DHA success course

Malaz AbdelKafi Attayeb

First 50 questions
1. What is the life span of RBC?
(A) 120 days

(B) 100 days

C) 200 days

(D) 80 days
2. What is the recommended cleaner for
removing all oil from objective lens?
(A) 70% alcohol or lens cleaner

(B) Xylene

(C) Water

(D) benzene
3. By volume, the red blood cells constitute
about _____% of whole blood.
(A) 15

(B) 25

(C) 35

(D) 45
4. Serum differs from blood as it lacks
(A) Antibodies

(B) clotting factors

(C) Albumins

(D) globulins
5. The pH value of blood is normally between
_____ and _____.
(A) 6.0, 6.5

(B) 7.0, 7.35

(C) 7.35, 7.45

(D) 7.45, 7.98

6. An average adult person has about _____
liters of blood by volume.
• (A) 5

• (B) 5.5

• (C) 6

• (D) 6.5
7. Sample used for Platelet counting is :
• (A) serum

• (B) plasma

• (C) EDTA blood

• (D) citrate blood

8. What mordant is used in Gram staining?
• (A) crystal violet

• (B) safranin

• (C) acid-alcohol

• (D) iodine
9. Rh typing is based on the D-antigen
present in:
• (A) platelet

• (B) RBCs

• (C) lymphocyte

• (D) eosinphils
10. ESR equipment is known as
• (A) sahli's tube

• (B) centrifuge

• (C) vacutainer

• (D) westegren's tube

11. The reagent used in estimation of
Glucose is:
• (A) urease

• (B) hexokinase

• (C) jaffe

• (D) None of the above

12. RFT Includes
• (A) electrolytes

• (B) total protein

• (C) AST

• (D) ALT
13. Microscopic examination of urine is done to
find out:
• (A) RBCs

• (B) pus cells

• (C) cast

• (D) All the above

14. The commonly used fixative for slide
preparation is:
• (A) benedict reagent

• (B) distilled water

• (C) formalin

• (D) None of the above

15. Confirmatory test for AID's is:
• (A) ELISA

• (B) CLIA

• (C) western blot

• (D) chromatography
16. Which one of the following does not include
routine liver function test?
• (A) bilirubin

• (B) bile acid

• (C) sgot

• (D) alkaline phosphatase

17. The basic component of Leishman stain is
• (A) eosin Acidic
• (B) methylene blue Basic
• (C) malachite green
Not
• (D) safrenin
components
18. CSF samples are collected by:
• (A) lab tech

• (B) staff nurse

• (C) physician

• (D) ward boy

19. Which of the following is Romanowsky
stain?
• (A) Leishman

• (B) giemsa

• (C) jenners

• (D) All the above

20. All the following are motile bacteria
except
• (A) e.coli

• (B) klebsiella

• (C) vibrio

• (D) proteus
21. Which of the following is usually not found
in the urine?
• (A) Magnesium

• (B) Urea

• (C) Uric acid

• (D) Glucose
22. The most significant reagent strip test that is
associated with a positive ketone result is:
• (A) Glucose

• (B) Protein

• (C) pH

• (D) Specific gravity

23. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not
warmed to room temperature will adversely
affect:
• (A) Enzymatic reactions

• (B) Dye-binding reactions

• (C) The sodium nitroprusside reaction

• (D) Diazo reactions

24. A specific gravity of 1.005 would produce
the reagent strip color:
• (A) Blue

• (B) Green

• (C) Yellow

• (D) Red
25. All of the following are important to protect
the integrity of reagent strips except:
• (A) Removing the desiccant from the bottle

• (B) Storing in an opaque bottle

• (C) Storing at room temperature

• (D) Resealing the bottle after removing a

strip
26. The coagulase is done to differentiate:
• (A) Staphylococcus aureus from
Staphylococcus epidermidis

• (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis from

Neisseria meningitides

• (C) Streptococcus pyogenes from

Enterococcus faecalis

• (D) Streptococcus pyogenes from

Staphylococcus aureus
27. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0:
• (A) Indicates metabolic acidosis Acidic
• (B) Should be recollected

• (C) May contain calcium oxalate crystals Acidic

• (D) Is seen after drinking cranberry juice

Acidic
28. Cardiac markers are:
• (A) ckmb, tropi

• (B) ast, alt, protein

• (C) carbohydrate

• (D) glucose
29. To which of the following would the term
"white cell" NOT be applied?
• (A) erythrocyte

• (B) leucocyte

• (C) lymphocyte

• (D) monocyte
30. What is PPE in laboratory?
• (A) personnel protective equipment

• (B) pipette per equipment

• (C) professional pipette

• (D) None of them

31. Which individuals can receive any type
of blood and are considered universal
recipients?
• (A) A+

• (B) O–

• (C) AB+

• (D) B–
32. The liquid portion of blood remaining after
a clot has formed is called:
• (A) plasma

• (B) serum

• (C) tissue

• (D) lymph
33. What is found in blood serum that is also in
blood plasma?
• (A) blood cells

• (B) platelets

• (C) plasma proteins

• (D) clotting factors

34. Which test cannot be performed on a serum
sample?
• (A) Iron

• (B) Vitamin B12

• (C) Total lipids

• (D) Clotting factors

35. Which of the following are tumor
markers?
• (A) CA125 Ovarian cancer
• (B) CA19.9 Pancreatic cancer
• (C) CEA Various cancers

• (D) All the above

36. A suction device used to draw up liquids
is a:
• (A) flask

• (B) cylinder

• (C) beaker

• (D) safety bulb

37. Which one of the following is NOT a
blood
component?
• (A) Fresh frozen plasma

• (B) Hemolysate

• (C) Platelet concentrate

• (D) Plasma
38. Hay's test detects ___________ in urine
• (A) bile salts

• (B) blood
Bile salts vs bile pigment?
• (C) ketone bodies

• (D) bile pigment

39. What is the normal hemoglobin
concentration in adult male?
• (A) 13-20 g/dl

• (B) 13 - 17 g/dl

• (C) 13- 15 g/dl

• (D) 11- 15 g/dl

40. What is the gauge of the needle commonly
used for venipuncture?
• (A) 26

• (B) 20

• (C) 21

• (D) 18
41. Which one of the following is NOT the
site
selected for collection of the blood?
• A) Spleen

• (B) Arteries

• (C) Capillaries

• (D) Veins
42. Which of the following parasite is found
in
urine specimen?
• A) Taenia sps

• (B) Trichomonas vaginalis

• (C) Trichuris trichiura

• (D) Round worm

43. Temperature range used for autoclaving
is....
• (A) 100°C for 10 min

• (B) 100°C for 30 min

• (C) 121°C for 15 min

• (D) 121°C for 30 min

44. Which one of the following tests is NOT
used to detect renal function?
• (A) Blood sugar

• (B) Blood urea

• (C) Serum creatinine

• (D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

45. What is the eosinophil count present in a
normal DLC smear?
• (A) 1-10%

• (B) 6-10%

• (C) 1-6%

• (D) 5-10%
46. Which of the following type of
cholesterol
is called a good cholesterol?
• (A) HDL

• (B) Chylomicrons

• (C) VLDL

• (D) LDL
47. Cholesterol estimation is done by the
following method:
• (A) Molisch method All Carbohydrate detection
• (B) Benedict's method
Mono and disaccharides
detection
• (C) Zak's ferric chloride method

• (D) Jaffes method

creatinine
48. Which of the following is a gram negative
bacilli?
• (A) Staphylococcus aureus

• (B) Staphylococcus citreus

• (C) Streptococcus pneumonia

• (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

49. Coma shaped bacteria are known as
• (A) Staphylococci

• (B) Streptococci

• (C) Vibrio

• (D) Bacillus
50. What is the colour of normal CSF?
• (A) Colourless

• (B) Yellow

• (C) Light green

• (D) Brown
51. A positive tuberculin test is indicated by
and area of induration of:
• (A) < 5 mm in diameter
mantoux
• (B) 6-9 mm in diameter

• (C) 10 mm in diameter PPD

• (D) No induration
52. Normal reticulocyte count in adults
is __________.
• (A) 3-6%

• (B) 0.5-2.5%

• (C) 1-5%

• (D) 2-10%
53. Which of the following cells are normally
present in normal blood specimen.
• (A) RBC, PLT, Lymphocytes, neutrophil, blast and monocytes

• (B) RBC, PLT, Lymphocytes, neutrophil and monocytes

• (C) RBC, PLT, reactive Lymphocytes, PMN, Megakaryocyte

• (D) RBCs, NRBCs, Plt, WBCs.

54. Acid fast staining is used to detect
• (A) Mycobacterium TB
Reagents required:
• (B) C.tetani •Primary stain: Carbol Fuchsin
•Decolorizing agent: Acid-Alcohol (HCl
• (C) HIV/AIDS + 95% ethyl alcohol)
•Counterstain: Methylene Blue
• (D) Meningococci
55. Name the anticoagulant present in purple
coloured vacutainer tube
• (A) Heparin

• (B) EDTA

• (C) Sodium citrate

• (D) None of these

56. Method of sterilization used for culture
media is... Sterilization by
heat
• (A) Autoclave

• (B) Hot air oven

Moist heat Dry heat

• (C) Pasteurization

• (D) None of the above

pasteurization autoclaving Hot air oven flaming
57. Ketone bodies in urine are:
• (A) Acetone
Ketone bodies components:
1.Acetoacetate
• (B) Beta hydroxy butyric acid 2. D-β-hydroxybutyrate
3. acetone
• (C) Both (A) and (B)

• (D) None of these

58. What is the majority hemoglobin in
normal adult ?
• (A) HbA
95 -98 %
• (B) Hb A2 2 -3 %
• (C) Hb F
<1%
• (D) Hb H
59. Serum electrolytes are analyzed using
• (A) Calorimeter

• (B) Flamephotometer

• (C) Spectrophotometer

• (D) None of these

60. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of
• (A) Syphilis

• (B) HIV

• (C) Typhoid

• (D) Tuberculosis
61. The only cell in normal CSF is
• (A) Neutrophil

• (B) Lymphocyte

• (C) Manocyte

• (D) None of these

62. What type of PCR is used for HIV virus?
• (A) real time PCR

• (B) PCR

• (C) RT-PCR

• (D) assembly PCR

 63. The solution used to fix a pap smear is:
• (A) wright stain Hematological stain
• (B) hematoxylin
Not fixative
• (C) physiological saline
Not fixative
• (D) cytospray
64. Which medium is used to culture vibrio
cholerae ?
• (A) DCA

• (B) Saboroud agar

• (C) TCBA

• (D) XLD
65. Presence of red blood cells in the urine is
referred to as:
• A) Hematuria

• (B) Hemoglobinuria Hemoglobin in urine

• (C) Anuria No urine
• (D) Chyluria Lymphatic fluid in urine
66. Which bacterium is not
enterobacteriacae? Gram negative
• (A) psedumonas aerogenousa
bacilli
• (B) proteus
Oxidase negative
• (C) salmonella
Facultative anaerobes
• (D) E.coli
Ferment glucose
67. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____
• (A) UAV

• (B) UAT

• (C) TAS

• (D) TAT
68. Half of 1 percent written as decimal is
• (A) 5
1% = 1/100 = 0.01
0.01 x 0.5 = 0.005
• (B) 0.5

• (C) 0.05

• (D) 0.005
69. DAT is considered a diagnostic test in
case of?
• worm autoagglutination

• Auto immune hemolytic disease

• Hemolytic disease of the new born X3

• All of above
70.which leukocytes have the shortest life
Span in polymorph nuclear cells?
• Neutrophils

• Basophils

• Lymphocytes

• monocytes
71. Blood group Antibodies are?
• IgG

• IgM

• IgD

• IgA
72. Sputum specimen of patient with chronic
pulmonary isolated Micro- organisms?
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis

• S. Pneumoniae

• K.pneumonia

• Enterococcus fecalis
73. Hemophilus influenzae grows best in?
• Blood agar

• Chocolate agar
Factor x: porphyrins
• Macconkey
Factor v: NAD
• CLED
74. T lymphocytes maturation take place in?
• BM

• Thymus

• Lymph node

• spleen
75. Cardiac arrest affected by?
• Hypokalemia

• Hyponatremia

• Hypernateremia

• Low iron level

76. Main goal of establishing Qc program in
the lab?
• Reduce waste

• Differentiate between error and normal variation

• Good interpretation of result

• Reducing laboratory expences

77. Partial gastrectomy can lead to?
• Macrocytic normochromic anemia

• Intrinsic factor deficiency

• Pernicious anemia

• All of above
78. For measuring lead in urine which type of
sample do we used?
• Midstream urine

• 24 hours urine

• Random urine

• Suprapubic aspiration
79. Phase were bacteria multiple and
replicate?
• Log phase

• Lag phase

• Stationary phase

• Death (decline )
 80. Case / physician request CBC for a patient / test performed
result send back to physician /then the physician request bleeding
profile for the patient what the appropriate action in this case?

• Request another blood sample in Na citrate tube

• Performing test using EDTA blood sample

• Repeat CBC test

• Request another blood sample in heparin tube

81. In what case you see basophilic stippling?
• Nuclear remnant

• Denatured HB

• Bacterial infection

• Sickle cell anemia

 Pappenheimer
82.What does the picturebodies
resemple?
Pappenheimer bodies

Target cell

Basophilic stibling
Haeinz bodies Basophilic stibling
Heinz bodies
83.Tybe 2 D.M due to?
• Autoimmunity

• Insulin resistance

• Beta cell destruction

• High blood pressure

84.Prussian Blue used to stain?
• Heinz bodies

• White blood cells

• Iron molecules

• PBFM
85.Antibiotics work on G +ve bacteria?
• Vancomycin

• Ampicillin

• Ciprofloxacin

• All of above
86.Test to diagnose spherocytosis?
• ESR

• Aggutination

• Osmotic fragility

• Iron stain
 87. Case / a lot of investigations were performed for this patient but
key points in this case was blood glucose above 250 mg /dl, and also,
he has +++ uric acid crystal in urine what the possible diagnosis?

• Dm + gout
Uric acid elevation
• Dm can lead to D.M
• Dm+ liver cirrhosis

• Nephritis
 88. 12 years old patient CBC showed, low HB, with low RBCs
count, Peripheral blood film picture showed cresent cells with
many reticulocytes, what is the next laboratory test to be done
to diagnose his disease?
• HB electrophoresis

• sickiling test

• Osmotic fragility test

• ESR
89. Case / section of histology after 24 hours the technician
discover that the section was preserved in Normal saline not
formalin what the appropriate action?

• Reject and request new sample

• Change N.s with 10% formalin

• Immediately put the section in xylene

• Use the section normally

90. How does the capsule involve on
preventing phagocytosis?
• Phagocyte negative charge and capsule have negative charge

• Capsule contain lubricant that facilities skipping

• Bacteria move faster than Phagocyte

• Capsules contain sulfuric acid that kills phagocytic cell

91. Case / patient with thrombocytosis platelets more than
1000 per cuml what the appropriate action in this situation?

• Donate platelets

• Therapeutic platelets phrases

• Donate blood

• Splenectomy
92.Hus caused by (hemolytic uremic
syndrome)?
• Shigella

• Salmonella

• H.pylori

• E.fecalis
93. Fat stain used in the laboratory?
• H & E stain

• Wright gimsa stain

• Oil red O

• Z.N stain
 94. First marker in HBV infection?
• HBsAg
Current infection
• HBv e Ag
Medication follow up
• HBv e Ab
To detect infectivity of pt and activity of virus
• HBc Ag
To detect active stage
95.Inclusion bodies seen in sideroblastic
anemia?
• Pappenheimer bodies

• Basophillic stibbling

• Howell-jowley inclusions

• Methemoglobin
96. patient with low albumin and high total
protein what could be the diagnosis?
• Multiple myeloma

• Liver cirrhosis

• Ascites

• Nephrotic syndrome
97. Bite cell + blister cell seen in?
• Iron deficiency anemia

• Sideroplastic anemia

• G6PD deficiency

• Sickle cell anemia

98. Which is not a parasite?
• E.histolytica

• T.vaginalis

• E.fecalis

• P.falciparum
99. Tests used for Treponema pallidum?
• VDRL

• FTA

• ELISA

• All of above
100. The only antibody that can cross the
placenta?
• IgM

• IgG

• IgE

• IgA