Cor Ad q and a v3

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
PREPARED BY: ALDEMEIR P. ALIPIO RCrim. MSCJ(U)

DECEMBER 2022 CLE NATIONAL TOPNOTCHER RANK 3
1. It refers to the manner or practice of managing
or controlling places of confinement as in jails or
prisons.
a. Penology
b. Penal Management
c. Correctional Administration
d. Correction
2. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal
Justice System charged with the responsibility for the
custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the
convicted offender.
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Corrections
d. Community
3. Under the Mandela Rules, which of the following are the two basic
principles under the rules of general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, language,
religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, birth or other
status
2. All prisoners shall be treated with respect due to their inherent dignity
and value as human beings.
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not their exclusion from the
community, but their continuing part in it
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated as
such.
a. 2 and 3 b. 4 and 1 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4

4. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is
housed for the conduct of medical examination,
vaccination, x-rays to prevent physical
contamination
a. Reception diagnostic center
b. Medical center
c. Quarantine unit
d. None of the above
5. What is the ideal number of days for an inmate
to be placed in the quarantine unit at the
Reception and Diagnostic Center?
a. 55 days
b. 5 days
c. 60 days
d. 15 days
6. What satellite of NBP in which RDC/DRD is
situated?
a. Camp Bukang Liwayway
b. Camp Sampaguita
c. Main building
d. Medium Security Compound
7. The formulation of a tentative treatment
program best suited to the needs of the individual
prisoner, based on the findings of RDC.
a. Treatment planning
b. Diagnostics
c. Execution of Treatment Plan
d. Quarantine
8. Which one of the components of RDC/DRD is
responsible in the examination of the prisoner’s
mental and emotional make-up?
a. Medical Center
b. Sociologist
c. Psychologist
d. Psychiatrist
9. What is the mandatory document to be signed
by the detainee in jails if he/she agreed to abide
by the disciplinary measure similar to those
convicted inmates?
a. Detainee Certification
b. Detainee Manifestation or Prison Agreement
c. Good Conduct Time Allowance
d. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
10. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a
prisoner may be checked at any time and also
known as a surprise invasion of a cell for
possession of contrabands.
a. Search and seizure
b. Prison Raid
c. Inspection
d. Operation greyhound
11. Strip search should be conducted in ____
a. in the presence of other inmates so that there are
witnesses.
b. at the warden’s office.
c. at the admission office in the presence of other jail
personnel.
d. private room where it will be out of the view of the
others to avoid further embarrassment.
12. Different crimes should be punished with
different penalties, punishment should
therefore be ______
a. Correctional
b. Legal
c. Productive of suffering
d. Commensurate with the offense
13. Which branch takes charge of the
preparation of the daily menu, prepares and
cooks food, and serves it to inmates?
a. General Service Branch
b. Mess Service Branch
c. Budget and Finance Branch
d. Property and Supply Branch
14. Mr. V, a prisoner from New Bilibid Prison carry a
pair of spoon and a fork in the dining hall to eat his
favorite Chicken inasal with Chicken oil, Chili, Soy
sauce, and calamansi. As a Correction Officer or Jail
Officer, what will you do?
A. Confiscate the food and conduct a strip search
b. Ignore him because it’s lunch break
c. Confiscate the spoon and fork and make a report
d. Conduct surveillance
15. Refers to the head of the Bureau of
Correction?
a. C, BuCor
b. Director
c. Director General
d. Commander
16. Who appoints the Director General of BuCor
who shall be the Head of the Bureau?
a. Chief BJMP
b. Sec. of DILG
c. Chief Executive
d. Sec. of DOJ
17. BUCOR has three (3) Assistant Directors,
one for Administration, one for
Rehabilitation, and one for:
a. Health and Care services
b. Prisons Operation and Security
c. Correction and Rehabilitation
d. Custody and Security
18. Paolo Contis is soon to be released from camp
Bukang Liwayway. He will be sent to a pre-release
facility called _______________ for counseling
and therapy.
a. Recreation Center
b. Congregate Group
c. Half-way House
d. Diagnostic Center
19. An inmate shall be transferred to a
separation center for adjustment process from
life in prison to life in free community within
_______
a. 60 days prior to release
b. 30 days prior to release
c. 90 days before release
d. 15 days prior to release
20. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
jurisdiction of the DOJ
b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by
the provincial government
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
supervision of all jails nationwide
d. The BJMP is under the DILG
21. During the reception of an inmate with his
documents before entering the jail or prison, the
committing officer should check the body of the inmate
for any birthmarks or tattoos and other body marks.
What category of search should be conducted by the
officer?
a) Body Search
b) Strip Search
c) Frisk Search
d) Rub Search
22. These are inmates who require less
supervision than other inmates.
a) Jail Aide
b) Risk Inmates in BJMP Jails
c) High Profile Inmates in BJMP Jails
d) Escape-Prone Inmates
23. When Chief BJMP retires, who will endorse
the next Director as his successor?
a. Secretary of DILG
b. Chairman of the Civil Service
c. President
d. Secretary of DOJ
24. Which form of Executive Clemency reduces the
sentence of a convicted person to shorter term?
a. Shortening
b. Reprieve
c. Amnesty
d. Commutation
25. Which report was made by a probation
officer, after conviction of the petitioner, that is
recommendatory in nature, that will serve as the
basis for the court to grant probation?
a. Initial investigation
b. Post sentence investigation report
c. Courtesy investigation
d. Pre- sentence investigation
26. The disposition, under which a defendant
after conviction and sentence is released
subject to a condition imposed by a court and
supervision by a probation officer _______.
a. Executive Clemency
b. Reprieve
c. Probation
d. Parole
27. Application for probation should be made
within 15 days from _____________.
a. the promulgation of the notice of judgment
b. perfecting an appeal
c. notice of application of probation
d. judgment
28. Who is responsible to inform and
explain to the probationer compliance and
penalty upon issuance of Probation Order?
a. Director of prison
b. Probation administrator
c. Probation officer
d. Judge of the trial court
29. Pardon is given only after conviction,
while _______ may be exercised even
before investigation, trial, or conviction.
a. Amnesty
b. Probation
c. Pardon
d. Parole
30. An alien who is released for pardon shall
be referred to the ______ for disposition,
documentation, and appropriate action.
a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. National Bureau of Investigations
d. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
31. An act of grace by the president which
exempts the grantee to criminal liability with or
without conditions is called _______.
a. Pardon
b. Reprieve
c. Parole
d. Commutation of Sentence
32. Which report aims to enable the trial court to
determine whether or not the ends of justice and the
public’s best interest primarily, as well as that of the
applicant, would be served by the grant or denial of
the application?
a. Post-sentence investigation report
b. Pre-sentence investigation report
c. Post-mortem investigation report
d. Post-sintence investigation report
33. The process of determining the needs and
requirements of prisoners for assigning them to
programs according to their existing resources
is_________.
a. diversification
b. classification
c. quarantine
d. quality Control
34. Which program refers to the administration of
proper nutrition, hygiene, sanitation, cleanliness and
promotion of good health to inmate?
a. Work and Livelihood
b. Sports and Recreation
c. Health and Welfare
d. Behavior Modification
35. Which punishment gives lesson to the
offender by showing to others what would
happen to them if they violate the law?
a. Atonement
b. Protection
c. Deterrence
d. Reformation
ANSWER 1- 35
1. It refers to the manner or practice of managing
or controlling places of confinement as in jails or
prisons.
a. Penology
b. Penal Management
c. Correctional Administration
d. Correction
2. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal
Justice System charged with the responsibility for the
custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the
convicted offender.
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Corrections
d. Community
3. Under the Mandela Rules, which of the following are the two basic
principles under the rules of general application to prisoners?
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds of race, color, sex, language,
religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, birth or other
status.
2. All prisoners shall be treated with respect due to their inherent dignity
and value as human beings.
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize not their exclusion from the
community, but their continuing part in it.
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be innocent and shall be treated as
such.
a. 2 and 3 b. 4 and 1 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4

Basic Principles for the Treatment of Prisoners
1.All prisoners shall be treated with the respect due to their inherent dignity and value as human
beings.
2.There shall be no discrimination on the grounds of race, colour, sex, language, religion,
political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status.
3.It is, however, desirable to respect the religious beliefs and cultural precepts of the group to
which prisoners belong, whenever local conditions so require.
4.The responsibility of prisons for the custody of prisoners and for the protection of society
against crime shall be discharged in keeping with a State's other social objectives and its
fundamental responsibilities for promoting the well-being and development of all members of
society.
5.Except for those limitations that are demonstrably necessitated by the fact of incarceration, all
prisoners shall retain the human rights and fundamental freedoms set out in the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights, and, where the State concerned is a party, the International
Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights, and the International Covenant on Civil
and Political Rights and the Optional Protocol thereto, as well as such other rights as are set
out in other United Nations covenants.
6. All prisoners shall have the right to take part in cultural activities and education
aimed at the full development of the human personality.
7. Efforts addressed to the abolition of solitary confinement as a punishment, or to
the restriction of its use, should be undertaken and encouraged.
8. Conditions shall be created enabling prisoners to undertake meaningful
remunerated employment which will facilitate their reintegration into the country's
labor market and permit them to contribute to their own financial support and to
that of their families.
9. Prisoners shall have access to the health services available in the country
without discrimination on the grounds of their legal situation.
10. With the participation and help of the community and social institutions, and
with due regard to the interests of victims, favorable conditions shall be created for
the reintegration of the ex-prisoner into society under the best possible conditions.
11. The above Principles shall be applied impartially.
4. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed
for the conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-
rays to prevent physical contamination.
a. Reception diagnostic center
b. Medical center
c. Quarantine unit – 5 DAYS MINIMUM
d. None of the above
5. What is the ideal number of days for an inmate to be
placed in the quarantine unit at the Reception and
Diagnostic Center/ DRD?
a. 55 days
b. 5 days
c. 60 days
d. 15 days
55 DAYS – TREATMENT PLANNING
5 DAYS – QUARANTINE TOTAL
= 60 DAYS
6. What satellite of NBP in which RDC/DRD is
situated?
a. Camp Bukang Liwayway - minimum
b. Camp Sampaguita – medium
c. Main building- maximum
d. Medium Security Compound
7. The formulation of a tentative treatment
program best suited to the needs of the individual
prisoner, based on the findings of RDC.
a. Treatment planning – 55 days
b. Diagnostics
c. Execution of Treatment Plan
d. Quarantine
8. Which one of the components of RDC/DRD is
responsible in the examination of the prisoner’s
mental and emotional make-up?
a. Medical Center – health / quarantine
b. Sociologist – social case (culture, tradition,
norms)
c. Psychologist - human behavior
d. Psychiatrist
9. What is the mandatory document to be signed by
the detainee in jails if he/she agreed to abide by the
disciplinary measure similar to those convicted
inmates?
a. Detainee Certification
b. Detainee Manifestation or Prison Agreement
c. Good Conduct Time Allowance
d. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
RA.10592, Rule 4, Section 4.
Effect of Detainee's Manifestation.
- An accused who has undergone preventive
imprisonment shall be credited with the full
time during which he has undergone
preventive imprisonment if:
a. He agrees voluntarily, in writing, after being
informed of the effects thereof to abide by
the same disciplinary rules imposed upon
convicted prisoners; and
b. Such undertaking is executed with the
assistance of a counsel.
10. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a
prisoner maybe checked at any time and also
known to as a surprise invasion of a cell for
possession of contrabands.
a. Search and seizure
b. Prison Raid
c. Inspection
d. Operation greyhound
Regular search before admission = SHAKEDOWN
4 TYPES OF SHAKEDOWNS
1. EXTERNAL GARMENTS = PAT SEARCH
2. PRIVATE PARTS = RUB SEARCH
3. NAKED SEARCH = STRIP SEARCH
4. HOLES = BODY CAVITY SEARCH
2 TYPES OF CONTRABANDS
1. ILLEGAL CONTRABANDS - PROHIBITED BY LAW (INSIDE OR OUTSIDE)
EX. ILLEGAL DRUGS, UNLICENSED FIREARMS, EXPLOSIVES
2. NUISANCE CONTRABANDS – PROHIBITED BY JAIL (INSIDE)

EX. LIQUOR, CP, KNIFE, CIGAR
11. Strip search should be conducted in _____.
a. in the presence of other inmates so that there are
witnesses
b. at the warden’s office
c. at the admission office in the presence of other jail
personnel
d. private room where it will be out of the view of the
others to avoid further embarrassment
Note: rub, strip, cavity = gender basis

12. Different crimes should be punished with
different penalties, punishment should therefore
be ______
a. Correctional – reformative
b. Legal – due process
c. Productive of suffering – “humane”
d. Commensurate with the offense – balanced
13. Which branch takes charge of the preparation
of the daily menu, prepares and cooks food, and
serves it to inmates?
a. General Service Branch – cleanliness;
maintenance
b. Mess Service Branch
c. Budget and Finance Branch – “comptrollership”
d. Property and Supply Branch – “logistics”
14. Mr. V, a prisoner from New Bilibid Prison carry a pair
of spoon and a fork in the dining hall to eat his favorite
Chicken inasal with Chicken oil, Chili, Soy sauce, and
calamansi. As a Correction Officer or Jail Officer, what
will you do?
A. Confiscate the food and conduct a strip search
b. Ignore him because it’s lunch break
c. Confiscate the spoon and fork and make a report
d. Conduct surveillance
15. Refers to the head of the Bureau of
Correction?
a. C, BuCor
b. Director
c. Director General – (rank-usec)
d. Commander
16. Who appoints the Director General of BuCor
who shall be the Head of the Bureau?
a. Chief BJMP
b. Sec. of DILG
c. Chief Executive
d. Sec. of DOJ
Chief executive = President

17. BUCOR has three (3) Assistant Directors, one for
Administration, one for Rehabilitation, and one for:
a. Health and Care services
b. Prisons Operation and Security
c. Correction and Rehabilitation
d. Custody and Security
Note: all assistant directors has a rank of Asec.

1st in command = Director Gen.
18. Paolo Contis is soon to be released from camp
Bukang Liwayway. He will be sent to a pre-release
facility called _______________ for counseling
and therapy.
a. Recreation Center
b. Congregate Group
c. Half-way House – to be placed here 30 days
before release
d. Diagnostic Center
19. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation
center for adjustment process from life in prison to
life in free community within _______
a. 60 days prior to release
b. 30 days prior to release
c. 90 days before release
d. 15 days prior to release
20. Which of the following statements is not true
(FALSE)?
a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
jurisdiction of the DOJ (F)
b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
provincial government (T)
c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
supervision of all jails nationwide (T)
d. The BJMP is under the DILG (T)
21. During the reception of an inmate with his
documents before entering the jail or prison, the
committing officer should check the body of the
inmate for any birthmarks or tattoos and other
body marks. What category of search should be
conducted by the officer?
a) Body Search
b) Strip Search
c) Frisk Search
d) Rub Search
22. These are inmates who require less
supervision than other inmates.
a) Jail Aide
b) Risk Inmates in BJMP Jails
c) High Profile Inmates in BJMP Jails
d) Escape-Prone Inmates
23. When Chief BJMP retires, who will endorse the next
Director as his successor?
a. Secretary of DILG- RECOMMENDATION
b. Chairman of the Civil Service Commission- PROPER

ENDORSEMENT
c. President- APPOINTS THE NEW DIRECTOR
d. Secretary of DOJ
RA 9263
SEC. 5. Appointment of Uniformed Personnel to the BFP and the BJMP.
– The appointment of the BFP and the BJMP shall be effected in the following
manners:
a) Fire/Jail Officer I to Senior Fire/Jail Officer IV.
– Appointed by Regional Director for the regional office.
Or
by the Chief of the Bureau for the national headquarters office and attested by
the Civil Service Commission (CSC);
b) "Fire/Jail Inspector to Fire/Jail Superintendent.
– Appointed by the Chief of the Bureau as recommended by their
immediate superiors, and attested by the CSC;
c) Fire/Jail Senior Superintendent.

– Appointed by the Secretary of the DILG upon recommendation of the
respective Chief of the Bureau, with the proper attestation of the CSC.
d) Fire/ Jail Chief Superintendent To Fire/Jail Director.

- Appointed by the President upon recommendation of the Secretary of
the DILG, with the proper endorsement by the Chairman of the CSC.
24. Which form of Executive Clemency reduces the
sentence of a convicted person to shorter term?
a. Shortening
b. Reprieve
c. Amnesty
d. Commutation
25. Which report was made by a probation officer, after conviction
of the petitioner, that is recommendatory in nature, that will serve as
the basis for the court to grant probation?
a. Initial investigation
b. Post-sentence investigation
c. Courtesy investigation
d. Pre- sentence investigation.
Process
• 1. The offender or his counsel files a petition with the convicting
court within 15 days from the promulgation of the sentence.
• 2. The court determines convict qualifications and notifies the
prosecutor of the filing of the petition
• 3. The prosecutor submits his comments on such application
within 10 days or reasonable time it deems necessary from receipt
of the notification
• 4. If the petitioner is qualified, his application is referred to the PPA
or the probation officer for post-sentence investigation
• 5. The Post-sentence Investigation Report (PSIR) is submitted by
the probation officer to the court within 60 days
• 6. The court grants or denies the petition for probation within 15
days upon receipt of the PSIR.
If Granted Probation
1. The probationer must present himself to his probation
officer within 72 hours.
2.Report to his Probation Officer at least once a month.
3. Not to commit another crime.
4. Comply with any other lawful conditions imposed by the
court.
If denied probation
The convicted offender will have to serve his/her sentence in
an institutional correction.
PERIOD OF PROBATION
Not exceeding 6 yrs- if the imposed sentence is more
than 1 yr
Not exceeding 2 yrs- if the imposed sentence is not
more than 1 yr.
VIOLATION OF PROBATION CONDITIONS
1. Fact-finding investigation order of the court to the

CPPO
2. The PPO prepare and submit violation report to the
CPPO
3. Filing of violation report to the trial court
4. Arrest of erring probationer (WOA)
5. Hearing of violation in the court ( summary in nature ).
6. Disposition of probation either revocation,
continuation or modification
26. The disposition, under which a defendant after
conviction and sentence is released subject to a
condition imposed by a court and supervision by a
probation officer _______.
a. Executive Clemency – an act of grace /PRES.
b. Reprieve – a type executive clemency
c. Probation- a judicial clemency
d. Parole- conditional release
a. the promulgation of the notice of
judgment
d. judgment
28. Who is responsible to inform and explain to
the probationer compliance and penalty upon
issuance of Probation Order?
a. Director of prison
b. Probation administrator
c. Probation officer- reinforce the awareness of the probationer on
the conditions of the probation during the initial appearance of the probationer.
d. Judge of the trial court

Section 33. Effectivity of Probation Order.
– A probation order shall take effect upon its
issuance, at which time the court shall inform the
offender of the consequence thereat and explain
that upon his failure to comply with any of the
conditions prescribed in the said order or his
commission of another offense under which he
was placed on probation.
29. Pardon is given only after conviction, while
_______ may be exercised even before
investigation, trial, or conviction.
a. Amnesty ( before and after convicton)
b. Probation
c. Pardon after conviction
d. Parole
30. An alien who is released for pardon shall
be referred to the ______ for disposition,
documentation, and appropriate action.
a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
c. National Bureau of Investigations
d. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
31. An act of grace by the president which
exempts the grantee to criminal liability with or
without conditions is called _______.
a. Pardon
b. Reprieve
c. Parole
d. Commutation of Sentence
Limitations of the Pardoning Power of the President
1. It may not be exercised for offenses in impeachment

cases;
2. It may be exercised only after conviction by
final judgment;
3. It may not be exercised over civil contempt
4. In case of violation of election law or rules and

regulations, no pardon, parole, or suspension of sentence
maybe granted;
5. It cannot be exercised to violation of tax laws
32. Which report aims to enable the trial court to
determine whether or not the ends of justice and the
public’s best interest primarily, as well as that of the
applicant, would be served by the grant or denial of
the application?
a. Post-sentence investigation report
b. Pre-sentence investigation report
c. Post-mortem investigation report
d. Post-sintence investigation report
33. The process of determining the needs and
requirements of prisoners for assigning them to
programs according to their existing resources
is_________.
a. diversification
b. classification
c. quarantine
d. quality Control
DIVERSIFICATION
- is an administrative device of correctional institution
- the principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners
that requires special treatment and custody.
- proper segregation of prisoners.
DIVERSIFICATION MAY BE DONE EITHER:
A. By a building/special institution for different class of prisoners

which is more desirable since it provides proper segregation of
groups and more effective execution of the treatment program, or
B. Providing separate facilities within a single institution itself, that is

big institution may be broken into smaller units.
FACTORS CONSIDERED IN DIVERSIFICATION
1. AGE - prisoners who are 18 years old and below should be
segregated from the older groups to prevent the youthful
offenders from becoming hardened criminals.
2. SEX - females and males are separated in separate
institutions.
3. MEDICAL or MENTAL CONDITIONS - mentally ill, sexual
deviates, physically handicapped and hospital patients need to
be segregated from the prison population because each group
needs special kind of treatment.
4. DEGREE OF CUSTODY - is the most used factor for
diversification that is the extent of strict keeping necessary for
the person in confinement.
• “Classification”
refers to the placement or allocation of prisoners to
one of several custody or supervision levels to match
the prisoners' risks and needs to correctional resources
and the appropriate supervision.
The DRD shall be responsible for the conduct of

classification of every inmate admitted.
Classification and individualization Rule 93( MANDELA
RULES ).
1. The purposes of classification shall be:
• (a) To separate from others those prisoners who, by reason of their
criminal records or characters, are likely to exercise a bad influence;
• (b) To divide the prisoners into classes in order to facilitate their
treatment with a view to their social rehabilitation.
2. So far as possible, separate prisons or separate sections of a prison

shall be used for the treatment of different classes of prisoners.
• CLASSIFICATION OF PRISONERS ACCORDING TO DEGREE OF SECURITY
1. SUPER MAXIMUM PRISONERS – a special group of prisoners composed of
incorrigible, intractable, and highly dangerous persons who are a source of
constant disturbances even in a maximum security prison.
- they wear orange color of uniforms.
2. MAXIMUM SECURITY PRISONERS - a group of prisoners whose escape could
be dangerous to the public or the state’s security.
- it consists of constant troublemakers but not as dangerous as the
super-maximum security prisoners.
- their movements are restricted and they are not allowed to work
outside the institution but rather assigned to industrial shops within the prison
compound.
- they wear orange color of uniforms.
3. MEDIUM SECURITY PRISONERS (ex. Camp Sampaguita) - those who cannot
be trusted in open conditions and pose lesser danger than maximum security
prisoners in case they escape.
- consists of prisoners who maybe allowed to work outside the
fence or walls of the penal institution under guards or with escorts.
- they wear blue color of uniform.
4. MINIMUM SECURITY PRISONERS (ex. Camp Bukang Liwayway) - a group of
prisoners who can be reasonably trusted to serve sentence under "open
conditions."
- a group of prisoners who can be trusted to report to their work
assignments without the presence of guards.
- they wear brown color of uniform
34. Which program refers to the administration of
proper nutrition, hygiene, sanitation, cleanliness and
promotion of good health to inmate?
a. Work and Livelihood
b. Sports and Recreation
c. Health and Welfare
d. Behavior Modification
35. Which punishment gives lesson to the
offender by showing to others what would
happen to them if they violate the law?
a. Atonement
b. Protection
c. Deterrence
d. Reformation
PART 2
36. The investigation report of a probation officer
shall be submitted to the court not later
than________ days from the receipt of the order.
a. 40
b. 18
c. 35
d. 60
37. Which of the following shall be considered for conditional
pardon?
a. The petitioner is eligible for parole.
b. The petitioner had been sentenced to another prison
term.
c. The prisoner is suffering from mental illness
d. Convicted of murder but not sentenced to reclusion
perpetua.
38. Which rank qualifies a Jail Officer to be on the
highest position as the Chief, BJMP?
a. Jail Senior Superintendent
b. Jail Chief superintendent
c. Jail Superintendent
d. Jail Director
39. Which is prohibited to a probationer?
a. Drinking intoxicating drinks to excess
b. Make periodic office report.
c. Stay away from bad associates.
d. Work regularly to support his family
40. Which executive clemency postpones the execution
of a penalty to enable the Chief Executive to study the
petition for commutation of sentence?
a. Amnesty
b. Probation
c. Pardon
d. Reprieve
41. When should a parolee present himself to the
Parole and Probation officer after release from prison?
a. At least 3 weeks from release
b. As prescribed in the Release Document
c. At least one month from release
d. Within 3 weeks from release
42. How many days will be deducted from the penalty
of an inmate for his good conduct, imprisoned for 5
years?
a. 23 days
b. 25 days
c. 69 days
d. 75 days
43. Under the rules, a parolee who violates provision of
parole should be recommitted to serve the ________
sentence.
a. remaining unexpired portion of his maximum
b. remaining unexpired portion of his minimum
c. half of the unserved portion of his
d. half of the served portion of his
44. Outside travel of a probationer for a cumulative
duration of more than 30 days within a period of six
months shall be considered as ________.
a. cumulative supervision
b. direct supervision
c. courtesy supervision
d. regular supervision
45. Probation aides shall be appointed and to hold
office during good behavior for what period?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
d. 1 year
46. A person detained for the violation of a law and
awaiting for the promulgation of decision of a court of
law, he is classified as_______.
a. Inmate
b. Custodial detainee
c. Arrested person
d. Detainee
47. Its task is to conduct a more effective rehabilitation of
prisoners through a more scientific study and diagnoses of
every prisoner committed to the Bureau of Corrections.
b. Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics
c. Reception and Diagnostic Center
d. Camp Bagong Diwa
48. Ms. Dina, a prisoner, learns that she is already overstaying
in jail because her jail guard, Manny, who happens to be a law
expert advised her that there is no more legal ground for her
continued imprisonment. Manny told her that she could go.
Ms. Dina got out of jail and went home. Was there any crime
committed?
a. Yes, Evasion of Service of sentence
b. Yes, Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. Yes, Evasion through Negligence
d. Maybe Delay in the Delivery of prison
49. As far as Manny, the jail guard who allowed Ms. Dina to go,
is concerned, what is the crime committed if the former fallen
asleep during his tour of duty and Ms. Dina escaped?
a. Evasion of Service
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Evasion through Negligence
d. Delay in the Delivery of prison
50. Salvador is a prisoner having the natural inclination or
tendency to evade custody against the will of the custodian or
from the place where he is held in lawful custody or
confinement.
A. Escape Prone Prisoner

B. Mental Deranged Prisoner
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner
D. Alien Prisoner
51. Two (2) inmates argue over some items missing in their
cell. You are the guard on duty. What will you do?
a. Invite both of them to the office and investigate the matter
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated
discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
52. Math Thaleno was placed in a correctional program which
enables him to enhance his employability, develop his
intellectual faculties, and graduate to a free existence in
community living all at the same time is referred to as
_______________
a. Livelihood program
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program
d. Religious program
53. What rehabilitation program provides a pre-social
environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
noncriminal ways to cope outside?
a. Psychotherapy
b. Behavior therapy
c. Occupational therapy
d. Milieu therapy
54. It is a report on the background of the convicted individual,
prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial of
the application of probation.
a. Probation Report
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Pre-Trial Report
55. What should the court do where the accused violated the
terms and conditions of his probation?
a. Court releases the probationer to the community

b. Revoke the probation and let the probationer serve his
sentence
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his
probation
56. Which of the following requirements shall
qualify a prisoner for parole?
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate
sentence
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year under a final
judgment of conviction
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the
good conduct time allowance earned
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
a. 4, 1 & 2 b. 2, 3 & 4 c. 3, 4 & 1 d. 1, 2 & 3
57. When shall a petitioner's prison record and carpeta for
executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of Pardon and
Parole (BPP)?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director
of the request of the BPP for prison record and carpeta
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of the minimum
of the prisoner’s indeterminate sentence
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of
the BPP request for prison record and carpeta d. Within one (1)
month from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request
made by the BPP for the prison record and carpeta
58. For conditional pardon to be granted, a prisoner
who is convicted of a heinous crime must have
served at least_______ of the maximum of his
original indeterminate sentence.
a. 1/2
b. 1/6
c. 1/7
d. 1/4
59. What environment that helps people get help while
helping others?
a. Probation
b. Restorative justice
c. Community service
d. Therapeutic community
60. Under the rules and methods employed by probation, what
is the maximum number of minor violations that would result
in the revocation of the probation order?
A. 5 Violations
B. 3 Violations
C. 4 Violations
D. 2 Violations
61. Who shall have control over the probationer once the latter
is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of another court?
a. Regional Director
b. Executive judge of the municipal court
c. Executive Judge of the RTC
d. Appellate court
62. William was convicted to suffer a penalty of 11
months imprisonment and the court granted him
probation, how long should be his period of probation?
a. Not more than 6 years
b. Not more than 3 years
c. 1 year and above
d. Not more than 2 years
63. PPA is under the direction of the ________.
a. DILG
b. BJMP
c. DOJ
d. DOF
64. When shall the supervision service to a probationer
commence?
A. Upon the issuance of the probation order.
B. Upon completion of the Post Sentence Investigation.
C. After 72 hours from receipt of the order.
D. On the day of the initial interview or reporting.
65. A deduction of ____ the sentence period shall be granted if the
prisoner stays in the place of confinement notwithstanding a calamity.
A. two-fourth
B. two-fifth
C. two-third
D. two-sixth
66. Application for probation shall be filed with the Trial Court which
has _____ over the case.
A. authority
B. jurisdiction
C. responsibility
D. venue
67. What shall the applicant accomplish once he reports to the
Probation officer during the initial interview?
A. Post-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
B. Interview Work Sheet
C. Pre-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
D. Investigation Work Sheet
68. Which agency supervises parolees?
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Bureau of Corrections
d. Department of Justice
a. the promulgation of the notice of judgment
d. judgment
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
d. 1 year
ANSWER 36-70
36. The investigation report(PSIR) of a probation
officer shall be submitted to the court not later
than________ days from the receipt of the order.
a. 40
b. 18
c. 35
d. 60
PRESIDENTIAL DECREE No. 968,
Section 7. Period for Submission of Investigation Report.
The probation officer shall submit to the court the investigation report on a defendant not
later than sixty days from receipt of the order of said court to conduct the investigation. The
court shall resolve the petition for probation not later than five days after receipt of said report.
(OLD)
OMNIBUS RULES ON PROBATION

Section 11. Referral to Proper Probation Office.
If the Trial Court finds that the application is in due form and the applicant appears to be
qualified for the grant of probation, it shall order the City or Provincial Parole and Probation
Office within its jurisdiction to conduct a Post-Sentence Investigation (PSI) on the applicant and
submit the Post-Sentence Investigation Report (PSIR) within sixty (60) days from receipt of the
order of said court to conduct such investigation with findings and recommendation as stated in
PD 968, as amended.
Section 31. Period to Resolve the Application for Probation.
- The application for probation shall be resolved by the Trial Court not later than fifteen
(15) days from its receipt of the PSIR. (NEW).
37. Which of the following shall be considered for conditional
pardon?
a. The petitioner is eligible for parole.
b. The petitioner had been sentenced to another prison
term.
c. The prisoner is suffering from mental illness
d. Convicted of murder but not sentenced to reclusion
perpetua.
The following category of prisoners shall not be considered for
conditional pardon:
• 1. The petitioner is eligible for parole;
• 2. The petitioner had been sentenced to another prison term within
one (1) year from the date of his last recommitment to the jail or
prison from where he escaped;
• 3. The prisoner is suffering from mental illness or disorder as
certified by a government psychiatrist;
• 4. The prisoner had violated a conditional pardon, which was
previously granted before the expiration of his maximum sentence
38. Which rank qualifies a Jail Officer to be on the
highest position as the Chief, BJMP?
a. Jail Senior Superintendent
b. Jail Chief superintendent
c. Jail Superintendent
d. Jail Director- rank of CHIEF BJMP
2 ranks lower
Under Section 60 to 65, Chapter V, RA No. 6975
• The bureau shall be headed by a Chief who is assisted by two (2)
Deputy Chiefs,
one (1) for Administration and another for Operations,
ALL of whom are appointed by the President upon the recommendation

of the DILG Secretary from among the qualified officers with the rank
of at least Senior Superintendent in the BJMP.
39. Which is prohibited to a probationer?
a. Drinking intoxicating drinks to excess
b. Make periodic office report.
c. Stay away from bad associates.
d. Work regularly to support his family
The court may require probationer to:
• (a) cooperate with a program of supervision thru a
therapeutic community modality
• (b) meet his family responsibilities
• (c) devote himself to a specific employment and not to
change said employment without the prior written
approval of the probation officer
• (d) undergo medical, psychological or psychiatric
examination and treatment and enter and remain in a
specified institution, when required for that purpose.;
• (e) pursue a prescribed secular study or vocational training;
• (f) attend or reside in a facility established for instruction,
creation or residence or persons on probation;
• (g) refrain from visiting houses of ill-repute;
• (h) abstain from drinking intoxicating beverages to excess;
• (i) permit the probation officer or an authorized social
worker to visit his home or place of work;
• (j) reside at premises approved by it and not to change his
residence without prior written approval ; or
• (k) satisfy any other condition related to the rehabilitation
of the defendant and not unduly restrictive of his liberty or
incompatible with his freedom of conscience
40. Which executive clemency postpones the execution
of a penalty to enable the Chief Executive to study the
petition for commutation of sentence?
a. Amnesty KEY TERM (SU-PO-T-CA-W)
b. Probation SU – suspension
PO – postponement
c. Pardon T – temporary stay
d. Reprieve CA – cancellation
W – withdrawal or withholding
41. When should a parolee present himself to the
Parole and Probation officer after release from prison?
a. At least 3 weeks from release
b. As prescribed in the Release Document
c. At least one month from release
d. Within 3 weeks from release
AMENDMENTS TO THE RULES ON PAROLE
A. Rule 3.4 of the Rules is hereby amended, as follows:
“RULE 3.4. Presentation to Probation and Parole Officer –
Within the period prescribed in his Release Document, the parolee
shall present himself to the Probation and Parole Officer specified in the
Release Document for supervision.
“IF the parolee fails to report within FIFTEEN (15) days from the date
of his release from confinement, the Probation and Parole Officer shall
inform the Board of such failure for the Board’s appropriate action.”
42. How many days will be deducted from the penalty
of an inmate for his good conduct, imprisoned for 5
years?
a. 23 days
b. 25 days
c. 69 days
d. 75 days
New GCTA law (RA 10592) 2013
1st – 2nd year = -20 days per month
3rd – 5th year = -23 days per month
6th – 10th year = -25 days per month
11th year – up = -30 days per month
-15 days = study or mentoring
IMPRISONED = 5 YEARS
1-2YRS = 20X12= 240
2-3YRS = 20X12= 240
3-4YRS = 23X12= 276
4-5YRS = 23X12= 276= 1032 total DAYS DEDUCTION
Section 5. Article 99 of the same Act is hereby further amended to read
as follows:"
• "ART. 99. Who grants time allowances?

– Whenever lawfully justified, the Director of the Bureau of
Corrections, the Chief of the Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology and/or the Warden of a provincial, district,
municipal or city jail shall grant allowances for good conduct.
Such allowances once granted shall not be revoked."
43. Under the rules, a parolee who violates provision of
parole should be recommitted to serve the ________
sentence.
a. remaining unexpired portion of his maximum
b. remaining unexpired portion of his minimum
c. half of the unserved portion of his
d. half of the served portion of his
44. Outside travel of a probationer for a cumulative
duration of more than 30 days within a period of six
months shall be considered as ________.
a. cumulative supervision
b. direct supervision
c. courtesy supervision
d. regular supervision
PAROLE AND PROBATION ADMINISTRATION OMNIBUS RULES ON
PROBATION METHODS AND PROCEDURES, Section 41. Outside Travel
(a) A Probation Officer may authorize a probationer to travel outside his area of
operational/territorial jurisdiction for a period of more than ten (10) days but not
exceeding thirty (30) days.
(b) A Probationer who seeks to travel for up to thirty (30) days outside the
operational/territorial jurisdiction of the Probation Office shall file at least five (5) days
before the intended travel schedule a Request for Outside Travel (PPA Form 7) with
said Office properly recommended by the Supervising Probation Officer on case and
approved by the CPPO.
(c) If the requested outside travel is for more than thirty (30) days, said request shall
be recommended by the CPPO and submitted to the Trial Court for approval.
(d) Outside travel for a cumulative duration of more than thirty (30) days within a
period of six (6) months shall be considered as a courtesy supervision.
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
d. 1 year
The VPA shall be appointed for two (2) years by the Administrator through the
Community Services Division and the National Screening Committee subject to
renewal/revocation thereafter, upon the recommendation of the Regional
Director.
46. A person detained for the violation of a law and
awaiting for the promulgation of decision of a court of
law, he is classified as_______.
a. Inmate
b. Custodial detainee - Custodial investigation
c. Arrested person
d. Detainee
47. Its task is to conduct a more effective rehabilitation of
prisoners through a more scientific study and diagnoses of
every prisoner committed to the Bureau of Corrections.
b. Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics
c. Reception and Diagnostic Center- OLD NAME
d. Camp Bagong Diwa
48. Ms. Dina Virgen, a prisoner, learns that she is already
overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Manny Nilip, who
happens to be a law expert advised her that there is no more
legal ground for her continued imprisonment. Manny told her
that she could go. Ms. Dina got out of jail and went home. Was
there any crime committed?
a. Yes, Evasion of Service of sentence
b. Yes, Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
c. Yes, Evasion through Negligence
d. Maybe Delay in the Delivery of prison
49. As far as Manny, the jail guard who allowed Ms. Dina to go,
is concerned, what is the crime committed if the former fallen
asleep during his tour of duty and Ms. Dina escaped?
a. Evasion of Service
b. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner
c. Evasion through Negligence
d. Delay in the Delivery of prison
Crimes related to escape
1. Convicted = evasion of service of sentence (ESOS)
2. Detainee = no crime
3. Jail/correction officer
i. DOLO – infidelity in the custody of prisoners
(ICOP)
ii. CULPA – evasion thru negligence
4. Private citizen =delivering prisoners from jail.
50. Salvador is a prisoner having the natural inclination or
tendency to evade custody against the will of the custodian or
from the place where he is held in lawful custody or
confinement.
A. Escape Prone Prisoner

B. Mental Deranged Prisoner- insane
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner- abnormal sexuality
D. Alien Prisoner- foreigner
51. Two (2) inmates argue over some items missing in their
cell. You are the guard on duty. What will you do?
a. Invite both of them to the office and investigate the
matter
b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated
discussion
c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
52. Math Thaleno was placed in a correctional program which
enables him to enhance his employability, develop his
intellectual faculties, and graduate to a free existence in
community living all at the same time is referred to as
_______________
a. Livelihood program
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program- cornerstone of rehab
d. Religious program
53. What rehabilitation program provides a pre-social
environment within the prison to help the inmates develop
noncriminal ways to cope outside?
a. Psychotherapy
b. Behavior therapy
c. Occupational therapy
d. Milieu therapy
Psychotherapy (sometimes called talk therapy)
- refers to a variety of treatments that aim to help a
person identify and change troubling emotions,
thoughts, and behaviors.
Behavior therapy
- is a term used to encompass a broad range of
therapeutic techniques that help people change their
behavior
Occupational therapy (OT)
- is an allied health profession that involves the
therapeutic use of everyday activities, or
occupations, to treat the physical, mental,
developmental, and emotional ailments that impact
a patient's ability to perform daily tasks
Millieu therapy
- defined as a scientific structuring of the
environment to affect behavioral changes and
improve the individual's psychological health and
functioning
54. It is a report on the background of the convicted individual,
prepared for the judge to decide on the approval or denial of
the application of probation.
a. Probation Report
b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Pre-Trial Report
55. What should the court do where the accused violated the
terms and conditions of his probation?
a. Court releases the probationer to the community

b. Revoke the probation and let the probationer serve his
sentence
c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his
probation
56. Which of the following requirements shall
qualify a prisoner for parole?
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate
sentence
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year under a final
judgment of conviction
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the
good conduct time allowance earned
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence – C.P.
a. 4, 1 & 2 b. 2, 3 & 4 c. 3, 4 & 1 d. 1, 2 & 3
57. When shall a petitioner's prison record and carpeta for
executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of Pardon and
Parole (BPP)?
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director
of the request of the BPP for prison record and carpeta
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of the
minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate sentence
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of
the BPP request for prison record and carpeta
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR Director of
the request made by the BPP for the prison record and carpeta
Transmittal of Carpeta and Prison Record
• In executive clemency/parole cases, the
Director or Warden concerned shall forward
the prison record and carpeta of a
petitioner at least one (1) month prior, to
the eligibility for review.
58. For conditional pardon to be granted, a prisoner
who is convicted of a heinous crime must have
served at least_______ of the maximum of his
original indeterminate sentence.
a. 1/2
b. 1/6
c. 1/7
d. 1/4
For Conditional Pardon,
The prisoner shall have served at least one-half (1/2) of the

minimum of his original indeterminate and/or definite
sentence.
However, in the case of a prisoner who is convicted of a
heinous crime as defined in Republic Act No. 7659 and
other special laws, he shall have served at least one-half
(1/2) of the maximum of his original indeterminate sentence
before his case may be reviewed for a conditional pardon.
59. What environment that helps people get help while
helping others?
a. Probation
b. Restorative justice
c. Community service
d. Therapeutic community
60. Under the rules and methods employed by probation, what
is the maximum number of minor violations that would result
in the revocation of the probation order?
A. 5 Violations- MINOR VIOLATION
B. 3 Violations- MAJOR VIOLATION
C. 4 Violations
D. 2 Violations
2 conditions of probation
1. Mandatory (major violation = max 3 ➔ revoke)
• Report → PO → once a month
• Summon → within 72 hours
2. Discretionary (added condition)(minor = max 5 ➔ revoke)

• No liquor
• No house of ill repute
• Travel permit
• Regular job
• Permanent residence
• Random drug test
Process of revocation of probation
Step 1 – fact-finding investigation (5w 1h)
Step 2 – PPO ➔ violation report ➔ court
Step 3 – court ➔ WOA
Step 4 – court ➔ summary hearing
Step 5 – court ➔ decision
1. Dismiss the VR
2. Modification
3. Revocation order ➔ serve the ORIGINAL sentence
INFRACTION OF TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF
PROBATION
Sec. 12. Proof of Violation. –
The Probation Officer shall submit to the Court a
clear and convincing evidence of a serious
violation of the terms and conditions of the grant
of probation upon which the Court may base its
order for the revocation of said grant.
61. Who shall have control over the probationer once the
latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of another
court?
a. Regional Director
b. Executive judge of the municipal court
c. Executive Judge of the RTC
d. Appellate court
Whenever a probationer is permitted to reside in a place under the jurisdiction
of another court, control over him shall be transferred to the executive judge of
the regional trial court of that place, and in such a case, a copy of the probation
order, the investigation report, and other pertinent records shall be furnished to
said executive judge.
62. William was convicted to suffer a penalty of 11
months imprisonment and the court granted him
probation, how long should be his period of probation?
a. Not more than 6 years
b. Not more than 3 years
c. 1 year and above Not more than 2 years if the sentence
is imprisonment for 1 year or less.
d. Not more than 2 years
Not more than 6 years if the sentence
is imprisonment for more than 1 year
but not more than 6 years.
63. PPA is under the direction of the ________.
a. DILG
b. BJMP
c. DOJ ( BUCOR, PPA & BPP )
d. DOF
64. When shall the supervision service to a probationer
commence?
A. Upon the issuance of the probation order.
B. Upon completion of the Post Sentence Investigation.
C. After 72 hours from receipt of the order.
D. On the day of the initial interview or reporting.
• VIII. SUPERVISION OF PROBATIONERS
Section 38.
Purpose. - The primary purposes of probation supervision are:
(a) to ensure the probationer's compliance with the probation conditions
specified in the Probation Order and the prescribed probation treatment and
supervision program/plan;
(b) to manage the process of the probationer's rehabilitation and reintegration
into the community;
(c) to guide the probationer's transformation and development into a useful
citizen for his eventual reintegration to the mainstream of society.
Section 39.
Commencement of Supervision Service. - For purposes of these Rules,
supervision service shall commence on the day of initial interview or reporting
of a probationer. Such fact shall be duly noted in the case notes of the client.
65. A deduction of ____ the sentence period shall be granted if the
prisoner stays in the place of confinement notwithstanding a calamity.
A. two-fourth SPECIAL TIME ALLOWANCE FOR
B. two-fifth LOYALTY:
C. two-third 1/5 of his period – Deduction during
Art. 158 of the RPC; Voluntary
D. two-sixth
Surrender within 48 hrs.
2/5 of his period – remain even during

the event of Calamity
66. Application for probation shall be filed with the Trial Court which
has _____ over the case.
A. authority
B. jurisdiction APPLICATION FOR PROBATION
Section 6. Filing. - Application for probation shall be
C. responsibility filed with the Trial Court which has jurisdiction over the
D. venue case.
Section 7. Time for Filing. - The applicant shall file his
application with the Trial Court at any time after
conviction and sentence but within the period for
perfecting his appeal as provided by the Rules of Court.
Omnibus-Rules-on-Probation
67. What shall the applicant accomplish once he reports to the
Probation officer during the initial interview?
A. Post-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet– PPA form 1
B. Interview Work Sheet
C. Pre-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
D. Investigation Work Sheet
Section 15. Initial Interview Work Sheet: Waiver. -
During such an initial interview, the Probation Officer on the
case or CPPO shall require the applicant to accomplish and
sign a Post-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet (PPA Form 1).
The investigating Probation Officer on the case or CPPO shall
conduct further investigation based on the information
contained therein.
68. Which agency supervises parolees?
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Bureau of Corrections
a. the promulgation of the notice of
judgment
d. judgment
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
d. 1 year
PART 3
71. Ryan Atencio is the third higher-ranking officer in
command in the Bureau of Corrections. What would
be his position and title in
the Bureau?
a. Director General
b. Deputy Director General
c. Director
d. Correction Chief Superintendent
72. This refers to the one in charge of a
prison.
a. Director
b. Warden
c. Superintendent
d. Wardress
73. Upon compulsory retirement, any custodial
officer from the rank of Corrections Chief
Superintendent and below shall be entitled to
retirement benefits computed on the basis of
___________ than the position last held.
a. 2 ranks lower
b. 3 ranks lower
c. 1 rank higher
d. 2 ranks higher
74. Which of the following is NOT one of the
Cardinal rules of therapeutic community?
a. No sex or sexual acting out
b. No drugs/ Alcohol
c. No violence or threat of violence
d. No cheating
75. Which phase of the therapeutic community,
wherein the resident is handled gently and is
expected to commit mistakes in the process of
learning the program?
a. Primary Treatment
b. Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
76. Which phase of T.C., wherein the resident
is now ready to undergo the treatment
proper?
a.Primary Treatment
b.Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d.Aftercare
77. Which phase of T.C., wherein the resident
is expected to have internalized the TC values
and concept to start life afresh?
a.Primary Treatment
b.Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d.Aftercare
78. At this phase of T.C., the resident is expected
to have proven his ability to take on more
responsibility and needs lesser supervision, this
refers to _____ phase.
a. primary Treatment
b. pre re-entry
c. orientation
d. aftercare
79. At this phase, the resident is considered a
role model in the therapeutic community.
Which phase is asked?
a.Primary Treatment
b.Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d.Aftercare
80. The resident at this stage is now ready to be
released back to society as he has demonstrated
adequate self-control and discipline, this phase is
known as ________ phase.
b. re-entry
c. orientation
d. aftercare
81. This phase is an outpatient program that
requires clients to report twice a week to an
outreach center. What phase of T.C. is being
asked?
b. Re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
82. This is done early in the morning before the Morning
Meeting. Wherein the senior members of the
community will meet for about fifteen (15) minutes to
discuss the attitude of the house the previous day. It is
also where the senior members formulate solutions to
the concerns discussed and to be executed during the
day.
a. Morning Meeting
b. General Meeting
c. Pre-morning Meeting
d. PTA meeting
83. This is an outright correction done by any
member of the TC to another member who
has done a minor infraction but is not aware
of it.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
84. This is done as a result of lack, missed or
lapses in awareness in a resident. It
encourages honesty, demeanor awareness
and owning up to one’s mistakes.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
85. This is done when the violator is
unknown and must be validated first
prior to bringing up in the Morning
Meeting.
a. Haircut
b.Pull up
c. Dealt with
d.Talk to
86. This is done when negative behaviors or
infractions to the House Rules/Norms are
done for the second time of same offense by
a resident.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
87. This is done when negative behaviors
or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in
same offense are done for the third time
or more or for first time grave offenses.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
88. An action or activity given to a resident
who was subjected to Haircut or General
Meeting who did an infraction to correct or
modify a behavior, this refers to_________.
a. expulsion
b. learning experience
c. dealt with
d. talk to
89. The main objective of this is to inculcate
habits, attitudes and values that will make the
prisoner a peaceful and useful member of society
upon his release, this refers to _______.
a. Spiritual and Psychological/Counseling
Management
b. Intellectual and Vocational Management
c. Work Management
d. Prison Discipline
90. It refers to an older member of the
community assigned to guide those newly
admitted residents in the Therapeutic
Community.
a. Coordinator
b. Big Brother
c. Expediter
d. Counselor
91. It refers to an environment that helps people
get help while helping themselves. It operates
similarly to a functional family with a hierarchical
structure of older and younger members.
a. Family Therapy
b. Social Therapy
c. Therapeutic Community
d. Communal therapy
92. These are sanctions to members who commit
repeatedly infractions or violations of the Cardinal
Rules by prohibiting, disallowing, or limiting an
activity or affiliation to a group.
a. Bans
b. General Meeting
c. Learning experience
d. Expulsion
93. In extreme cases, when a resident is incorrigible
and becomes a threat to the community (Instigator,
initiator of jail disturbances), the Director with the
recommendation of the Disciplinary Board may
transfer him/her to the nearest jail facility with an
appropriate Court Order. This refers to _______.
a. Haircut
b. Talk to
c. Bans
d. Expulsion
94. This is defined as a professional activity of
helping individuals, groups, or communities
enhance or restore their capacity for psychological,
emotional, and social functioning and creating an
environment favorable for the attainment of these
goals.
a. Counseling
b. Static Groups
c. Peer Confrontation Group
d. Encounter Groups
95. In the psychosocial skills and characteristics of
counseling, this is the ability to perceive the
client’s feelings and to demonstrate accurate
perception of the client. It is merely “putting
oneself in the client’s shoes”, this refers to
_________.
a. warmth
b. respect
c. empathy
d. confidentiality
96. This is a permanent group of peers and leaders
that meet regularly while the residents are in
treatment. It is a sort of “home” group that
provides support for one another and to the new
members of the community. These refer to ______.
a. extended group
b. static group
c. peer confrontation group
d. encounter group
97. This serves as a “safety valve” within the
community which is usually high pressured and
structured. It is a forum for members of the community
to verbally express pent-up or negative emotions within
a structured and safe environment without resorting to
violence or aggression and without fear of reprisal.
a. extended group
b. static group
d. encounter group
98. This is done to ensure that the resident to be released
is/are well-prepared to face new challenges in the
community upon their reintegration into the mainstream
of society.
a. Post released interview
b. Pre-release interview
c. Pre-interview
d. Post interview
99. It refers to our belief in the client’s ability to
make appropriate decisions and deal
appropriately with his or her life situation.
a. warmth
b. respect
c. empathy
d. confidentiality
100. It is also called “unconditional positive regard”. It
involves accepting and caring about the client as a
person, regardless of any evaluation or prejudices
about the client’s behavior or thoughts. It is most often
conveyed through our non-verbal behavior or bodily
gestures.
a. warmth
b. respect
c. empathy
d. confidentiality
101. The probation officer may authorize a
probationer to travel outside his area of
operational territorial jurisdiction for a period of
a. 1-5 days
b. 5-10 days
c. 10-30 days
d. 30 days
102. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation program
is exercised by_____.
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides

b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who placed him on probation
103. Among the following, which has the authority
to grant parole?
a. President
b. Board of Pardons and Parole
c. Director of Prison
d. Court
104. Is the court order revoking the grant of probation
appealable?
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable
c. It depends on the outcome of the investigation
d. It depends on the violations committed
105. When the prisoner is pardoned under
certain administrative requirements like reporting
monthly to a judge for a certain number of years,
it is __________.
a. Situational pardon
b. Pardon
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
ANSWER 71-105
71. Ryan Atencio is the third higher-ranking
officer in command in the Bureau of Corrections.
What would be his position and title in the
Bureau?
a. Director General
b. Deputy Director General
c. Director
d. Correction Chief Superintendent
Bureau of Corrections ranks 2023
Commissioned officers
1. Corrections Director General - (Undersecretary)
2. Corrections Deputy Director General for Administration, for Security
and Operations, for Reformation -(Assistant Secretary)
3. Corrections Chief Superintendent -(Brig. General)
4. Corrections Senior Superintendent -(Colonel)
5. Corrections Superintendent -(Lieutenant Colonel)
6. Corrections Chief Inspector -(Major)
7. Corrections Senior Inspector -(Captain)
8. Corrections Inspector -(Lieutenant)
Bureau of Corrections ranks 2023
Non-commissioned officers
Corrections Senior Officer 4
Corrections Officer 3
72. This refers to the one in charge of a
prison. The Director General of Corrections, has
control and supervision over the prison and
a. Director penal farm
b. Warden The Corrections Superintendent’s role is

to oversee and manage the operations of a
c. Superintendent prison or penal facility.
d. Wardress The superintendent is responsible for the
overall administration, security, and
reformation efforts within the assigned
correctional facility.
73. Upon compulsory retirement, any custodial officer
from the rank of Corrections Chief Superintendent and
below shall be entitled to retirement benefits
computed on the basis of ___________ than the
position last held.
a. 2 ranks lower
b. 3 ranks lower
c. 1 rank higher
d. 2 ranks higher
Section 20. Retirement and Other Benefits.
Upon compulsory retirement, any custodial officer from
the rank of Corrections Chief Superintendent and below shall
be entitled to retirement benefits computed on the basis of
one (1) rank higher than the position last held.
74. Which of the following is NOT one of the Cardinal rules of
therapeutic community?
a. No sex or sexual acting out
b. No drugs/ Alcohol
c. No violence or threat of violence
d. No cheating
75. Which phase of the therapeutic community, wherein the
resident is handled gently and is expected to commit mistakes
in the process of learning the program?
b. Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
Phase I- Entry/Orientation Phase
Once an inmate is committed to jail, he undergoes a series of
examination to determine his physical, social, and psychological status.
Upon his commitment, a resident is placed on orientation at the
Reception and Diagnostic room/ Orientation Room.
He is then assigned a static group and a big brother who will
provide him with support and will walk him through the orientation
phase. At this phase, the resident is handled gently and is expected to
commit mistakes in the process of learning the program. Sanctions on
negative behavior are usually light with emphasis on teaching.
76. Which phase of T.C., wherein the resident is now ready to
undergo the treatment proper?
b. Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
Phase II- Primary Treatment

The resident is now ready to undergo the treatment proper. He
becomes a part of the community starting as a crew member of the
Housekeeping department until he gradually ascends in the hierarchy.
77. Which phase of T.C., wherein the resident is expected to
have internalized the TC values and concept to start life
afresh?
b. Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
78. At this phase of T.C., the resident is expected to have
proven his ability to take on more responsibility and needs
lesser supervision, this refers to _____ phase.
b. pre re-entry
c. orientation
d. aftercare
79. At this phase, the resident is considered a role model in the
therapeutic community. Which phase is asked?
b. Pre re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
Phase III- Pre Re-entry
Under regular circumstances, the resident is expected at this
stage to have internalized the TC values and concept to start life
afresh. At this phase, the resident is expected to have proven his
ability to take on more responsibility hence needs lesser
supervision. He is considered a role model in the TC community.
80. The resident at this stage is now ready to be released back
to society as he has demonstrated adequate self-control and
discipline, this phase is known as ________ phase.
b. re-entry
c. orientation
d. Aftercare
Phase IV- Re-entry
A resident at this stage is now ready to be released back to society as he
has demonstrated adequate self-control and discipline. The inmate is now
preparing for his life outside of jail and is focused on making himself a
productive citizen. He may start planning for job hunting and rebuilding family
ties and relationships.
81. This phase is an outpatient program that requires clients
to report twice a week to an outreach center. What phase of
T.C. is being asked?
b. Re-entry
c. Orientation
d. Aftercare
Phase V- Aftercare
Aftercare is an outpatient program that requires clients to report
twice a week to an outreach center. They are required to attend group
sessions to ensure their adjustment to life outside jail to reduce
recidivism.
82. This is done early in the morning before the Morning
Meeting. Wherein the senior members of the community will
meet for about fifteen (15) minutes to discuss the attitude of
the house the previous day. It is also where the senior
members formulate solutions to the concerns discussed and
to be executed during the day.
a. Morning Meeting
b. General Meeting
c. Pre-morning Meeting
d. PTA meeting
83. This is an outright correction done by any member
of the TC to another member who has done a minor
infraction but is not aware of it.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
84. This is done as a result of lack, missed or lapses in
awareness in a resident. It encourages honesty,
demeanor awareness and owning up to one’s mistakes.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
85. This is done when the violator is unknown and must
be validated first prior to bringing up in the Morning
Meeting.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
86. This is done when negative behaviors or infractions
to the House Rules/Norms are done for the second
time of same offense by a resident.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
87. This is done when negative behaviors or infractions
to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for
the third time or more or for first time grave offenses.
a. Haircut
b. Pull up
c. Dealt with
d. Talk to
88. An action or activity given to a resident who was
subjected to Haircut or General Meeting who did an
infraction to correct or modify a behavior, this refers
to_________.
a. expulsion
b. learning experience
c. dealt with
d. talk to
89. The main objective of this is to inculcate habits,
attitudes and values that will make the prisoner a
peaceful and useful member of society upon his
release, this refers to _______.
a. Spiritual and Psychological/Counseling
Management
b. Intellectual and Vocational Management
c. Work Management
d. Prison Discipline
90. It refers to an older member of the community
assigned to guide those newly admitted residents in
the Therapeutic Community.
a. Coordinator
b. Big Brother
c. Expediter
d. Counselor
91. It refers to an environment that helps people get
help while helping themselves. It operates similarly to a
functional family with a hierarchical structure of older
and younger members.
a. Family Therapy
b. Social Therapy
c. Therapeutic Community
d. Communal therapy
92. These are sanctions to members who commit
repeatedly infractions or violations of the Cardinal
Rules by prohibiting, disallowing, or limiting an activity
or affiliation to a group.
a. Bans
b. General Meeting
c. Learning experience
d. Expulsion
93. In extreme cases, when a resident is incorrigible
and becomes a threat to the community (Instigator,
initiator of jail disturbances), the Director with the
recommendation of the Disciplinary Board may transfer
him/her to the nearest jail facility with an appropriate
Court Order. This refers to _______.
a. Haircut
b. Talk to
c. Bans
d. Expulsion
94. This is defined as a professional activity of helping
individuals, groups, or communities enhance or restore
their capacity for psychological, emotional, and social
functioning and creating an environment favorable for
the attainment of these goals.
a. Counseling
b. Static Groups
c. Peer Confrontation Group
d. Encounter Groups
95. In the psychosocial skills and characteristics of
counseling, this is the ability to perceive the client’s
feelings and to demonstrate accurate perception of the
client. It is merely “putting oneself in the client’s
shoes”, this refers to _________.
a. warmth
b. respect
c. empathy
d. confidentiality
96. This is a permanent group of peers and leaders that
meet regularly while the residents are in treatment. It
is a sort of “home” group that provides support for one
another and to the new members of the community.
These refer to ______.
a. extended group
b. static group
d. encounter group
97. This serves as a “safety valve” within the community
which is usually high pressured and structured. It is a forum
for members of the community to verbally express pent-up
or negative emotions within a structured and safe
environment without resorting to violence or aggression
and without fear of reprisal.
a. extended group
b. static group
d. encounter group
98. This is done to ensure that the resident to be
released is/are well-prepared to face new challenges in
the community upon their reintegration into the
mainstream of society.
a. Post released interview
b. Pre-release interview
c. Pre-interview
d. Post interview
99. It refers to our belief in the client’s ability to make
appropriate decisions and deal appropriately with his
or her life situation.
a. warmth
b. respect
c. empathy
d. confidentiality
100. It is also called “unconditional positive regard”. It
involves accepting and caring about the client as a
person, regardless of any evaluation or prejudices
about the client’s behavior or thoughts. It is most often
conveyed through our non-verbal behavior or bodily
gestures.
a. warmth
b. respect
c. empathy
d. confidentiality
101. The Probation officer may authorize a probationer to
travel outside his area of operational territorial jurisdiction for
a period of
a. 1-5 days
b. 5-10 days
c. 10-30 days
d. 30 days
The Probation and Parole Officer may authorize the
probationer to travel outside the area of the operation
for a period of 10 days but not exceeding 30 days
102. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer.
However, control over the probationer and probation program
is exercised by_____.
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides

b. The Parole and Probation Administrator
c. The Secretary of Justice
d. The Court who placed him on probation
103. Among the following, which has the authority
to grant parole?
a. President
c. Director of Prison
d. Court
Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
The Board of Pardons and Parole was created pursuant to Act No.
4103, as amended. It is the intent of the law to uplift and redeem
valuable human material to economic usefulness and to prevent
unnecessary and excessive deprivation of personal liberty.
Functions
(i) To grant parole to qualified prisoners;
(ii) to recommend to the President the grant of pardon and other forms
of executive clemency;
(iii) to authorize the transfer of residence of parolees and pardonees,
order their arrest and recommitment, or grant their final release and
discharge.
104. Is the court order revoking the grant of probation
appealable?
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable
c. It depends on the outcome of the investigation
d. It depends on the violations committed
Section 4 of Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended by PD 1257
An order granting or denying probation shall not be

appealable.
105. When the prisoner is pardoned under
certain administrative requirements like reporting
monthly to a judge for a certain number of years,
it is __________.
a. Situational pardon
b. Pardon
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon
PART 4
106. The jail warden generally exercises supervision and
control over all personnel in the jail unit and the inmates in
all matters related to the following, EXCEPT.
a. Human rights and observe the code of conduct.
b. Promote personal and professional growth of
subordinates.
c. Leads and enforces a high standard of discipline among
his personnel.
d. Acts as chairman of the inmate’s disciplinary machinery.
107. How many hours is the duration of stay in the
viewing of the deceased relative of an inmate?
a. 3
b. 12
c. 6
d. 2
108. For amnesty to be granted, there should be
_____.
a. Recommendation from the human rights
b. Application for amnesty
c. Concurrence of Congress
d. Recommendation for UN
109. It is the authority of the President of the
Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty,
reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole
B. Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D. President's clemency
110. Takes charge of financial matters especially in
programming, budgeting, accounting, and other activities
related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares
financial reports and related statements of subsistence
outlays and disbursements in the operational of the jail.
A. Budget and finance branch

B. General services branch
C. Property and supply branch
D. Mess services branch
111. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the
following instances.
A. Murder
B. Brigandage
C. Rape
D. Impeachment
112. It refers to the commission of another crime
during the service of a sentence of the penalty
imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City prisoner
113. Under Indeterminate Sentence Law, who
acts as the chairman of the Board of Pardons and
Parole?
a. PNP chief
b. Chief Executive
c. DOJ Secretary
d. DILG Secretary
114. Probation is only granted ___________.
a. Many times
b. Twice
c. Thrice
d. Once
115. A convict whose application for probation
has been granted but fails to report to the
probation officer within 72 hours upon receipt of
notice is __________.
a. Fugitive from justice
b. Absconding probationer
c. Wanted person
d. Absconding petitioner
116. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall
not be permitted to enter the place designated in the
sentence or within the radius therein specified, which
shall not be more than 250 and not less than 25
kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. Destierro
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day
117. The deferment of execution of sentence is
called ________.
A. Reprieve
B. Pardon
C. Communication
D. Amnesty
118. It is an act of clemency which changes a
heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer
term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. Probation
119. An act of grace and the recipient is not
entitled to it as a matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. GCTA
120. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent
in the state which exempts an individual from the
punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his
crime, extended by the President thru the
recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is
called?
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation
121. Under the prison rules, who is charged for
the hearing of disciplinary cases in prison?
A. Classification Board
B. Parole Board
C. Administrative Board
D. Disciplinary Board
122. Who ensures all personalities entering the
jail facility are properly identified, recorded, and
have undergone security procedures?
a. Searcher
b. Intelligence officer
c. Investigation officer
d. Gate security personnel
123. Who processes all documentary requirements
before the release of PDL, and checks PDL records to
ensure that the data in the release order is consistent
with the data in the PDL's carpeta?
a. Desk officer
b. Custodial officer
c. Escort officer
d. Releasing Officer
124. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed
when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and
conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits a
violation report to the Board of Pardon and Parole
2. Upon receipt of the violation report, the Board orders the arrest
of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds that the
continuation of his parole is incompatible with public welfare
4. The parolee is made to pay a fine for his infraction
a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 4, 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 3, 4 and 1
125. When the parolee reports for supervision, the
probation and parole officer concerned shall
immediately inform the board, through the technical
service of the parole and probation administration, of
such fact by submitting the necessary ___________.
a. arrival report
b. violation report
c. post sentence report
d. summary report
126. The one who checks the credentials of the person
bringing the inmate to determine the identity and
authority.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
d. Property Custodian
127. This unit examines the completeness and
authenticity of the requirements for Commitment
(Commitment Order, Booking Sheet, Arrest Report, and
Information) before it refers the inmate for physical
examination by the Health Unit.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
128. This unit checks the authenticity of the entries in
the medical certificate; conducts thorough physical
examination of the inmate to determine his or her true
physical condition.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
129. This unit receives the inmate and the documents,
conducts booking procedures, apprises the inmate in a
dialect that he/she understands of the provisions of Art
29 of the RPC, facilitates the signing of the detainee’s
manifestation and stores all documents in the inmate’s
carpeta.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
130. This unit checks the inmate’s belongings for the
presence of contraband, takes all cash and other
personal properties from the inmate, keeps all cash and
other valuables of the inmate in a safety vault, and
refers the inmate to the desk officer.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
131. Who books the newly committed inmate in the jail
blotter; and assigns the inmate to a reception area, if
any, where he/she shall be scheduled for orientation on
jail rules and regulations?
a. Jail Warden
b. Records Unit
c. Property Custodian
d. Desk officer
132. This is tasked to conduct a background investigation of
inmates to determine the cell assignment, the appropriate
rehabilitative program, the type of supervision, and the degree
of custody and restrictions applicable to the inmate/s.
a. Jail Warden
b. Classification board
c. Disciplinary board
d. Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit
133. In the admission of an inmate in the BJMP, once
the inmate has undergone the registration process;
he/she will be temporarily housed at the ___________.
a. Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit (ICCU)
b. Directorate for Receptions and Diagnostics (DRD)
c. Reception and Diagnostics Center (RDC)
d. Halfway houses
134. In the BJMP, which is tasked to investigate
the facts of an alleged misconduct of an inmate
referred to it?
a. Classification board
b. Admission board
d. Board of trustees
135. Which team in BJMP shall serve as the last
resort in addressing crises in jail?
a. Special Tactics And Response (Star) Team
b. Quick Response Team (QRT)
c. Greyhound Force
d. Special Weapons and Tactics (SWAT) Team
136. It is created purposely to respond immediately and
efficiently and to contain, control, and solve in the shortest
possible time any form of jail incident/disturbance while
waiting for the arrival of reinforcement from the
National/Regional STAR team/s and friendly forces. Which
team of BJMP is being referred to?
c. Greyhound Force
137. A dynamic stand-alone client application software
that is used in Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology (BJMP) Jails nationwide in automating the
inmates’ records.
c. National Inmates’ Monitoring System (NIMS)
138. A search, which involves the visual inspection of
disrobed or partially disrobed subject.
a. RUB SEARCH
b. PAT/FRISK SEARCH
c. VISUAL BODY CAVITY SEARCH
d. STRIP SEARCH
139. A search, which involves the inspection of the anus
and/or vaginal area, generally requiring the subject to
bend over and spread the cheeks of the buttocks; to
squat and/or otherwise expose body cavity orifices.
a. RUB SEARCH
b. PAT/FRISK SEARCH
d. STRIP SEARCH
140. A search wherein the officer pats or squeezes
the subject’s clothing to attempt to detect
contraband.
a. RUB SEARCH
b. PAT/FRISK SEARCH
d. STRIP SEARCH
ANSWER 106-140
106. The jail warden generally exercises supervision
and control over all personnel in the jail unit and the
inmates in all matters related to the following, EXCEPT.
a. Human rights and observe the code of conduct.
b. Promote personal and professional growth of
subordinates.
c. Leads and enforces a high standard of discipline
among his personnel.
d. Acts as chairman of the inmate’s disciplinary
machinery. (Assistant Warden)
I. Jail Warden
1. The jail warden generally exercises supervision and control over all personnel in the
jail unit and the inmates in all matters related to the following:
a. Proper implementation of legal orders, rules and regulations, and directives
on jail operation and administration;
b. Administration of sanctions and other disciplinary actions on inmates and
reporting to higher authority those personnel under his command who willfully
disobey lawful order and commit any infraction of law; and
c. Conduct greyhound operations and inspections of jail facilities and premises.
2. Looks after the welfare of his men through awards, commendations and the like:
a. Leads and enforces a high standard of discipline among his personnel;
b. Endeavors to promote personal and professional growth of subordinates;
c. Observes fairness and impartiality in dealing with personnel and inmates; and
d. Always upholds human rights and observes the code of conduct.
I. Jail Warden
3. Assumes responsibility for the formulation and implementation of emergency plans to
preclude the occurrence of jail incidents and disturbances. He shall act as adviser to the
PA as regards the implementation of plans, programs, and policies of the Jail Bureau;
4. Delegates work activities to his subordinates and ensures their accomplishment
through an effective monitoring system;
5. Ensures proper use and maintenance of equipment;
6. Coordinates with Gos or NGOs and/or the media groups;
7. Acts on other matters as his PA and/or RD may direct;
8. Submits spot reports, if necessary, to higher offices;
9. Turnover duties and responsibilities including supplies, logistical funds, organic
equipment, records, paraphernalia, books, and magazines to the incoming jail warden
upon relief or such needed records, supplies, and equipment to his designated OIC
during his absence; and
10. Performs such other functions as higher offices may direct
II. Assistant Warden
1. Assumes the duties and responsibilities appurtenant to
the warden in the latter’s absence;
2. Assists the jail warden in the implementation of plans,
programs and policies of the Jail Bureau;
3. Assists the jail warden in the supervision and monitoring
of various projects, programs and policies of the Jail Unit;
4. Assists the jail warden in the over-all management of
the jail unit; and
5. Acts as chairman of the inmate’s disciplinary machinery.
107. How many hours is the duration of stay in
the viewing of the deceased relative of an
inmate? RULES ON FURLOUGH
a. 3 – Not more than 30 km. radius from the
facility
prison
b. 12 – More than 30 km but you can return in daylight

time
c. 6 – Duration is for 3 hours only
– Cannot join the funeral procession
d. 2 – Request at least 3 days before the date of visit
– Approved by the trial court
– Inmates confined in maximum security prison
compounds are disqualified to avail the privilege of
furlough
108. For amnesty to be granted, there should be
_____.
a. Recommendation from the human rights
b. Application for amnesty
c. Concurrence of Congress- - 2/3
d. Recommendation for UN
1987 Philippine Constitution, SECTION 19.
• Except in cases of impeachment, or as otherwise provided in this Constitution,
the President may grant reprieves, commutations and pardons, and remit fines
and forfeitures, after conviction by final judgment.
• He shall also have the power to grant amnesty with the concurrence of a
majority of all the Members of the Congress.
109. It is the authority of the President of the
Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty,
reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.
A. Parole
B. Executive clemency
C. Pardon
D. President's clemency
110. Takes charge of financial matters especially in
programming, budgeting, accounting, and other activities
related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares
financial reports and related statements of subsistence
outlays and disbursements in the operational of the jail.
A. Budget and finance branch

B. General services branch
C. Property and supply branch
D. Mess services branch
111. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. Murder
B. Brigandage
C. Rape
D. Impeachment
1987 Philippine Constitution, SECTION 19.

Except in cases of impeachment, or as otherwise provided in this
Constitution, the President may grant reprieves, commutations and
pardons, and remit fines and forfeitures, after conviction by final
judgment.
112. It refers to the commission of another crime
during the service of a sentence of the penalty
imposed for another previous offense.
A. Recidivism
B. Delinquency
C. Quasi-recidivism
D. City prisoner
113. Under Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as
the chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
a. PNP chief
b. Chief Executive
c. DOJ Secretary
d. DILG Secretary
SEC. 3. There is hereby created a Board of Pardons and
Parole to be composed of the Secretary of Justice who
shall be its chairman, and four members to be
appointed by the President, with the consent of the
Commission on Appointments who shall hold office for a
term of six years
114. Probation is only granted ___________.
a. Many times
b. Twice
c. Thrice
d. Once
115. A convict whose application for probation
has been granted but fails to report to the
probation officer within 72 hours upon receipt of
notice is __________.
a. Fugitive from justice
b. Absconding probationer
c. Wanted person
d. Absconding petitioner
116. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall
not be permitted to enter the place designated in the
sentence or within the radius therein specified, which
shall not be more than 250 and not less than 25
kilometers from the place designated.
A. Fine
B. Destierro
C. P22.00/day
D. P19.00/day
117. The deferment of execution of sentence is
called ________.
A. Reprieve
B. Pardon
C. Communication
D. Amnesty
118. It is an act of clemency which changes a
heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer
term to a shorter term.
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Reprieve
D. Probation
119. An act of grace and the recipient is not
entitled to it as a matter of right.
A. Pardon
B. Parole
C. Probation
D. GCTA
120. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent
in the state which exempts an individual from the
punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his
crime, extended by the President thru the
recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is
called?
A. Amnesty
B. Parole
C. Pardon
D. Probation
121. Under the prison rules, who is charged for
the hearing of disciplinary cases in prison?
COMPOSITION
CHAIRPERSON: ASSISTANT WARDEN
A. Classification Board
ASS.CHAIRPERSON: CHIEF, SECURITY AND
B. Parole Board CONTROL SECTION
C. Administrative Board MEMBER- CHIEF WELFARE AND

DEVELOPMENT SECTION
D. Disciplinary Board
MEMBER- HEALTH SERVICE UNIT
MEMBER- PARALEGAL UNIT

122. Who ensures all personalities entering the
jail facility are properly identified, recorded, and
have undergone security procedures?
a. Searcher
b. Intelligence officer
c. Investigation officer
d. Gate security personnel
Searcher
a. Conducts body search and inspection on PDL, visitors, and personnel
including their belongings, consistent with existing policies,
b. Inspects all parcels, packages, and communications consistent with existing
policies,
c. Inspects vehicles passing through the gates of the jail facility and those not
compliant with jail security requirements,
d. Ensures that security identifications are applied to all visitors entering the jail
facility;
e. Assists the visitors in signing the waiver before strip search or body cavity
search,
f. Ensures that contraband confiscated during search is properly handled and
recorded consistent with the existing policies, and
g. Reports all incidents that occurred to the Chief, Gate Security Unit for
appropriate disposition.
Intelligence officer
a. Monitors movement of PDL, personnel and visitors in jail,
b. Monitors irregularities and illegal activities in his/her area of
responsibility:
c. Coordinates with Intelligence Officers in other jails, Regional Offices
and other agencies and offices, and
d. Assists the Chief, Intelligence and Investigation Unit in the collection
and production of intelligence information and other intelligence and
counter-intelligence operations of the jail facility
Investigation officer
a. Investigates cases involving deaths, injuries, complaints and other
incidents in the jail facility,
b. Assists the Chief, Intelligence and Investigation Unit in the
investigation and monitoring of complaints/cases against PDL, service
providers and visitors, and
c. Prepares investigation reports for the prosecution of erring personnel
and PDL and other personalities involved.
Gate Security Personnel
a. Ensures that all personalities entering the jail facility
are properly identified, recorded and have undergone
security procedures,
b. Administers the usage of a biometrics system for
visitors in the jail, if available, and
c. Responds immediately to incidents within the area of
responsibility and reports the same to the Desk Officer
123. Who processes all documentary requirements
before the release of PDL, and checks PDL records to
ensure that the data in the release order is consistent
with the data in the PDL's carpeta?
a. Desk officer
b. Custodial officer
c. Escort officer
d. Releasing Officer
Desk Officer
a. Records the newly committed PDL in the jail blotter,
b. Accounts duty custodial personnel before guard
mounting:
c. Records accurate and complete entries of all activities
during the tour of duty including, but not limited to,
actual PDL counts, movement, and visits,
d. Records and reports all PDL infractions to the Officer of
the Day and/or the Jail Warden,
e. Maintains a system of key control and personally
accounts all keys before and after tour of duty
Custodial Officer
a. Conducts headcount at least 5 times a day or as necessary;
b. Implements all security management systems relating to
custodial activities such as, but not limited to, static and
dynamic security,
c. Prevents impending security breaches and acts upon identified
and/or observed threats during the tour of duty.
d. Responds immediately to incidents within the area of
responsibility and reports the same to the Desk Officer, and
e. Conducts cell searches at least once a day and gives assistance

during Greyhound Operations conducted by higher authorities.
Escort Officer
a. Identifies the PDL to be escorted and ensures that
the escorting schedule is consistent with the court
calendar,
b. Reports all updates to the Escort Supervisor
before, during, and after escorting
c. Conducts inspection of the vehicle to ensure that
it is road-worthy before transport, and
d. Ensures that all PDLs are properly restrained
before going out of jail.
Releasing Officer
a. Processes all documentary requirements prior to the
release of PDL;
b. Checks PDL records to ensure that the data in the
release order is consistent with the data in the PDL’s
carpeta (spelling of the name, offense, criminal Case
number, etc.).
c. Checks that the PDL has no other pending case/s
d. Routes the release paper to different signatories, and
e. Orients the PDL and provides needed support and
assistance prior to release.
124. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed
when the parolee commits an infraction of the terms and
conditions appearing in his Release Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits a
violation report to the Board of Pardon and Parole
2. Upon receipt of the violation report, the Board orders the arrest
of the parolee
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds that the
continuation of his parole is incompatible with public welfare
4. The parolee is made to pay a fine for his infraction
a. 2, 3 and 4 b. 4, 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 3 d. 3, 4 and 1
“RULE 3.12. Reports - The Probation and Parole Officer concerned
shall submit the following reports to the Board:
“a. A “Progress Report” on the conduct of the parolee while under
supervision;
“b. A “Status Report” when a parolee commits another offense
during the period of his parole supervision and the case filed against
him has not yet been decided by the court:
“c. An Infraction Report when the parolee has been subsequently
convicted of another crime;
“d. A Violation Report when a parolee commits any violation of the
terms and conditions appearing in his Release Document or any
serious deviation or non-observance of the obligations set forth in
the parole supervision program.”
125. When the parolee reports for supervision, the
probation and parole officer concerned shall
immediately inform the board, through the technical
service of the parole and probation administration, of
such fact by submitting the necessary ___________.
a. arrival report
b. violation report
c. post-sentence report
d. summary report- final report/basis for final release
and discharge.
126. The one who checks the credentials of the person
bringing the inmate to determine the identity and
authority.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater- also reviews the completeness of the following documents
before the person bringing an inmate/the committing officer is allowed to
enter the facility
127. This unit examines the completeness and
authenticity of the requirements for Commitment
(Commitment Order, Booking Sheet, Arrest Report, and
Information) before it refers the inmate for physical
examination by the Health Unit.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
128. This unit checks the authenticity of the entries in
the medical certificate; conducts thorough physical
examination of the inmate to determine his or her true
physical condition.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
129. This unit receives the inmate and the documents,
conducts booking procedures, apprises the inmate in a
dialect that he/she understands of the provisions of Art
29 of the RPC, facilitates the signing of the detainee’s
manifestation and stores all documents in the inmate’s
carpeta.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
130. This unit checks the inmate’s belongings for the
presence of contraband, takes all cash and other
personal properties from the inmate, keeps all cash and
other valuables of the inmate in a safety vault, and
refers the inmate to the desk officer.
a. Health Unit
b. Records Unit
c. Gater
131. Who books the newly committed inmate in the jail
blotter; and assigns the inmate to a reception area, if
any, where he/she shall be scheduled for orientation on
jail rules and regulations?
a. Jail Warden
b. Records Unit
c. Property Custodian
d. Desk officer
132. This is tasked to conduct a background investigation of
inmates to determine the cell assignment, the appropriate
rehabilitative program, the type of supervision, and the degree
of custody and restrictions applicable to the inmate/s.
a. Jail Warden
b. Classification board
d. Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit
Section 22. CLASSIFICATION BOARD
- Each jail shall maintain a classification board, if facilities and personnel
are available, to be composed of the following:
• Chairperson - Assistant Warden
• Member - Chief, Custodial/Security Office
• Member - Medical Officer/Public Health Officer
• Member - Jail Chaplain
• Member - Inmates Welfare and Development Officer
Section 23. DUTIES AND FUNCTIONS OF THE
CLASSIFICATION BOARD
The investigation shall focus on the following:
a. Facts and data of the present case;
b. Inmate's recent criminal history and the facts about the inmate’s
attitudes and behavior while confined in other institutions, if the inmate is
a recidivist or a habitual delinquent;
c. Biography or life history;
d. Medical History;
e. Vocational, recreational, educational and religious background/interests;
f. Psychological characteristics as evaluated by the psychiatrist and
psychologist.
133. In the admission of an inmate in the BJMP, once the
inmate has undergone the registration process; he/she will
be temporarily housed at the ___________.
a. Inmate Classification and Counseling Unit (ICCU)
b. Directorate for Receptions and Diagnostics (DRD)
c. Reception and Diagnostics Center (RDC)
d. Halfway houses
* Minimum period of thirty (30) days but not exceeding sixty
(60) days or until the completion of the classification process.
* DRD - bucor
134. In the BJMP, which is tasked to investigate
the facts of an alleged misconduct of an inmate
referred to it?
a. Classification board
b. Admission board
d. Board of trustees
135. Which team in BJMP shall serve as the last
resort in addressing crises in jail?
c. Greyhound Force
136. It is created purposely to respond immediately and
efficiently and to contain, control, and solve in the shortest
possible time any form of jail incident/disturbance while
waiting for the arrival of reinforcement from the
National/Regional STAR team/s and friendly forces. Which
team of BJMP is being referred to?
c. Greyhound Force
It is imperative that all jails nationwide have Quick Response Team/s (QRT).
137. A dynamic stand-alone client application software
that is used in Bureau of Jail Management and
Penology (BJMP) Jails nationwide in automating the
inmates’ records.
c. National Inmates’ Monitoring System (NIMS)
138. A search, which involves the visual inspection of
disrobed or partially disrobed subject.
a. RUB SEARCH
b. PAT/FRISK SEARCH
d. STRIP SEARCH
139. A search, which involves the inspection of the anus
and/or vaginal area, generally requiring the subject to
bend over and spread the cheeks of the buttocks; to
squat and/or otherwise expose body cavity orifices.
a. RUB SEARCH
b. PAT/FRISK SEARCH
d. STRIP SEARCH
140. A search wherein the officer pats or squeezes
the subject’s clothing to attempt to detect
contraband.
a. RUB SEARCH
b. PAT/FRISK SEARCH
d. STRIP SEARCH
PART 5/ BONUS ROUND
141. When is probation revocable before the final
discharge of the probationer by the court for the
violation of any of the conditions of probation?
a. Any time during probation
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
c. After 1 year under probation
d. 15 days after probation is granted
142. Modifications of conditions for probation are
allowed ___.
a. 15 days after granting it
b. At any time during supervision
c. Upon the application of the community
d. Any of these
143. Who is authorized to modify the condition of
probation?
a. Judge
b. Probationer
d. All of the above
144. Which agency handles the investigation of
petitioners for probation, and the supervision of
probationers, parolees, and conditional pardonees?
a. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Secretary of Justice
145. The Post Sentence Investigation Report which will
serve as a guide for the court granting or denying the
application is ________.
A. optional
B. jurisdictional
C. mandatory
D. required
ANSWER 141-145
141. When is probation revocable before the final
discharge of the probationer by the court for the
violation of any of the conditions of probation?
a. Any time during probation
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer
c. After 1 year under probation
d. 15 days after probation is granted
142. Modifications of conditions for probation are
allowed ___.
a. 15 days after granting it
b. At any time during supervision
c. Upon the application of the community
d. Any of these
143. Who is authorized to modify the condition of
probation?
a. Judge
b. Probationer
d. All of the above
144. Which agency handles the investigation of
petitioners for probation, and the supervision of
probationers, parolees, and conditional pardonees?
a. Parole and Probation Administration
b. Board of Pardons and Parole- – grants parole; recommends the
grant of executive clemency
c. Secretary of Justice
145. The Post Sentence Investigation Report which will
serve as a guide for the court granting or denying the
application is ________.
A. optional
B. jurisdictional
C. mandatory
D. required

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CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

PREPARED BY: ALDEMEIR P. ALIPIO RCrim. MSCJ(U)

a. 2 and 3 b. 4 and 1 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4

b. Chairman of the Civil Service

a. 2 and 3 b. 4 and 1 c. 1 and 2 d. 3 and 4

2. NUISANCE CONTRABANDS – PROHIBITED BY JAIL (INSIDE)

Note: rub, strip, cavity = gender basis

Chief executive = President

Note: all assistant directors has a rank of Asec.

a. Secretary of DILG- RECOMMENDATION

b. Chairman of the Civil Service Commission- PROPER

c. President- APPOINTS THE NEW DIRECTOR

c) Fire/Jail Senior Superintendent.

d) Fire/ Jail Chief Superintendent To Fire/Jail Director.

1. Fact-finding investigation order of the court to the

d. Judge of the trial court

1. It may not be exercised for offenses in impeachment

4. In case of violation of election law or rules and

A. By a building/special institution for different class of prisoners

B. Providing separate facilities within a single institution itself, that is

The DRD shall be responsible for the conduct of

2. So far as possible, separate prisons or separate sections of a prison

A. Escape Prone Prisoner

a. Court releases the probationer to the community

OMNIBUS RULES ON PROBATION

ALL of whom are appointed by the President upon the recommendation

• "ART. 99. Who grants time allowances?

A. Escape Prone Prisoner

a. Court releases the probationer to the community

The prisoner shall have served at least one-half (1/2) of the

2. Discretionary (added condition)(minor = max 5 ➔ revoke)

2/5 of his period – remain even during

a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides

b. Warden The Corrections Superintendent’s role is

Phase II- Primary Treatment

a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she resides

Section 4 of Presidential Decree No. 968, as amended by PD 1257

An order granting or denying probation shall not be

A. Budget and finance branch

b. 12 – More than 30 km but you can return in daylight

A. Budget and finance branch

1987 Philippine Constitution, SECTION 19.

C. Administrative Board MEMBER- CHIEF WELFARE AND

MEMBER- PARALEGAL UNIT

e. Conducts cell searches at least once a day and gives assistance

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