Polity Marathon

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Q1. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the
Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive principles of state policy
3. Fundamental duties
Select the correct answer using the given code below:
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the

UN General Assembly in Paris on 10 December 1948. It seeks to
universally protect fundamental human rights
Statement 1 is correct:
Indian Preamble reflects the principles of the Preamble of the

Universal Declaration of Human Rights which acts as a preface or an
introduction to the International Bill of Human Rights.
Indian Preamble secures Social, Economic, and Political Justice, and
Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship which is also
found in Article 2 of UDHR

Article 45 of the Indian Constitution (DPSP) provides for early

childhood care and education for all children until they complete
the age of six years. This is also expressed in Article 26 of UDHR
which also reiterates similar rights.

Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution strive towards excellence in all

spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly
rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement similar calls have
been made in Article 22 of UDHR says that everyone, as a member of
society, has the right to social security and is entitled to its realization.

Q2. In which case was the “Doctrine of prospective overruling”
first invoked in India?
(a) Minnerva Mills case
(b) Golaknath case
(c) Delhi Judicial service association case
(d) Indra Sawhney case

Answer: B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct:
It was in the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab , where

Chief Justice Subba Rao had first invoked the doctrine of
prospective overruling imported from American judicial
system.
Subba Rao used this doctrine to preserve the constitutional

validity of the Constitution (Seventeenth Amendment) Act,
legality of which had been challenged.

Under Prospective overruling, the Supreme Court lays down the
parameters within which a law laid down in a case which overrules a
previous judgment, has to operate.
The whole purpose is to avoid reopening of settled issues and also

prevent multiplicity of proceedings. Retrospective ruling might lead to
chaos.

Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 368 allows for the amendment of the
Constitution by way of addition, variation and striking
down.
2. Article 368 provides for three types of amendments.

3. Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form
the basic structure of the Constitution.
4. Amendments that require only simple majority are not

deemed to be amendments under article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Article 368 allows for the amendment of the constitution by way of

addition, variation or repeal of any provision in accordance with the
procedure laid down for the purpose. Striking down is generally done
by the Courts and not the Parliament. Striking down means declaring a
law null and void. However, it may be possible that the struck down
laws might stay on the statute books without being operational.

Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a

special majority of Parliament and by the special majority of
Parliament along with the ratification of half of the states
legislatures by a simple majority.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court ruled that

Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution
but it cannot alter the “basic structure of the constitution”. The
basic structure is not clearly defined by the court. However, it has
been interpreted to provisions like secularism, equality etc.,
federalism, separation of power, independent judiciary, rule of
law etc.

Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution

requires amendment by a simple majority of each house
present and voting. These amendments are not deemed to
be amendments under Article 368. These provisions include:
Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries
or names of existing states, Abolition or creation of
legislative councils in states, use of official language,
Citizenship – acquisition, and termination etc.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-10

Question Hack:
If you go through the Bare text of the Constitution of India, you

will find that Articles 124A and 124B dealing with NJAC are still
there even though they are not operational. It is because they
have been struck down by the Supreme Court and not repealed
by the Parliament.

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Rights
available to the citizens in India:
1. Right to Property is available to only citizens in India.
2. In India, a citizen by birth is only eligible for the office of

President, while in USA, both a citizen by birth and
naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of the President.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D
Explanation:
Right to Property is a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the
Constitution. It was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by
the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. Right to property is available to
both citizens and non-citizens in India. It is not exclusive to citizens
only.

Foreign nationals of non-Indian origin resident in India (except 11
countries) can acquire immovable property in India.
Foreign nationals of non-Indian origin resident outside India can

acquire/transfer immovable property in India, on lease not
exceeding five years and can acquire immovable property in India
by way of inheritance from a resident.

In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are

eligible for the office of the President while in USA, only a citizen
by birth and not a naturalised citizen is eligible for the office of the
President.

Q5. . With reference to the Digital rights, consider the following:
1. It is the right to have publicly available personal information

removed from the internet, search, databases, websites or any
other public platforms.
2. India does not have a framework to protect non-personalized
data and anonymous data.
3. To provide equal access to electronics, information and
communication technologies, India approved a National Policy on
Universal Electronic Accessibility.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: D
Explanation:
The European Commission, in a global first, proposed a set of digital

rights and principles in January, 2022, that aim to protect people's rights,
support democracy and ensure a fair and safe online environment.
‘Digital rights’ refers to the rights that allow people to access, use, create
and publish digital media. It can further imply the right to privacy and
data protection;
it can be related to trolling, online threats and hate speech;
it can address broader issues of equitable Internet access regardless of

economic backgrounds and disabilities.

On the data protection side, India has a comprehensive

framework of laws which includes the Digital Data Protection
Law addressing the data protection concerns of the digital
economy.
Additionally, India has National Data Governance Framework

Policy which addresses the non- personalized data and the
anonymous data.

The government has, however, withdrawn the Personal Data
Protection Bill from Parliament in August 2022, as it considers a
‘comprehensive legal framework’ to regulate the online space,
including bringing separate laws on data privacy, the overall
Internet ecosystem, cybersecurity, telecom regulations, and
harnessing non-personal data to boost innovation in the country.

As Digital Rights are an extension of Universal Declaration of

Human Rights, India in 2013 approved a National Policy on
Universal Electronic Accessibility, for equal access to electronics
and information and communication technologies (ICTs).

Q6. Consider the following statement:
1. India's membership of the Commonwealth of Nations

affects its sovereignty.
2. India can cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign
state.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B
Explanation:
In 1949, India declared the continuation of her full membership of

the Commonwealth of Nations and accepted the British Crown as
the head of the Commonwealth.
This extraconstitutional declaration does not affect India’s

sovereignty in any manner.

The word ‘sovereign’ mentioned in the Preamble implies that India

is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an
independent state.
There is no authority above it, and it is free to conduct its own

affairs (both internal and external).
Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory

or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.

Question Hack:
It is a well-known fact that India is a sovereign country since even the

Preamble declares as such.
Furthermore, we participate in the commonwealth games being a

member of the Commonwealth of Nations., but this membership or
participation in the games does not impact our sovereignty.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-4-Preamble of the
Constitution.

1. The Indian Constitution provides for a positive concept

of secularism.
2. The fundamental right to freedom of religion reflects

the secular character of the Indian Constitution.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of

secularism i.e., all religions in our country (irrespective of their
strength) have the same status and support from the state.
This is unlike various other countries like France wherein there is a

complete divorce between the state and religion.

However, the Indian state may engage with religion negatively to
oppose religious tyranny.
This is reflected in such actions as the ban on untouchability.

The term ‘secular’ was added by the 42nd Constitutional

Amendment Act of 1976. However, the Supreme Court held in 1974,
although the words ‘secular state’ was not expressly mentioned in
the Indian Constitution, there can be no doubt that Constitution
makers wanted to establish such a state and accordingly Articles 25
to 28 (guaranteeing the fundamental right to freedom of religion)
have been included in the constitution
Sources:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-4-Preamble of
the Constitution.

8. Which of these have been held to be against Secularism by the
Supreme Court?
(a) Teaching of Sanskrit in Government schools.
(b) Reservation of seats for Sanghas in Sikkim Legislative

Assembly.
(c) Acquisition of places of worship by the Government on

India.
(d) Seeking votes on the ground of religion during

elections.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Secularism means every person in the State is free to practise,

profess and propagate their religion and State will not interfere with
any of them.
Right to practise, profess and propagate their religion is a

fundamental right guaranteed under Article 25 of Constitution of
India.
In S. R Bommai case of 1994, the Supreme Court held that the State
treats all religions equally and that’s why India is a secular State and
Secularism is a part of the basic features of the Constitution of India.

Option (a) is incorrect:
In Santosh Kumar v. Secy. Ministry of Human Resources

Development (AIR 2002 SC 3176), the Supreme Court held that
Sanskrit language as an elective subject in Central Board of
Secondary Education (CBSE) is not against secularism because
Sanskrit language is the “mother of all Aryan languages.

Option (b) is incorrect:
Now, Sikkim has 12 seats reserved for Bhutias and Lepchas, two for the
Scheduled Castes, one seat for the Sanghas and 17 general seats,
according to the Home Ministry.
Buddhist monks registered with 51 monasteries in the State of Sikkim

are the only ones who can contest and cast their votes for the
Assembly seat.
The 32-Sangha Assembly constituency in Sikkim has no geographical

boundary and it is only one-of-its-kind constituency in the country
reserved for the monastic community (Sangha) as per the office of
Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) of Sikkim states on its website.

Option (c) is incorrect:
The Allahabad High court has ruled that government can acquire
land belonging to places of worship and convert it for “benefit of
public at large”.
The Court observed that Article 26 guarantees inter alia the right to
own and acquire movable and immovable property for managing
religious affairs.
This right, however, cannot take away the right of the State to
compulsorily acquire property in accordance with the provisions of
Article 31(2).

Option (d) is correct:
In Abhiram Singh v C.D. Commachen by a 4-3 majority ruling, a

seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that
an election will be annulled if votes are sought in the name of the
religion of the candidate.
The Supreme Court observed that, elections to the State

legislature or to the Parliament or for that matter anybody in the
State is a secular exercise just as the functions of the elected
representatives must be secular in both outlook and practice.

Moreover, Section 123(3) of the Representation of the People Act
defines as “corrupt practice” appeals made by a candidate or his
agents to vote or refrain from voting for any person on the ground
of “his” religion, race, caste, community or language.
Question Hack: Option A could have been easily eliminated since

Sanskrit is taught in most educational institutions whether
government funded or private.

Q9. With respect to the ‘Preamble to the Indian Constitution’, consider
the followings statements:
1. The Preamble has only been amended once, in 1976, since its
adoption.
2. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act added two new

words to the Preamble.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect:
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which has added three new
words: Socialist, Secular and Integrity, to the Preamble.

This amendment was held to be valid the Supreme Court in
Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973.
The Supreme Court held in this case that the Preamble is a part
of the Constitution and it can be amended, subject to the
condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic structure’ of
the Constitution.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-4-
Preamble of the Constitution.

10. Consider the following statements:
1. Preamble was enacted by the Constituent Assembly

after the enactment of all of the other provisions of
the Indian Constitution.
2. In the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, the Supreme

Court of India held for the first time that the Preamble
is a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Constitution of India was enacted by the

Constituent Assembly after the rest of the Constitution was
already enacted.
The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure
that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by
the Constituent Assembly.

In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court first held
that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several
provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the
makers of the Constitution.
In Kesavananda Bharati case, Supreme Court held that the

Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

Question Hack:
Preamble itself provides the date on which it was adopted, i.e.,

26 November 1949.
It was thus adopted at the very last after adopting all other
provisions.
On the other hand, Objectives Resolution was introduced in the

very first session of the Constituent Assembly.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-4-Preamble
of the Constitution.

Q11. Consider the following statements with reference to the
Preamble to the Constitution of India:
1. It serves as a source of power for the legislature.

2. It puts restrictions upon the authority of the legislature.
3. The provisions of the Preamble are not enforceable in a
court of law.
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct:
In the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, the Supreme Court held

that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
It observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the

Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand
and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.

In the LIC of India case 1995 also, the Supreme Court again held
that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. However,
two things should be noted:
• The Preamble to the Constitution of India is neither a

source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the
powers of legislature.
• It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not

enforceable in courts of law.

Question Hack:
In the Indian Constitution, Directive Principles of State Policy,

Fundamental Duties and the Preamble are non-justiciable, i.e., they
cannot be enforced in a court of law.
Source:
Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-4-Preamble of

the Constitution.

Q12. Which one among the following remarked that
“Indian Constitution strikes a good balance between
extreme rigidity and too much flexibility”?
(a) K.C Wheare
(b) Granville Austin
(c) Alexanderowicz
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: A
Alexanderowicz who was a Ukrainian scholar and served in India in

1951 gave the above statement.
He famously remarked that “Indian Constitution strikes a good

balance between extreme rigidity and too much flexibility.”

Granville Austin said that the “amending process has proved
itself one of the most ably conceived aspects of constitution.
Although it appears complicated, it is merely diverse”.
J.N Nehru said that “if you make any Constitution rigid and
permanent, you stop the nation’s growth, the growth of a living,
vital, organic people.
K.C Wheare said, “This variety in the amending process is wise

but rarely found.”
Source:
Indian Polity by Laxmikant, 6th edition, Chapter-10

1. In India, only the Parliament can propose an amendment to

the Constitution unlike USA where states can also propose
such amendment.
2. Ratification is required by half the states in the USA for

making amendments to their Constitution.
3. Amendment procedure of the Constitution in USA is less

flexible than the amendment procedure in India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: D
Explanation:
In India only Parliament can initiate an amendment and not

states. In the USA, states can propose an amendment to the
congress and the congress in turn calls the convention where
it has to be ratified.

Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 3 is correct:
In India, half the states are required to ratify a Constitutional

amendment bill in case of amendments to the federal
provisions of the Constitution.
However, in the USA, 3/4th of state legislatures is required to

ratify a Constitutional amendment bill before its passage. The
U.S constitution has thus a far more rigid amendment
procedure than that of India.

Question Hack:
The US Constitution has been amended less than 30 times

in the last 225 years. While our Constitution has been
amended 105 times till 2021. Clearly, the US Constitution
is more rigid than the Indian Constitution.
Source:
Indian Polity by Laxmikant, 6th edition, Chapter-10

1. The constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms

of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and
democracy.
2. The constitution of India provides for the ‘judicial review’ to

safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on
which the constitution is based
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D
Explanation:
The doctrine of basic structure is propounded by the Supreme Court in the famous Kesavananda
Bharti case (1973).
The Supreme Court upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act (1971) and stated that
Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights. It ruled that the
constituent power of the Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the basic structure
of the Constitution.

Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative
enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments.
Provisions of judicial review maintain the balance of federalism, to protect the Fundamental Rights
and Fundamental Freedoms guaranteed to the citizens.
Although the Indian Constitution does not expressly grant the courts the power of judicial review.
Source: UPSC CSE 2020

Q15. With reference to a Constitutional amendment bill, consider
the following statements:
1. The President can withhold his assent but cannot return

the bill for reconsideration.
2. 24th Constitutional amendment Act empowered the
Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution.
3. It is obligatory for the President to give his assent when a
Constitutional amendment bill is presented to him.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: C
Explanation:
After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the
state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president
for assent.
The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold
his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of Parliament.
He is bound to give his assent to such a bill as per the provisions of

Article 368(2).

Statement 2 and 3 are correct:
The 24th Constitutional Amendment of the year 1971 inserted

clause (4) to Article 13, which stated that Article 13 would not
apply to any constitutional amendments and thus empowered the
parliament to amend any provision, effectively overturning the
Golaknath judgement.
The Amendment further made it binding upon the President to

give his assent to a Constitutional amendment Bill.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikant, 6th edition, Chapter-10

Q16. How many of the statements given below are correct with
reference to the procedure of amendment of the Constitution?
1. A bill for amendment of the Constitution can only be
introduced in the Parliament and not state legislatures.
2. Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced by a private
member as well as a minister.
3. Constitutional amendment bill cannot be introduced in the
Parliament without prior permission of the President
4. There is no provision for the holding of joint sitting in case of
disagreement between the two houses for the passage of a
Constitutional amendment bill.
Select the correct option:
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements

Answer: C
Explanation:
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the

introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament
(Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.
The Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced either by a

minister or by a private member.

The Constitutional amendment bill does not require prior

permission of the President unlike a Money Bill.
Each house must pass the bill separately. In case of a

disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for
holding a joint sitting of the two houses for the purpose of
deliberation and passage of the bill.
Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-10

Q17. With reference to the Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against
nuclear Installations, consider the following statements:
1. The agreement entered into force on 1st January 1999.
2. Every year India and Pakistan exchange a list of their nuclear

installations that cannot be attacked during war.
3. Under the agreement, both India and Pakistan exchange the

details of their nuclear installations.
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct:
The Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack against nuclear Installations

was signed on December 31, 1988 and entered into force on January 27,
1991. Every year, on 1st of January, India and Pakistan exchange lists of
nuclear installations and facilities, covered under the Agreement that
cannot be attacked in case of escalation of hostilities.

for development projects and before resettling or
rehabilitating persons affected by such projects in the
Scheduled Areas. However, the actual planning and
implementation of the projects in the Scheduled Areas shall be
coordinated at the state level.

59. Consider the following Panchayati Raj committees:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. L.M. Singhvi Committee
3. Ashok Mehta Committee
4. G.V.K.Rao Committee
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the
formation of committees given above?
(a) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
(b) 1 – 3– 4 – 2
(c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
(d) 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Answer: B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct:
In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to
examine the working of the Community Development Programme
(1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest
measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee
was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in
November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the
scheme of ‘democratic decentralization’, which ultimately came to
be known as Panchayati Raj.

Statement 3 is correct: In Anukul Chandra Pradhan v
Union of India, the Supreme Court upheld the
constitutionality of Section 62(5).

● These are the following key
changes made in Right to
Information Act, 2019:


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Select the correct answer using the given code below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

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The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the

Indian Preamble reflects the principles of the Preamble of the

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Article 45 of the Indian Constitution (DPSP) provides for early

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Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution strive towards excellence in all

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(a) Minnerva Mills case

(b) Golaknath case

(c) Delhi Judicial service association case

(d) Indra Sawhney case

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Option (b) is correct:

It was in the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab , where

Subba Rao used this doctrine to preserve the constitutional

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The whole purpose is to avoid reopening of settled issues and also

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2. Article 368 provides for three types of amendments.

4. Amendments that require only simple majority are not

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Article 368 allows for the amendment of the constitution by way of

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Article 368 provides for two types of amendments, that is, by a

In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court ruled that

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Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution

Source: Indian Polity by Laxmikanth, 6th edition, Chapter-10

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If you go through the Bare text of the Constitution of India, you

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1. Right to Property is available to only citizens in India.

2. In India, a citizen by birth is only eligible for the office of

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Use Code (TYAGILIVE) for max discount on courses @ Studyiq

Foreign nationals of non-Indian origin resident outside India can

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In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalised citizen are

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1. It is the right to have publicly available personal information

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Use Code (TYAGILIVE) for max discount on courses @ Studyiq

The European Commission, in a global first, proposed a set of digital

it can be related to trolling, online threats and hate speech;

it can address broader issues of equitable Internet access regardless of

Use Code (TYAGILIVE) for max discount on courses @ Studyiq

On the data protection side, India has a comprehensive

Additionally, India has National Data Governance Framework

Use Code (TYAGILIVE) for max discount on courses @ Studyiq

Use Code (TYAGILIVE) for max discount on courses @ Studyiq

As Digital Rights are an extension of Universal Declaration of

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1. India's membership of the Commonwealth of Nations

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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In 1949, India declared the continuation of her full membership of

This extraconstitutional declaration does not affect India’s

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