PHARMACOLOGY

QUIZ
By Dr. Usama Shah
BDS, RDS, C-Endo, C-Implant
1. All of the following drugs act by reducing
gastric acid secretion, Except:

a) Omeprazole
b) Famotidine
c) Pirenzepine
d) Sucralfate
2. All of the followings are selective β2-
agonist, except:

a) Isoprenaline
b) Salbutamol
c) Terbutaline
d) Formoterol
3. All of the following statements about antacid are
true, Except:

a) Weak bases that neutralize gastric pH

b) Inhibits the formation of pepsin
c) Aluminum antacids cause diarrhea and magnesium
antacids cause constipation
d) Aluminum antacids cause constipation and magnesium
antacids cause diarrhea
4. Which of the following inhibits acetylcholine-
mediated bronchospasm?

a) Theophylline
b) Ephedrine
c) Ipratropium
d) Salmeterol
5. Tardive dyskinesia is a major adverse effect
of ……………….........

a) Cisapride
d) Promethazine
c) Hyoscine
d) Metoclopramide
6. The drug of choice for single-dose treatment
of onchocerciasis and strongyloidiasis
is ……………...............?

a) Ivermectin
b) Diethylcarbamazine citrate
c) Tetramisole
d) Niclosamide
 7. An anti-tubercular drug that is bacteriostatic to
resting organisms is…………..................

a) Pyrazinamide
b) Isoniazid
c) Ethambutol
d) Rifampicin
8. Choose the correct drug and its mode of action
combinations:

a) Liquid paraffin: stool softener

b) Bisacodyl: osmotic purgative
c) Lactulose: osmotic purgative
d) Ispaghula: bulk-forming
9. Followings are the indications of Octreotide
except:

a) Secretory diarrhea due to carcinoid tumor

b) Diarrhea due to vagotomy
c) Diarrhea due to short bowel syndrome
d) Acute diarrhea
10. Choose the correct drug and its mechanism of action
combination:

a) Rifampicin: inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

b) Pyrazinamide: interferes with mycobacteria fatty acid synthesis
and inactivates mycobacteria at alkaline pH
c) Ethambutol: Interferes with mycolic acid synthesis
d) Isoniazid: Inhibits arabinosyl transferases involved in cell wall
biosynthesis
11. The following antiemetic act by blocking
D2 receptor in the CTZ:

a) Metoclopramide
b) Cisapride
c) Chlorpromazine
d) Domperidone
12. Which of the following is the drug of choice
in the treatment of productive cough?

a) Dextromethorphan
b) Bromhexine
c) Pholcodine
d) Noscapine
13. Which of the following is the most effective
drug for motion sickness?

a) Hyoscine
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Prochlorperazine
d) Haloperidol
14. All of the following statements about the use of
glucocorticoids in asthma is true, except:

a) Reduces bronchial inflammation and hyperactivity to

stimuli
b) Have delayed onset of action
c) Given as prophylactic medications, used alone or
combined with β-agonists
d) They are bronchodilators
15. All of the following are examples of
stimulant purgatives, Except

a) Lactulose
b) Bisacodyl
c) Senna
d) Castor oil
16. What is a serious adverse reaction
caused by ethambutol?

a) Stomach upset
b) Eye damage
c) Gout
d) Hepatotoxicity
17. All of the following describes the drug
interaction with metoclopramide except

a) Increases absorption of aspirin

b) Reduces absorption of digoxin
c) Additive sedative effects occur when taken with
sedative
d) All of the above
18. Astemizole and terfenadine may cause fatal arrhythmia when used
in combination with some macrolides or antifungal agents. They:

a) Lengthen QT interval via direct action on cardiac H2 receptors

b) Increase metabolism of macrolide antibiotics
c) Cause accumulation of these agents following inhibition of
CYP3A4, a cytochrome p450 enzyme
d) Exacerbate histamine-induced hypotension causing increased
cardiac oxygen demand during reflex tachycardia
19. Which one of the following statements for
Albendazole is not true?

a) Absorption may be enhanced by administration

with a fatty meal
b) Inhibits microtubule polymerization
c) Does not undergo first-pass metabolism
d) Eliminated in the bile
20. Systemic corticosteroids are indicated in the
following conditions, EXCEPT:

a) Mild episodic asthma

b) Severe chronic asthma
c) Status asthmaticus
d) To prevent neonatal respiratory distress
syndrome
21. All of the following are the mechanism of
action of metoclopramide except

a) D2 antagonism
b) 5-HT4 agonism
c) 5-HT3 antagonism
d) 5-HT4 antagonism
22. Which one of the following is not a side effect
due to systemic corticosteroids?

a) Adrenal suppression
b) Fluid retention, weight gain, hypertension
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Sleep disorders
23. Which one of the following is the less
frequent side effect of Metronidazole?

a) Anorexia
b) Metallic taste
c) Glossitis
d) Abdominal cramps
24. All are acid controlling agents, Except:

a)Beta blockers
b)Antacids
c) antagonists
d)Proton Pump Inhibitors
25. Which of the following is a stool
softener that has no effect on fat-soluble
vitamins?

a) Castor oil
b) Docusate sodium
c) Cascara Sagrada
d) Phenolphthalein
26. All of the following statements about
histamine are true except:

a) Increases blood pressure

b) Stimulates gastric acid secretion
c) Causes dilatation of capillaries
d) Causes constriction of bronchial smooth
muscles
27. Choose the correct drug and its mechanism of action
combination:

a) Rifampicin: inhibits bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

b) Pyrazinamide: interferes with mycobacteria fatty acid synthesis
and inactivates mycobacteria at alkaline pH
c) Ethambutol: Interferes with mycolic acid synthesis
d) Isoniazid: Inhibits arabinosyl transferases involved in cell wall
biosynthesis
28. The following anti-tubercular drug is a
potent CYP-P450 enzyme inducer:

a) Isoniazid
b) Ethambutol
c) Rifampicin
d) Pyrazinamide
29. Which one of the following statements for
Albendazole is not true?

a) Absorption may be enhanced by administration

with a fatty meal
b) Inhibits microtubule polymerization
c) Does not undergo first-pass metabolism
d) Eliminated in the bile
30. These are the physiologic/pathologic effects of
H. Pylori, except:

a)Proinflammatory
b)Degradation of glycol-protein lipid muscle layer
c)Production of damaging bacterial proteins
d)Causes Irritable Bowel Syndrome
1. d
2. a 16. b
3. d 17. d
4. c 18. c
5. d 19. c
6. a 20. a
7. b 21. d
8. b 22. d
9.d 23. c
10. a 24. a
11. c 25. b
12. b 26. a
13. a 27. a
14. d 28. c
15. a 29. c
30. d