QUESTION 1

Emmanuel Miller Jumped out of the

window, what has he done?

A. Work
B. Exercise
C. Pick nick
D. Playing
QUESTION 2
An object of mass 100kg is released from
rest and falls through a distance of 10m.
What is the work done by gravity
QUESTION 3
The work done when a perpendicular
force is applied to a body in horizontal
motion is
A. 90J
B. 10J
C. maximum
D. zero
QUESTION 4
Determine the kinetic energy of a girl of
Mass 40kg running with a velocity of 3m/s

A. 150J
B. 180J
C. 10J
D. 120J
QUESTION 5
A ball of mass 0.4kg is dropped from a
height of 30m. Determine the potential
energy on impact to the ground.
A. 120J
B. 100J
C. 70J
D. 102J
QUESTION 6 Gravitational and electric field are
Sometimes referred to as conservative
Force fields because work done on this
field depends on
A. Path
B. Position
C. Energy
D. Strength
QUESTION 7 Which of these is an example of a non-
renewable energy

A. Solar
B. Wind
C. Coal
D. Hydro
QUESTION 8 A rocket of mass 40,000kg propelled by a
Force of N acquires a speed of
3000m/s, determine the power expended
QUESTION 9 An ideal machine is one with efficiency
of

A. 100%
B. 0%
C. 50%
D. 80%
QUESTION 10 If there are 5 pulleys in a block and a
tackle, the velocity ratio is

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 2
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is dimensionally
correct?

A. Ft = mv - u
B. Ft = mv -mu
C. Ft = mv - ut
D. F = mv - mu
QUESTION 12You swing a 3.3kg stone in a circle of radius
85 cm. At what speed you swing it, so its
centripetal acceleration will be 9.8
A. 3.3 m/s
B. 2.5 m/s
C. 2.7 m/s
D. 2.9 m/s
QUESTION 13 The position of an object moving along the
x axis is given by x = 3t – 5+ where x is in
meters and t in seconds what is the
position of the object at t = 5 s?
A. 13 m
B. 15 m
C. 9 m
D. 12 m
QUESTION 14 A strobe photograph of a car moving along a straight
road shows the interval between each successive
image to be diminishing. If the direction of motion of
the car is taken positive, which of the following is/are
negative?

A. The average acceleration of the car

B. The average velocity of the car
C. The speed of the car
D. All of the above
QUESTION 15 If vector has a component and then the
magnitude of is

A. -5
B. -7
C. 6.4
D. 5
QUESTION 16 In a baseball game, a batter hits a picked ball that
goes straight up in the air above home plate. At the
top of its motion, the ball is momentarily motionless.
At this point

A. The acceleration is zero because the motion is changing from

slowing down to speeding up
B. The acceleration is 9.8 m/ downward
C. The acceleration is zero because at that instant the force from
the impact with the bat is balanced by the pull of earth
D. The acceleration is zero because the ball is motionless at that
instant
QUESTION 17 Suppose an equation relating position x =
+ where b and c are constants. The
dimension of b and c are respectively

A. ,
B. ,
C. ,
D. 1 , 1
QUESTION 18 In a baseball pitcher throws a fastball at a horizontal
speed of 180 km/h, how long does the ball take to
reach home plate 28.4 m away?

A. 568 ms
B. 441 ms
C. 184 ms
D. 414 ms
QUESTION 19 Tari pushes a refrigerator with a steady force = (150
N)i + (30 N)j. The displacement of the refrigerator is
= (16 m)I – (30 m)J. How much work does Tari do in
moving the refrigerator?

A. 1.8 ×
B. 1.5 ×
C. 1.8 ×
D. 1.7 ×
QUESTION 20 The following force vector act on an object 50.0N at
45.0⁰ north of east and 25.0 N at 30.0⁰ south of east.
Which of the following represents the magnitude of
the resultant and its angel relative to the easterly
direction?

A. 12.8N, 37.5⁰
B. 61.4N, 21.8⁰
C. 75.0N, 7.5⁰
D. 23.4 N, 18.3⁰
QUESTION 21 What must be the orbital speed of a satellite in a
circular orbit 780 km above the surface of the earth?

A. 7.46 ×
B. 6.47 ×
C. 7.64×
D. 6.76 ×
QUESTION 22 A stone of mass m is attached to a strong string and
whirled in a vertical circle of radius R. At the lowest
point of the path, the tension in the string is six
times the stone’s weight. The stone’s speed at this
point is given by

A.
B. 5
C.
D.
QUESTION 23
A man pushes at constant speed a 50kg
refrigerator a distance of 14 m across a level
floor where coefficient of friction is 0.40. how
much work does he do
A. 2740J
B. 3000J
C. 2470J
D. 2500J
QUESTION 24 Two ropes are attached to a 40 kg object. The first
rope applied a force at 25 N and the second 40 N. if
the two ropes are perpendicular to each other, what
is the resultant acceleration of the object?

A. 3.0
B. 25.0
C. 1.2
D. 47.0
QUESTION 25
A baseball thrown from the out field is released from
shoulder height at an initial velocity of 29.4 m/s at an
angle of 30.0⁰ with respect to the horizontal. If it is in
its trajectory for a total of 3.00 a before being caught
by the third baseman at an equal shoulder height
level, what is the hall’s net vertical displacement
during the trajectory?
A. 11.0 m
B. 22.1 m
C. Zero
D. 9.80 m
QUESTION 26
A ball of mass 0.4 kg is dropped from a
height of 40 m. determine the potential
energy on impact on the ground (take g =10m/s)
A. 120 J
B. 100 J
C. 70 J
D. 160 J
QUESTION 27
An aircraft flies 700km due east and then
400km due north. Determine the
magnitude of its displacement
A. 806 km
B. 2000 km
C. 1000 km
D. 1400 km
QUESTION 28 A revolver of mass 5.6 kg releases a bullet of mass
0.05 kg at a speed of 200 m/s. find the revolver’s
speed of recoil

A. 1.56
B. 1.79
C. 1.67
D. 1.27
QUESTION 29 In a velocity-time graph , what is the area under the
curve represents ?

A. The time taken

B. The velocity
C. The total distance
D. The acceleration
QUESTION 30 If D = 9i – 3j + 3k and E = 4i + 3j – 3k. Find
the scaler product of D.E

A. 5
B. 6
C. 18
D. 4
QUESTION 31 The direction cosines of vector
A* = 3i * + j*- 2k* is

A. 1 = m=n=-
B. 1 = m=n=-
C. 1 = m=n=
D. 1 = m=n=-
QUESTION 32 The statement about conservation of
momentum applies when

A. Initial momenta equals the negative of the force.

B. Final momenta equal kinetic energy of the
particles
C. Final momenta equal initial momenta of the
colliding particles
D. Initial momenta equal potential energy of the
particles
QUESTION 33 When a drag strip vehicle reaches a velocity of 6.0
m/s, it begins a negative acceleration by releasing a
drag chute and applying its brakes. While reducing
its velocity back to zero, its acceleration along a
straight line path is a constant 7.0 . what is the
displacement does it undergo during this
acceleration period?
A. 160
B. 80
C. 240
D. 40
QUESTION 34 When the object appears weightless then

A. Its downward acceleration is equal that of gravity

B. Its apparent weight greater than the real weight
C. The apparent weight is less than the real weight
D. The body is accelerating upwards
QUESTION 35 A machine of efficiency of 70% is used to raise a
body of mass 80 kg through a vertical distance
of 3m in 40 second. Calculate the power input
(take g =

A. 86
B. 20
C. 100
D. 30
QUESTION 36 A body on the circular orbit makes an angular
displacement given by =2 if times t is in second.
Calculate the angular velocity at t = 2s.

A. 12 rad/s
B. 13 rad/s
C. 23 rad/s
D. 9 rad/s
QUESTION 37 A 10 kg mass and a 2.0 kg mass are connected
by a light string over a massless, string less
pulley. What is the acceleration of system when
released (g = 9.8 m/)

A. 7.8 m/
B. 6.5 m/
C. 2.5 m/
D. 9.8 m/
QUESTION 38 The moment of inertia for a solid sphere of
mass and radius r is given as
QUESTION 39
Newton’s law of restitution states that

A. = e(- )
B. = -e(- )
C. = e(- )
D. = e(- )
 QUESTION 40 Two projectiles are launched at 100m/s the
angle of elevation of the first being 30 and for
the second 60 which of the statement is false?

A. Both projectiles have the same acceleration while

in flight
B. The second projectile has the lower speed at.
C. Both projectiles have the same range
D. All of the above statement are false
QUESTION 41 A footballer kicks a ball at an angle of 45 with
the horizontal if the ball was in the air for 10s
and lands 4000 m away determine its initial
speed

A. 200 m/s
B. 20 m/s
C. 4000 m/s
D. 40 m/s
 Which of the following is/are correct about Newton’s law of motion
I. Newton’s first law of motion is the otherwise known as law of inertia
II. The rate of change of linear moment is not directly proportional to
the applied force
III. Ft =impulse
A I & II only
B I & III only
C I, II and III only
D II only
 An object of mass 10kg rests on a frictionless horizontal surface.
How large an acceleration will undergo if a horizontal force of 12N acts
on it

A 1
B 1.2
C 2.2
D 1.5
 A body of 6kg undergoes a constant horizontal acceleration of 2.
Calculate the resultant horizontal force acting on the body. What will be
the resultant force on the body when it moves with a uniform velocity of
5

A 12 N, 0 N
B 12 N, 3 N
C 12 N, 3 N
D 15 N, 4 N
 A 10kg block is at rest C constant force F acts on the block along x-axis.
At time, t = 2 secs the block moves 8 m. Find F ?

A 30N
B 40N
C 50N
D 60N
 Which of the following is the correct about Newton’s third law of motion?
I. When a person in a boat throws out a package, the boat moves in the
opposite direction.
II. If a moving car hits a stationary car B, the force exerted on B by A will be
the same as action of B on A
III. It has a very useful application in the operation of jet aeroplanes and
rockets.

A III only
B I & III only
C I, II & III only
D I & III only
 A revolver of mass 5kg releases a bullet of mass 0.10kg at a speed of
100m/s. Find the revolvers speed recoil?

A 3 m/s
B 4 m/s
C 2 m/s
D 3.5 m/s
 A car of mass 200 kg, moving with a forward acceleration of 3 is
acted upon by a constant resistive force of 500 N. Calculate the force
exerted from the engine to maintain this forward acceleration

A 1000 N
B 1100 N
C 1200 N
D 1300 N
 Which of the following is/are ways of reducing the effect of friction.
I. Lubrication
II. Streamlining
III. Polishing the surfaces in contact
IV. Pouring water on the surface of the contact
A I, II & IV only
B I, II & III only
C IV only
D I only
 An object of mass 5kg rests on a plane. The coefficient of static friction is
0.2 Find, the maximum value of for which the object remains at rest
on the plane.

A 11.3
B 17.0
C 12.0
D 13.2
 What is the weight of a 60kg astronaut on the moon g = 1.7

A 100 N
B 120 N
C 102 N
D 110 N
 Margret jumped out of the window, what has she done?

A Work
B Exercise
C Pick nick
D Playing
An object of mass 100 kg is released from rest and and falls through a
distance of 10m. What is the work done by gravity.

A J
B J
C J
D J
The work done when a perpendicular force is applied to a body in horizontal
Motion is
A 90 J
B 10 J
C maximum
D zero
Determine the kinetic energy of a girl of mass 40kg running with a velocity
of 3 m/s.

A 150 J
B 180 J
C 100 J
D 120 J
 A ball of mass 0.4 kg is dropped from a height 30m. Determine the
potential energy

A 120 J
B 100 J
C 70 J
D 102 J
 Gravitational and Electric fields are sometimes referred to as conservative
force fields because work done in these fields depends on

A Path
B Position
C Energy
D Strength
 Which of these is an example of non-renewable energy

A Solar
B Wind
C Coal
D Hydro
 A rocket of mass 40,000kg propelled by a force of acquires a speed
of 3000 m/s determine the power expended

A 2 watts

B 1 watts

C 4 watts

D 3 watts
 An ideal machine is one with efficiency of

A 100%
B 0%
C 50%
D 80%
 If there are 5 pulleys in a block and tackle, then the velocity ratio is

A 4
B 5
C 6
D 2
 The statement about conservation of momentum applies when

A Initial momenta equals the negative of the force

B Final momenta equals initial momenta
C Initial momenta equals sum of kinetic energies of all colliding particles
D Vector sum of momenta of colliding bodies equal the vector sum of
momenta after collision
 An elastic collision is one in which

A Total potential and kinetic energies are conserved

B Total kinetic energy and momentum are conserved
C Kinetic energy equals potential energy before and after collision
D All the above
 A body of 2.0 kg mass makes an elastic collision with another at rest and
continues to move in the original direction but of its original speed.
What is the mass of the struck body ?

A 3.0 kg
B 1.2 kg
C 0.25 kg
D 7 kg
 A bullet of mass 10 g strikes a ballistic pendulum of mass 2.0 kg.
The centre of mass of the pendulum is a vertical distance of 12 cm.
Assuming the bullet remains embedded in the pendulum,
calculate the initial speed

A 210 m/s
B 40 m/s
C 310 m/s
D 2 m/s
 Which of the following has a positive charge?

A Proton
B Neutron
C Anion
D Electron
E Atom
Rutherford carried out experiments in which a beam of alpha particles
was directed at a thin piece of metal foil. From these experiments he
concluded that:

A Electrons are massive particles

The positive charged parts of atoms are moving about with a velocity
B approaching the speed of light

C The positively charged parts of atoms are extremely small and extremely heavy
particles

D The diameter of an electron is approximately equal to that of the molecule

E Electrons travel in circular orbits around the nucleus.

Consider the species 72
Zn, 75As, and 74
Ge. These species have:

A The same number of electrons.

B The same number of protons.

C The same number of neutrons.

D The same number of protons and neutrons.

E The same mass number.

The neutral atoms of all of the isotopes of the same elements have

A Different numbers of protons.

B Equal numbers of neutrons

C The same number of electrons

D The same mass numbers

E The same masses

What is the atomic weight of a hypothetical element consisting of two
isotopes, one with mass = 64.23 amu (26.0%) and one with mass= 65.32
amu

A 65.3 amu

B 64.4 amu

C 64.9 amu

D 65.0 amu

E 64.8 amu
Natural occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. One of the
isotopes consists of atoms having a mass of 84.912 amu; the other of 86.
901 amu. What is the percent natural abundance of the heavier isotope?

A 15%

B 28%

C 37%

D 72%

E 85%
What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of cm

A
B
C
D
E
The emission spectrum of gold shows a line of wavelength m. How much
energy is emitted as the excited electrons falls to the lower energy level?

A J

B J

C J

D J

E J
Which of the responses contains all the statements that are consistent with the Bohr theory of
the atom (and no others)?
1. An electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continually absorbs radiation of
a definite frequency.
2. The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus.
3. An electron can jump from K shell (n=1 major energy level) to the M shell (n=3 major
energy level) by emitting radiation of a definite frequency

A 1, 2, 3

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1, 2

E 2, 3
The Heisenberg Principles states that ………………………….

A No two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.

B Two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons.

C It is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an

electron simultaneously.

D Electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of

orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set.

E Charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they are in motion
Which statement about the four quantum numbers which describe
electrons in atoms is incorrect?

A n= principal quantum number, n- 1, 2, 3, …………..

B l= subsidiary (or azimuthal) quantum number, l= 1, 2, 3, … , (n+1)

C ml= magnetic quantum number, ml= (-l), …. , 0, …. , (+l)

D ms= spin quantum number, ms= +1/2 or -1/2.

E The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of atomic orbitals in

space
Which atomic orbital is spherical in shape? (Note: you should know and
be able to recognize the shapes of the s orbital, px, py and pz orbitals and
dxy, dyz, dxz, dx2y2 and dz2 orbitals)

A 2s

B 3p

C 3d

D 4f

E They are all spherical

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a
sublevel for which l=3 is

A 2.

B 10

C 6

D 14

E 8
 The ground state electronic configuration for arsenic is:

A [Ar]

B [Kr]

C 𝟏 𝒔 𝟐𝒔 𝟐 𝒑 𝟑 𝒔 𝟑 𝒑 𝟑𝒅 𝟒 𝒔 𝟒 𝒑
𝟐 𝟐 𝟔 𝟐 𝟔 𝟏𝟐 𝟐 𝟏

D
E
Which of the following electronic configuration is correct for Nickel

A [Ar]

B [Kr]

C [Kr]

D [Kr]

E [Ar]
The outer electronic configuration corresponds to which of the following
elements in its ground state?

A As

B Ca

C Cr

D Br

E S
In the ground state of a cobalt atom there are …… unpaired electrons
and the atom is …………….

A 3, paramagnetic

B 5, paramagnetic

C 2, diamagnetic

D 0, diamagnetic

E 2, paramagnetic
Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers could be those of
the distinguishing (last) electron of Mo?

A n=4, l=1, ml =9, ms= +1/2,

B n=5, l=1, ml =9, ms= -1/2,

C n=4, l=2, ml = -1, ms= +1/2,

D n=5, l=2, ml =+2, ms= -1/2,

E n=3, l=2, ml =0, ms= +1/2,

How many p electrons are there in an atom of rubidium?

A 12

B 18

C 24

D 9

E 6
A natural atom of an element has 2 electrons in the first energy level,
8 in the second energy level and 8 in the third energy level. This
information does not necessarily tell us

A The atomic number of the element.

B Anything about the element’s chemical properties.

C The total number of electrons in s orbitals.

D The total number of electrons in p orbitals.

E The number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom of the element.

Which of the following determine the charge on the electron?

A Ernest Rutherford

B J . J Thompson

C Robert Millikan.

D Henry Mosley
What would characterize electrons in a cathode ray tube?

A Rays travel to the cathode

B Rays acquire a positive electric charge

C Rays are deflected to a positive electric plate

D Rays are moved by a paddle wheel

Which of the following should experience a greater nuclear charge?

A A 2p electron in oxygen

B 2p electron in neon

C A 2p electron in nitrogen

D A 2p electron in carbon
Predict the trend of atomic size across a period in a periodic table

A Atomic radii increase from left to right across a row

B Atomic radii decrease from left to right across a row

C Atomic radii increase from left to center and decrease from center to the right
across a row

Atomic radii decrease from left to center and increase from center to the right
D across a row
Predict the atom with the largest first ionization energy in the row: Na,
Mg, S, and Cl.

A Cl

B Mg

C Na

D S
What are the possible values of the quantum number m1 of an orbital
in the second shell?

A 0, +1, +1, +2, +2

B 0, -1, -1, -2, -2

C -2, -1, 0, +1, +2

D -1/2, +1/2, -1, +1, 0

Which of the following generalized electronic configurations belongs
to the halogens?

A [Noble gas] ns2np7

B [Noble gas] ns2np5

C [Noble gas] ns2 (n-1) d10np1

D [Noble gas] ns2 (n-1) d10np2

Which of the following compounds is ionic?

A Na2O

B N2O

C P4O6

D SF4
To which group of elements does Sulphur belong in the periodic
table?

A IV

B XIV

C XVI

D XVII
One of the following elements is a metalloid: P, Si, Al, Cd

A Si

B P

C Al

D Cd
One of the earliest thinkers of atomism was

A Socrates

B Aristotle

C Democritus

D Dalton
The valence electrons of representative elements are

A In s orbitals only

B located in the outermost occupied major energy level

C located closest to the nucleus

D located in d orbitals
Which of the following does not have a noble gas electronic
configuration?

A S2-

B Ba+

C Al3+

D Sb3-
Which of the following formulas for ionic compounds below is
incorrect?

A SrCl2

B Cs2S

C AlCl3

D Al3P2
Which of the following bonds is considered as nonpolar covalent?

A The H-I bond in HI

B The H-S bond in H2S

C The P-Cl bond in PCl3

D The N-Cl bond in NCl3.

Which one of the compound below is most likely to be Ionic?

A GaAs

B ScCl3

C NO2

D CCl4
The correct electron/dash structure for hydrogen cyanide is:

A 2 double bonds and two lone pairs of electrons on the N atom

1 C-H bond, 1 C=N bond, 1 lone pair of electrons on the C atom and 1 lone pair of
B electron on the N atom.

C 1 C-H bond, 1 C-N bond, 2 lone pairs of electron on the C atom and 3 lone pairs of
pairs of electrons on the N atom.

D 1 triple bond between C and N, 1 C-H bond and 1 lone pair of electrons on the N
atom.
What is the total number of electrons in the correct Lewis dot formula
of the SO3

A 8

B 24

C 26

D 30
In the Lewis structure for the OF2 molecule, the number of lone pairs
of electrons around the central oxygen atom is

A 4

B 1

C 2

D 3
How many resonance forms are possible for the SO2 molecule

A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5
Which of the following violates the octet rule?

A PCl3

B CBr4

C NF3

D AsF5
Which of the following terms accurately describes the energy
associated with the process: Li(g) Li+(g) + e-

A Electron affinity

B Binding energy

C Ionization energy

D Electronegativity
One of the following is not a likely model of the Atom

A Fruit-cake model of the atom

B Nuclear model of the atom

C Protons and electrons model of the atom

D Niel Bohr’s model of the atom

Isotopes of elements are

A Atoms of the same element with different mass numbers

B Atoms of the same element with the same mass number

C Atoms of different elements with the same mass number

D Atoms of different elements with the same atomic number

One of the following is not a likely value of the azimuthal quantum
number when the principal quantum has a value of 3.

A 3

B 0

C 2.

D 1
In the Lewis dot structure of Phosphorus, the number of unpaired
electrons is

A 3

B 5

C 15

D 2
In the ground state electronic configuration of Copper, the number of
unpaired electrons is

A 0

B 4

C 2

D 6
In the ground state electronic configuration of Silicon, the number of
electrons in the third energy level is

A 8

B 6

C 17

D 18
 An atom having the nuclide formula has the following numbers of
electrons

A y

B y-z

C z

D y+z
In the ground state electronic configuration of Nitrogen, one of the
following is not likely to be the set of four quantum numbers for an
electron in the second energy level. n l ml ms

A 2 0 0 +1/2

B 2 1 0 +1/2

C 2 2 -2 +1/2

D 2 1 -1 +1/2
The multiplicity of orbitals in a magnetic field is obtained from the
following

A n-1

B – l --- 0 --- +l

C 2l + 1

D l+n
Calculate the energy of one photon of ultraviolet light at
=1 x 10-8m. [3.00 x 108m/s; h=1.66 x 10-34Js]

A 2 x 10-13J

B 2 x 10-17J

C 2 x 10-21J

D 2 x 10-19J
Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?

A N

B Ne

C F

D C
Naturally occurring rubidium consists of just two isotopes. One of the
isotopes consists of atoms having a mass of 84.912 amu; the other of
86.901 amu. What is the percent natural abudance of the heavier isotope?

A 15%

B 28%

C 37%

D 32%
Calculate the percent, by weight, of carbon in 154 g of C4H8O3

A 46%

B 31%

C 72%

D 27%

E 55%
What is the frequency of light having a wavelength of 4.50 x 10-6cm?

A 2.84 x 10-12s-1

B 2.10 x 104s-1

C 4.29 x 1014s-1

D 6.67 x 1015s-1
Which of the following atomic orbital is spherical in shape

A 2s

B 3p

C 3d

D 4f
The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a
sublevel for which l=3 is

A 2

B 10

C 6

D 14
The ground state electron configuration for arsenic is:

A 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 4s2 3d10 4s2 4p13

B 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4s2 4p1

C 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4s3

D 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8 4p5

The formula weight of the compound, Al2(SO4)3.18H2­O is:

A 394.4 g

B 666.4 g

C 110,900 g

D 466.8 g
How many atoms are in one mole of CH3OH?

A 6

B 6.0 x 1023

C 12.0 x 1023

D 3.6 x 1024
The mass in grams of 2.6 x 1022 chlorine atom is:

A 4.4

B 11

C 0.76

D 1.5
How many aluminum atoms are there in 3.50 grams of Al3O3

A 4.13 x 1022

B 4.90 x 1022

C 2.07 x 1022

D 1.68 x 1022
Analysis of a sample of a covalent compound showed that it
contained 14.4% hydrogen and 85.6% carbon by mass. What is the
empirical formula for the compound?

A CH

B CH2

C CH3

D C2H3
In the Rydberg equation, =RH[]

A n1=n2

B n1>n2

C n2>n1

D n2≥n1
An element has three isotopes. If the natural abundances of two of
the isotopes are x% and y% respectively, the natural abundance of
the third isotope is

A (x + y) %

B (x – y) %

C (x + y + 100) %

D 100 – (x + y) %
The energy of an electron in the third energy level is

A 145.7778kj

B -145.7778kj

C -2.4216 x 10-22kj

D 24.42155 x 10-23kj
An electron with frequency of 25.25 x 106Hz has energy of

A 25.25kj

B 1.673 x 10-23kj

C 6.626 x 10-31kj

D 3.0 x 10-8kj
The periodic table is an arrangement of the elements into rows and
columns in the order of their

A Atomic weights

B Densities

C Mass numbers

D Atomic numbers
The noble gases in the periodic table have their last electron go into
an s – orbital or a p – orbital but in addition have

A Completely filled d - orbitals

B 8 electrons in their outermost-shell except for helium

C Degenerate p - orbitals

D Very high electron affinities

The filling of electrons into various atomic orbitals is usually in
accordance with

A The Pauli Exclusion Principle

B Hund’s Rule

C Aufbau Principle

D The uncertainty principle

One of the following is not likely to be the ground state electronic
configuration of a transition metal

A 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8

B 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5

C 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1

D 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p6 6s2 4f5
In Newland’s law of the octaves, the elements were arranged in
terms of

A Increasing atomic weights

B increasing atomic numbers

C increasing mass numbers

D increasing density
The inner transition metals are characterized by having

A Their last electrons go into either an s-orbital or p-orbital

B Incompletely filled f-orbitals

C Incompletely filled d-orbitals

D Completely filled f-orbitals.

In any given group in the periodic table, atomic sizes

A Decrease from top to bottom

B Increase from top to bottom

C Remain the same from top to bottom

D None of the above

In the canonical structure of the the number of electrons involved in
bonding is

A 5

B 6

C 4

D 2
When atoms bond,

A Atomic weights

B Densities

C Mass numbers

D Atomic numbers
The correct dot formulation for nitrogen trichloride has:

A 3 N-Cl bonds and 10 lone pairs of electrons.

B 3 N=Cl bonds and 6 lone pairs of electrons.

C 1 N-Cl bond, 2 N=Cl bonds and 7 lone pairs of electrons.

D 2 N-Cl bonds, 1 N=Cl bond and 8 lone pairs of electrons.

The electronic structure of the SO2 molecule is best represented as a
resonance hybrid of ----- equivalent structures.

A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5
Consider the bicarbonate ion (also called the hydrogen carbonate
ion). After drawing the correct Lewis dot structures, you would see:

A Two double bonds around the central carbon atom

B Three single bonds around the central carbon atom

C Four single bonds around the central carbon atom.

D Two equivalent resonance forms.

Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals
decreases with increasing atomic weight?

A Ionic radii

B Ionization energy

C Atomic radii

D Atomic number
The triads are associated with

A Newlands

B Ivanovitch Mendeleev

C Dobereiner

D Lord Rutherford
The Modern Periodic law states that the properties of the elements
are functions of their

A Atomic masses

B Atomic weights

C Atomic numbers

D Mass numbers