Formative assessment
b. Diagnostic test
c. Summative assessment
d. Aptitude test
54. In Assessment for Problem-based Learning, who are
responsible in judging student’s performance?

a. Teacher and supervisors

b. Teacher-students-supervisors
c. Teacher and students
d. Teacher and peers
55. As positive correlation is to direct relation, to what
relation is negative correlation?

a. Definition relation
b. Neutral relation
c. Inverse relation
d. Indefinite relation
56. Which of the following should be adopted if
Teacher Lawrence wants his tests to be more
reliable?

a.More time to complete the test

b.Increase number of test items
c. Make the test difficult
d.Restrict range abilities
57. Teacher Y will develop a test. Which of the following
steps in tests preparation is the LAST to accomplish?

a. How is the objectives items to be scored?

b. How are the test scores to be tabulated?
c. Have I prepared a Table of Specifications?
d. How are the test results to be reported?
58. Which of the following types of validity that reflects
the relationship between the content of the lesson and
instructional objectives of the program of studies?

a. Criterion validity
b. Curricular validity
c. Content validity
d. Predictive validity
59. There are three raters in an essay test. What
correlation is determined?

a. External rater
b. Triple rater
c. Multiple rater
d. Inter rater
60. Given the following scores: 88, 83, 83, 87, 88,
80, 80, 76, 81, 83 and 84. What does 83 indicated
in the score distribution?

a. Mode
b. Median
c. Median and mode
d. Mean, Median and Mode
61. About how many percent of the scores fall between
– 2SD and + 2SD units of its mean?

a. 34%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 98%
62. Teacher X gives a 50 items test in Mathematics. The
mean performance of the group is 27 and standard
deviation is 5. Edgar obtained a score of 31. Which of the
following best describes his performance?

a. Below Average
b. Average
c. Above Average
d. Outstanding
63. Prof. Gabuyo administered a short quiz after doing
the exercise on polynomial functions to find out how well
his students understood the topic. What type of
assessment was done?

a. Placement Assessment
b. Summative Assessment
c. Diagnostic Assessment
d. Formative Assessment
64. The college secretary of the College of Business
Administration conducted an assessment at the
beginning of the semester to find out who among the 2nd
year accountancy students can proceed to 3rd year. The
result will also be used for sectioning purposes. What
type of assessment was given to the students?

a. Placement
b. Diagnostic
c. Formative
d. Summative
65. All second year students presented their portfolio for
the Mathematics subject at the end of the semester.
Teacher, students, parents and office staff were allowed
to view and give their evaluation on the presentation.
Which authentic assessment was used in the process?

a. Exhibit
b. Seminar
c. Program
d. Conferenc
66. Teacher Ana wants to establish reliability of her quarterly
assessment. Which of the following is appropriate?
I. Administer a parallel test
II. Split the test
III. Develop a very easy test
IV. Administer the same test twice

a. I, III and IV c. I, and II

b. I, II and IV d. I and IV
67. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
rubrics?
I. Rubrics is development
II. Rubrics can be used for summative and formative
assessments
III. Rubrics can provide both graded and detailed
feedback to improve future performanc
IV. Students should not be involved in the rubric
construction

a. I only c. I, II, and III

b. II and III d. IV only
68. Teacher Renz constructed a matching-type test. In
his column of descriptions are combinations of dates
of events, current issues, and names of politicians.
Which rule of constructing a matching type of test was
NOT followed?

a. The description must be heterogeneous

b. The descriptions must be homogeneous
c. The options must be grater than the descriptions
d. The options should be in order
69. Which of the following is NOT include in the
assessment of affective learning targets?

a. Teacher observation
b. Peer evaluation
c. Student self-assessment
d. Summative evaluation
70. Which of the following instructional objective is the
lowest level Krathwohl’s cognitive taxonomy?

a. Identify the kinds of measures of variation

b. Compute the standard deviation value: 26, 27, 33, 33
and 38
c. Compare and contrast iter-quartile range and standard
deviation
d. Explain the concept of dispersion