Class Assessment Test

with Answers and short

notes
Zeb Hussain,
BSc,(Biochem)BS,(MLT-CLS)M.Phil,(Pathology) E. MBA, PhD

ZEB 1
• Q1- Which of the following is a common characteristic of Gram-
positive cocci?

• (a.) Lipopolysaccharide outer membrane

• (b). Thick peptidoglycan layer

• (c). Flagella for motility

• (d.) Acid-fast staining

• Q2. Which genus of Gram-positive cocci is known for forming
grape-like clusters?

• a. Staphylococcus

• b. Streptococcus

• c. Enterococcus

• d. Micrococcus
• Q3. What is a key distinguishing feature of Enterococcus among
Gram-positive cocci?

• a. Catalase production

• b. Optochin sensitivity

• c. Bile esculin hydrolysis

• d. Growth in high salt concentration

• Q4. Which test is commonly used to differentiate
Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci?

• a. Optochin test

• b. Coagulase test

• c. Bacitracin test

• d. CAMP test
• Q5. The Lancefield classification system is used for the
classification of which Gram-positive cocci?

• a. Staphylococcus

• b. Streptococcus

• c. Enterococcus

• d. Micrococcus
• Q6. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of
Streptococcus pneumonia on blood agar?

• a. Beta-hemolysis

• b. Alpha-hemolysis

• c. Gamma-hemolysis

• d. Non-hemolytic
• Q7. The catalase test is used to differentiate between which two
groups of Gram-positive cocci?

• a. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

• b. Streptococcus and Enterococcus

• c. Staphylococcus and Micrococcus

• d. Micrococcus and Enterococcus

• Q8. What is the primary biochemical test used to identify
Staphylococcus aureus?

• a. Novobiocin sensitivity

• b. Optochin sensitivity

• c. Coagulase production

• d. Bacitracin sensitivity
• Q9. Which of the following Staphylococcus species is commonly
associated with skin and soft tissue infections?

• a. Staphylococcus aureus

• b. Staphylococcus epidermidis

• c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

• d. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
• Q10. The PYR test is used to identify which group of Gram-
positive cocci?

• a. Staphylococcus

• b. Streptococcus

• c. Enterococcus

• d. Micrococcus
• Q11. Which type of hemolysis is characterized by a complete
lysis of red blood cells, resulting in a clear zone around the
colonies on blood agar?

• a. Alpha-hemolysis

• b. Beta-hemolysis

• c. Gamma-hemolysis

• d. Delta-hemolysis
• Q12. Streptococci exhibiting beta-hemolysis are often
associated with which clinical manifestation?

• a. Urinary tract infections

• b. Skin and soft tissue infections

• c. Respiratory tract infections

• d. gastrointestinal infections
• Q13. Which group of beta-hemolytic streptococci is often
associated with pharyngitis and scarlet fever?

• a. Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)

• b. Group B Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae)

• c. Group C Streptococcus

• d. Group D Streptococcus
• Q14. What is the characteristic hemolysis pattern of
Streptococcus pneumonia on blood agar?

• a. Alpha-hemolysis

• b. Beta-hemolysis

• c. Gamma-hemolysis

• d. Delta-hemolysis
• Q15. Which group of streptococci is known for causing dental
caries and endocarditis?

• a. Group A Streptococcus

• b. Viridans group streptococci

• c. Group B Streptococcus

• d. Group D Streptococcus
• Q16. Streptococcus agalactiae, associated with neonatal
infections, belongs to which Lancefield group?

• a. Group A

• b. Group B

• c. Group C

• d. Group D
• Q17. Which hemolysis pattern is associated with no hemolytic
activity on blood agar?

• a. Alpha-hemolysis

• b. Beta-hemolysis

• c. Gamma-hemolysis

• d. Delta-hemolysis
• Q18. Streptococcus bovis is often associated with infections in
which body system?

• a. Gastrointestinal

• b. Respiratory

• c. Urinary

• d. Cardiovascular
• Q19. The CAMP test is used to identify the enhanced hemolysis
produced by the synergy between Streptococcus agalactiae and
which other bacterium?

• a. Staphylococcus aureus

• b. Escherichia coli

• c. Clostridium perfringens

• d. Enterococcus faecalis
• Q20. Streptococcus mutans, associated with dental caries,
belongs to which group of streptococci?

• a. Group a

• b. Viridans group

• c. Group B

• d. Group D
• Q21- Which Gram-positive bacillus is responsible for causing
anthrax?

• A) Clostridium tetani

• B) Bacillus anthracis

• C) Corynebacterium diphtheria

• D) Staphylococcus aureus
• Q22- Question: What Gram-positive bacillus is associated with
food poisoning due to the production of an emetic toxin?

• A) Listeria monocytogenes

• B) Clostridium botulinum

• C) Bacillus cereus

• D) Clostridium difficile
• Q23- What Gram-positive bacillus is associated with gas
gangrene?

• A) Clostridium perfringens

• B) Staphylococcus epidermidis

• C) Streptococcus pyogenes

• D) Clostridium difficile
• Q24- Which Gram-positive bacillus is commonly found in the
genital and gastrointestinal tracts and can cause opportunistic
infections?

• A) Lactobacillus

• B) Gardnerella vaginalis

• C) Actinomyces israelii

• D) Corynebacterium jeikeium
• Q25- Which Gram-positive bacillus is a common skin
commensal but can cause skin and soft tissue infections,
especially in immunocompromised individuals?

• A) Bacillus subtilis

• B) Staphylococcus epidermidis

• C) Corynebacterium minutissimum

• D) Propionibacterium acnes
• Q26- What Gram-positive bacillus is associated with the
formation of dental caries?

• A) Streptococcus pneumonia

• B) Streptococcus mutans

• C) Enterococcus faecalis

• D) Listeria monocytogenes
• Q27- Which Gram-positive bacillus is a common cause of
nosocomial infections, particularly in patients with indwelling
catheters or prosthetic devices?

• A) Staphylococcus aureus

• B) Enterococcus faecalis

• C) Listeria monocytogenes

• D) Bacillus cereus
• Q28- What Gram-positive bacillus is responsible for causing
listeriosis, a foodborne illness with a predilection for pregnant
women and immunocompromised individuals?

• A) Listeria monocytogenes

• B) Bacillus cereus

• C) Clostridium perfringens

• D) Streptococcus pyogenes
• Q29- Which of the following Gram-positive bacilli form
endospores and is commonly found in soil?

• A) Clostridium

• B) Listeria

• C) Corynebacterium

• D) Streptococcus
• Q30- Which group of Gram-positive bacilli includes species with
irregular, branching filaments?

• A) Lactobacillus

• B) Actinomyces

• C) Bacillus

• D) Clostridium
• Q31- What is the primary characteristic feature of the genus
Listeria among Gram-positive bacilli?

• A) Formation of endospores

• B) Facultative anaerobic growth

• C) Presence of capsules

• D) Acid-fast staining
• Q32- Which genus of Gram-positive bacilli includes species
commonly associated with dental caries?

• A) Streptococcus

• B) Clostridium

• C) Bacillus

• D) Lactobacillus
• Q33- What is a distinguishing feature of the genus
Corynebacterium among Gram-positive bacilli?

• A) Acid-fast staining

• B) Irregular branching filaments

• C) Pleomorphic shape

• D) Spore formation
• Q34- Which group of Gram-positive bacilli is known for its role in
fermenting sugars, producing lactic acid?

• A) Listeria

• B) Clostridium

• C) Lactobacillus

• D) Actinomyces
• Q35- Which genus of Gram-positive bacilli includes species that
are often part of the normal skin flora?

• A) Staphylococcus

• B) Streptococcus

• C) Bacillus

• D) Propionibacterium
• Q36- What is a characteristic feature of the genus Bacillus
among Gram-positive bacilli?

• A) Pleomorphic shape

• B) Formation of endospores

• C) Filamentous growth

• D) Facultative anaerobic metabolism

• Q37- Which laboratory technique is commonly used for the
identification and characterization of bacteria based on their
antigen-antibody reactions?

• A) PCR

• B) ELISA

• C) Western blot

• D) Microscopy
• Q38- What is the primary purpose of streaking a bacterial
culture on agar plates using the quadrant streak method?

• A) Isolation of pure colonies

• B) Rapid bacterial identification

• C) Quantification of bacterial load

• D) Preservation of bacterial cultures

• Q39- Which staining technique is commonly employed to
differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative
groups?

• A) Acid-fast staining

• B) Ziehl-Neelsen staining

• C) Gram staining

• D) Endospore staining
• Q40- In microbiology, what is the purpose of the Kirby-Bauer
disk diffusion method?

• A) Identification of bacterial species

• B) Determination of antibiotic susceptibility

• C) Quantification of bacterial load

• D) Detection of bacterial toxins

• Q41- Which molecular technique is employed for the
amplification of specific DNA sequences and is commonly used
in the detection of infectious agents?

• A) Gel electrophoresis

• B) Southern blotting

• C) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

• D) DNA sequencing
• Q42- What is the primary function of a blood agar plate in
microbiological diagnostics?

• A) Identification of bacterial species

• B) Determination of antibiotic susceptibility

• C) Detection of hemolysis

• D) Quantification of bacterial load

• Q43- Which serological test is commonly used for the diagnosis
of syphilis?

A) Western blot

b) ELISA

c) VDRL

d) Agglutination test
• 44- What is the purpose of the catalase test in microbiological
diagnostics?

• A) Detection of coagulase activity

• B) Identification of Gram-positive bacteria

• C) Differentiation of Staphylococcus and Streptococcus

• D) Assessment of oxygen tolerance

• 45- In the identification of bacteria, what is the purpose of the
API strip system?

• A) Antibiotic sensitivity testing

• B) Molecular typing

• C) Biochemical profiling

• D) Serological testing
• 46- Where is the majority of the human microbiota found?

• A) Skin

• B) Respiratory tract

• C) Gastrointestinal tract

• D) Urinary tract
• 47- What is the primary role of normal flora in the human body?

• A) Cause diseases

• B) Provide essential nutrients

• C) Support the immune system

• D) Synthesize antibiotics
• 48- What is the predominant bacterial species in the human oral
cavity?

• A) Lactobacillus

• B) Streptococcus mutans

• C) Bacteroides fragilis

• D) Escherichia coli
• 49- In which region of the respiratory tract is the normal flora
significantly reduced or absent?

• A) Nasopharynx

• B) Trachea

• C) Bronchi

• D) Alveoli
• 50- What is the purpose of the Gram stain in bacterial
identification?

• A) Detection of spores

• B) Differentiation of bacterial shapes

• C) Identification of viral particles

• D) Assessment of antibiotic susceptibility

Answers and explanations
• Question: 1 Answer: b. Thick peptidoglycan layer
• 2 Answer: a. Staphylococcus
• 3 Answer: c. Bile esculin hydrolysis
• 4. Answer: b. Coagulase test
• 5. Answer: b. Streptococcus
• 6. Answer: a. Beta-hemolysis
• 7. Answer: a. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus
• 8. Answer: c. Coagulase production
• 9. Answer: a. Staphylococcus aureus
• 10. Answer: b. Streptococcus
• 11. Answer: b. Beta-hemolysis
• Explanation: Beta-hemolysis produces a clear zone of complete
hemolysis around bacterial colonies on blood agar
• 12. Answer: c. Respiratory tract infections
• Explanation: Streptococci causing beta-hemolysis are
commonly associated with respiratory tract infections, such as
Streptococcus pyogenes.
• 13. Answer: a. Group A Streptococcus (Streptococcus
pyogenes)
• Explanation: Streptococcus pyogenes, belonging to group A, is
commonly associated with pharyngitis and scarlet fever.
• 14. Answer: a. Alpha-hemolysis
• Explanation: Streptococcus pneumonia exhibits alpha-
hemolysis, causing a partial hemolysis with a greenish
discoloration around colonies.
• 15. Answer: b. Viridans group streptococci
• Explanation: Viridans group streptococci are often associated
with dental caries and endocarditis.
• 16. Answer: b. Group B
• Explanation: Streptococcus agalactiae belongs to Lancefield
group B and is commonly associated with neonatal infections
• 17. Answer: c. Gamma-hemolysis
• Explanation: Gamma-hemolysis is characterized by no
hemolytic activity on blood agar.
• 18. Answer: a. Gastrointestinal
• Explanation: Streptococcus bovis is often associated with
gastrointestinal infections
• 19. Answer: c. Clostridium perfringens
• Explanation: The CAMP test identifies enhanced hemolysis
produced by the synergy between Streptococcus agalactiae and
Clostridium perfringens.
• 2o. Answer: b. Viridans group
• Explanation: Streptococcus mutans, known for causing dental
caries, belongs to the Viridans group of streptococci.
• 21- Answer: B) Bacillus anthracis
• Explanation: Bacillus anthracis is the causative agent of
anthrax, a bacterial infection that primarily affects herbivores but
can also infect humans.
• 22- Answer: C) Bacillus cereus
• Explanation: Bacillus cereus can cause food poisoning, either
through the production of emetic toxins (leading to vomiting) or
enterotoxins (causing diarrhea)
• 23- Answer: A) Clostridium perfringens
• Explanation: Clostridium perfringens is responsible for gas
gangrene, a serious soft tissue infection that produces gas in
the affected tissues.
• 24- Answer: D) Corynebacterium jeikeium
• Explanation: Corynebacterium jeikeium is an opportunistic
pathogen commonly found in the genital and gastrointestinal
tracts.
• 25- Answer: B) Staphylococcus epidermidis
• Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a common skin
commensal but can cause infections in immunocompromised
individuals.
• 26- Answer: B) Streptococcus mutans
• Explanation: Streptococcus mutans is known for its role in
dental caries formation.
• 27- Answer: B) Enterococcus faecalis
• Explanation: Enterococcus faecalis is often associated with
nosocomial infections, especially in patients with indwelling
catheters or prosthetic devices.
• 28- Answer: A) Listeria monocytogenes
• Explanation: Listeria monocytogenes causes listeriosis and
poses a particular risk to pregnant women and
immunocompromised individuals.
• 29- answer: A) Clostridium
• Explanation: Clostridium species are known for forming
endospores and are commonly found in soil.
• 30- Answer: B) Actinomyces
• Explanation: Actinomyces species have irregular, branching
filaments.
• 31- Answer: B) Facultative anaerobic growth
• Explanation: Listeria species are facultative anaerobes.
• 32- Answer: A) Streptococcus
• Explanation: Streptococcus species, particularly Streptococcus
mutans, are associated with dental caries.
• 33- Answer: C) Pleomorphic shape
• Explanation: Corynebacterium species have a pleomorphic
shape.
• 34- Answer: C) Lactobacillus
• Explanation: Lactobacillus species are involved in the
fermentation of sugars, producing lactic acid.
• 35- Answer: A) Staphylococcus
• Explanation: Staphylococcus species are commonly found in
the normal skin flora.
• 36- Answer: B) Formation of endospores
• Explanation: Bacillus species are known for forming
endospores.
• 37- Answer: B) ELISA
• Explanation: Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA) is
widely used for detecting and characterizing bacteria through
antigen-antibody interactions.
• 38- Answer: A) Isolation of pure colonies
• Explanation: The quadrant streak method is used to isolate
individual bacterial colonies for further analysis.
• 39- Answer: C) Gram staining
• Explanation: Gram staining is a fundamental technique for
categorizing bacteria based on their cell wall characteristics
• 40- Answer: B) Determination of antibiotic susceptibility
• Explanation: The Kirby-Bauer method is used to assess the
sensitivity of bacteria to different antibiotics.
• 41- Answer: C) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
• Explanation: PCR is a powerful tool for amplifying and detecting
specific DNA sequences, including those of infectious agents.
• 42- Answer: C) Detection of hemolysis
• Explanation: Blood agar is used to observe hemolysis patterns,
which can aid in the identification of bacteria.
• 43- Answer: C) VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory)
• Explanation: VDRL is a serological test used for the diagnosis of
syphilis.
• 44- Answer: D) Assessment of oxygen tolerance
• Explanation: The catalase test is used to determine the ability of
bacteria to produce the enzyme catalase, indicating their
tolerance to oxygen
• 45- Answer: C) Biochemical profiling
• Explanation: The API strip system is used for the biochemical
profiling of bacteria to aid in their identification.
• 46- Answer: C) Gastrointestinal tract
• Explanation: The gastrointestinal tract harbors the majority of
the human microbiota.
• 47- Answer: C) Support the immune system
• Explanation: Normal flora helps support the immune system and
provides protection against pathogenic invaders.
• 48- Answer: B) Streptococcus mutans
• Explanation: Streptococcus mutans is a predominant species
associated with dental caries.
• 49- Answer: D) Alveoli
• Explanation: The alveoli have minimal normal flora due to their
sterile nature.
• 50- Answer: B) Differentiation of bacterial shapes
• Explanation: Gram staining helps differentiate bacteria based on
their cell wall characteristics.